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1. Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?

Explanation

All Air Force members and employees will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use. This means that every individual within the Air Force is responsible for taking care of government property and can be held accountable if they cause any harm to it.

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About This Quiz
Supply 7 Level Vol 1 - Quiz

The 'supply 7 level vol 1' quiz assesses knowledge in military logistics and materiel management. It covers unit type codes, career broadening programs, and operational responsibilities in supply and distribution, essential for professionals in military supply chain management.

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2. Who may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program?

Explanation

Reject monitors may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program. This implies that they have the authority and responsibility to delete rejected items from the system. The other options, such as the accountable officer, management and system officer, and quality assurance personnel, do not specifically mention the ability to force-delete rejects using the reject processor program.

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3. Which releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?

Explanation

The "R" releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag indicates that the inquiry is specifically for releveling purposes, which involves analyzing and adjusting stock levels based on demand and supply. By selecting the "R" flag, the inquiry will generate a summary of the stock number's requirements, allowing users to make informed decisions regarding the stock's replenishment and allocation.

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4. Which is a common material management indicator?

Explanation

A common material management indicator is warehouse refusal. This refers to the situation where a warehouse refuses to accept or store certain materials due to various reasons such as lack of space, quality issues, or incorrect documentation. It is an important indicator as it highlights potential issues in the supply chain and can help in identifying areas for improvement in material management processes.

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5. Within how many hours must the receiving activity submit a supply discrepancy report for a shortage of a controlled item?

Explanation

The receiving activity must submit a supply discrepancy report for a shortage of a controlled item within 24 hours. This ensures that any discrepancies in the supply of controlled items are promptly reported and addressed, allowing for timely resolution and replenishment of the item if necessary. It also helps in maintaining accurate inventory records and tracking the flow of controlled items within the supply chain.

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6. Which flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?

Explanation

The flight responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property is the Deployment and Distribution flight. This flight is in charge of coordinating and overseeing the logistics and transportation aspects of a wing's deployment operations, ensuring that all necessary resources, personnel, and equipment are efficiently and effectively deployed to the designated locations. Additionally, they are responsible for managing the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property, ensuring that everything is properly accounted for and delivered to the appropriate destinations.

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7. Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?

Explanation

When an error is detected during processing of a transaction in the Materiel Management System, the program that takes control of computer processing is the "Reject" program. This program is designed to handle errors and reject the transaction, ensuring that incorrect or faulty data is not processed further. It helps in maintaining the integrity and accuracy of the system by preventing erroneous transactions from being processed.

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8. In order to qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program, Program nominees must meet all of the following, except

Explanation

To qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program, Program nominees must meet the following criteria: have a 2S071 control Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC), have less than 15 years time in service, and possess the rank of TSgt or MSgt. The exception is that they do not need to be recommended by their wing commander.

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9. Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as

Explanation

Users have the ability to query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records for up to one year. This means that they can access and retrieve transaction history data that dates back to a period of one year.

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10. What is the term used to define the steps a base takes when the materiel management system is temporarily inoperative or when other circumstances impose significant limitations on normal processing capabilities?

Explanation

Degraded operation is the term used to define the steps a base takes when the materiel management system is temporarily inoperative or when other circumstances impose significant limitations on normal processing capabilities.

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11. Which materiel management unit type code (UTC) identifies the superintendent bare base support? 

Explanation

The materiel management unit type code (UTC) JFBBS identifies the superintendent bare base support.

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12. Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable office function?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Check in and out with the flight chief." This is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable office function because it ensures that the visit is properly documented and accounted for. Checking in and out with the flight chief allows for proper coordination and communication throughout the visit, ensuring that all necessary procedures are followed and any issues or concerns can be addressed. It also helps to maintain accountability and track the presence of visitors within the office.

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13. What type of analysis identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, standards, and norms?

Explanation

Trend analysis is a type of analysis that identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, standards, and norms. It involves studying patterns and changes over a period of time to determine the direction and magnitude of change. By comparing current data to historical data or benchmarks, trends can be identified, and any deviations from the expected or desired standards can be highlighted. This helps in assessing performance and making informed decisions for improvement or corrective actions.

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14. What system provides hazardous materiel managers oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system to ensure only minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information. This system provides hazardous material managers with oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system. It ensures that only minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that the material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose.

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15. What organization is the primary point of contact for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander?

Explanation

Quality assurance is the correct answer because it is responsible for ensuring that the products or services provided by an organization meet the required standards and specifications. In the context of materiel management and logistics readiness, quality assurance would be the primary point of contact for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or LRS commander. They would be responsible for ensuring that the processes and procedures related to receiving, customer service, and computer operations are in line with the required quality standards.

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16. In addition to management reports, what other sources of information can help in identifying problems when gathering data after the management indicators have been selected?

Explanation

Training reports can help in identifying problems when gathering data after the management indicators have been selected because they provide information about the effectiveness of training programs and the skills and knowledge gained by employees. By analyzing training reports, management can identify any gaps in employee performance or areas where additional training may be needed, which can ultimately help in addressing problems and improving overall performance.

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17. Which supply class includes all repair parts and components to include kits, assemblies, and subassemblies?

Explanation

Supply class IX includes all repair parts and components, including kits, assemblies, and subassemblies. This means that it covers a wide range of items necessary for repair and maintenance purposes.

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18. What best describes supply class VII items?

Explanation

Supply class VII items are best described as major end items. Major end items refer to the final products or equipment that are ready for use or consumption. In the context of supply class VII, these items are typically large-scale equipment or systems that are used for military purposes. They are considered major assets and are crucial for the functioning and operations of the military. Therefore, major end items are the most appropriate description for supply class VII items.

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19. What organization is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty report?

Explanation

The AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports. This organization ensures that any issues or problems with equipment or systems are properly reported, addressed, and resolved. They play a crucial role in maintaining the quality and functionality of the equipment and systems used by the organization.

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20. A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected

Explanation

A category III difficulty report (DIREP) is a report that does not require immediate action and can be addressed in the next scheduled release. This means that it does not stop the processing of other tasks and can be corrected and resolved at a later time. The report may include issues or problems that are not urgent or critical, allowing them to be addressed when the workload permits in the next scheduled release.

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21. Which specialized center is the hub for integration and management of maintenance and supply chain capabilities?

Explanation

AF Sustainment is the correct answer because it refers to a specialized center that serves as the hub for integrating and managing maintenance and supply chain capabilities. This center is responsible for ensuring the smooth operation and coordination of maintenance activities and the efficient management of the supply chain to support the overall mission of the organization. The other options, AF Integration and Management, AF Supply and Maintenance, and AF Plans and Scheduling, do not specifically mention the integration and management of maintenance and supply chain capabilities, making them incorrect choices.

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22. Which type of Supply Interface System (SIFS) files are designed to ensure any inbound or outbound images that could not be identified or dispatched are cleared in a timely manner?

Explanation

Residue files in the Supply Interface System (SIFS) are designed to clear any inbound or outbound images that could not be identified or dispatched in a timely manner. These files help ensure that any unprocessed or leftover images are dealt with and resolved efficiently.

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23. Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records?

Explanation

Category II is assigned when a problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records. This means that the problem is significant enough to disrupt the normal functioning of the computer, but it does not result in any permanent damage or loss of data.

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24. An effective analysis program must be based on

Explanation

An effective analysis program must be based on organizational objectives because these objectives provide the overall direction and purpose for the analysis. By aligning the analysis program with the organization's goals and objectives, it ensures that the analysis is focused on addressing the specific needs and priorities of the organization. This helps in making informed decisions and taking appropriate actions to achieve the desired outcomes. Additionally, basing the analysis program on organizational objectives helps in measuring the effectiveness and success of the program by evaluating its impact on the achievement of these objectives.

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25. What is the tool called when given the ability to track the identity, status, and location of Department of Defense units, and non-unit cargo (excluding bulk petroleum, oils, and lubricants) and passengers; medical patients; and personal property from origin to consignee or destination across the range of military operations?

Explanation

In-transit visibility (ITV) is the correct answer because it refers to the tool that provides the ability to track the identity, status, and location of Department of Defense units, non-unit cargo, passengers, medical patients, and personal property from origin to destination across military operations.

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26. Where are all supply discrepancy report (SDR) suspense copies kept?

Explanation

The correct answer is Customer Support. In the context of supply discrepancy reports (SDR), customer support is responsible for keeping all the suspense copies of the reports. This means that any issues or discrepancies related to the supply are reported and stored by the customer support department. This ensures that all the necessary information regarding supply discrepancies is easily accessible and can be used for further investigation or resolution.

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27. Storing all supply interface system (SIFS) images for the purpose of backup into a local user file is a duplication of effort and an abuse of system resources because

Explanation

Storing all SIFS images for backup into a local user file is unnecessary because SIFS already has its own recovery and contingency procedures in place. This means that in the event of any issues or data loss, SIFS is able to recover and restore the images without relying on the backup stored in the local user file. Therefore, storing duplicate images in the local user file is a duplication of effort and a waste of system resources.

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28. How often are supply inventories completed?

Explanation

Supply inventories are completed once per fiscal year, which is a period of twelve months used for financial reporting purposes. This is different from a calendar year, which is a period of twelve months starting from January 1st. Completing supply inventories once per fiscal year allows organizations to track and manage their inventory levels and make necessary adjustments to their supply chain and procurement processes.

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29. What supply management listing reflects all accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject?

Explanation

The correct answer is D818 because it is the only supply management listing that specifically mentions accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject. The other options (D04, D11, D20) do not provide any information about accountable rejects or reprocessing attempts.

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30. How many days after the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR) will the discrepancy details appear on the SDR listing?

Explanation

After the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR), it will take between 55 to 109 days for the discrepancy details to appear on the SDR listing.

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31. Edits made to the NARRATIVE file will

Explanation

Edits made to the NARRATIVE file will corrupt it. This means that any changes or modifications made to the file will result in it becoming damaged or unusable. It suggests that the edits may introduce errors or inconsistencies that render the file unreadable or inoperable. This could be due to accidental deletions, formatting issues, or incompatible changes made to the file's structure or content. Overall, the correct answer implies that any edits to the NARRATIVE file will have a negative impact on its integrity and functionality.

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32. What system prepares supply data reports for off-base distribution?

Explanation

The Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS) is the system that prepares supply data reports for off-base distribution. It is specifically designed for the purpose of submitting data reports and streamlining the supply chain process. SIFS, Supply Interface System (SIFS), and ADRSS II are not mentioned in the question and therefore are not relevant to the preparation of supply data reports for off-base distribution.

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33. What do deployed kit personnel rely on to prevent confusion and maintain normal operations?

Explanation

Deployed kit personnel rely on the accuracy of the R43 list to prevent confusion and maintain normal operations. The R43 list is likely a comprehensive inventory list that ensures that all necessary items are accounted for and in the correct location. By relying on the accuracy of this list, personnel can effectively track and manage their deployed equipment, minimizing confusion and disruptions to normal operations.

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34. What supply management listing shows all rejects that have been cleared?

Explanation

The supply management listing that shows all rejects that have been cleared is D20.

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35. Which unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and (when required) expeditionary theater distribution center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location?

Explanation

JFBCW is the correct answer because it provides mobility support and expeditionary theater distribution center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location.

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36. A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?

Explanation

The function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within 15 days of the date on the surveillance report. This time frame allows for a reasonable amount of time to review the report, gather any necessary information, and formulate a response. Waiting longer than 15 days may result in delays or potential issues with addressing any concerns or issues raised in the report.

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37. Which supply class includes ammunition?

Explanation

Supply class V includes ammunition. Supply classes are used to categorize and manage different types of supplies in the military. Class V specifically refers to ammunition, explosives, and associated items. This class is crucial for maintaining and replenishing the military's stock of weapons and munitions.

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38. What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?

Explanation

Supply-chain operations reference provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure. This framework helps organizations to standardize their supply chain processes, improve efficiency, and achieve better performance. It serves as a guide for organizations to benchmark their supply chain operations against industry standards and best practices, enabling them to identify areas for improvement and implement effective strategies. By providing a comprehensive and integrated structure, the supply-chain operations reference framework helps organizations optimize their supply chain operations and achieve their business objectives.

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39. Which notifies the individual selected by the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program selection panel, by message not later than 30 days after selection?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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40. What item(s) are needed by quality assurance to perform an analysis?

Explanation

Quality assurance needs statistics and source documents to perform an analysis. These documents provide valuable data and information that can be used to assess the quality of a product or process. Statistics help in measuring and analyzing performance metrics, while source documents provide the necessary context and details for conducting a thorough analysis. By utilizing these items, quality assurance can identify problems, trends, and areas for improvement, ultimately ensuring that the desired level of quality is achieved.

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41. Where do you start your research before you conduct a surveillance visit of a function?

Explanation

Before conducting a surveillance visit of a function, it is important to start by researching the directives that apply to the function. These directives provide guidance and instructions on how the function should be conducted, ensuring that the surveillance visit is aligned with the established protocols and procedures. By reviewing the directives, one can gain a better understanding of the expectations and requirements for the function, allowing for a more effective and comprehensive surveillance visit.

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42. What is identified as a web-based automated command and control information system that supports the family of transportation users and providers—both DOD and commercial, by providing an integrated system of in-transit visibility information and command and control capabilities?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Transportation Network (GTN). The GTN is a web-based automated command and control information system that supports transportation users and providers, both military and commercial. It provides an integrated system of in-transit visibility information and command and control capabilities, allowing for efficient and effective transportation operations. It helps to track and manage the movement of cargo and personnel, ensuring timely and accurate delivery.

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43. What type of Join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship?

Explanation

An outer join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship. It includes all the records from one table and the matching records from the other table, and if there is no match, it includes null values for the unmatched records. This type of join is useful when you want to include all the data from one table, regardless of whether there is a matching record in the other table.

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44. What Air Mobility Command (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supports Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Decision Support System (GDSS). GDSS is the Air Mobility Command (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system that supports Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management. GDSS provides real-time situational awareness, planning, and execution capabilities for the management of air transportation operations. It enables TACC to efficiently coordinate and control airlift missions, ensuring effective mission execution and resource allocation. GDSS plays a crucial role in enhancing the overall efficiency and effectiveness of AMC's airlift operations.

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45. Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?

Explanation

The correct answer is I. Difficulty report (DIREP) category code I is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating. This category code is used to indicate the most severe and critical issues that require immediate attention and resolution.

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46. In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to a specific data requirements?

Explanation

A logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to a specific data requirements is known as business areas. Business areas help organize and categorize data in a way that is relevant and meaningful to the users. It allows users to easily access and analyze data that is related to their specific needs or roles within the organization.

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47. What are the keys to deficiency identification?

Explanation

The keys to deficiency identification are analysis and special analysis program. This means that by conducting thorough analysis and utilizing specialized analysis programs, deficiencies can be identified. Personal visits and audits, source documents and reports, and training and cross feed reports may also contribute to deficiency identification, but the most effective approach is through analysis and special analysis programs.

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48. Who must review the residue portion of the Supply Interface System end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?

Explanation

The residue portion of the Supply Interface System end-of-day report needs to be reviewed by the Functional Systems Management Section. This section is responsible for ensuring that users clear residue images in a timely manner. The other options, such as Individual Flight Chiefs, Accountable Officer, and Quality Assurance Element, do not have the specific responsibility mentioned in the question.

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49. Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program deficiencies?

Explanation

Category IV is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program deficiencies. This suggests that the category IV is specifically designated for minor program issues such as misspellings and other minor deficiencies. It is likely that the other categories (I, II, and III) are assigned for different types or levels of difficulties or program deficiencies.

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50. How many days after the first follow-up is a second follow-up sent to an action activity that has not replied to a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?

Explanation

The second follow-up is sent 45 days after the first follow-up to an action activity that has not replied to a supply discrepancy report (SDR).

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Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of...
Who may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program?
Which releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to...
Which is a common material management indicator?
Within how many hours must the receiving activity submit a supply...
Which flight is responsible for the centralized command and control,...
Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of...
In order to qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management...
Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated...
What is the term used to define the steps a base takes when the...
Which materiel management unit type code (UTC) identifies the...
Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an...
What type of analysis identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations...
What system provides hazardous materiel managers oversight of orders...
What organization is the primary point of contact for special topics...
In addition to management reports, what other sources of information...
Which supply class includes all repair parts and components to include...
What best describes supply class VII items?
What organization is responsible for submitting, controlling, and...
A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and...
Which specialized center is the hub for integration and management of...
Which type of Supply Interface System (SIFS) files are designed to...
Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem...
An effective analysis program must be based on
What is the tool called when given the ability to track the identity,...
Where are all supply discrepancy report (SDR) suspense copies kept?
Storing all supply interface system (SIFS) images for the purpose of...
How often are supply inventories completed?
What supply management listing reflects all accountable rejects and...
How many days after the initial submission of the supply discrepancy...
Edits made to the NARRATIVE file will
What system prepares supply data reports for off-base distribution?
What do deployed kit personnel rely on to prevent confusion and...
What supply management listing shows all rejects that have been...
Which unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and (when...
A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply...
Which supply class includes ammunition?
What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics,...
Which notifies the individual selected by the Materiel Management...
What item(s) are needed by quality assurance to perform an analysis?
Where do you start your research before you conduct a surveillance...
What is identified as a web-based automated command and control...
What type of Join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or...
What Air Mobility Command (AMC) force level command and control (C2)...
Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when...
In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views...
What are the keys to deficiency identification?
Who must review the residue portion of the Supply Interface System...
Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when there...
How many days after the first follow-up is a second follow-up sent to...
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