2S051 Vol. 4 Ure Questions

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1. If required, in what area will a unit pack of Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) be opened?

Explanation

The correct answer is ESD protective area. This is the area where a unit pack of Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) will be opened. This area is specifically designed to prevent any damage caused by electrostatic discharge. It is equipped with various measures such as ESD flooring, workstations, and grounding devices to ensure that sensitive electronic components are not exposed to electrostatic discharge during the unpacking process. Opening the unit pack in any other area could potentially lead to damage to the electronic components.

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About This Quiz
Logistics Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz assesses knowledge in military logistics, focusing on property off-loading, item identification, and asset disposal. Key skills tested include understanding of Air Force forms and procedures, making it vital for personnel in logistics and supply chain roles.

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2. What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?

Explanation

Drainage protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions by allowing water to flow away from the storage area. It helps in preventing water accumulation and keeps the ground dry, reducing the risk of damage to the stored items. Concrete, steel mats, and crushed stone may also provide some level of protection, but drainage is specifically designed to address wet ground conditions and is the most effective solution in this context.

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3. Copies of source documents for classified items are stamped or handwritten using

Explanation

Copies of source documents for classified items are stamped or handwritten using red ink with the words "Classified Item" because red ink is easily distinguishable and stands out on the document, making it clear that the document is classified. Additionally, using red ink adds an extra layer of security as it is difficult to alter or tamper with.

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4. Which DD form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?

Explanation

DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag, is the correct answer because it is specifically used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair. The term "condemned" suggests that the property is no longer usable and should be disposed of. This form serves as a clear indicator that the item is no longer functional and should not be used or repaired.

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5. What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation?

Explanation

The Air Force uses bar code labels to aid in inventory and warehouse validation. Bar code labels allow for efficient tracking and identification of items, making it easier to manage and maintain accurate inventory records. By scanning the bar codes, personnel can quickly verify the presence and location of items, ensuring that the inventory is up to date and accurate. This helps streamline the logistics process and minimize errors in inventory management.

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6. What are the two types of open storage areas?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Improved and unimproved." This refers to the two types of open storage areas. An improved storage area is one that has been modified or developed to enhance its functionality and efficiency, such as adding infrastructure or implementing organizational systems. On the other hand, an unimproved storage area is one that has not undergone any modifications or enhancements, remaining in its natural or basic state. Both types of storage areas have their own advantages and disadvantages, depending on the specific needs and requirements of the situation.

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7. Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from

Explanation

The correct answer is "left to right and front to rear." This means that the stockrooms in the warehouse are organized in a sequential order starting from the left side and moving towards the right side. Additionally, the stockrooms are also arranged from the front of the warehouse to the rear. This sequencing allows for efficient storage and retrieval of items, ensuring a systematic and organized approach to managing the warehouse inventory.

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8. Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?

Explanation

The issue exception codes 8, 9, or M identify health hazard items.

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9. What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?

Explanation

The daily document register is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file. This register keeps track of all the documents that are received or issued on a daily basis. By updating the register regularly, the warehouse can ensure that all documents are properly accounted for and any discrepancies or missing items can be identified and resolved. This helps in maintaining an organized and accurate record of the warehouse inventory.

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10. In Discoverer, what function allows you to transfer data to other application formats?

Explanation

The function in Discoverer that allows you to transfer data to other application formats is "Export". This feature enables users to extract and save data from Discoverer reports in various formats such as Excel, PDF, CSV, or HTML. By exporting the data, users can easily share or manipulate it in other applications or tools for further analysis or presentation purposes.

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11. Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be

Explanation

Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be obliterated. This means that any existing markings that are no longer relevant or accurate should be removed or erased. This is important to ensure that there is no confusion or misinterpretation of the information on the containers. By obliterating these markings, it helps to maintain clarity and accuracy in the labeling of the containers.

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12. What is the primary reference used for nuclear weapons related materiel (NWRM)?

Explanation

The primary reference used for nuclear weapons related materiel (NWRM) is CJCSI 3150.04, Nuclear Weapons Stockpile Logistics Management and Nuclear Weapons Reports Under the Joint Reporting Structure. This document provides guidance and procedures for managing the logistics of nuclear weapons stockpile and reporting on nuclear weapons activities under the joint reporting structure. It is the authoritative source for handling and reporting of nuclear weapons related materiel.

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13. Which of the following items is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier?

Explanation

When off-loading property from a carrier, the items that are typically checked include the shipping label to ensure it matches the intended destination, obvious damage to assess any potential harm during transportation, and the transportation control number to track and verify the movement of the property. However, the production date is not relevant in this context as it does not impact the off-loading process or the condition of the property.

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14. Which block of the AF form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after the in-checker has signed and dated block A?

Explanation

After the in-checker has signed and dated block A, the inspector will sign or stamp block B of the AF form 2005.

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15. An organizational refusal would be a customer's responsibility if the

Explanation

If the customer failed to cancel the due-out, it means that they did not inform the organization that they no longer needed the property. This lack of communication resulted in the organization preparing the property for the customer, which ultimately led to the refusal. Therefore, the organizational refusal would be the customer's responsibility in this scenario.

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16. The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force

Explanation

The Enterprise Asset Visibility component aims to offer a comprehensive view of the assets owned by the Air Force. This means that it provides visibility and tracking of all the assets that belong to the Air Force, allowing for better management and control over them. It does not focus on assets that are sourced from external parties, asset shortages, or repairable assets. The main goal is to ensure visibility and oversight of the assets that are owned by the Air Force.

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17. When an activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, within what time frame from its discovery must the activity submit a discrepancy report?

Explanation

When an activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, they must submit a discrepancy report within 24 hours of its discovery. This ensures that any issues with the inventory can be promptly addressed and resolved. Waiting longer than 24 hours could lead to delays in identifying and rectifying the discrepancy, potentially causing further complications or losses.

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18. Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flight line base level user?

Explanation

TRACKER is the correct answer because it is a system that provides the user with information on their requisitions, specifically focusing on the flight line base level user. The other options, RAMPS, LINK, and SCS, do not specifically mention providing information on requisitions or catering to the flight line base level user.

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19. What concept may be necessary when there is an overflow of assets that cannot be stocked in the primary location?

Explanation

When there is an overflow of assets that cannot be stocked in the primary location, the concept of reserve location becomes necessary. Reserve location refers to an additional storage space or secondary location where excess assets can be stored. This allows for efficient management of inventory and ensures that there is enough space to accommodate the overflow of assets. By utilizing a reserve location, businesses can maintain optimal stock levels in the primary location while still having a backup storage option for surplus items.

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20. What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?

Explanation

Unimproved open storage refers to storing materials in an outdoor area without any specific infrastructure or equipment. The major disadvantage of this type of storage is the limited use of material handling equipment (MHE). Without proper infrastructure, it becomes difficult to efficiently move and handle materials, resulting in slower operations, increased risk of accidents, and potential damage to the materials. This limitation can lead to inefficiencies and increased costs in logistics and supply chain management.

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21. What method is used when conducting a complete inventory?

Explanation

When conducting a complete inventory, the method used is a closed warehouse. This means that the warehouse is locked and inaccessible to anyone other than authorized personnel. This ensures that all items in the inventory are properly accounted for and prevents any unauthorized access or tampering.

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22. When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the

Explanation

When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the physical count quantity. This means that the computer checks the actual quantity of inventory items present in the physical count against the recorded balance in the system. By comparing these two values, any discrepancies or errors in the inventory records can be identified and corrected.

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23. To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount image contains a research indicator of

Explanation

The correct answer is AR. The reason why the inventory recount image contains a research indicator of "AR" is not explicitly mentioned in the question. However, based on common knowledge, "AR" is often used as an abbreviation for "Additional Research." Therefore, it can be inferred that the presence of "AR" in the inventory recount image indicates that additional research is needed to gather more information or verify the accuracy of the inventory.

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24. Which instruction prescribes basic guidance and responsibilities for managing public property under Air Force control by authorizing and directing commanders to manage government property under their command?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Management of Government Property in Possession of the Air Force—AFI 23–111." This instruction provides guidance and responsibilities for managing public property under Air Force control. It authorizes and directs commanders to manage government property under their command.

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25. What routing identifier code is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Disposition Services (DLADS)?

Explanation

The routing identifier code that is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Disposition Services (DLADS) is JBR.

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26. Who will obtain disposition instructions from the Item Manager for equipment items returned to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?

Explanation

The Equipment Accountability Element (EAE) will obtain disposition instructions from the Item Manager for equipment items returned to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The EAE is responsible for maintaining accountability of equipment and ensuring proper disposition of returned items. They work closely with the Item Manager to determine the appropriate actions to be taken with the equipment, such as repair, disposal, or redistribution.

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27. Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating mechanized material handling systems (MMHS) to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?

Explanation

When operating mechanized material handling systems (MMHS), it is important to consider various factors to ensure the elimination of unsafe incidents. Operational deficiencies refer to any shortcomings or faults in the system's operation, which need to be addressed to maintain safety. Workload breakdown involves analyzing the workload distribution to prevent overloading or underutilization of the system. General layout refers to the arrangement and design of the MMHS, ensuring that it is optimized for efficient and safe operations. However, cost is not a factor directly related to safety. While cost considerations are important for decision-making, it does not directly impact the elimination of unsafe incidents.

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28. Who is responsible for properly training all personnel required to handle controlled materiel?

Explanation

The chief inspector is responsible for properly training all personnel required to handle controlled materiel. This role ensures that all individuals have the necessary knowledge and skills to handle these materials safely and effectively. The chief inspector plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and security of controlled materiel by ensuring that all personnel are trained according to established protocols and guidelines.

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29. Inventory schedules are prepared

Explanation

Inventory schedules are prepared by fiscal year because it allows for better financial planning and budgeting. By aligning the inventory schedule with the fiscal year, businesses can accurately track and manage their inventory levels, costs, and sales. This helps in determining the optimal inventory levels, identifying slow-moving or obsolete items, and making informed decisions regarding purchasing and production. Additionally, preparing inventory schedules by fiscal year facilitates easier comparison of financial data and performance analysis across different periods.

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30. Which corrosives are incompatible and should be stored separately?

Explanation

Acids and alkalis should be stored separately because they are incompatible and can react with each other, potentially causing a dangerous chemical reaction. Acids are substances that release hydrogen ions when dissolved in water, while alkalis are substances that release hydroxide ions. When acids and alkalis come into contact, they can neutralize each other, resulting in the formation of water and a salt. This reaction can release heat and potentially cause an explosion or release of toxic gases. Therefore, it is important to store acids and alkalis separately to prevent any accidental mixing or reaction.

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31. Which principle of material handling obtains the greatest economy in moving materiel?

Explanation

The principle of "least handling is the best handling" suggests that minimizing the number of times an item is handled during the material handling process can lead to the greatest economy. This principle emphasizes the importance of streamlining operations and reducing unnecessary movements or transfers of materials. By minimizing handling, organizations can save time, reduce labor costs, and minimize the risk of damage or loss during transportation or storage. This principle encourages efficient and effective material handling practices to optimize productivity and cost-effectiveness.

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32. Reusable containers come in how many categories?

Explanation

Reusable containers come in two categories. This suggests that there are two distinct types or classifications of reusable containers. However, without additional context or information, it is not possible to determine what these categories specifically entail.

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33. How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?

Explanation

Type II shelf-life items should be scheduled for serviceability testing 15 to 45 days prior to the expiration date. This time frame allows for adequate testing to ensure that the items are still in good condition and can be safely used before they expire. Scheduling the testing too early may result in inaccurate results, while scheduling it too close to the expiration date may not leave enough time for any necessary corrective actions to be taken. Therefore, the recommended time frame of 15 to 45 days strikes a balance between ensuring the items' serviceability and allowing enough time for any required adjustments.

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34. What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas?

Explanation

When items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas, the storage factor used is item popularity. This means that items that are less popular and have a slower turnover rate are stored in areas that are less accessible or farther away. By doing so, the more popular and frequently requested items can be stored in areas that are closer and easily accessible, optimizing the efficiency of stock processing and retrieval.

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35. What is the Air Force's source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information?

Explanation

The Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information System (EESOH-MIS) is the Air Force's source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information. This system is specifically designed to manage and track environmental safety and occupational health information within the Air Force. It serves as a centralized database for storing and accessing information related to hazardous materials, ensuring that the Air Force has accurate and up-to-date information to effectively manage and prevent pollution.

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36. What is the purpose of DD Form 2477, Inspection Extension?

Explanation

DD Form 2477, Inspection Extension, is used to update inspection data. This form allows for the extension of the inspection period for property that is not ready for turn-in or disposal. By updating the inspection data, the form ensures that accurate information is maintained regarding the status and condition of the property. This helps in tracking and managing the property effectively.

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37. What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file?

Explanation

The annotated 1GP notice is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file. This document provides detailed information about any discrepancies or issues related to inventory counts. By reviewing and addressing the annotated 1GP notice, the freeze code can be cleared and the inventory records can be updated accordingly.

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38. Which transaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?

Explanation

The transaction identification code (TRIC) that identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change is FIC. This code is used to indicate a change in the warehouse, such as a change in the location or quantity of a specific item. The other options, FCD, FCH, and 1SC, do not specifically pertain to warehouse change documents or indicative data changes.

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39. Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?

Explanation

This scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal because the quantity in the location is not sufficient to fulfill an issue request. This means that the warehouse is refusing to provide the requested quantity due to insufficient stock.

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40. Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?

Explanation

Short-life reusable containers are designed to be used multiple times before they reach the end of their useful life. The question asks how many round-trips these containers are expected to survive. The correct answer is 10, indicating that these containers are expected to be used for a minimum of 10 round-trips before they are no longer usable.

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41. Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum temperature of

Explanation

Flammable solids are substances that can ignite and burn easily. The correct answer is 100 degrees Fahrenheit because this is the minimum temperature at which a solid substance can catch fire and sustain combustion. At temperatures below 100 degrees Fahrenheit, the solid would not be considered flammable.

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42. What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used to the greatest extent possible?

Explanation

Before the actual start of the storage operation, it is important to plan the storage areas to ensure that the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse are used to the greatest extent possible. This involves determining the layout and arrangement of the storage areas, including the placement of racks, shelves, and bins. By planning the storage areas effectively, the available space can be optimized, maximizing the storage capacity of the warehouse.

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43. Which best describes when a Report of Discrepancy is required?

Explanation

A Report of Discrepancy is required when there is incorrect material, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments. This means that if the received material does not match the ordered material, if the substitutes provided are not acceptable, or if there are duplicate shipments, a Report of Discrepancy needs to be filed. This helps to ensure that the correct material is received and any issues are addressed and resolved.

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44. What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a condition change?

Explanation

The correct answer is FCC. In the context of transaction identification codes (TRICs), FCC is the code that is processed to initiate a condition change. The other options, FCH, FCU, and FCI, are not relevant in this context and do not initiate a condition change.

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45. Within how many workdays of the start of an inventory cycle should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?

Explanation

Scheduled validations should be completed within 10 workdays of the start of an inventory cycle. This means that the storage activity needs to finish the necessary checks and verifications within this timeframe to ensure the accuracy and integrity of the inventory. Completing the validations within 10 workdays allows for a reasonable amount of time to conduct thorough inspections and address any discrepancies or issues that may arise during the process.

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46. When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is used to record the out-of-balance conditions?

Explanation

When performing an inventory on an equipment account, the product used to record the out-of-balance conditions is the Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14). This product is specifically designed to keep track of the authorization and custody receipts, ensuring that the equipment is properly accounted for. It allows for easy identification of any discrepancies or imbalances in the inventory, making it an essential tool in maintaining accurate records of equipment.

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47. What system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, re-distribution, forecasting, and other management decisions?

Explanation

The Enterprise Solution-Supply system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, re-distribution, forecasting, and other management decisions. This system is specifically designed to handle various aspects of supply chain management and helps organizations in efficiently managing their inventory, procurement, and distribution processes. It offers features and functionalities that enable decision-makers to make informed choices and optimize their supply chain operations.

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48. What type of warehouse change document is produced when an item's security classification is increased on the item record?

Explanation

When an item's security classification is increased on the item record, a warehouse change document known as a "Controlled item code" is produced. This document is used to track and manage the change in security classification for the item. It helps in ensuring that the item is handled and stored according to the updated security requirements, and also enables proper documentation and control of the item's movement within the warehouse.

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49. When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization?

Explanation

When planning a warehouse layout, it is important to keep work areas to a minimum in order to increase storage space and utilization. Work areas, such as aisles and loading docks, take up valuable space that could be used for storing goods. By minimizing work areas, more space can be allocated for storage, allowing for increased storage capacity and better utilization of the warehouse.

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50. Which listing is used to identify items that have a serviceable balance on the item record, no warehouse location assigned, and a date of last transaction (DOLT) greater than three days?

Explanation

The listing R36 is used to identify items that have a serviceable balance on the item record, no warehouse location assigned, and a date of last transaction (DOLT) greater than three days.

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51. What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail record?

Explanation

When a suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail record, the management notice that is output is I302.

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52. What position is used to identify the storage lot in warehouse location code 02A003D004C?

Explanation

The position "02" is used to identify the storage lot in the warehouse location code.

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53. What type of material storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?

Explanation

The best type of material storage for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries is low hazard. This implies that these materials do not pose a high risk, are not flammable, and are not corrosive. Low hazard storage ensures that these materials can be stored safely without the risk of accidents or damage.

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54. What Transaction Identifier Code (TRIC) is processed to move property to the correct location?

Explanation

The correct answer is FCS. The Transaction Identifier Code (TRIC) processed to move property to the correct location is FCS.

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55. An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is no more than

Explanation

An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when there is a discrepancy between the recorded balance and the actual quantity during a recount. In this case, the dollar value of the adjustment must not exceed $100. This means that if the difference between the recorded balance and the recount quantity is within $100, an automatic adjustment will be made to correct the inventory balance.

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56. Which form is used to process a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 364. The SF 364 form is used to process a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR). This form is used to report any discrepancies or issues with supplies that are received, such as damaged or incorrect items. The SF 364 allows for proper documentation and tracking of these discrepancies, ensuring that they are addressed and resolved appropriately.

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57. Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies involving classified items?

Explanation

The correct answer is the security manager because they are responsible for overseeing and managing all security-related matters, including discrepancies involving classified items. They ensure that proper protocols and procedures are followed to maintain the integrity and confidentiality of classified information within the Air Force activities. The security manager plays a crucial role in investigating and resolving any discrepancies or breaches in security, making them the appropriate authority to report to in such cases.

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58. Which of these systems provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance community?

Explanation

The correct answer is PRS/D087Q. PRS/D087Q is a system that provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance community. It is specifically designed to handle engine maintenance and calculate the necessary requirements for the maintenance of engines. MICAP, RAM, and RCAS are not specifically designed for this purpose and do not provide the same capability as PRS/D087Q.

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59. Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?

Explanation

Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into two categories. This suggests that there are two broad classifications for hazardous waste disposal methods. These categories could include different methods such as recycling, treatment, incineration, landfilling, or other means of managing hazardous waste. By categorizing hazardous waste disposal into two groups, it allows for a simplified understanding and management of these potentially harmful materials.

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60. Who ensures that customers who generate waste are held liable for waste disposition under a "cradle to grave" concept?

Explanation

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) ensures that customers who generate waste are held liable for waste disposition under a "cradle to grave" concept. The EPA is responsible for enforcing regulations and policies related to waste management and disposal. They monitor and regulate the entire lifecycle of waste, from its generation to its final disposal, to ensure that it is handled in an environmentally responsible manner. By holding customers accountable for waste disposition, the EPA aims to encourage proper waste management practices and minimize the environmental impact of waste.

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61. Who will reissue, redistribute, reuse or transfer consumable and expendables (XB3) items to disposal as scrap assets?

Explanation

The Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS) is responsible for reissuing, redistributing, reusing, or transferring consumable and expendable items to disposal as scrap assets. This means that they handle the process of disposing of these items and ensuring that they are properly scrapped. The other options, such as the customer, item manager, and MAJCOM, are not specifically tasked with this responsibility.

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62. Who is assigned as the installation Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP) manager/focal point for all matters concerning PMRP?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Materiel management flight chief inspector. This individual is responsible for overseeing all matters concerning the Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP). They are assigned as the installation PMRP manager/focal point, indicating that they have the authority and expertise to handle all aspects of the program. This role requires knowledge of materiel management and the ability to coordinate with various stakeholders to ensure the successful implementation and operation of the PMRP.

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63. In Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S), what are the three sections of the Order Selection Page?

Explanation

The three sections of the Order Selection Page in Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) are Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria. These sections allow users to specify the main criteria for selecting orders, additional criteria for refining the selection, and the display settings for the selected orders.

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64. Who is responsible for transferring precious metals-bearing metals to the nearest Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS) facility?

Explanation

The correct answer is DOD activity. The DOD activity is responsible for transferring precious metals-bearing metals to the nearest Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS) facility. This means that any department or organization within the Department of Defense is accountable for this task. It could be any branch of the military or a specific agency within the DOD.

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65. Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded when additional help is needed?

Explanation

When additional help is needed for unresolved supply discrepancy reports, they are forwarded to the Major Command (MAJCOM). MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and managing all supply-related activities within a specific geographic region or area of responsibility. They have the authority to provide assistance and guidance in resolving supply discrepancies and ensuring proper accountability and control of stock. Therefore, forwarding the reports to the MAJCOM ensures that the appropriate level of support and expertise is available to address and resolve the supply discrepancies effectively.

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66. Which property is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations?

Explanation

Sensitive property is defined as material that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations. This type of property typically includes items such as classified documents, confidential information, or hazardous materials that need to be securely stored and handled. The sensitivity of these materials necessitates strict protocols and safeguards to prevent unauthorized access or misuse.

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67. Who provides the materiel management inspector a list of items that require an extensive functional check before installation?

Explanation

The maintenance contact point provides the materiel management inspector with a list of items that require an extensive functional check before installation. This suggests that the maintenance contact point is responsible for identifying and communicating the specific items that need to undergo a thorough inspection before being installed.

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68. The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry out its designed or intended purpose is

Explanation

The physical state of an item, referred to as its condition, is what determines its usefulness in carrying out its designed or intended purpose. The condition of an item reflects its overall state, including factors such as wear and tear, damage, and functionality. By assessing the condition of an item, one can determine whether it is suitable for its intended purpose or if repairs or replacements are necessary.

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69. What three things are used to identify an item?

Explanation

The three things used to identify an item are the reference number, stock number, and item description. The reference number helps to uniquely identify the item and can be used for tracking or referencing purposes. The stock number is a specific identifier assigned to the item within a particular inventory or stock system. The item description provides details about the item's characteristics, features, or specifications, which further aids in identifying and distinguishing it from other items.

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70. Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed?

Explanation

The Daily Document Register (D04) is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed. This register keeps a record of all documents related to materiel management, including emergency issues. By reviewing this register, the inventory section can ensure that all emergency issues have been addressed and processed correctly. The other options, such as the Stock Fund Due-Out Report (M36), Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10), and Daily PFMR/OCCR Update and Reconciliation (D11), do not specifically pertain to the verification of degraded operations emergency issues.

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71. Which report displays data that is helpful in determining what property has been received and has not yet made it to stock?

Explanation

The report that displays data about what property has not yet made it to stock is the "Not put away" report. This report shows items that have been received but have not been stored or put away in the stock area. It helps in identifying items that are still pending to be organized and made available for sale or use.

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72. Which individual is designated by the organizational commander or chief of staff agency to have safeguarding responsibility for government property in their possession?

Explanation

A property custodian is designated by the organizational commander or chief of staff agency to have safeguarding responsibility for government property in their possession. They are responsible for ensuring the proper care, use, and security of the property. This includes keeping accurate records, conducting regular inventories, and reporting any loss or damage. The property custodian plays a crucial role in maintaining the accountability and integrity of government property.

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73. Which object is accessible to the user when logged into INFOConnect?

Explanation

When logged into INFOConnect, the user can access green screens. Green screens refer to the traditional text-based user interface used in mainframe systems. These screens display information in monochrome green text on a black background and allow users to interact with the mainframe system by entering commands or navigating through menus. Blue screens, on the other hand, are often associated with system errors or crashes. The mainframe itself is the underlying hardware and software infrastructure that supports the green screen interface. A password, while necessary for logging into INFOConnect, does not directly provide access to the green screens.

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74. One display line of a terminal screen up to 80 characters long is called

Explanation

A single line of characters that can be displayed on a terminal screen and is limited to a maximum of 80 characters is referred to as a screen line.

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75. Which principle of material handling requires consideration of legal and physical restrictions concerning transportation?

Explanation

Advanced planning requires consideration of legal and physical restrictions concerning transportation. This principle involves carefully analyzing the requirements and constraints of material handling, including any legal regulations or physical limitations that may affect the transportation process. By incorporating these factors into the planning stage, organizations can ensure efficient and compliant material handling operations.

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76. Which element within the Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS) is responsible for providing secure storage for weapons?

Explanation

The element within the Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS) that is responsible for providing secure storage for weapons is Mobility. This implies that the Mobility unit or team within the LRS is in charge of ensuring the safe and secure storage of weapons.

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77. All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at least

Explanation

All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at least annually because this ensures that the locations are still suitable for storing goods and that they meet the necessary safety and security standards. Validating the locations annually allows for regular inspections and assessments to identify any potential issues or changes that may have occurred over time. This helps to maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the warehouse operations and ensures that the stored goods remain in good condition.

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78. The minimum data recorded on the recap sheet should include the stock number, system designator, quantity, document number,

Explanation

The minimum data recorded on the recap sheet should include the transaction identification code (TRIC) and the warehouse location. These two pieces of information are essential for accurately tracking and managing inventory. The TRIC identifies the type of transaction being recorded, such as a stock transfer or a stock adjustment, while the warehouse location specifies the physical location of the stock within the warehouse. Together, these data points provide crucial information for inventory control and management.

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79. What type of shelf life coded item has a definite non-extendable shelf life?

Explanation

Type I shelf life coded items have a definite non-extendable shelf life. This means that once the expiration date is reached, these items cannot be used or consumed anymore as they may become unsafe or ineffective. Type A, Type B, and Type II items may have different shelf life coding systems, but they may have the possibility of extending their shelf life under certain conditions. Therefore, Type I is the correct answer as it specifies a definite non-extendable shelf life for the coded item.

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80. The most efficient way to determine requirements for adding, changing, or deleting bench stock authorizations is to process the

Explanation

The M04 process is the most efficient way to determine requirements for adding, changing, or deleting bench stock authorizations. This process involves analyzing the current stock levels, evaluating the demand for specific items, and considering factors such as lead time and cost. By following the M04 process, organizations can ensure that their bench stock authorizations align with their operational needs and optimize inventory management.

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81. Which module supports repair execution, item distribution, and manages flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair?

Explanation

The Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System supports repair execution, item distribution, and manages the flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair. It is responsible for prioritizing repair tasks and ensuring that the necessary resources are available for the repair process. This module helps in efficiently managing and tracking the repair activities and ensures that the assets are repaired and returned to service in a timely manner.

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82. What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?

Explanation

The correct answer is FCD with suspect flag S. This means that the computer input used to load a suspect material flag to an item record is FCD (Field Change Document) with the suspect flag S (indicating that the material is suspect). This input is used to update the item record and flag it as suspect for further investigation or action.

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83. In what class of storage vault will secret and confidential materiel be stored?

Explanation

Secret and confidential material will be stored in Class B storage vault.

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84. A time compliance technical order (TCTO) item is identified in the computer by a TCTO flag or by

Explanation

A time compliance technical order (TCTO) item is identified in the computer by a numeric parts preference code 4. This indicates that the item is related to a TCTO and is assigned a specific numeric code for tracking purposes. The code 4 is specifically used to identify TCTO items, while code 5 is used for other assets. Therefore, the correct answer is numeric parts preference code 4.

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85. In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to your specific data requirements?

Explanation

In Discoverer, a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to specific data requirements is referred to as business areas. Business areas help organize and categorize data in a way that is relevant and meaningful for users. By grouping related tables and views together, users can easily access and analyze the data that is relevant to their specific needs within a particular business area.

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86. When deficiencies are noted during scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many days does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection?

Explanation

When deficiencies are noted during scheduled warehouse surveillance, the inspector conducts a follow-up inspection within 10 days. This allows the inspector to assess whether the identified issues have been addressed and corrected in a timely manner. Conducting a follow-up inspection ensures that any deficiencies are properly resolved and helps maintain the safety and efficiency of the warehouse operations.

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87. The use of Discoverer Viewer is highly encouraged over Discoverer Plus because it

Explanation

The use of Discoverer Viewer is highly encouraged over Discoverer Plus because it uses a lot less bandwidth. This means that it requires less internet data to display the results, making it more efficient and cost-effective.

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88. Which materiel management function maintains a consolidated suspense file for each Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) submitted by the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?

Explanation

Stock control maintains a consolidated suspense file for each Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) submitted by the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). This function is responsible for managing the inventory and ensuring that the stock levels are accurate and up to date. By maintaining a suspense file for each SDR, stock control can track and investigate any discrepancies in the supply chain, ensuring that the correct actions are taken to rectify the issues and maintain a smooth flow of materials.

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89. As a minimum, how often must the combination on combination padlocks be changed for classified storage?

Explanation

For classified storage, the combination on combination padlocks must be changed at least once a year. This ensures that the security of the storage is maintained and reduces the risk of unauthorized access. Changing the combination annually helps to prevent any potential breaches and keeps the classified information secure.

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90. What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device from the item record to maintenance for testing?

Explanation

The correct answer is ISU, C. The transaction identifier code "ISU" refers to the process of issuing or transferring an item, in this case, an electronic sensitive device. The activity code "C" indicates that the device is being sent to maintenance for testing. This combination of transaction identifier code and activity code is used to initiate the necessary steps to transfer the device from the item record to maintenance for testing purposes.

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91. Who ensures the warehouse does not remain closed to normal receipts and issues for an unreasonable length of time during a complete inventory?

Explanation

The accountable office is responsible for ensuring that the warehouse does not remain closed for an unreasonable length of time during a complete inventory. This means that they are in charge of overseeing the inventory process and making sure that it is completed efficiently and in a timely manner, so that normal receipts and issues can resume as soon as possible. The accountable office is responsible for maintaining the smooth operation of the warehouse during inventory, preventing any unnecessary delays or disruptions.

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92. What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device item from a detail record to maintenance for testing?

Explanation

The correct answer is MSI, C. The transaction identifier code MSI is used to process an electronic sensitive device item from a detail record to maintenance for testing. The activity code C indicates that the item is being processed for testing.

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93. Unless directed by applicable directives, how long should an item be coded as suspect materiel?

Explanation

An item should be coded as suspect material for one year unless directed by applicable directives. This means that unless there are specific guidelines or instructions that state otherwise, the item should be considered as suspect material for a period of one year.

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94. The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,

Explanation

The information that needs to be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item includes the model of the item, as well as the manufacturer's name and address. This is important for tracking and identifying the specific item that is being covered under the warranty or guaranty. The model number helps to differentiate between different versions or variations of the item, while the manufacturer's name and address provide contact information for any inquiries or claims related to the warranty or guaranty.

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95. What is the only condition code that can be used with the DD Form 1576, Test Modification Tag/Label?

Explanation

The only condition code that can be used with the DD Form 1576, Test Modification Tag/Label is D.

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96. Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?

Explanation

Serviceable items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity because they are in good condition and can still be used or repaired. Miscellaneous commodities typically refer to items that do not fit into specific categories and are often of lesser value or significance. Unserviceable items are items that are no longer functional or usable, while tires can be considered a specific category of goods. The War Consumables Distribution Objective (WCDO) is not directly related to the classification of items as miscellaneous commodities.

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97. How are storage bin rows in a warehouse numbered?

Explanation

In a warehouse, storage bin rows are numbered in a way that odd numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle. This numbering system helps to organize and locate the storage bins more efficiently. By assigning odd numbers to the left of the main aisle, it becomes easier for workers to navigate and find specific bins. This system ensures a logical and systematic arrangement of storage bins, making it easier to manage inventory and streamline operations in the warehouse.

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98. What interactive processing facility command allows you to add images saved in other files to your job stream?

Explanation

The correct answer is "IN". The "IN" command in an interactive processing facility allows you to add images saved in other files to your job stream. This command is used to incorporate external resources, such as images, into the current job or program being executed. By using the "IN" command, you can easily access and include images from separate files, enhancing the visual elements of your job stream.

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99. Which supply activity code is used to process items to maintenance for a functional check?

Explanation

Supply activity code C is used to process items to maintenance for a functional check.

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100. What automated system was developed to improve the process of tracking assets through base level materiel management channels, to reduce the amount of paper produced and stored in the warehouse, to allow bar code scanning of data to reduce data entry errors, and speed data in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Asset Management. This system was developed to improve the process of tracking assets through base level materiel management channels, reduce the amount of paper produced and stored in the warehouse, allow bar code scanning of data to reduce data entry errors, and speed up data in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

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101. Which product recommends items that qualify for addition to organizational bench stocks?

Explanation

The correct answer is M04. This product recommends items that qualify for addition to organizational bench stocks.

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102. Who is notified for shelf life coding consideration when items in storage have deteriorated?

Explanation

The inventory manager is responsible for overseeing the storage and management of items. When items in storage have deteriorated, it is their duty to ensure that proper shelf life coding considerations are made. They are notified in order to take appropriate actions such as removing expired items, reordering fresh stock, or implementing corrective measures to prevent further deterioration. The LRS commander, warehouse supervisor, and maintenance supervisor may have different responsibilities related to storage, but it is the inventory manager who specifically handles shelf life coding considerations.

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103. Who accounts for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract repair facilities?

Explanation

The Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team is responsible for accounting for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract repair facilities. They oversee the management and tracking of these assets to ensure they are properly accounted for and maintained. This team plays a crucial role in maintaining the readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force's threat reduction capabilities.

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104. What function provides the ability to query all Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S) transactions from a single user interface?

Explanation

The Audit Data Query function allows users to query all Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) transactions from a single user interface. This function provides the ability to search and retrieve specific transaction data related to the ES-S system. It helps in analyzing and auditing the transactions for various purposes such as identifying errors, tracking inventory movements, and ensuring compliance with regulations. By utilizing the Audit Data Query function, users can efficiently access and review the ES-S transaction data without the need for multiple interfaces or manual searching.

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105. When controlled items, approved by the unit commander are placed on bench stock, they are assigned issue exception code

Explanation

When controlled items, approved by the unit commander, are placed on bench stock, they are assigned issue exception code N. This means that these items can only be issued with the approval of higher authority, such as the commander or a designated representative. This code ensures that there is an extra level of control and accountability for these items, preventing unauthorized access or use.

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106. As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned?

Explanation

A utility program needs to be run at least once a month to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned. Running the program on a monthly basis ensures that any hazardous items without the necessary codes or flags are identified and can be addressed in a timely manner. Running the program less frequently, such as weekly or quarterly, may result in a longer delay in identifying and addressing these potentially hazardous items.

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107. How many types of variables are there in the Interactive Processing Facility?

Explanation

The correct answer is Two. The question asks about the number of types of variables in the Interactive Processing Facility. The options given are two, three, four, and five. Since the question specifically asks for the number of types of variables, the correct answer is two.

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108. When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what transaction identifier code (TRIC) is used to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?

Explanation

The TRIC code used to suspend outdated chemical and petroleum products on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue is FCC. This code ensures that the expired materiel is not mistakenly reused or issued to personnel, maintaining safety and quality standards.

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109. Which versatile timesharing and batch system provides both experienced and inexperienced users ways to improve their productivity?

Explanation

Interactive Processing Facility is the correct answer because it is a versatile timesharing and batch system that caters to both experienced and inexperienced users. It provides various features and tools that help users enhance their productivity. The system allows users to interact with it in real-time, providing a responsive and interactive environment for performing tasks. It also supports batch processing, allowing users to submit jobs for execution in the background. Overall, Interactive Processing Facility offers a comprehensive solution for users of all skill levels to improve their productivity.

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110. What condition tag is used to label a time compliance technical order (TCTO) item that was modified and returned from the maintenance function?

Explanation

The condition tag used to label a time compliance technical order (TCTO) item that was modified and returned from the maintenance function is DD Form 1574.

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111. How is warranty or guaranty items identified on the item record?

Explanation

Warranty or guaranty items are identified on the item record using the IEX code B. This means that items with a warranty or guaranty will have the IEX code B assigned to them in the item record. It is likely that the IEX code B is specifically designated for warranty or guaranty items, making it easier for users to identify and track these items within the system.

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112. What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals?

Explanation

The materiel management controlled item code "R" is used to identify precious metals.

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113. Who must be notified to ensure precious metals are included in the Federal Catalog records?

Explanation

To ensure that precious metals are included in the Federal Catalog records, the Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS) must be notified. DLADS is responsible for managing the disposal and redistribution of excess military equipment, including precious metals. They maintain accurate records of these materials to ensure proper inventory management and accountability. The other options, such as the Government Service Administration (GSA), maintenance supervisor, and item manager, may have different roles and responsibilities but are not specifically responsible for the inclusion of precious metals in the Federal Catalog records.

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114. As a minimum, how often is a functional check listing produced?

Explanation

A functional check listing is produced semiannually, which means it is done twice a year. This ensures that all necessary checks and inspections are carried out regularly to maintain the functionality of a system or equipment. This frequency strikes a balance between frequent checks and allowing enough time for any necessary repairs or maintenance to be completed.

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115. How often is the unserviceable storage area reviewed by storage personnel for validation purposes?

Explanation

The unserviceable storage area is reviewed by storage personnel on a daily basis for validation purposes. This frequent review ensures that any unserviceable items are identified and addressed promptly, maintaining the efficiency of the storage area and preventing any potential issues or delays in operations. Regular daily reviews also allow for timely updates and adjustments to be made, ensuring that the storage area remains organized and functional at all times.

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116. After how many days are the Supply Interface System residue images deleted?

Explanation

The Supply Interface System residue images are deleted after 10 days. This means that any residue images stored in the system are automatically removed after a period of 10 days.

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117. What system is capable of supporting multiple full Materiel Management System host accounts?

Explanation

The Standard Base Level Computer (SBLC) is capable of supporting multiple full Materiel Management System host accounts. This suggests that the SBLC has the capability to handle and manage multiple accounts within the Materiel Management System, making it an ideal system for supporting multiple host accounts.

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118. Which organization supports multiple full Materiel Management accounts?

Explanation

The Defense Enterprise Computing Centers (DECC) support multiple full Materiel Management accounts. This means that DECC is responsible for managing and maintaining multiple accounts related to the procurement, storage, and distribution of materials within the organization. DECC is specifically designed to handle the complex and diverse needs of materiel management across the organization.

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119. What on-line system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail material?

Explanation

The correct answer is Stock control system (SCS). This system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail material. It helps in managing and controlling the inventory levels, ensuring that the right amount of stock is available at the right time. It also tracks the movement of stock, allowing for efficient logistics and supply chain management. The SCS is an essential tool for businesses to optimize their stock management processes and improve overall operational efficiency.

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120. How often will an inventory analysis be performed?

Explanation

An inventory analysis is a process of evaluating and reviewing the stock levels and movement of goods in a business. Performing this analysis on a monthly basis allows for regular monitoring of inventory levels, identifying any discrepancies or issues, and making necessary adjustments to optimize inventory management. Monthly analysis ensures that any potential problems are detected and addressed promptly, helping to maintain an efficient and cost-effective inventory system.

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121. Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventories to include units maintaining communication security (COMSEC) and equipment in-use assets?

Explanation

The storage activity is responsible for the accuracy of inventories, including units maintaining communication security (COMSEC) and equipment in-use assets. This means that they are accountable for ensuring that the inventories are kept up-to-date and accurate, including all the necessary equipment and assets.

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122. Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements??

Explanation

The item manager is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements. They are in charge of managing and maintaining the inventory, ensuring that the items are in good condition and available when needed. This includes tracking the lifecycle of the items, conducting regular inspections, and coordinating repairs or replacements as necessary. The item manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that the organization has the necessary resources to successfully carry out its mission.

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123. Who will initiate the deficiency report process to include the deficient property at the time of turn-in?

Explanation

Maintenance personnel will initiate the deficiency report process to include the deficient property at the time of turn-in. This is because maintenance personnel are responsible for identifying and reporting any deficiencies or issues with equipment or property during maintenance activities. They are trained to identify and document any deficiencies, which then triggers the deficiency report process to ensure that the issue is addressed and resolved. Materiel management personnel, warehouse supervisors, and item managers may be involved in the process, but the primary responsibility lies with maintenance personnel.

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124. Which best describes the outcome of a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)?

Explanation

The outcome of a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) is to authorize the processing of a condition change. This means that if there is a discrepancy in the condition of a supplied item, the SDR allows for the necessary changes to be made. It does not notify the shipping organization of a discrepancy, notify MAJCOM of overage items, or authorize the processing of an identification change.

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If required, in what area will a unit pack of Electrostatic Discharge...
What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?
Copies of source documents for classified items are stamped or...
Which DD form is red and is used to identify property that is...
What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse...
What are the two types of open storage areas?
Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from
Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?
What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense...
In Discoverer, what function allows you to transfer data to other...
Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged...
What is the primary reference used for nuclear weapons related...
Which of the following items is not checked when off-loading property...
Which block of the AF form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after...
An organizational refusal would be a customer's responsibility if the
The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide...
When an activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a...
Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions,...
What concept may be necessary when there is an overflow of assets that...
What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
What method is used when conducting a complete inventory?
When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the...
To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount...
Which instruction prescribes basic guidance and responsibilities for...
What routing identifier code is processed with a special requisition...
Who will obtain disposition instructions from the Item Manager for...
Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating...
Who is responsible for properly training all personnel required to...
Inventory schedules are prepared
Which corrosives are incompatible and should be stored separately?
Which principle of material handling obtains the greatest economy in...
Reusable containers come in how many categories?
How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life...
What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate...
What is the Air Force's source for hazardous material data and...
What is the purpose of DD Form 2477, Inspection Extension?
What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense...
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse...
Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?
Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how...
Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum...
What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation...
Which best describes when a Report of Discrepancy is required?
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a...
Within how many workdays of the start of an inventory cycle should the...
When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is...
What system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing,...
What type of warehouse change document is produced when an item's...
When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a...
Which listing is used to identify items that have a serviceable...
What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on...
What position is used to identify the storage lot in warehouse...
What type of material storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons,...
What Transaction Identifier Code (TRIC) is processed to move property...
An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record...
Which form is used to process a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)?
Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies...
Which of these systems provides the capability to compute whole engine...
Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?
Who ensures that customers who generate waste are held liable for...
Who will reissue, redistribute, reuse or transfer consumable and...
Who is assigned as the installation Precious Metals Recovery Program...
In Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S), what are the three...
Who is responsible for transferring precious metals-bearing metals to...
Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded when...
Which property is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of...
Who provides the materiel management inspector a list of items that...
The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry...
What three things are used to identify an item?
Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section...
Which report displays data that is helpful in determining what...
Which individual is designated by the organizational commander or...
Which object is accessible to the user when logged into INFOConnect?
One display line of a terminal screen up to 80 characters long is...
Which principle of material handling requires consideration of legal...
Which element within the Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS) is...
All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at least
The minimum data recorded on the recap sheet should include the stock...
What type of shelf life coded item has a definite non-extendable shelf...
The most efficient way to determine requirements for adding, changing,...
Which module supports repair execution, item distribution, and manages...
What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item...
In what class of storage vault will secret and confidential materiel...
A time compliance technical order (TCTO) item is identified in the...
In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views...
When deficiencies are noted during scheduled warehouse surveillance,...
The use of Discoverer Viewer is highly encouraged over Discoverer Plus...
Which materiel management function maintains a consolidated suspense...
As a minimum, how often must the combination on combination padlocks...
What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process...
Who ensures the warehouse does not remain closed to normal receipts...
What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process...
Unless directed by applicable directives, how long should an item be...
The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a...
What is the only condition code that can be used with the DD Form...
Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?
How are storage bin rows in a warehouse numbered?
What interactive processing facility command allows you to add images...
Which supply activity code is used to process items to maintenance for...
What automated system was developed to improve the process of tracking...
Which product recommends items that qualify for addition to...
Who is notified for shelf life coding consideration when items in...
Who accounts for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract...
What function provides the ability to query all Enterprise...
When controlled items, approved by the unit commander are placed on...
As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify...
How many types of variables are there in the Interactive Processing...
When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what...
Which versatile timesharing and batch system provides both experienced...
What condition tag is used to label a time compliance technical order...
How is warranty or guaranty items identified on the item record?
What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious...
Who must be notified to ensure precious metals are included in the...
As a minimum, how often is a functional check listing produced?
How often is the unserviceable storage area reviewed by storage...
After how many days are the Supply Interface System residue images...
What system is capable of supporting multiple full Materiel Management...
Which organization supports multiple full Materiel Management...
What on-line system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and...
How often will an inventory analysis be performed?
Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventories to include units...
Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission...
Who will initiate the deficiency report process to include the...
Which best describes the outcome of a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)?
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