Contracting 7 Level CDCs

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  • 1/101 Questions

    Who is required to receive job safety training?

    • Only civilian personnel
    • Only military personnel
    • Only contractor personnel
    • All government personnel
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CDCs Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in government contracting, focusing on the Contracting 7 Level CDCs. It covers key areas such as LPTA source selection, RFP structure, proposal evaluation, and solicitation factors, essential for professionals in contract management.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is used to update and post the percentage completed to the appropriate time interval on the progress schedule?

    • Payrolls

    • Progress report.

    • Preorientation conference.

    • Material approval submittal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Progress report.
    Explanation
    A progress report is used to update and post the percentage completed to the appropriate time interval on the progress schedule. This report provides an overview of the progress made on a project, including the tasks completed, milestones achieved, and any issues or delays encountered. It allows stakeholders to track the project's progress and make informed decisions regarding resource allocation and schedule adjustments. Payrolls, preorientation conferences, and material approval submittals are not directly related to updating and posting the percentage completed on a progress schedule.

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  • 3. 

    What procedure is available for use by contractors and the government to resolve issues in controversy?

    • Litigation

    • Congressional inquiry.

    • Inspector General complaint.

    • Alternative Dispute Resolution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Alternative Dispute Resolution.
    Explanation
    Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) refers to a procedure that allows contractors and the government to resolve issues in controversy without going through litigation. ADR methods, such as mediation or arbitration, provide a more informal and less adversarial approach to dispute resolution. It allows both parties to negotiate and find a mutually acceptable solution, which can often be more efficient and cost-effective than going to court. This option is commonly used in contract disputes to avoid the lengthy and expensive process of litigation.

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  • 4. 

    What action might a contract officer (CO) take if an untimely request for a debriefing was received?

    • The CO may decline to provide the debriefing.

    • The CO must limit the debriefing to who received the award and the award amount.

    • The CO must provide a complete debriefing to all offerors who request one regardless of timeliness.

    • The CO is required to provide a debriefing in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. The CO may decline to provide the debriefing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the CO may decline to provide the debriefing. This is because the question specifically states that the request for a debriefing is untimely. In such cases, the CO has the discretion to decline the request.

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  • 5. 

    What process is used to request relief from deployment taskings due to extenuating circumstances?

    • Shortfall

    • Reclama

    • Relief request

    • Medical profile

    Correct Answer
    A. Reclama
    Explanation
    A "reclama" is a process used to request relief from deployment taskings due to extenuating circumstances. This allows individuals to seek relief from their assigned tasks if they have valid reasons such as medical issues or personal emergencies. It provides a formal channel for individuals to communicate their situation and request for alternative arrangements or exemptions from their deployment responsibilities.

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  • 6. 

    What is not a benefit of the Self-Inspection Program?

    • Identifies training needs

    • Allows for immediate corrective actions

    • Promotes effective levels of standardization

    • Dissolves the need for other compliance inspections

    Correct Answer
    A. Dissolves the need for other compliance inspections
    Explanation
    The Self-Inspection Program offers several benefits such as identifying training needs, allowing for immediate corrective actions, and promoting effective levels of standardization. However, it does not dissolve the need for other compliance inspections. This means that even with the implementation of the Self-Inspection Program, other compliance inspections are still necessary to ensure full compliance with regulations and standards.

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  • 7. 

    It may become necessary to walk away from negotiations when

    • A reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal.

    • The government will exceed its maximum price position.

    • The negotiations begin to exceed a reasonable amount of time.

    • The parties cannot agree on price alone, although it is known that a better deal does not exist.

    Correct Answer
    A. A reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal.
    Explanation
    When negotiations reach a point where a reasonable person would deem it to be a bad deal, it may become necessary to walk away. This means that if the terms and conditions of the negotiation do not meet the standards of what a reasonable individual would consider fair or beneficial, it is better to discontinue the negotiation rather than accepting an unfavorable agreement. This decision is based on the judgment of a reasonable person's assessment of the deal's value and potential outcomes.

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  • 8. 

    What document is used to support the price agreement in all negotiated awards not based on adequate price competition?

    • Sole Source Letter.

    • Best Value Determination.

    • Determination and Findings.

    • Price Negotiation Memorandum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Price Negotiation Memorandum.
    Explanation
    The Price Negotiation Memorandum is used to support the price agreement in all negotiated awards not based on adequate price competition. It is a document that summarizes the negotiations, justifications, and decisions made during the price negotiation process. It includes information such as the background of the procurement, the offeror's proposal, the government's analysis of the proposal, and the final negotiated price. The Price Negotiation Memorandum is an essential document for ensuring transparency and accountability in the procurement process.

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  • 9. 

    Post-award debriefings must include

    • The overall evaluated cost or price and technical ratings of all offerors.

    • The government’s evaluation of the signification weaknesses in the offeror’s proposal.

    • Names of individuals providing reference information about the offeror’s past performance.

    • A point by point comparison of the debriefed offeror’s proposal with those of other offerors.

    Correct Answer
    A. The government’s evaluation of the signification weaknesses in the offeror’s proposal.
    Explanation
    Post-award debriefings must include the government's evaluation of the significant weaknesses in the offeror's proposal. This is important because it allows the offeror to understand the areas where their proposal fell short and how it was evaluated by the government. By providing this information, the offeror can gain valuable insights into their weaknesses and improve their future proposals. It also promotes transparency and fairness in the procurement process by ensuring that the offeror has a clear understanding of the evaluation criteria and how their proposal was assessed.

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  • 10. 

    All of the following are responsibilities of the Quality Assurance Program Coordinator except

    • Support multi-functional teams

    • Assist with the evaluation of contractor Quality Control Plans

    • Act as a liaison between contractors and the wing commander

    • Provide initial and recurring training to contracting officer representatives (COR).

    Correct Answer
    A. Act as a liaison between contractors and the wing commander
    Explanation
    The Quality Assurance Program Coordinator is responsible for supporting multi-functional teams, assisting with the evaluation of contractor Quality Control Plans, and providing initial and recurring training to contracting officer representatives (COR). However, the role of acting as a liaison between contractors and the wing commander is not a responsibility of the Quality Assurance Program Coordinator.

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  • 11. 

    What action must be taken if a proposal exceeds established page limitations stated in the solicitation?

    • Determine the contractor non-responsive.

    • Eliminate the offeror from the competitive range.

    • Remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal.

    • Accept the proposal “as is” only if determined to be one of the most highly rated proposals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal.
    Explanation
    If a proposal exceeds the established page limitations stated in the solicitation, the action that must be taken is to remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal. This means that any pages that go beyond the specified limit should be taken out from the back of the proposal. This is necessary to ensure that the proposal adheres to the stated page limitations and to maintain fairness and consistency in the evaluation process.

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  • 12. 

    A proposal that meets requirements and indicates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is given what color/rating?

    • Green/Good.

    • Yellow/Marginal.

    • Blue/Outstanding.

    • Purple/Acceptable.

    Correct Answer
    A. Blue/Outstanding.
    Explanation
    The proposal that meets requirements and demonstrates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is rated as Blue/Outstanding. This indicates that the proposal goes above and beyond expectations and stands out as exceptional compared to other proposals.

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  • 13. 

    In noncompetitive negotiations, which price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government’s analysis?

    • Minimum price position.

    • Objective price position.

    • Median price position.

    • Maximum price position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Objective price position.
    Explanation
    In noncompetitive negotiations, the objective price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government's analysis. This means that the price is determined by considering all relevant factors and data, and is not influenced by competition or other external factors. The objective price position aims to find a fair and reasonable price that reflects the true value of the goods or services being negotiated.

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  • 14. 

    Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) contracts normally authorize the inclusion of minimum design in task orders up to

    • 25%.

    • 35%.

    • 50%.

    • 100%.

    Correct Answer
    A. 35%.
    Explanation
    Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) contracts typically allow for the inclusion of minimum design in task orders up to 35%. This means that when issuing task orders under a SABER contract, the contracting officer can authorize the inclusion of design work up to a maximum of 35% of the total task order value. This allows for flexibility in the contract and ensures that the necessary design work can be included as needed while still maintaining the simplified acquisition process.

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  • 15. 

    How might the overall quality of awards packages be improved?

    • Involving people in the process

    • Requiring Airmen to draft their own awards

    • Assigning the unit’s best writers to draft all awards

    • Provide unit members with a copy of the installation writing guide

    Correct Answer
    A. Involving people in the process
    Explanation
    Involving people in the process of creating awards packages can improve the overall quality. This allows for different perspectives and input, ensuring that the awards are fair and accurately reflect the achievements of the individuals. It also promotes transparency and inclusivity, as everyone has a chance to contribute and provide feedback. Additionally, involving people in the process can help identify any biases or inconsistencies that may exist in the current system and work towards addressing them.

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  • 16. 

    Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) is generally best suited for

    • Cost-type contracts.

    • Non-complex minor construction.

    • Projects estimated at less than $100K.

    • Small projects requiring extensive design.

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-complex minor construction.
    Explanation
    Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) is a procurement method that is typically used for non-complex minor construction projects. This means that it is most suitable for small-scale projects that do not require extensive design work. SABER is designed to streamline the acquisition process for these types of projects, making it a cost-effective and efficient option. This method is not specifically geared towards cost-type contracts or projects estimated at less than $100K, but rather for non-complex minor construction projects.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Acquisition Professional Development Program?

    • It requires members to quickly attain the highest possible certification

    • It is designed to be a progressive program of training, education, and education

    • Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) course work may be used to receive business hour credits to satisfy Acquisition Professional Development Program (APDP) requirements

    • Both military and civilians occupying acquisition coded contracting positions must meet education and training standards

    Correct Answer
    A. It requires members to quickly attain the highest possible certification
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "It requires members to quickly attain the highest possible certification." This means that the Acquisition Professional Development Program does not prioritize or require members to achieve the highest certification quickly. The program is designed to be a progressive program of training and education, allowing individuals to advance at their own pace. The other options all describe characteristics of the program, such as using Community College of the Air Force course work for credits and requiring both military and civilian personnel to meet education and training standards.

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  • 18. 

    Which section of a request for proposal (RFP) provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation?

    • Section C

    • Section K

    • Section L

    • Section M

    Correct Answer
    A. Section L
    Explanation
    Section L of a request for proposal (RFP) typically provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation. This section outlines the specific requirements and guidelines that potential vendors must follow when preparing and submitting their proposals. It may include information on the format, structure, and content that should be included in the proposal, as well as any specific instructions or evaluation criteria that will be used to assess the proposals.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is true when determining the competitive range?

    • Only the top five firms should be included in the competitive range.

    • A proposal may be included in the competitive range even though it is not among the most highly rated.

    • Include only those proposals within 20 percent of the most favorable proposal in the competitive range.

    • Limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will permit an efficient competition among the most highly rated proposals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will permit an efficient competition among the most highly rated proposals.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will permit an efficient competition among the most highly rated proposals. This means that only a certain number of proposals should be included in the competitive range, based on the number of highly rated proposals and the efficiency of the competition. It does not specify a specific number or percentage, but rather emphasizes the need for efficiency and competition among the top-rated proposals.

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  • 20. 

    The inability to compromise may be avoided by

    • Using concessions to split any differences.

    • Threatening to cancel and resolicit the requirement.

    • Using other non-price factors to take the focus off price alone.

    • Establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise.

    Correct Answer
    A. Establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise.
    Explanation
    Establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise is a strategy that can help avoid the inability to compromise. By starting with a position that is not extreme or rigid, there is flexibility to negotiate and find common ground. This approach creates a cooperative environment and encourages both parties to work towards finding a mutually satisfactory solution.

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  • 21. 

    What type of Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) report is used at the end of the first 12 month option period on a 5 year contract?

    • Final report.

    • Interim report.

    • Addendum report.

    • Annual interim report.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual interim report.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Annual interim report. This report is used at the end of the first 12 month option period on a 5 year contract. It provides an assessment of the contractor's performance during the first year of the contract and serves as a progress update. It helps to evaluate the contractor's ability to meet the requirements and expectations of the contract, and provides valuable feedback for future decision-making regarding the contract.

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  • 22. 

    How often must the contracting squadron commander brief the installation commander on government purchase card violations, suspended accounts, and surveillance results?

    • At least weekly

    • At least monthly

    • At least quarterly

    • At least annually

    Correct Answer
    A. At least quarterly
    Explanation
    The contracting squadron commander must brief the installation commander on government purchase card violations, suspended accounts, and surveillance results at least quarterly. This frequency allows for regular updates and communication between the two commanders regarding any violations or issues related to government purchase cards. A quarterly briefing ensures that the installation commander remains informed and can take appropriate actions if necessary.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following factors affect comparability during price analysis?

    • Type of funding being used.

    • Differences in quantities or size.

    • Use of federal supply schedules.

    • Differences in contractor business size

    Correct Answer
    A. Differences in quantities or size.
    Explanation
    Differences in quantities or size can affect comparability during price analysis because when comparing prices, it is important to ensure that the quantities or sizes being compared are similar. If there are significant differences in quantities or sizes, it can distort the comparison and make it difficult to determine the true value or cost. Therefore, it is important to consider and account for these differences when conducting price analysis to ensure accurate and meaningful comparisons.

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  • 24. 

    What type of exchange does not allow for responses to identified weaknesses, but allows offerors to address apparent minor or clerical errors?

    • Discussions

    • Notifications

    • Clarifications

    • Communications

    Correct Answer
    A. Clarifications
    Explanation
    Clarifications are a type of exchange in the procurement process that allows offerors to address apparent minor or clerical errors in their proposals. Unlike discussions, which allow for responses to identified weaknesses, clarifications are limited to addressing minor issues and do not allow for significant revisions or improvements to the proposal. Clarifications are typically used to ensure that the proposal is complete, consistent, and accurate, without opening the door for extensive negotiations or changes.

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  • 25. 

    What type of change improperly exceeds the scope of a procurement and is one which could not have been reasonably anticipated by offerors?

    • Cardinal change.

    • Unilateral change.

    • Restrictive change.

    • Constructive change.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardinal change.
    Explanation
    A cardinal change is a type of change that goes beyond the scope of a procurement and is one that offerors could not have reasonably anticipated. It is a significant alteration to the original contract that fundamentally changes the nature of the work or the obligations of the parties involved. This type of change is considered improper because it goes beyond what was originally agreed upon and may require a new procurement process to be followed.

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  • 26. 

    When is a contractor required to certify a claim?

    • Any claim exceeding the micro-purchase threshold.

    • Any claim exceeding $100,000.

    • Any claim exceeding $1,000,000.

    • When the contract is subject to the Truth in Negotiations Act (TINA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Any claim exceeding $100,000.
    Explanation
    A contractor is required to certify a claim when it exceeds $100,000. This means that if the contractor is seeking payment for a claim that is less than $100,000, they are not required to provide a certification. However, if the claim exceeds $100,000, the contractor must certify that the claim is accurate and supported by appropriate documentation. This certification ensures that the contractor is accountable for the claim and that it has been thoroughly reviewed and validated.

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  • 27. 

    What option does a contract officer (CO) have to expedite fiscal year-end requirements reserved for Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) when funding is not yet available?

    • Issue the award using the next fiscal year funds.

    • Make the award and negotiate after funding is received.

    • Make the award as long a hold harmless agreement is signed by the contractor.

    • Obtain a no-cost or hold harmless agreement and process up to the point of award.

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtain a no-cost or hold harmless agreement and process up to the point of award.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to obtain a no-cost or hold harmless agreement and process up to the point of award. This means that the contract officer can proceed with the award process, including negotiations, up until the point of actually awarding the contract. By obtaining a no-cost or hold harmless agreement, the contractor agrees to proceed with the work without receiving payment until funding becomes available. This allows the CO to expedite the fiscal year-end requirements reserved for SABER even when funding is not yet available.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is an example of an extra-organizational stressor?

    • Deployments

    • Financial issues

    • Increased workload

    • Network downtime

    Correct Answer
    A. Financial issues
    Explanation
    Financial issues can be considered an example of an extra-organizational stressor because they originate outside of the organization and can have a significant impact on an individual's stress levels. These issues may include personal financial problems, such as debt, unemployment, or economic instability, which can create stress and anxiety for individuals regardless of their work environment. Unlike deployments, increased workload, or network downtime, which are more directly related to the organization's operations, financial issues are external factors that can affect an individual's well-being and performance in the workplace.

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  • 29. 

    Functional experts assigned to the exercise evaluation team are made up of

    • Unit commanders

    • MAJCOM personnel

    • Inspector General personnel

    • The most qualified unit personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. The most qualified unit personnel
    Explanation
    The functional experts assigned to the exercise evaluation team are comprised of the most qualified unit personnel. This means that the individuals selected for this team are chosen based on their expertise and qualifications within their respective units. By including the most qualified personnel, the evaluation team can ensure that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively assess and evaluate the exercise. This ensures that the evaluation process is thorough and accurate, leading to valuable feedback and improvement opportunities for the units involved.

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  • 30. 

    Offerors without a record of relevant past performance will receive what performance confidence rating?

    • No Confidence

    • Limited Confidence

    • Unknown Confidence.

    • Satisfactory Confidence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unknown Confidence.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unknown Confidence" because if an offeror does not have a record of relevant past performance, it is not possible to assess their performance and determine their confidence rating. Without any information or data about their past performance, it is unknown whether they can perform satisfactorily or if there are any concerns or limitations regarding their capabilities.

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  • 31. 

    Technical analysis of offeror proposals should

    • Analyze each offeror’s profit margin.

    • Only be conducted by the contract officer (CO).

    • Review each offeror’s experience on similar projects.

    • Examine the types and quantities of materials proposed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Examine the types and quantities of materials proposed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "examine the types and quantities of materials proposed." When conducting a technical analysis of offeror proposals, it is important to examine the types and quantities of materials proposed. This is crucial in determining whether the materials meet the requirements of the project and if they are suitable for the intended purpose. By evaluating the materials, the contract officer can assess the feasibility and effectiveness of each offeror's proposal and make an informed decision based on the analysis.

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  • 32. 

    Contractor progress schedules are required

    • For all construction contracts.

    • For only architect and engineering contracts.

    • When contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 30 days.

    • When contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 60 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. When contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 60 days.
    Explanation
    Contractor progress schedules are required when contracts exceed the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (SAT) and the performance period is greater than 60 days. This means that for construction contracts that have a value above the SAT and a duration of more than 60 days, it is necessary for contractors to provide progress schedules. This allows for better planning, monitoring, and coordination of the construction project, ensuring that it stays on track and meets the required timeline.

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  • 33. 

    What strategic sourcing tool is used to assess data such as money spent, type of contracts used, size of purchase, item(s) purchased, etc?

    • Cost analysis.

    • Price analysis.

    • Spend analysis.

    • Portfolio management.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spend analysis.
    Explanation
    Spend analysis is the correct answer because it is a strategic sourcing tool that helps assess data related to money spent, type of contracts used, size of purchase, and item(s) purchased. It provides insights into spending patterns, identifies cost-saving opportunities, and helps in making informed procurement decisions. Cost analysis focuses on analyzing the cost of individual products or services, price analysis evaluates the pricing of specific items, and portfolio management involves managing a collection of investments.

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  • 34. 

    Price or cost to the government

    • Is only evaluated when using tradeoffs.

    • Must be evaluated in every source selection.

    • May not be used as an evaluation factor when using tradeoffs.

    • Is only evaluated when an acquisition is subject to the Truth in Negotiations Act (TINA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Must be evaluated in every source selection.
    Explanation
    In every source selection, the price or cost to the government must be evaluated. This means that when making a decision on which source to select, the government must consider the price or cost associated with each option. This evaluation is necessary to ensure that the government is making a cost-effective decision and getting the best value for their money. By evaluating the price or cost in every source selection, the government can make informed decisions and ensure that taxpayer dollars are being used efficiently.

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  • 35. 

    When a deficiency is found in an offeror’s proposal, the government must

    • Not further consider the offeror for award.

    • Provide suggestions on how to correct the deficiency.

    • Identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal.

    • Discuss every aspect of the proposal that received less than the maximum possible rating.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal.
    Explanation
    When a deficiency is found in an offeror's proposal, the government must identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal. This means that the government will inform the offeror about the deficiency and give them a chance to address and correct it. By doing so, the government ensures fairness and allows the offeror to have a chance to improve their proposal before making a final decision. This approach promotes transparency and gives all offerors an equal opportunity to compete for the award.

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  • 36. 

    A preconstruction orientation

    • May only be provided via a formal conference.

    • Is mandatory and must be provided to all government contractors prior to starting work on a military installation.

    • Is used to validate contractor payrolls and ensure compliance with labor laws.

    • May be used to issue the Notice to Proceed.

    Correct Answer
    A. May be used to issue the Notice to Proceed.
    Explanation
    A preconstruction orientation may be used to issue the Notice to Proceed. This means that the orientation serves as a formal confirmation or authorization for the contractor to begin work on a project. It indicates that all necessary preparations and requirements have been met, and the contractor can proceed with the construction process. The orientation may include important information about the project, such as timelines, expectations, and safety guidelines, ensuring that the contractor is well-informed before starting work.

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  • 37. 

    A contractor may submit a claim

    • Within 3 years after accrual of a claim.

    • Within 3 years after final payment is made.

    • Within 6 years after accrual of a claim.

    • Within 6 years after final payment is made.

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 6 years after accrual of a claim.
    Explanation
    A contractor may submit a claim within 6 years after accrual of a claim. This means that the contractor has a time limit of 6 years from the point when the claim first arises to submit their claim. This allows the contractor a reasonable amount of time to gather evidence, assess damages, and prepare their claim before submitting it. It is important for the contractor to be aware of this time limit to ensure they do not miss the deadline and potentially lose their right to submit a claim.

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  • 38. 

    How is pricing established in Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) contracts?

    • Prices are set by law.

    • Unit price guides and coefficients.

    • According to Davis-Bacon Act wage determinations.

    • Negotiation of individual line items in the main SABER contract.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit price guides and coefficients.
    Explanation
    In Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) contracts, pricing is established using unit price guides and coefficients. This means that there are predetermined prices for different units or quantities of work, and these prices are adjusted based on coefficients that take into account factors such as location, labor rates, and material costs. This method allows for consistency and transparency in pricing, as well as efficiency in the contract negotiation process.

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  • 39. 

    Contractor costs such as overhead, profit, design cost, bond premiums, and General & Administrative (G&A) expenses are

    • Negotiated into coefficients.

    • Built into the unit price guide

    • Included in non-prepriced items.

    • Negotiated prior to issuing each task order.

    Correct Answer
    A. Negotiated into coefficients.
    Explanation
    Contractor costs such as overhead, profit, design cost, bond premiums, and General & Administrative (G&A) expenses are negotiated into coefficients. This means that these costs are factored into the coefficients used to determine the final price of a contract. The coefficients are determined through negotiation between the contractor and the client, taking into account the specific requirements of the project. By negotiating these costs into coefficients, both parties can ensure that the final price accurately reflects the expenses incurred by the contractor.

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  • 40. 

    Payments against Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) task orders are typically based upon

    • Physical completion of the entire project.

    • Initial submission of the progress schedule.

    • A percentage of completion for projects of 30 calendar days or longer.

    • A percentage of completion for projects of 60 calendar days or longer.

    Correct Answer
    A. A percentage of completion for projects of 60 calendar days or longer.
    Explanation
    Payments against Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) task orders are typically based on a percentage of completion for projects of 60 calendar days or longer. This means that the contractor will receive payments based on the progress made on the project, with the percentage increasing as the project nears completion. This method ensures that contractors are incentivized to complete the project in a timely manner and provides a fair payment structure based on the work completed.

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  • 41. 

    Providing career advice to enlisted personnel requires all of the following except

    • Becoming familiar with personnel programs

    • Encouraging membership in professional organizations

    • Discussing pros and cons of separating from the Air Force

    • Encouraging on duty study time for promotions during downtime

    Correct Answer
    A. Encouraging on duty study time for promotions during downtime
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "encouraging on duty study time for promotions during downtime." This is because providing career advice to enlisted personnel involves becoming familiar with personnel programs, encouraging membership in professional organizations, and discussing the pros and cons of separating from the Air Force. However, encouraging on duty study time for promotions during downtime is not necessary for providing career advice, as it is not directly related to career guidance or decision-making.

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  • 42. 

    An offeror’s technical volume is used by offerors to

    • Provide offeror representations and certifications.

    • Identify previous experience with similar requirements.

    • Address how it intends to meet the government’s requirement.

    • Demonstrate the financial capacity to complete the subsequent contract.

    Correct Answer
    A. Address how it intends to meet the government’s requirement.
    Explanation
    The offeror's technical volume is used to address how it intends to meet the government's requirement. This volume provides a detailed explanation of the offeror's approach, methodology, and resources that will be utilized to fulfill the government's needs. It outlines the specific strategies, techniques, and solutions that the offeror plans to employ to meet the stated requirements. This information helps the government evaluate the feasibility and effectiveness of the offeror's proposed approach and determine if it aligns with their needs.

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  • 43. 

    Which unit management program assists units in determining whether or not they are in compliance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies?

    • Self-inspection program

    • Exercise evaluation program

    • Special interest item program

    • Compliance inspection program

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-inspection program
    Explanation
    A self-inspection program is a unit management program that helps units assess their compliance with relevant laws, regulations, and policies. This program allows units to conduct internal inspections and identify any areas where they may be non-compliant. By proactively examining their operations, units can take corrective actions to ensure they are following the required guidelines. This program is a proactive approach to compliance management, allowing units to address any issues before they are identified during external inspections or audits.

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  • 44. 

    What information is provided in Part II of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)?

    • Life-cycle requirements

    • Duties, tasks, and references

    • An explanation of the plan and how it is used

    • Identifying each level with its specialty qualifications

    Correct Answer
    A. Duties, tasks, and references
    Explanation
    Part II of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) provides information on duties, tasks, and references. This section outlines the specific responsibilities and tasks that individuals in the career field are expected to perform. It also includes references to additional resources and materials that can be used to support training and development in the field.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is not an internal management control of the government purchase card program?

    • Establishment of grade requirements for cardholders

    • Separation of duties to ensure conflicts of interest are avoided

    • Span of control to an appropriate A/OPC to master account ratio

    • Separation of function for cardholders and personnel receiving, inspecting, and accepting goods

    Correct Answer
    A. Establishment of grade requirements for cardholders
    Explanation
    The establishment of grade requirements for cardholders is not an internal management control of the government purchase card program because it pertains to the qualifications and eligibility criteria for individuals holding the card, rather than a control measure put in place to ensure the proper use and monitoring of the card program. Internal management controls typically involve measures such as separation of duties, span of control, and separation of function to prevent fraud, conflicts of interest, and ensure accountability and oversight in the program.

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  • 46. 

    The Air Force Contracting Officer test

    • Is a timed 50 question closed book test

    • Guarantees a limited contracting officer warrant up to $5M.

    • Requires candidates to score a minimum of 75% to pass the test

    • Is required for warrants above the simplified acquisition threshold

    Correct Answer
    A. Is required for warrants above the simplified acquisition threshold
    Explanation
    The Air Force Contracting Officer test is required for warrants above the simplified acquisition threshold. This means that individuals who want to obtain a contracting officer warrant for contracts that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold must pass this test. The test consists of 50 questions, is timed, and is closed book. In order to pass the test, candidates must score a minimum of 75%.

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  • 47. 

    Solicitation evaluation factors are used to distinguish one proposal from another by

    • Using discriminators.

    • Using non-commercial specifications.

    • Including as many evaluation factors as possible.

    • Tailoring the evaluation criteria contained in Section K.

    Correct Answer
    A. Using discriminators.
    Explanation
    Solicitation evaluation factors are used to differentiate or distinguish one proposal from another. These factors are used to evaluate and compare the proposals submitted by different vendors or suppliers. By using discriminators, the evaluation factors can effectively identify the unique or distinguishing features of each proposal, allowing for a fair and objective evaluation process. This helps in selecting the most suitable proposal that meets the requirements and objectives of the solicitation.

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  • 48. 

    Common aspects of past performance relevancy include all of the following except

    • Complexity

    • Dollar value

    • Similarity of service/support.

    • Number of contracts performed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Number of contracts performed.
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the exception among the common aspects of past performance relevancy. The options provided are complexity, dollar value, similarity of service/support, and number of contracts performed. Complexity, dollar value, and similarity of service/support are all relevant factors when considering past performance. However, the number of contracts performed is not directly related to the relevancy of past performance. Therefore, the correct answer is number of contracts performed.

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  • 49. 

    Grounds for a protest include all of the following except

    • Relaxing the announced criteria.

    • Failure to follow the existing criteria.

    • Excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated proposals.

    • Imposing additional unannounced criteria to increase the number of discriminators needed to include only the most highly rated proposals in the competitive range.

    Correct Answer
    A. Excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated proposals.
    Explanation
    The grounds for a protest include relaxing the announced criteria, failure to follow the existing criteria, and imposing additional unannounced criteria to increase the number of discriminators needed to include only the most highly rated proposals. However, excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated proposals is not a valid ground for a protest.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 19, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Pgreen946

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