2S051 Vol. 4 Ure Questions

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  • 1/124 Questions

    If required, in what area will a unit pack of Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) be opened?

    • Working aisle.
    • Receiving line.
    • ESD protective area.
    • Individual bay storage.
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Logistics Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in military logistics, focusing on property off-loading, item identification, and asset disposal. Key skills tested include understanding of Air Force forms and procedures, making it vital for personnel in logistics and supply chain roles.


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  • 2. 

    What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?

    • Concrete.

    • Drainage.

    • Steel mats.

    • Crushed stone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Drainage.
    Explanation
    Drainage protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions by allowing water to flow away from the storage area. It helps in preventing water accumulation and keeps the ground dry, reducing the risk of damage to the stored items. Concrete, steel mats, and crushed stone may also provide some level of protection, but drainage is specifically designed to address wet ground conditions and is the most effective solution in this context.

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  • 3. 

    Which DD form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?

    • DD Form 1576, Test Modification Tag.

    • DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.

    • DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.

    • DD Form 1577–3, Unserviceable (Reparable) Label.

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.
    Explanation
    DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag, is the correct answer because it is specifically used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair. The term "condemned" suggests that the property is no longer usable and should be disposed of. This form serves as a clear indicator that the item is no longer functional and should not be used or repaired.

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  • 4. 

    Copies of source documents for classified items are stamped or handwritten using

    • Blue ink with the words “Classified Item.”

    • Red ink with the words “Classified Item.”

    • Black ink with the words “Classified Item.”

    • Green ink with the words “Classified Item.”

    Correct Answer
    A. Red ink with the words “Classified Item.”
    Explanation
    Copies of source documents for classified items are stamped or handwritten using red ink with the words "Classified Item" because red ink is easily distinguishable and stands out on the document, making it clear that the document is classified. Additionally, using red ink adds an extra layer of security as it is difficult to alter or tamper with.

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  • 5. 

    What are the two types of open storage areas?

    • Surfaced and graded.

    • Graded and covered.

    • Graded and improved.

    • Improved and unimproved.

    Correct Answer
    A. Improved and unimproved.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Improved and unimproved." This refers to the two types of open storage areas. An improved storage area is one that has been modified or developed to enhance its functionality and efficiency, such as adding infrastructure or implementing organizational systems. On the other hand, an unimproved storage area is one that has not undergone any modifications or enhancements, remaining in its natural or basic state. Both types of storage areas have their own advantages and disadvantages, depending on the specific needs and requirements of the situation.

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  • 6. 

    Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from

    • Left to right only.

    • Right to left only.

    • Left to right and front to rear.

    • Right to left and rear to front.

    Correct Answer
    A. Left to right and front to rear.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "left to right and front to rear." This means that the stockrooms in the warehouse are organized in a sequential order starting from the left side and moving towards the right side. Additionally, the stockrooms are also arranged from the front of the warehouse to the rear. This sequencing allows for efficient storage and retrieval of items, ensuring a systematic and organized approach to managing the warehouse inventory.

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  • 7. 

    What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation?

    • Storage bays.

    • Corner markers.

    • Bar code labels.

    • Placement cards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bar code labels.
    Explanation
    The Air Force uses bar code labels to aid in inventory and warehouse validation. Bar code labels allow for efficient tracking and identification of items, making it easier to manage and maintain accurate inventory records. By scanning the bar codes, personnel can quickly verify the presence and location of items, ensuring that the inventory is up to date and accurate. This helps streamline the logistics process and minimize errors in inventory management.

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  • 8. 

    Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?

    • 3, 6, or N.

    • E, F, or 7.

    • 8, 9, or M.

    • H, G, or 8.

    Correct Answer
    A. 8, 9, or M.
    Explanation
    The issue exception codes 8, 9, or M identify health hazard items.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following items is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier?

    • Production date.

    • Shipping label.

    • Obvious damage.

    • Transportation control number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Production date.
    Explanation
    When off-loading property from a carrier, the items that are typically checked include the shipping label to ensure it matches the intended destination, obvious damage to assess any potential harm during transportation, and the transportation control number to track and verify the movement of the property. However, the production date is not relevant in this context as it does not impact the off-loading process or the condition of the property.

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  • 10. 

    Which block of the AF form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after the in-checker has signed and dated block A?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. B
    Explanation
    After the in-checker has signed and dated block A, the inspector will sign or stamp block B of the AF form 2005.

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  • 11. 

    What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?

    • Document log.

    • Transaction log.

    • Central locator listing.

    • Daily document register.

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily document register.
    Explanation
    The daily document register is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file. This register keeps track of all the documents that are received or issued on a daily basis. By updating the register regularly, the warehouse can ensure that all documents are properly accounted for and any discrepancies or missing items can be identified and resolved. This helps in maintaining an organized and accurate record of the warehouse inventory.

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  • 12. 

    Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be

    • Saved as historical data.

    • Obliterated.

    • Recycled.

    • Ignored.

    Correct Answer
    A. Obliterated.
    Explanation
    Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be obliterated. This means that any existing markings that are no longer relevant or accurate should be removed or erased. This is important to ensure that there is no confusion or misinterpretation of the information on the containers. By obliterating these markings, it helps to maintain clarity and accuracy in the labeling of the containers.

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  • 13. 

    What is the primary reference used for nuclear weapons related materiel (NWRM)?

    • AFMAN 23–122, Materiel Management.

    • AFI 23–2308, Management Program.

    • CJCSI 3150.04, Nuclear Weapons Stockpile Logistics Management and Nuclear Weapons Reports Under the Joint Reporting Structure.

    • AFI 31–401, Information Security Program Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. CJCSI 3150.04, Nuclear Weapons Stockpile Logistics Management and Nuclear Weapons Reports Under the Joint Reporting Structure.
    Explanation
    The primary reference used for nuclear weapons related materiel (NWRM) is CJCSI 3150.04, Nuclear Weapons Stockpile Logistics Management and Nuclear Weapons Reports Under the Joint Reporting Structure. This document provides guidance and procedures for managing the logistics of nuclear weapons stockpile and reporting on nuclear weapons activities under the joint reporting structure. It is the authoritative source for handling and reporting of nuclear weapons related materiel.

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  • 14. 

    In Discoverer, what function allows you to transfer data to other application formats?

    • Report.

    • Import.

    • Export.

    • Print.

    Correct Answer
    A. Export.
    Explanation
    The function in Discoverer that allows you to transfer data to other application formats is "Export". This feature enables users to extract and save data from Discoverer reports in various formats such as Excel, PDF, CSV, or HTML. By exporting the data, users can easily share or manipulate it in other applications or tools for further analysis or presentation purposes.

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  • 15. 

    An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the

    • Property was damaged.

    • Customer failed to cancel the due-out.

    • Property delivered was an unsuitable substitute.

    • Quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered.

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer failed to cancel the due-out.
    Explanation
    If the customer failed to cancel the due-out, it means that they did not inform the organization that they no longer needed the property. This lack of communication resulted in the organization preparing the property for the customer, which ultimately led to the refusal. Therefore, the organizational refusal would be the customer's responsibility in this scenario.

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  • 16. 

    When an activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, within what time frame from its discovery must the activity submit a discrepancy report?

    • 12 hours.

    • 24 hours.

    • 30 workdays.

    • 45 calendar days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours.
    Explanation
    When an activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, they must submit a discrepancy report within 24 hours of its discovery. This ensures that any issues with the inventory can be promptly addressed and resolved. Waiting longer than 24 hours could lead to delays in identifying and rectifying the discrepancy, potentially causing further complications or losses.

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  • 17. 

    The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force

    • Owned assets.

    • Sourced assets.

    • Asset shortages.

    • Repairable assets.

    Correct Answer
    A. Owned assets.
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Asset Visibility component aims to offer a comprehensive view of the assets owned by the Air Force. This means that it provides visibility and tracking of all the assets that belong to the Air Force, allowing for better management and control over them. It does not focus on assets that are sourced from external parties, asset shortages, or repairable assets. The main goal is to ensure visibility and oversight of the assets that are owned by the Air Force.

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  • 18. 

    Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flight line base level user?

    • TRACKER.

    • RAMPS.

    • LINK.

    • SCS.

    Correct Answer
    A. TRACKER.
    Explanation
    TRACKER is the correct answer because it is a system that provides the user with information on their requisitions, specifically focusing on the flight line base level user. The other options, RAMPS, LINK, and SCS, do not specifically mention providing information on requisitions or catering to the flight line base level user.

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  • 19. 

    What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?

    • Adverse weather.

    • Wet ground conditions.

    • Slipping on steel mat toppings.

    • Limited use of material handling equipment (MHE).

    Correct Answer
    A. Limited use of material handling equipment (MHE).
    Explanation
    Unimproved open storage refers to storing materials in an outdoor area without any specific infrastructure or equipment. The major disadvantage of this type of storage is the limited use of material handling equipment (MHE). Without proper infrastructure, it becomes difficult to efficiently move and handle materials, resulting in slower operations, increased risk of accidents, and potential damage to the materials. This limitation can lead to inefficiencies and increased costs in logistics and supply chain management.

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  • 20. 

    What concept may be necessary when there is an overflow of assets that cannot be stocked in the primary location?

    • Item similarity.

    • Item popularity.

    • Reserve location.

    • Warehouse validation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reserve location.
    Explanation
    When there is an overflow of assets that cannot be stocked in the primary location, the concept of reserve location becomes necessary. Reserve location refers to an additional storage space or secondary location where excess assets can be stored. This allows for efficient management of inventory and ensures that there is enough space to accommodate the overflow of assets. By utilizing a reserve location, businesses can maintain optimal stock levels in the primary location while still having a backup storage option for surplus items.

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  • 21. 

    What routing identifier code is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Disposition Services (DLADS)?

    • AK1.

    • B14.

    • JBR.

    • SMS.

    Correct Answer
    A. JBR.
    Explanation
    The routing identifier code that is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Disposition Services (DLADS) is JBR.

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  • 22. 

    Who will obtain disposition instructions from the Item Manager for equipment items returned to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?

    • Equipment Accountability Element (EAE).

    • Warehouse supervisor.

    • LRS commander.

    • Mission Capability MICAP.

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment Accountability Element (EAE).
    Explanation
    The Equipment Accountability Element (EAE) will obtain disposition instructions from the Item Manager for equipment items returned to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The EAE is responsible for maintaining accountability of equipment and ensuring proper disposition of returned items. They work closely with the Item Manager to determine the appropriate actions to be taken with the equipment, such as repair, disposal, or redistribution.

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  • 23. 

    What method is used when conducting a complete inventory?

    • Sample Inventory.

    • Closed warehouse.

    • Open warehouse.

    • Review daily document register.

    Correct Answer
    A. Closed warehouse.
    Explanation
    When conducting a complete inventory, the method used is a closed warehouse. This means that the warehouse is locked and inaccessible to anyone other than authorized personnel. This ensures that all items in the inventory are properly accounted for and prevents any unauthorized access or tampering.

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  • 24. 

    When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the

    • Unit price.

    • Unit of issue.

    • Controlled item code.

    • Physical count quantity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical count quantity.
    Explanation
    When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the physical count quantity. This means that the computer checks the actual quantity of inventory items present in the physical count against the recorded balance in the system. By comparing these two values, any discrepancies or errors in the inventory records can be identified and corrected.

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  • 25. 

    To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount image contains a research indicator of

    • AC.

    • AR.

    • AT.

    • AZ.

    Correct Answer
    A. AR.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AR. The reason why the inventory recount image contains a research indicator of "AR" is not explicitly mentioned in the question. However, based on common knowledge, "AR" is often used as an abbreviation for "Additional Research." Therefore, it can be inferred that the presence of "AR" in the inventory recount image indicates that additional research is needed to gather more information or verify the accuracy of the inventory.

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  • 26. 

    Which instruction prescribes basic guidance and responsibilities for managing public property under Air Force control by authorizing and directing commanders to manage government property under their command?

    • Operation Security—AFI 10–701.

    • Logistics Compliance Assessment Program—AFI 20–111.

    • Materiel Management—AFI 23–101.

    • Management of Government Property in Possession of the Air Force—AFI 23–111.

    Correct Answer
    A. Management of Government Property in Possession of the Air Force—AFI 23–111.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Management of Government Property in Possession of the Air Force—AFI 23–111." This instruction provides guidance and responsibilities for managing public property under Air Force control. It authorizes and directs commanders to manage government property under their command.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating mechanized material handling systems (MMHS) to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?

    • Operational deficiencies.

    • Workload breakdown.

    • General layout.

    • Cost.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost.
    Explanation
    When operating mechanized material handling systems (MMHS), it is important to consider various factors to ensure the elimination of unsafe incidents. Operational deficiencies refer to any shortcomings or faults in the system's operation, which need to be addressed to maintain safety. Workload breakdown involves analyzing the workload distribution to prevent overloading or underutilization of the system. General layout refers to the arrangement and design of the MMHS, ensuring that it is optimized for efficient and safe operations. However, cost is not a factor directly related to safety. While cost considerations are important for decision-making, it does not directly impact the elimination of unsafe incidents.

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  • 28. 

    Who is responsible for properly training all personnel required to handle controlled materiel?

    • Inspection section.

    • Inventory section.

    • Chief inspector.

    • Commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief inspector.
    Explanation
    The chief inspector is responsible for properly training all personnel required to handle controlled materiel. This role ensures that all individuals have the necessary knowledge and skills to handle these materials safely and effectively. The chief inspector plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and security of controlled materiel by ensuring that all personnel are trained according to established protocols and guidelines.

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  • 29. 

    What is the purpose of DD Form 2477, Inspection Extension?

    • Updates inspection data.

    • Identifies condemned items.

    • Identifies property forwarded to maintenance.

    • Identifies property in stock that has been suspended.

    Correct Answer
    A. Updates inspection data.
    Explanation
    DD Form 2477, Inspection Extension, is used to update inspection data. This form allows for the extension of the inspection period for property that is not ready for turn-in or disposal. By updating the inspection data, the form ensures that accurate information is maintained regarding the status and condition of the property. This helps in tracking and managing the property effectively.

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  • 30. 

    What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas?

    • Item quantity.

    • Item similarity.

    • Item popularity.

    • Item size and weight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Item popularity.
    Explanation
    When items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas, the storage factor used is item popularity. This means that items that are less popular and have a slower turnover rate are stored in areas that are less accessible or farther away. By doing so, the more popular and frequently requested items can be stored in areas that are closer and easily accessible, optimizing the efficiency of stock processing and retrieval.

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  • 31. 

    Which corrosives are incompatible and should be stored separately?

    • Peroxyacetic acid and hydrochloric acid.

    • Organic and nonorganic acid.

    • Acetic and nonacetic.

    • Acids and alkalis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acids and alkalis.
    Explanation
    Acids and alkalis should be stored separately because they are incompatible and can react with each other, potentially causing a dangerous chemical reaction. Acids are substances that release hydrogen ions when dissolved in water, while alkalis are substances that release hydroxide ions. When acids and alkalis come into contact, they can neutralize each other, resulting in the formation of water and a salt. This reaction can release heat and potentially cause an explosion or release of toxic gases. Therefore, it is important to store acids and alkalis separately to prevent any accidental mixing or reaction.

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  • 32. 

    What is the Air Force’s source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information?

    • Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

    • Air Force Cargo Movement Operations System (AF–CMOS).

    • Air Force–hazardous materials (AF–HAZMAT).

    • Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information System (EESOH-MIS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information System (EESOH-MIS).
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information System (EESOH-MIS) is the Air Force's source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information. This system is specifically designed to manage and track environmental safety and occupational health information within the Air Force. It serves as a centralized database for storing and accessing information related to hazardous materials, ensuring that the Air Force has accurate and up-to-date information to effectively manage and prevent pollution.

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  • 33. 

    How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?

    • 10

    • 15 to 45

    • 60 to 90.

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 to 45
    Explanation
    Type II shelf-life items should be scheduled for serviceability testing 15 to 45 days prior to the expiration date. This time frame allows for adequate testing to ensure that the items are still in good condition and can be safely used before they expire. Scheduling the testing too early may result in inaccurate results, while scheduling it too close to the expiration date may not leave enough time for any necessary corrective actions to be taken. Therefore, the recommended time frame of 15 to 45 days strikes a balance between ensuring the items' serviceability and allowing enough time for any required adjustments.

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  • 34. 

    Inventory schedules are prepared

    • On an as-required basis.

    • By fiscal year.

    • By calendar year.

    • Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    A. By fiscal year.
    Explanation
    Inventory schedules are prepared by fiscal year because it allows for better financial planning and budgeting. By aligning the inventory schedule with the fiscal year, businesses can accurately track and manage their inventory levels, costs, and sales. This helps in determining the optimal inventory levels, identifying slow-moving or obsolete items, and making informed decisions regarding purchasing and production. Additionally, preparing inventory schedules by fiscal year facilitates easier comparison of financial data and performance analysis across different periods.

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  • 35. 

    Which principle of material handling obtains the greatest economy in moving materiel?

    • Advanced planning.

    • Use straight line flow.

    • Least handling is the best handling.

    • Volume dictates the method of handling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Least handling is the best handling.
    Explanation
    The principle of "least handling is the best handling" suggests that minimizing the number of times an item is handled during the material handling process can lead to the greatest economy. This principle emphasizes the importance of streamlining operations and reducing unnecessary movements or transfers of materials. By minimizing handling, organizations can save time, reduce labor costs, and minimize the risk of damage or loss during transportation or storage. This principle encourages efficient and effective material handling practices to optimize productivity and cost-effectiveness.

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  • 36. 

    Reusable containers come in how many categories?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Reusable containers come in two categories. This suggests that there are two distinct types or classifications of reusable containers. However, without additional context or information, it is not possible to determine what these categories specifically entail.

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  • 37. 

    What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used to the greatest extent possible?

    • Bin rows.

    • Storage areas.

    • Item popularity.

    • Item similarity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Storage areas.
    Explanation
    Before the actual start of the storage operation, it is important to plan the storage areas to ensure that the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse are used to the greatest extent possible. This involves determining the layout and arrangement of the storage areas, including the placement of racks, shelves, and bins. By planning the storage areas effectively, the available space can be optimized, maximizing the storage capacity of the warehouse.

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  • 38. 

    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?

    • FCD.

    • FIC.

    • FCH.

    • 1SC.

    Correct Answer
    A. FIC.
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code (TRIC) that identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change is FIC. This code is used to indicate a change in the warehouse, such as a change in the location or quantity of a specific item. The other options, FCD, FCH, and 1SC, do not specifically pertain to warehouse change documents or indicative data changes.

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  • 39. 

    Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?

    • Wrong part is delivered to a customer.

    • Item in stock requires a supply deficiency report.

    • Inquiry shows that the on-hand balance of an asset is zero.

    • Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient.
    Explanation
    This scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal because the quantity in the location is not sufficient to fulfill an issue request. This means that the warehouse is refusing to provide the requested quantity due to insufficient stock.

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  • 40. 

    Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum temperature of

    • 80 degrees Fahrenheit

    • 90 degrees Fahrenheit

    • 100 degrees Fahrenheit

    • 110 degrees Fahrenheit

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 degrees Fahrenheit
    Explanation
    Flammable solids are substances that can ignite and burn easily. The correct answer is 100 degrees Fahrenheit because this is the minimum temperature at which a solid substance can catch fire and sustain combustion. At temperatures below 100 degrees Fahrenheit, the solid would not be considered flammable.

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  • 41. 

    What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file?

    • Reverse post output document.

    • Inventory count record.

    • Inventory recount image (IRC) output document.

    • Annotated 1GP notice.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annotated 1GP notice.
    Explanation
    The annotated 1GP notice is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file. This document provides detailed information about any discrepancies or issues related to inventory counts. By reviewing and addressing the annotated 1GP notice, the freeze code can be cleared and the inventory records can be updated accordingly.

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  • 42. 

    Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?

    • 10

    • 25

    • 50

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    Short-life reusable containers are designed to be used multiple times before they reach the end of their useful life. The question asks how many round-trips these containers are expected to survive. The correct answer is 10, indicating that these containers are expected to be used for a minimum of 10 round-trips before they are no longer usable.

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  • 43. 

    What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a condition change?

    • FCH.

    • FCU.

    • FCC.

    • FCI.

    Correct Answer
    A. FCC.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FCC. In the context of transaction identification codes (TRICs), FCC is the code that is processed to initiate a condition change. The other options, FCH, FCU, and FCI, are not relevant in this context and do not initiate a condition change.

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  • 44. 

    Which best describes when a Report of Discrepancy is required?

    • LRS processed issue request.

    • LRS cancels issue request.

    • Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments.

    • Assets involving local base or station deliveries to or returns from internal or satellite activities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments.
    Explanation
    A Report of Discrepancy is required when there is incorrect material, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments. This means that if the received material does not match the ordered material, if the substitutes provided are not acceptable, or if there are duplicate shipments, a Report of Discrepancy needs to be filed. This helps to ensure that the correct material is received and any issues are addressed and resolved.

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  • 45. 

    When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization?

    • Bin rows.

    • Work areas.

    • Bulk storage.

    • Special storage.

    Correct Answer
    A. Work areas.
    Explanation
    When planning a warehouse layout, it is important to keep work areas to a minimum in order to increase storage space and utilization. Work areas, such as aisles and loading docks, take up valuable space that could be used for storing goods. By minimizing work areas, more space can be allocated for storage, allowing for increased storage capacity and better utilization of the warehouse.

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  • 46. 

    Within how many workdays of the start of an inventory cycle should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?

    • 3

    • 7

    • 10

    • 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    Scheduled validations should be completed within 10 workdays of the start of an inventory cycle. This means that the storage activity needs to finish the necessary checks and verifications within this timeframe to ensure the accuracy and integrity of the inventory. Completing the validations within 10 workdays allows for a reasonable amount of time to conduct thorough inspections and address any discrepancies or issues that may arise during the process.

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  • 47. 

    What type of warehouse change document is produced when an item’s security classification is increased on the item record?

    • Identity.

    • Condition.

    • Indicative data.

    • Controlled item code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled item code.
    Explanation
    When an item's security classification is increased on the item record, a warehouse change document known as a "Controlled item code" is produced. This document is used to track and manage the change in security classification for the item. It helps in ensuring that the item is handled and stored according to the updated security requirements, and also enables proper documentation and control of the item's movement within the warehouse.

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  • 48. 

    When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is used to record the out-of-balance conditions?

    • Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14).

    • Parameter inputs.

    • 1GP output notice.

    • Equipment listing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14).
    Explanation
    When performing an inventory on an equipment account, the product used to record the out-of-balance conditions is the Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14). This product is specifically designed to keep track of the authorization and custody receipts, ensuring that the equipment is properly accounted for. It allows for easy identification of any discrepancies or imbalances in the inventory, making it an essential tool in maintaining accurate records of equipment.

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  • 49. 

    What system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, re-distribution, forecasting, and other management decisions?

    • Oracle Discoverer Plus.

    • Enterprise Solution–Supply.

    • Standard Asset Tracking System.

    • Weapon System Management Information System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Solution–Supply.
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Solution-Supply system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, re-distribution, forecasting, and other management decisions. This system is specifically designed to handle various aspects of supply chain management and helps organizations in efficiently managing their inventory, procurement, and distribution processes. It offers features and functionalities that enable decision-makers to make informed choices and optimize their supply chain operations.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 8, 2024 +

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  • Mar 08, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 18, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    C5SGTCDC
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