ATI Pharmacology Quiz: Challenge Your Drug Knowledge

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1/91 Questions

A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing serotonin syndrome?
- Bruising
- Fever
- Abdominal pain
- Rash

About This Quiz

Welcome to ATI Pharm Questions: Week 6 to 10! Dive deeper into the world of pharmacology with this comprehensive quiz series designed to challenge your knowledge and prepare you for success.
In these five weeks of pharmaceutical exploration, you'll encounter a wide range of questions covering essential topics such as drug classifications, mechanisms of action, side effects, and dosage calculations. Whether you're a nursing student, a healthcare professional, or simply interested in pharmacology, these quizzes are here to sharpen your skills and reinforce your understanding.
Each week's set of questions is carefully crafted to provide a well-rounded review of pharmaceutical concepts. Put your knowledge to the test, track your progress, and gain confidence in your pharmacological expertise.
So, are you ready to embark on this educational journey? Click 'Start Quiz' and let's dive into the world of ATI Pharm Questions: Week 6 to 10. Good luck, and may your pharmaceutical knowledge flourish!

ATI Pharmacology Quiz: Challenge Your Drug Knowledge - Quiz

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2.

A nurse is teaching a client who has schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?
- Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
- Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
- Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
- Take an antacid to relieve nausea.
Correct Answer

A. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.

Explanation

A. Insomnia is not an anticholinergic effect.
B. CORRECT: Chewing sugarless gum can help the client cope
with dry mouth, a potential anticholinergic effect of uphenazine.
C. Fever is not an anticholinergic effect.
D. Nausea is not an anticholinergic effect.

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3.

A nurse is providing teaching for a male client who has schizophrenia and is taking risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- “Add extra snacks to your diet to prevent weight loss.”
- “Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.”
- “You may begin to have mild seizures while taking this medication.”
- “This medication is likely to increase your libido.”
Correct Answer

A. “Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.”

Explanation

A. Risperidone and other atypical antidepressants cause weight gain and the client should be taught to maintain a lower‐calorie balanced diet.
B. CORRECT: Gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea can occur due to an increase in prolactin levels while taking risperidone. The client should inform the provider if these manifestations occur.
C. Seizures are not an adverse effect of risperidone.
D. Sexual dysfunction, causing decreased libido and impotence are adverse effects of risperidone.

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4.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- “Rinse your mouth after each use of this medication.”
- “Limit fluid intake while taking this medication.”
- “Increase your intake of vitamin B12 while taking this medication.”
- “You can take the medication as needed.”
Correct Answer

A. “Rinse your mouth after each use of this medication.”

Explanation

A. CORRECT: The client should rinse her mouth after each use to reduce the risk of oral fungal infections.
B. A client who has asthma should increase uid intake to liquefy secretions, unless contraindicated by another condition.
C. Glucocorticoids place the client at risk for bone loss. There is no need for the client to increase her intake of vitamin B12. The client should ensure an adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D.
D. Beclomethasone is an inhaled glucocorticoid and is taken on a xed schedule.

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5.

A nurse in an acute care facility is caring for a client who is receiving IV nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?
- Intestinal ileus
- Neutropenia
- Delirium
- Hyperthermia
Correct Answer

A. Delirium

Explanation

A. headache is an adverse effect of nitroprusside, not intestinal ileus.
B. Bradycardia is an adverse effect of nitroprusside, not neutropenia.
C. CORRECT: Delirium and other mental status changes can occur in thiocyanate toxicity when IV nitroprusside is infused at a high dosage. monitor thiocyanate level during therapy to remain below 10 mg/dL.
D. hypotension is an adverse effect of nitroprusside, not hyperthermia.

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6.

A nurse is providing instructions to a female client who has a new prescription for zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- “Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.”
- “Take the medication 1 hr before you plan to go to sleep.” “Take the medication 1 hr before you plan to go to sleep.” “Take the medication 1 hr before you plan to go to sleep.”
- “Allow at least 6 hr for sleep when taking zolpidem.”
- “To increase the effectiveness of zolpidem, take it with a bedtime snack.”
Correct Answer

A. “Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.”

Explanation

A. CORRECT: Zolpidem is Pregnancy Risk Category C. The client should notify the provider if she plans to become pregnant.
B. Zolpidem should be taken at bedtime.
C. The client should allow at least 8 hr for sleep when taking zolpidem.
D. Zolpidem is absorbed best on an empty stomach.

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7.

A nurse is teaching a client who has Graves’ disease about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of propranolol in the treatment of Graves’ disease?
- “Propranolol helps increase blood ow to my thyroid gland.”
- “Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in my blood.
- “Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heart beat.”
- “Propranolol promotes a decrease of thyroid hormone in my body.”
Correct Answer

A. “Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heart beat.”

Explanation

A. Propranolol lowers blood pressure, but does not increase blood ow to the thyroid gland.
B. Propranolol does not help prevent hyperglycemia.
C. CORRECT: Propranolol is a beta‐adrenergic antagonist that decreases heart rate and controls tremors.
D. Propranolol does not promote a decrease of thyroid hormone.

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8.

A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol and beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- Take the albuterol at the same time each day.
- Administer the albuterol inhaler prior to using the beclomethasone inhaler.
- Use beclomethasone if experiencing an acute episode.
- Avoid shaking the beclomethasone before use.
Correct Answer

A. Administer the albuterol inhaler prior to using the beclomethasone inhaler.

Explanation

A. Albuterol is a short acting inhaled beta2‐agonist and used for short term relief of bronchospasm. B. CORRECT: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2‐agonist (such as albuterol) and an inhaled glucocorticoid (such as beclomethasone), the client should take the beta2‐agonist first. The beta2‐agonist promotes bronchodilation and enhances absorption of the glucocorticoid. C. Beclomethasone is administered on a fixed schedule. It is not used to treat an acute attack. D. The client should shake the metered dose inhaler well before administration.

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1
9.

A nurse is teaching a client who has obsessive‐compulsive disorder and has a new prescription for paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- “It can take several weeks before you feel like the medication is helping.”
- “Take the medication just before bedtime to promote sleep.”
- “You should take the medication when needed for obsessive urges.”
- “monitor for weight gain while taking this medication.”
Correct Answer

A. “It can take several weeks before you feel like the medication is helping.”

Explanation

A. CORRECT: Paroxetine can take 1 to 4 weeks before the client reaches full therapeutic bene t.
B. Take paroxetine in the morning to prevent insomnia.
C. Take paroxetine on a regular basis rather than an as‐needed basis.
D. Paroxetine can cause decreased appetite and weight loss.

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10.

A nurse is assessing a male client who recently began taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?
- Shuffling gait
- Neck spasms
- Drowsiness
- Impotence
Correct Answer

A. Neck spasms

Explanation

A. Shuffling gait is an indication of parkinsonism and should be reported to the provider. however, this is not the greatest risk to the client and is therefore not the priority finding. B. CORRECT: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia which is a crisis situation requiring rapid treatment. This is the greatest risk to the client and is therefore the priority finding. C. Drowsiness is an adverse effect of haloperidol and should be reported to the provider. however, this is not the greatest risk to the client and is therefore not the priority finding. D. Sexual dysfunction is an adverse effect of haloperidol and should be reported to the provider. however, this is not the greatest risk to the client and is therefore not the priority.

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11.

A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings and notes that a client’s plasma lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- Perform immediate gastric lavage.
- Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
- Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
- Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.
Correct Answer

A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.

Explanation

A. CORRECT: Gastric lavage is appropriate for a client who has severe toxicity, as evidenced by a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L. This action will lower the client’s lithium level. B. hemodialysis is appropriate for a client who has a plasma lithium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L. C. Administering an additional dose of lithium will worsen the level of toxicity. D. There is no indication that the client needs another laboratory test, and this action can delay needed treatment.

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12.

A nurse is caring for a school‐age child who has a new prescription for atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- Kidney toxicity
- Liver damage
- Seizure activity
- Adrenal insufficiency
Correct Answer

A. Liver damage

Explanation

A. Atomoxetine can cause urinary retention, but not kidney toxicity.
B. CORRECT: Liver damage is an adverse effect of atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor for manifestations such as jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, darkening of urine, and elevated liver enzymes.
C. Bupropion increases seizure risk at high dosages. Seizure activity is not an adverse effect of atomoxetine.
D. Atomoxetine can cause suicidal ideation and mood swings. Adrenal insuf ciency is not an adverse effect of atomoxetine.

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1
13.

A nurse is teaching clients in an outpatient facility about the use of insulin to treat type 1 diabetes mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the nurse tell the clients to expect a peak effect 2 to 3 hr after administration?
- Insulin glargine
- NPh insulin
- Regular insulin
- Insulin lispro
Correct Answer

A. Regular insulin

Explanation

A. Insulin glargine, a long‐acting insulin, does not have a peak effect time, but is fairly stable in effect after metabolized. B. NPh insulin has a peak effect around 6 to 14 hr following administration. C. CORRECT: Regular insulin has a peak effect around 2 to 3 hr following administration. D. Insulin lispro has a peak effect around 30 min to 2.5 hr following administration.

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14.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking for somatropin to stimulate growth. The nurse should plan to monitor the client’s urine for which of the following?
- Bilirubin
- Protein
- Potassium
- Calcium
Correct Answer

A. Calcium

Explanation

A. Bilirubin can be present in the urine with liver or biliary disorders, but is not monitored during somatropin therapy.
B. Protein can be present in the urine during stress, infection, or glomerular disorders, but is not monitored during somatropin therapy.
C. Potassium is not expected to be present in a urine specimen.
D. CORRECT: A large amount of calcium can be present in the urine of a client who takes somatropin. This puts the client at risk for renal calculi.

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15.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for fluoxetine for posttraumatic stress disorder. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- “You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.
- “You should take this medication at bedtime to help promote sleep.”
- “You will have fewer urinary adverse effects if you urinate just before taking this medication.”
- “You’ll need to wear sunglasses when outdoors due to the light sensitivity caused by this medication.”
Correct Answer

A. “You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.

Explanation

A. CORRECT: Decreased libido is a potential adverse effect of fluoxetine and other SSRIs.
B. Clients should take fluoxetine in the morning due to CNS stimulation.
C. Clients taking a TCA, rather than fluoxetine, should void prior to taking the medication due to the potential for urinary hesitancy or retention.
D. Clients taking a TCA, rather than fluoxetine, should wear sunglasses when outdoors due to the potential for photophobia.

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16.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving moderate sedation with diazepam IV. The client is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
- Ketamine
- Naltrexone
- Flumazenil
- Fluvoxamine
Correct Answer

A. Flumazenil

Explanation

A. ketamine is an anesthetic agent. B. Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat opioid overdose and alcohol use disorders. C. CORRECT: Although rarely used, Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse the sedation and other effects of benzodiazepines. D. Fluvoxamine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used to treat depression.

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17.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for lithium carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to prevent lithium toxicity, the nurse should advise the client to do which of the following?
- Avoid the use of acetaminophen for headaches
- Restrict intake of foods rich in sodium.
- Decrease fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL daily
- Limit aerobic activity in hot weather or hydrate very well by doing so.
Correct Answer

A. Limit aerobic activity in hot weather or hydrate very well by doing so.

Explanation

A. The client should use acetaminophen, rather than NSAIDs such as ibuprofen, for headaches because NSAIDs interact with lithium and can cause increased blood levels of lithium. B. The client should increase, rather than decrease, sodium intake to reduce the risk for toxicity. C. The client should increase, rather than decrease, uid intake to reduce the risk for toxicity. D. CORRECT: The client should avoid activities that have the potential to cause sodium/water depletion, which can increase the risk for toxicity.

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18.

A nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has a new prescription for desipramine. The nurse should instruct the parents that which of the following adverse effects is the priority to report to the provider?
- Constipation
- Suicidal thoughts
- Photophobia
- Dry mouth
Correct Answer

A. Suicidal thoughts

Explanation

A. The client is at risk for constipation because of the anticholinergic effects of desipramine. The client should increase uid intake to reduce the risk of constipation. however, another adverse effect is the priority.
B. CORRECT: The greatest risk to this client is injury from a suicide attempt; therefore, this is the priority. Desipramine can cause suicidal thoughts and behaviors which puts the client at risk. The parents should monitor and report any indication of increased depression or thoughts of suicidal behavior.
C. The client is at risk for photophobia, because of the anticholinergic effects of desipramine. The client should wear sun glasses when exposed to sunlight. however, another adverse effect is the priority.
D. The client is at risk for dry mouth because of the anticholinergic effects of desipramine. The client should increase uids and use hard candy to reduce dry mouth. however, another adverse effect is the priority.

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19.

A nurse is caring for an older adult client in a long‐term care facility who has hypothyroidism and a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following dosage schedules should the nurse expect for this client?
- The client will start at a high dose, and the dose will be tapered as needed.
- The client will remain on the initial dosage during the course of treatment.
- The client’s dosage will be adjusted daily based on blood levels.
- The client will start on a low dose, which will be gradually increased.
Correct Answer

A. The client will start on a low dose, which will be gradually increased.

Explanation

A. The nurse should not expect that the levothyroxine will be started at a high dose.
B. The nurse should not expect that the client’s dosage will remain the same throughout treatment.
C. The nurse should not expect that the client’s dosage will be adjusted daily based on blood levels.
D. CORRECT: The nurse should expect that levothyroxine will be started at a low dose and gradually increased over several weeks. This is especially important in older adult clients to prevent toxicity.

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20.

A nurse is teaching the family of a child who has cystic fibrosis and a new prescription for acetylcysteine. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the instructions?
- “Expect this medication to suppress your cough.”
- ”Expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs.”
- “Expect this medication to cause euphoria.”
- “Expect this medication to turn your urine orange.”
Correct Answer

A. ”Expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs.”

Explanation

A. Acetylcysteine can stimulate a cough. Dextromethorphan suppresses a cough.
B. CORRECT: Acetylcysteine has a sulfur content that causes a rotten‐egg odor.
C. Dextromethorphan can cause euphoria at high doses. Acetylcysteine can cause drowsiness.
D. Discoloration of urine is an adverse effect of COmT inhibitors. Acetylcysteine can cause diarrhea.

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21.

A nurse is teaching a client about preventing otitis externa. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- Clean the ear with a cotton‐tipped swab daily.
- Place earplugs in the ears when sleeping at night.
- Use a cool water irrigation solution to remove earwax.
- Tip the head to the side to remove water from the ears after showering
Correct Answer

A. Tip the head to the side to remove water from the ears after showering

Explanation

A. The client should not insert anything in the ear because this can push cerumen into the eardrum, damage
the epithelium, or puncture the eardrum.
B. The client should wear earplugs only when swimming to reduce the risk for otitis externa.
C. The client should not use cool water irrigation solution to remove cerumen. Cool uid can cause vertigo, dizziness, and nausea. The client should not remove cerumen
from the ear to reduce the risk for otitis externa.
D. CORRECT: The client should remove water from the ear after showering or swimming to reduce the risk for otitis externa.

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22.

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amiodarone to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of amiodarone toxicity?
- Light yellow urine
- Report of tinnitus
- Productive cough
- Blue‐gray skin discoloration
Correct Answer

A. Productive cough

Explanation

A. Light yellow urine is an expected nding and does not indicate toxicity.
B. Ototoxicity can occur with aminoglycoside antibiotics, but does not indicate amiodarone toxicity.
C. CORRECT: Productive cough can indicate pulmonary toxicity or heart failure. The nurse should assess for cough, chest pain, and shortness of breath.
D. A blue‐gray skin discoloration can occur in clients who are taking amiodarone with sun exposure and should resolve.

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23.

A nurse is caring for a client who received IV verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client’s pulse rate is now 98/min and his blood pressure is 74/44 mg hg. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?
- Calcium gluconate
- Sodium bicarbonate
- Potassium chloride
- Magnesium sulfate
Correct Answer

A. Calcium gluconate

Explanation

A. CORRECT: Reverse severe hypotension caused by verapamil with calcium gluconate, given slowly IV. The calcium counteracts vasodilation caused by verapamil. Other measures to increase blood pressure can include IV uid therapy and placing the client in a modi ed Trendelenburg position.
B. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat metabolic acidosis. It is not used to increase blood pressure in clients who have received verapamil.
C. IV potassium chloride is used to treat hypokalemia. It is not used to increase blood pressure in clients who have received verapamil.
D. IV magnesium sulfate is used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias, such as torsades de pointe. It is not used to increase blood pressure in clients who have received verapamil.

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1
24.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for verapamil to control hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- Increase the amount of dietary fiber in the diet.
- Drink grapefruit juice daily to increase vitamin C intake.
- Decrease the amount of calcium in the diet.
- Withhold food for 1 hr after the medication is taken.
Correct Answer

A. Increase the amount of dietary fiber in the diet.

Explanation

A. CORRECT: Increasing dietary fiber intake can help prevent constipation, an adverse effect of verapamil.
B. Clients should be taught to avoid drinking grapefruit juice when taking verapamil because concurrent use can lead to toxicity. In addition, it is not necessary to take extra vitamin C when taking verapamil.
C. There is no restriction on dietary calcium intake for clients taking verapamil.
D. There is no restriction regarding food when taking verapamil. Clients can take verapamil with food to prevent GI upset.

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25.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patch for angina pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- Remove the patch each evening.
- Cut each patch in half if angina attacks are under control.
- Take off the nitroglycerin patch for 30 min if a headache occurs.
- Apply a new patch every 48 hr.
Correct Answer

A. Remove the patch each evening.

Explanation

A. CORRECT: In order to prevent tolerance to nitroglycerin, the client should remove the patch for 10 to 12 hr during each 24‐hr period.
B. The client should always apply a whole patch to ensure he receives the prescribed dosage. The patches are available in many dosages.
C. The nurse should not instruct the client to remove patches for a 30‐min period if a headache occurs. The client should notify the provider if headaches do not resolve because
the dose of nitroglycerin might need to be decreased.
D. The client should apply a new patch every 24 hr.

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26.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for phenelzine for the treatment of depression. Which of the following indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect of this medication?
- Orthostatic hypotension
- hearing loss
- Gastrointestinal bleeding
- Weight loss
Correct Answer

A. Orthostatic hypotension

Explanation

A. CORRECT: Orthostatic hypotension is an adverse of effect of mAOIs, including phenelzine.
B. Phenelzine is more likely to cause blurred vision than hearing loss.
C. Clients taking phenelzine are at risk for multiple adverse effects. however, these do not include GI bleeding.
D. Clients taking phenelzine are at risk for weight gain rather than weight loss.

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27.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for ramelteon. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods while taking this medication?
- Baked potato
- Fried chicken
- Whole‐grain bread
- Citrus fruits
Correct Answer

A. Fried chicken

Explanation

A. A baked potato does not affect absorption of ramelteon.
B. CORRECT: high‐fat foods, such as fried chicken prolong the absorption of ramelteon and should be avoided.
C. Whole‐grain breads do not affect the absorption of ramelteon.
D. Citrus fruits do not affect the absorption of ramelteon.

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28.

A nurse is teaching the parents of a school‐age child about transdermal methylphenidate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- Apply one patch twice per day.
- Leave the patch on for 9 hr.
- Apply the patch to the child’s waist.
- Use opened tray within 6 months.
Correct Answer

A. Leave the patch on for 9 hr.

Explanation

A. Transdermal methylphenidate is administered once per day.
B. CORRECT: Transdermal methylphenidate is administered for 9 hr/day.
C. Transdermal methylphenidate is applied to the child’s hip.
D. Use the opened tray of transdermal methylphenidate within 2 months.

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29.

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who is withdrawing from alcohol and has a new prescription for propranolol. Which of the following information should the nurse to include in the teaching?
- Increases the risk for seizure activity
- Provides a form of aversion therapy
- Decreases cravings
- Results in mild hypertension
Correct Answer

A. Decreases cravings

Explanation

A. Seizure activity is a potential effect of alcohol withdrawal. however, propranolol does not increase this risk.
B. Disul ram, rather than propranolol, provides a form of aversion therapy.
C. CORRECT: Propranolol is an adjunct medication used during withdrawal to decrease the client’s craving for alcohol.
D. Propranolol is an antihypertensive medication that can result in hypotension rather than hypertension.

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30.

A nurse is teaching a female client who has tobacco use disorder about nicotine replacement therapy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- “I should avoid eating right before I chew a piece of nicotine gum.”
- “I will need to stop using the nicotine gum after 1 year.”
- “I know that nicotine gum is a safe alternative to smoking if I become pregnant.”
- “I must chew the nicotine gum quickly for about 15 minutes.”
Correct Answer

A. “I should avoid eating right before I chew a piece of nicotine gum.”

Explanation

A. CORRECT: The client should avoid eating or drinking 15 min prior to and while chewing the nicotine gum.
B. The client should not use nicotine gum for longer than 6 months.
C. The client should avoid all nicotine products, including nicotine gum, while pregnant or breastfeeding.
D. The client should chew the nicotine gum slowly and intermittently over 30 min.

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31.

A nurse is preparing to administer propranolol to a client who has a dysrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- Hold propranolol for an apical pulse greater than 100/min.
- Administer propranolol to increase the client’s blood pressure.
- Assist the client when she sits up or stands after taking this medication.
- Check for hypokalemia frequently due to the risk for propranolol toxicity.
Correct Answer

A. Assist the client when she sits up or stands after taking this medication.

Explanation

A. Propranolol is a beta‐adrenergic blocker that is used
to slow tachydysrhythmias. The nurse should not hold the medication for a pulse greater than 100/min, but should hold it for a very low pulse rate, such as less than 50/min.
B. Propranolol is used to treat hypertension and is not administered to increase the client’s blood pressure.
C. CORRECT: Propranolol can cause orthostatic hypotension, so it is important assess for dizziness during ambulation or when moving to a sitting position.
D. Propranolol can increase potassium level. The client is at risk for toxicity with digoxin, rather than

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32.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- “You should have a high carbohydrate snack between meals and at bedtime.”
- “You are likely to develop hand tremors if you take this medication for a long period of time.”
- 'You may experience temporary numbness of your mouth after each dose.”
- “You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week.”
Correct Answer

A. “You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week.”

Explanation

A. Clozapine increases the client’s risk of developing diabetes mellitus and weight gain. It is not appropriate to increase carbohydrate intake. B. Clozapine has a low risk of EPS such as hand tremors. C. Asenapine, rather than clozapine, causes temporary numbing of the mouth. D. CORRECT: Due to the risk for fatal agranulocytosis weekly monitoring of the client’s WBC count is recommended while taking clozapine.

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33.

A nurse is assessing a client who takes lithium carbonate for the treatment of bipolar disorder. The nurse should recognize which of the following findings as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication?
- Severe hypertension
- Coarse tremors
- Constipation
- Muscle spasms
Correct Answer

A. Coarse tremors

Explanation

A. Severe hypotension, rather than hypertension, is an indication of toxicity.
B. CORRECT: Coarse tremors are an indication of toxicity.
C. Diarrhea, rather than constipation, is an indication of toxicity.
D. muscle weakness, rather than muscle spasm, is an indication of lithium toxicity.

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34.

A charge nurse is planning a staff education session to discuss medications used during the care of a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the charge nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.)
- Lorazepam
- Diazepam
- Disulfiram
- Naltrexone
- Acamprosate
Correct Answer(s)

A. Lorazepam
A. Diazepam

Explanation

A. CORRECT: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used during alcohol withdrawal to decrease anxiety and reduce the risk for seizures. B. CORRECT: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used during alcohol withdrawal to decrease anxiety and reduce the risk for seizures. C. Disulfiram is administered to assist the client in maintaining abstinence from alcohol following withdrawal. D. Naltrexone is administered to assist the client in maintaining abstinence from alcohol following withdrawal. E. Acamprosate decreases unpleasant effects, such as anxiety or restlessness, resulting from abstinence. However, it is not used during acute withdrawal.

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35.

A nurse is providing instructions to the parent of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- “You can take this medication to abort an acute asthma attack.”
- “Tremors are an adverse effect of this medication.”
- “Prolonged use of this medication can cause hyperglycemia.”
- “This medication can slow skeletal growth rate.”
Correct Answer

A. “Tremors are an adverse effect of this medication.”

Explanation

A. Inhaled albuterol is used to abort an acute asthma episode.
B. CORRECT: Tremors can occur due to excessive
stimulation of beta2 receptors of skeletal muscles.
C. Prolonged use of glucocorticoids can cause hyperglycemia.
D. Glucocorticoids slow skeletal growth rate in children and adolesc

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36.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- “This medication can stain your contacts.”
- ”This medication can cause your pupils to constrict.”
- This medication can absorb into your contacts.”
- “This medication can slow your heart rate.”
Correct Answer

A. This medication can absorb into your contacts.”

Explanation

A. Rifampin can stain soft contact lenses. Brimonidine does not stain contacts.
B. Brimonidine can cause mydriasis or dilated pupils.
C. CORRECT: Brimonidine can absorb into soft contact lenses. The client should remove his contacts then instill the medication and wait at least 15 min before putting in his contacts back in.
D. Beta‐adrenergic blockers, such as timolol, can slow the heart rate. Brimonidine can cause hypertension or hypotension.

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37.

A nurse is teaching a client who has angina pectoris and is learning how to treat acute anginal attacks. The clients asks, “What is my next step if I take one tablet, wait 5 minutes, but still have anginal pain after three rounds of nitroglycerin?” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- “Take two more sublingual tablets at the same time.”
- “Call the emergency response team.”
- “Take a sustained‐release nitroglycerin capsule."
- “Wait another 5 minutes then take a second sublingual tablet.”
Correct Answer

A. “Call the emergency response team.”

Explanation

A. The client should not take two sublingual doses at once. B. CORRECT: The next step is to call 911 and then take a second sublingual tablet. If the rst tablet does not work, the client might be having a myocardial infarction. The client can take a third tablet if the second one has not relieved the pain after waiting an additional 5 minutes. C. Taking an oral sustained‐release capsule is not indicated to treat an acute anginal attack. D. The client should not wait an additional 5 minutes before taking a second tablet. The client should call 911 because he might be having a myocardial infarction.

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38.

A nurse is teaching a client who has angina how to use nitroglycerin transdermal ointment. The nurse should include which of the following instructions?
- “Remove the prior dose before applying a new dose.
- “Rub the ointment directly into your skin until it is no longer visible.”
- “Cover the applied ointment with a clean gauze pad.”
- “Apply the ointment to the same skin area each time.”
Correct Answer

A. “Remove the prior dose before applying a new dose.

Explanation

A. CORRECT: The client should remove the prior dose before applying a new dose to prevent toxicity.
B. The ointment should not be rubbed directly onto the skin. It is also important to tell the client not to touch the ointment with the ngers. The client should use the applicator that comes with the ointment to measure the correct dose and then spread the ointment onto the pre‐marked paper, before applying the ointment‐covered paper to the skin.
C. The client should cover the applied ointment with a transparent dressing and tape securely to the skin. Do not cover the medication with gauze.
D. The client should rotate application sites each time the ointment is applied. The client should select a clean, hairless area of the body.

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39.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for escitalopram for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- “I should take the medication on an empty stomach.”
- “I will follow a low‐sodium diet while taking this medication.”
- “I need to discontinue this medication slowly.”
- “I should not crush this medication before swallowing.”
Correct Answer

A. “I need to discontinue this medication slowly.”

Explanation

A. The client can take this medication with food for GI distress or without food.
B. The client is at risk for hyponatremia while taking escitalopram.
C. CORRECT: When discontinuing escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed tapered dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome.
D. The client can crush escitalopram before swallowing.

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40.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for buspirone to treat anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- “Take this medication on an empty stomach“
- “Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hr.”
- “Take this medication when needed for psychosis”
- “This medication has a low risk for dependency.”
Correct Answer

A. “This medication has a low risk for dependency.”

Explanation

A. The client can take this medication with food to reduce GI distress. B. Buspirone can take up to 3 to 6 weeks to obtain optimal therapeutic effects C. The client should take buspirone on a regular, not PRN, basis because therapeutic effects occur slowly. D. CORRECT: Buspirone has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance.

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41.

A nurse is caring for a client who takes paroxetine to treat posttraumatic stress disorder and reports that he grinds his teeth during the night. The nurse should identify which of the following interventions to manage bruxism? (Select all that apply.)
- Concurrent administration of buspirone
- Administration of a different SSRI
- Use of a mouth guard
- Changing to a different class of antidepressant medication
- Increasing the dose of paroxetine
Correct Answer(s)

A. Concurrent administration of buspirone
A. Use of a mouth guard
A. Changing to a different class of antidepressant medication

Explanation

A. CORRECT: Concurrent administration of a low dose of buspirone is an effective measure to manage the adverse effects of paroxetine.
B. Other SSRIs also will have bruxism as an adverse effect. This is not an effective measure.
C. CORRECT: Using a mouth guard during sleep can decrease the risk for oral damage resulting from bruxism.
D. CORRECT: Changing to different class of antidepressant medication that does not have the adverse effect of bruxism is an effective measure.
E. Increasing the dose of paroxetine can cause the adverse effect of bruxism to worsen. This is not an effective measure.

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42.

A nurse is teaching an adolescent client who has a new prescription for clomipramine for OCD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of his medication?
- Wear sunglasses when outdoors.
- Check your temperature daily.
- Take this medication in the morning.
- Add extra calories to your diet.
Correct Answer

A. Wear sunglasses when outdoors.

Explanation

A. CORRECT: Wearing sunglasses when outdoors will decrease photophobia, an anticholinergic effect associated with TCA use.
B. Checking the client’s temperature daily is not necessary while taking a TCA.
C. The client should take this medication at bedtime rather than in the morning to prevent daytime sleepiness.
D. Following a low‐calorie diet plan will help prevent weight gain, an adverse effect of TCAs.

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43.

A nurse is caring for a client who states she has been taking phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- Sedation
- Nasal congestion
- Productive cough
- Constipation
Correct Answer

A. Nasal congestion

Explanation

A. Insomnia, rather than sedation, is an adverse effect of this medication.
B. CORRECT: When used for over 5 days, rebound nasal congestion can occur when taking nasal sympathomimetic medications, such as phenylephrine.
C. Phenylephrine can cause a headache, but productive cough is not an adverse effect of this medication.
D. Constipation is an adverse effect of rst generation antihistamines, but is not caused by sympathomimetic medications such as phenylephrine.

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44.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for dextromethorphan to suppress a cough. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- Diarrhea
- Anxiety
- Sedation
- Palpitations
Correct Answer

A. Sedation

Explanation

A. Dextromethorphan can cause nausea.
B. Phenylephrine can cause anxiety and irritability.
C. CORRECT: Dextromethorphan can cause sedation. Advise the client to avoid activities that require alertness.
D. Phenylephrine can cause tachycardia and palpitations.

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45.

A nurse in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle‐closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition?
- Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
- Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
- Severe pain around eyes
- Intraocular pressure 12 mm hg
Correct Answer

A. Severe pain around eyes

Explanation

A. Acute‐angle glaucoma is painful and has a sudden onset. B. Gradual loss of peripheral vision is a manifestation
of primary open‐angle glaucoma.
C. CORRECT: Severe pain around eyes that radiates over the face is a manifestation of acute angle‐closure glaucoma.
D. An IOP of 12 mm hg is within the expected reference range. Elevated IOP is a manifestation of angle‐closure glaucoma.

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46.

A nurse in an acute mental health facility is caring for a client who is experiencing withdrawal from opioid use and has a new prescription for clonidine. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as the priority?
- Administer the clonidine on the prescribed schedule.
- Provide ice chips at the client’s bedside.
- Educate the client on the effects of clonidine.
- Obtain baseline vital signs.
Correct Answer

A. Obtain baseline vital signs.

Explanation

A. Administering clonidine as prescribed is an important nursing action. however, it is not the priority action.
B. Providing ice chips is an important nursing action. however, it is not the priority action.
C. Educating the client about the medication is an important nursing action. however, it is not the priority action.
D. CORRECT: Assessment is the initial step of the nursing process. Obtaining the client’s baseline vital signs is the priority nursing action.

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47.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for diphenhydramine for allergic rhinitis. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse reactions of this medication? (Select all that apply.)
- Dry mouth
- Nonproductive cough
- Skin rash
- Drowsiness
- Urinary hesitation
Correct Answer(s)

A. Dry mouth
A. Drowsiness
A. Urinary hesitation

Explanation

A. CORRECT: Dry mouth is an anticholinergic manifestation that can occur when a client takes diphenhydramine.
B. Cough is not an adverse reaction to this medication. Diphenhydramine is prescribed to treat nonproductive cough.
C. Skin rash is not an adverse reaction to this medication. Diphenhydramine is sometimes prescribed for skin rash caused by allergies.
D. CORRECT: Drowsiness is an adverse reaction of this medication. Diphenhydramine is administered to treat insomnia.
E. CORRECT: Urinary retention is an anticholinergic manifestation that can occur when a client takes diphenhydramine.

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48.

A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for timolol how to insert eye drops. The nurse should instruct theclient to press on which of the following areas to prevent systemic absorption of the medication?
- Bony orbit
- Nasolacrimal duct
- Conjunctival sac
- Outer canthus
Correct Answer

A. Nasolacrimal duct

Explanation

A. Pressing on the bony orbit will not prevent systemic absorption of the medication.
B. CORRECT: Pressing on the nasolacrimal duct blocks the lacrimal punctum and prevents systemic absorption of the medication.
C. Pressing on the conjunctival sac will not prevent systemic absorption of the medication.
D. Pressing on the outer canthus will not prevent systemic absorption of the medication.

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49.

A nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who asks about using propranolol to treat hypertension. The nurse should recognize which of the following conditions is a contraindication for taking propranolol?
- Asthma
- Glaucoma
- Hypertension
- Tachycardia
Correct Answer

A. Asthma

Explanation

A. CORRECT: Propranolol is a nonselective beta‐adrenergic blocker that blocks both beta1 and beta2 receptors. Blockade of beta2 receptors in the lungs causes bronchoconstriction, so it is contraindicated in clients who have asthma.
B. Propranolol is not contraindicated in clients who have glaucoma.
C. Propranolol is prescribed to treat hypertension. It is not contraindicated for clients who have this disorder.
D. Propranolol is prescribed to treat tachydysrhythmias, such as tachycardia. It is contraindicated in clients

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Amanda Nwachukwu |Pharm(D) |

Clinical Pharmacist

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ATI Pharmacology Quiz: Challenge Your Drug Knowledge

A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing serotonin syndrome?

Quiz Preview

A nurse is teaching a client who has schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

A nurse is providing teaching for a male client who has schizophrenia and is taking risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse in an acute care facility is caring for a client who is receiving IV nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

A nurse is providing instructions to a female client who has a new prescription for zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is teaching a client who has Graves’ disease about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of propranolol in the treatment of Graves’ disease?

A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol and beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is teaching a client who has obsessive‐compulsive disorder and has a new prescription for paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is assessing a male client who recently began taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings and notes that a client’s plasma lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

A nurse is caring for a school‐age child who has a new prescription for atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

A nurse is teaching clients in an outpatient facility about the use of insulin to treat type 1 diabetes mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the nurse tell the clients to expect a peak effect 2 to 3 hr after administration?

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking for somatropin to stimulate growth. The nurse should plan to monitor the client’s urine for which of the following?

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for fluoxetine for posttraumatic stress disorder. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving moderate sedation with diazepam IV. The client is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for lithium carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to prevent lithium toxicity, the nurse should advise the client to do which of the following?

A nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has a new prescription for desipramine. The nurse should instruct the parents that which of the following adverse effects is the priority to report to the provider?

A nurse is caring for an older adult client in a long‐term care facility who has hypothyroidism and a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following dosage schedules should the nurse expect for this client?

A nurse is teaching the family of a child who has cystic fibrosis and a new prescription for acetylcysteine. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the instructions?

A nurse is teaching a client about preventing otitis externa. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amiodarone to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of amiodarone toxicity?

A nurse is caring for a client who received IV verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client’s pulse rate is now 98/min and his blood pressure is 74/44 mg hg. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for verapamil to control hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patch for angina pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for phenelzine for the treatment of depression. Which of the following indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect of this medication?

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for ramelteon. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods while taking this medication?

A nurse is teaching the parents of a school‐age child about transdermal methylphenidate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who is withdrawing from alcohol and has a new prescription for propranolol. Which of the following information should the nurse to include in the teaching?

A nurse is teaching a female client who has tobacco use disorder about nicotine replacement therapy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

A nurse is preparing to administer propranolol to a client who has a dysrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is assessing a client who takes lithium carbonate for the treatment of bipolar disorder. The nurse should recognize which of the following findings as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication?

A charge nurse is planning a staff education session to discuss medications used during the care of a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the charge nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is providing instructions to the parent of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is teaching a client who has angina how to use nitroglycerin transdermal ointment. The nurse should include which of the following instructions?

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for escitalopram for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for buspirone to treat anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

A nurse is caring for a client who takes paroxetine to treat posttraumatic stress disorder and reports that he grinds his teeth during the night. The nurse should identify which of the following interventions to manage bruxism? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is teaching an adolescent client who has a new prescription for clomipramine for OCD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of his medication?

A nurse is caring for a client who states she has been taking phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for dextromethorphan to suppress a cough. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

A nurse in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle‐closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition?

A nurse in an acute mental health facility is caring for a client who is experiencing withdrawal from opioid use and has a new prescription for clonidine. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as the priority?

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for diphenhydramine for allergic rhinitis. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse reactions of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for timolol how to insert eye drops. The nurse should instruct theclient to press on which of the following areas to prevent systemic absorption of the medication?

A nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who asks about using propranolol to treat hypertension. The nurse should recognize which of the following conditions is a contraindication for taking propranolol?