Pre-test CDC 4c051 #1 (100 Questions From All 4 Volumes)

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1. At what month is the palmer grasp reflex lost?

Explanation

The palmar grasp reflex is a natural reflex in infants where they automatically close their fingers around an object placed in their palm. This reflex is typically present from birth and starts to fade around 3 months of age. By the age of 12 months, most infants have lost the palmar grasp reflex completely. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.

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About This Quiz
Pre-test CDC 4c051 #1 (100 Questions From All 4 Volumes) - Quiz

This comprehensive pre-test titled 'Pre-Test CDC 4C051 #1' assesses knowledge across various developmental psychology topics. It covers genetic correlations, reflexes, vocabulary development, life stages, self-concept, and foundational psychology... see morefigures. Aimed at enhancing understanding of psychological development, it is ideal for learners seeking to deepen their insight in the field. see less

2. Who is considered the father of modern psychology?

Explanation

Sigmund Freud is considered the father of modern psychology because of his significant contributions to the field. He developed psychoanalysis, a method of therapy that focused on the unconscious mind and the importance of childhood experiences. Freud's theories revolutionized the understanding of human behavior and mental processes, particularly in areas such as dream analysis, the structure of the mind (id, ego, superego), and the concept of the unconscious. His work laid the foundation for many subsequent psychological theories and approaches, making him a pivotal figure in the development of modern psychology.

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3. Which briefing is considered one-sided with no verbal participation by the audience?

Explanation

A formal briefing is considered one-sided with no verbal participation by the audience because it typically follows a structured format where the presenter delivers information to the audience without actively engaging them in a conversation or discussion. In a formal briefing, the audience is expected to listen and absorb the information presented rather than actively participate or provide input. This format is often used in professional settings or when conveying important information to a large group of people.

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4. A person experiencing symptoms of nervousness, worry, and jitteriness has an adjustment disorder with

Explanation

The symptoms described, such as nervousness, worry, and jitteriness, are commonly associated with anxiety. Therefore, it is likely that the person is experiencing an adjustment disorder with anxiety. This disorder occurs when an individual has difficulty coping with a stressful life event or change, leading to the development of anxiety symptoms. The other options, such as depressed mood, mixed anxiety and depressed mood, and disturbances of emotions and conduct, do not specifically match the symptoms mentioned in the question.

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5. Which defense mechanism is used when emotions are aroused in a situation where it would be dangerous to express them?

Explanation

Displacement is a defense mechanism that involves redirecting emotions or impulses from their original target to a safer or more acceptable one. In situations where expressing emotions could be dangerous, individuals may unconsciously transfer their feelings onto another person, object, or situation that is less threatening. This allows them to release their emotions in a safer way, avoiding potential harm or negative consequences that could arise from expressing their true feelings.

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6. Which type of genetic environmental correlation occurs when a child conducts himself or herself in a manner which solicits positive responses from others?

Explanation

Evocative genetic environmental correlation occurs when a child's genetic traits elicit certain responses from their environment. In this case, the child's behavior or conduct leads to positive responses from others. This means that the child's genetic predispositions influence the way they interact with others, shaping their environment in a way that reinforces their behavior.

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7. Who should be devising the treatment plan for the patient?

Explanation

The patient and counselor should be devising the treatment plan together because it is important for the patient to have an active role in their own treatment. By involving the patient in the decision-making process, they can provide valuable input based on their own experiences and preferences. Additionally, the counselor can offer professional guidance and expertise to ensure that the treatment plan is effective and tailored to the patient's specific needs. It is a collaborative effort between the patient and counselor to create a treatment plan that is both feasible and beneficial for the patient's well-being.

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8. During what stage of treatment does termination or discharge planning begin?

Explanation

Termination or discharge planning typically begins during the initial intake stage of treatment. This is the stage where the client's information is gathered, assessments are conducted, and treatment goals are established. It is during this stage that the treatment team starts to consider the client's progress, needs, and potential discharge options. By starting the planning process early on, the treatment team can ensure a smooth transition for the client when they are ready to be discharged from the program.

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9. Which phase of the active phases offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for the patient and staff?

Explanation

The phase of recovery offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for both the patient and staff. During this phase, individuals can work towards overcoming their challenges, developing coping strategies, and making positive changes in their lives. It is a time of progress, healing, and personal growth. In this phase, the patient and staff can collaborate to support and empower the individual on their journey towards wellness and recovery.

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10. What is defined as "to make clear distinction; distinguish; differentiate or to act on the basis of prejudice?"

Explanation

Discrimination is the correct answer because it refers to the act of making clear distinctions or differentiating between individuals or groups based on certain characteristics such as race, gender, religion, or ethnicity. It involves treating people unfairly or unequally due to prejudice or bias, denying them equal opportunities or rights. Racism, culture, and ethnicity are related concepts, but they specifically refer to discrimination based on race or cultural background, while discrimination is a broader term encompassing all forms of unfair treatment or prejudice.

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11. By the time a child reaches 5 years of age their vocabulary consists of how many words?

Explanation

By the time a child reaches 5 years of age, their vocabulary consists of approximately 2500 words. This means that they have learned and can understand and use around 2500 different words in their daily communication. This is a significant milestone in language development and indicates the child's growing ability to express themselves and comprehend more complex ideas and concepts.

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12. What is considered the healthiest developmental stage of life?

Explanation

Young adulthood is considered the healthiest developmental stage of life because during this period, individuals are typically in their physical prime. They have high energy levels, strong immune systems, and fewer health complications compared to other stages of life. Additionally, young adults tend to engage in healthier lifestyle behaviors such as regular exercise, balanced diet, and good sleep patterns. This stage is also characterized by lower rates of chronic diseases and a higher ability to recover from illnesses or injuries. Overall, young adulthood is considered the healthiest stage due to the combination of physical resilience and healthy lifestyle choices.

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13. When discussing priority of care, under which beneficiary type group does the active duty service member fall into?

Explanation

Active duty service members fall under the beneficiary type group 1 when discussing priority of care. This means that they have the highest priority for receiving care and should be given the utmost attention and resources. This is because they are actively serving in the military and their health and well-being are crucial for the success of their mission and the overall defense of the country.

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14. How many continuing education units (CEU) are required to retain certification during each three-year certification?

Explanation

To retain certification during each three-year certification, 60 continuing education units (CEU) are required. This means that professionals must complete 60 units of education or training in their field within a three-year period to maintain their certification. This requirement ensures that certified individuals stay updated with the latest developments and advancements in their industry, enhancing their knowledge and skills to provide quality services.

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15. As a minimum, how many strength and weaknesses should be identified for each patient?

Explanation

For each patient, it is necessary to identify a minimum of three strengths and weaknesses. This ensures a comprehensive assessment of the patient's abilities and limitations. By identifying multiple strengths, healthcare professionals can understand the patient's positive attributes and build upon them. Similarly, identifying multiple weaknesses helps in addressing areas that require improvement or intervention. This balanced approach allows for a holistic understanding of the patient's condition and facilitates effective treatment planning and care.

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16. Who owns the OPR?

Explanation

The correct answer is US Air Force. The OPR refers to the Office of Primary Responsibility, which is a term commonly used in the military. In this context, the question is asking about the ownership of the OPR, and the US Air Force is the entity that owns it. The other options, such as patient, guardian, and MTF commander, are not relevant to the ownership of the OPR.

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17. Every goal must have at least how many objectives?

Explanation

Every goal must have at least one objective because an objective is a specific and measurable outcome that contributes to the achievement of a goal. Without any objectives, a goal would be vague and difficult to measure or track progress towards. Therefore, it is necessary for every goal to have at least one objective to provide clarity and direction in working towards its accomplishment.

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18. During which of Freud's psychosexual stages does the Oedipus conflict and electra complex occur?

Explanation

During Freud's psychosexual stage of phallic development, the Oedipus conflict and Electra complex occur. This stage typically occurs between the ages of 3 and 6 years old, where children develop sexual feelings towards their opposite-sex parent and experience rivalry with their same-sex parent. The Oedipus conflict occurs in boys, where they desire their mother and view their father as a rival, while the Electra complex occurs in girls, where they desire their father and view their mother as a rival. This stage is crucial in the development of a child's gender identity and the resolution of these conflicts is important for healthy psychosexual development.

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19. What is considered the overall management strategy for treating people?

Explanation

The overall management strategy for treating people is referred to as a treatment plan. This plan outlines the specific steps and interventions that will be taken to address an individual's needs and goals. It includes various elements such as therapy modalities, medication management, and support services. A treatment plan is developed collaboratively between the individual and their healthcare provider to ensure a comprehensive and personalized approach to their care.

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20. What is not one of the Gestalt therapy's five layers of neurosis?

Explanation

The correct answer is "lame." In Gestalt therapy, the five layers of neurosis are phony, phobic, impasse, implosive, and explosive. "Lame" does not fit into any of these categories and is not considered one of the layers of neurosis in Gestalt therapy.

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21. In strategic family therapy, what is defined as denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements to protect the sender's self image?

Explanation

Disconfirmation in strategic family therapy refers to denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements to protect the sender's self-image. This means that instead of acknowledging or validating the sender's feelings, the receiver dismisses or ignores them, which can further damage the sender's self-esteem and hinder effective communication within the family.

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22. Which form must be filled out by the physician within 24 hours of a patient's admission?

Explanation

The form that must be filled out by the physician within 24 hours of a patient's admission is SF 506, Clinical Record—Physical Examination. This form is specifically designed to document the physical examination of the patient and is an important part of their medical record. It helps the physician assess the patient's overall health status and identify any potential medical issues or conditions that need to be addressed during their stay.

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23. Which subtype of a delusional disorder has a prominent theme that a person, usually of higher status, is in love with the patient?

Explanation

The correct answer is erotomanic. In this subtype of delusional disorder, the patient has a false belief that someone, often of higher social status, is in love with them. This delusion is persistent and may lead to stalking or harassing behavior towards the object of their delusion. The patient may interpret innocent gestures or actions as evidence of love and may refuse to accept any evidence that contradicts their belief. This subtype is also known as "de Clerambault's syndrome" or "erotomania".

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24. What distance is considered the personal space in a comfort zone?

Explanation

The personal space in a comfort zone is typically considered to be between 18 inches to 4 feet. This distance allows individuals to feel comfortable and maintain their privacy while interacting with others. Being too close or too far away can make people feel uncomfortable or invade their personal space.

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25. Which is not something you would place on a patient status board after admission?

Explanation

After a patient is admitted, the patient status board typically displays important information about the patient's condition and location. This includes the patient's name, bed number, and the name of the physician responsible for their care. However, the diagnosis is not typically displayed on the patient status board as it is confidential medical information that may not be suitable for public display.

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26. What do short-term goals provide for the patient?

Explanation

Short-term goals provide the patient with acute relief or feelings of accomplishment. These goals are typically achievable in a short period of time and provide immediate gratification. By setting and achieving these goals, the patient experiences a sense of relief and accomplishment, which can boost their motivation and confidence. This can be particularly important in healthcare settings where patients may be dealing with pain, discomfort, or long-term treatment plans. Short-term goals can help provide a sense of progress and positivity, enhancing the overall patient experience.

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27. If you touch a patient unnecessarily you are violating

Explanation

Touching a patient unnecessarily violates their physical privacy. Physical privacy refers to the right of individuals to control who can access and touch their bodies. By touching a patient without a valid reason or consent, their physical privacy is being violated as their personal space and boundaries are being invaded. Respecting physical privacy is an important aspect of providing ethical and respectful healthcare.

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28. Which is not a key area of a patient's social history?

Explanation

The question asks for the key area that is not a part of a patient's social history. Social history typically includes information about the patient's social life, relationships, and support systems. Home environment refers to the conditions and dynamics of the patient's living situation, while occupational/academic relates to their work or educational background. Substance use, on the other hand, is not directly related to a patient's social history but falls under their medical history or habits.

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29. Which of the following is not an example of retaliation towards a patient?

Explanation

Withholding medication is not an example of retaliation towards a patient because it is a violation of the patient's rights and can have serious consequences on their health. Retaliation refers to taking revenge or retaliating against someone, but withholding medication is a form of neglect or medical malpractice rather than an act of retaliation. It is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment to patients, including administering medications as prescribed.

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30. Which of these is not considered an intentional tort?

Explanation

Negligence is not considered an intentional tort because it involves a failure to exercise reasonable care, rather than a deliberate act. Intentional torts require intent or purposeful conduct, while negligence involves a breach of duty resulting in harm, but without intent. False imprisonment, misrepresentation, and assault are intentional torts because they involve intentional acts that cause harm or infringe upon someone's rights.

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31. Who are considered extremely important models for children as they are often imitated?

Explanation

Parents are considered extremely important models for children as they are often imitated. Children tend to look up to their parents and imitate their behaviors, actions, and values. Parents play a crucial role in shaping their children's behavior, beliefs, and attitudes. They serve as role models and provide guidance, support, and love to their children. Parents' actions and words greatly influence children's development and help them learn important life skills.

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32. An indication of emotional discomfort consists of depression, anxiety, and

Explanation

An indication of emotional discomfort can be seen through physical symptoms such as headaches, stomachaches, muscle tension, and fatigue. These physical symptoms often accompany depression and anxiety, and can be a result of the body's response to stress and emotional distress. Therefore, physical symptoms are a valid and common manifestation of emotional discomfort.

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33. Mental health records are prepared for retirement shipment in what order?

Explanation

Mental health records are prepared for retirement shipment in alphabetical order. This means that the records are organized and arranged based on the individuals' last names in alphabetical order. This ensures that it is easier to locate and retrieve specific records when needed. The other options mentioned, such as date of birth, date of rank, and chronologically, are not the preferred methods for organizing mental health records for retirement shipment.

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34. What is the most abused amphetamine?

Explanation

Methamphetamine is the most abused amphetamine because it is a highly addictive central nervous system stimulant. It produces intense euphoria, increased energy, and a sense of confidence and well-being. Methamphetamine abuse can lead to severe physical and psychological dependence, as well as a range of negative health effects such as cardiovascular problems, dental issues, and cognitive impairments. Its potent effects and availability make it a popular choice for illicit drug use and contribute to its widespread abuse.

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35. When a staff member is involved in or discovers an accident, who initiates the AF Form 765, Medical Treatment Facility Incident Statement?

Explanation

The staff member initiates the AF Form 765, Medical Treatment Facility Incident Statement when they are involved in or discover an accident. This form is used to document the details of the incident and any injuries or medical treatment that resulted from it. It is important for the staff member to initiate this form to ensure that all relevant information is recorded and that appropriate actions can be taken to address the incident and provide necessary medical treatment.

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36. Which is not considered a pre-aggressive behavior?

Explanation

Hypoactivity is not considered a pre-aggressive behavior because it refers to a decreased level of activity or movement, which is opposite to the typical increase in activity and agitation that is often associated with pre-aggressive behaviors. Withdrawal, sleep disturbance, and changes in voice level can all be indicative of pre-aggressive behaviors as they may reflect a person's emotional state and readiness to engage in aggressive actions.

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37. What is the common denominator in every chemically dependent family?

Explanation

In every chemically dependent family, denial is the common denominator. Denial refers to the refusal or inability to acknowledge or accept the existence of a problem, such as addiction. It is a defense mechanism that allows individuals to avoid facing the reality of the situation and the consequences of their actions. Denial can prevent family members from seeking help, addressing the issue, or taking necessary steps towards recovery. It often perpetuates the cycle of addiction and can lead to further dysfunction and strain within relationships.

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38. The group member who can easily become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group is the

Explanation

The schizoid patient is likely to become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group because they tend to be withdrawn, detached, and show little interest in social interactions. This makes them an easy target for the narcissist, who thrives on power and control over others. The schizoid patient's passive nature and lack of assertiveness may make it easier for the narcissist to manipulate and exploit them.

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39. Which generational group is considered computer savvy, intelligent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society?

Explanation

Generation Nexters is considered computer savvy, intelligent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society. This generational group, also known as Generation Z, has grown up with technology and is highly adept at using computers and digital devices. They are often seen as tech-savvy, quick learners, and ambitious individuals who are eager to succeed in the modern world.

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40. Who manages the SUAT information?

Explanation

AFMOA stands for Air Force Medical Operations Agency. As the question asks about the management of SUAT information, AFMOA is the most likely answer as it is responsible for managing medical operations and information within the Air Force. AFIA, DISA, and AFMSA are not directly associated with medical operations, making AFMOA the most suitable option for managing SUAT information.

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41. What interview process skill requires the patient to elaborate on a vague, ambiguous, or implied statement?

Explanation

The skill that requires the patient to elaborate on a vague, ambiguous, or implied statement is clarification. This involves asking for more information or details to better understand what the person is trying to convey. It helps to clear any confusion or uncertainty and ensures effective communication during the interview process.

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42. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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43. Who conducts Health Services Inspections?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Inspection Agency. The Air Force Inspection Agency is responsible for conducting health services inspections. They ensure that all medical facilities and services provided by the Air Force meet the required standards and regulations. They assess the quality of healthcare provided, identify any deficiencies, and recommend improvements to enhance the overall effectiveness of the medical services.

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44. The Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application has been touted as consistently encompassing all of the following elements except

Explanation

The question is asking for an element that is not encompassed by the Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA). The options provided are "latitudinal," "secure," "powerful," and "knowledgeable." The correct answer is "latitudinal." This means that AHLTA does not include a latitudinal element. However, the question does not provide any context or information about what a "latitudinal" element would entail in this context. Therefore, it is difficult to provide a more detailed explanation.

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45. How many years can the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) remain dormant before symptoms develop?

Explanation

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can remain dormant for about 10 years before symptoms start to develop. During this time, the virus slowly weakens the immune system, leading to the eventual onset of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). It is important to note that the duration of the dormant period can vary from person to person, and some individuals may progress to AIDS faster or slower than others. Regular testing and early detection are crucial in managing HIV and preventing the spread of the virus.

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46. In order to ensure that personnel are safe from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses, the Air Force complies with what organization's guidelines?

Explanation

The Air Force ensures the safety of its personnel by complying with the guidelines set by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). OSHA is responsible for establishing and enforcing standards that protect workers from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses. By following OSHA guidelines, the Air Force aims to create a safe and healthy working environment for its personnel.

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47. Which of the following statements regarding amputation from a battlefield injury is true?

Explanation

Newly wounded troops often experience a sense of relief and gratitude that their injuries were not more severe. This is because they may have survived a life-threatening situation and are grateful for still being alive. This initial response of euphoria and thankfulness is a common psychological reaction to a traumatic event like a battlefield injury. It is important for healthcare providers to understand and address the emotional needs of these patients during their recovery process.

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48. When a patient "burns bridges" what obstacle to treatment have they likely lost?

Explanation

When a patient "burns bridges," it means that they have likely lost the support from their family. This could be due to strained relationships, lack of understanding or empathy, or a breakdown in communication. Without the support of their family, the patient may feel isolated and unsupported, which can be a significant obstacle to their treatment. Family support plays a crucial role in the recovery process, providing emotional, practical, and sometimes financial assistance. Without this support, the patient may struggle to adhere to their treatment plan and may experience additional stress and challenges in their journey towards recovery.

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49. During which dimension of self-concept is sense of purpose to the self gained?

Explanation

The sense of purpose to the self is gained during the dimension of self-concept known as aspirations and goals. This dimension involves the individual's desires, ambitions, and objectives for their future. It is through setting and striving towards these aspirations and goals that individuals develop a sense of purpose and direction in their lives.

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50. Emptying the stomach by induced vomiting or emptying the bowels by induced evacuation with enemas or laxatives is called

Explanation

Purging refers to the act of emptying the stomach or bowels through induced vomiting, enemas, or laxatives. This behavior is often associated with eating disorders such as bulimia, where individuals engage in binge eating followed by purging to control their weight. Purging can have serious health consequences and is a harmful behavior that should be addressed and treated.

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51. What part of the mind is the source of our emotional pain?

Explanation

The unconscious mind is the part of our mind that is not accessible to our conscious awareness. It contains repressed memories, desires, and unresolved conflicts that can cause emotional pain. These unconscious thoughts and feelings can influence our behavior and emotions without us being aware of it. Therefore, the unconscious mind is the likely source of our emotional pain.

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52. Which determinant of relapse is considered the most difficult and problematic?

Explanation

The determinant of relapse that is considered the most difficult and problematic is relational. This refers to the interpersonal relationships and social connections that an individual has. Relational factors can play a significant role in relapse as they can influence the person's support system, communication patterns, and overall emotional well-being. Difficulties in relationships and a lack of healthy social connections can make it more challenging for individuals to maintain their recovery and increase the risk of relapse.

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53. What is not one of the potential problems that should be addressed in the treatment plan?

Explanation

Absenteeism is not one of the potential problems that should be addressed in the treatment plan. The other options, such as attrition, noncompliance, and inadequate progress, are all potential problems that may arise during the treatment plan and need to be addressed. Absenteeism refers to the act of being absent or not showing up, which may not directly impact the effectiveness of the treatment plan.

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54. Which is not one of the common stages of counseling?

Explanation

Termination of care is not one of the common stages of counseling. The other options, such as initial disclosure, in-depth exploration, and commitment to action, are all commonly recognized stages in the counseling process. However, termination of care refers to the ending of the therapeutic relationship between the counselor and the client, rather than a stage within the counseling process itself.

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55. Which term is not a behavior associated with oppositional defiant disorder?

Explanation

Oppositional defiant disorder is characterized by a pattern of angry and irritable mood, argumentative and defiant behavior, and vindictiveness. The term "assertive" does not align with the behaviors typically associated with this disorder. Assertiveness refers to expressing one's needs and opinions in a confident and respectful manner, which is not a characteristic of oppositional defiant disorder.

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56. How many separate personality patterns are seen in patients with personality change due to a general medical condition?

Explanation

Patients with personality change due to a general medical condition can exhibit various personality patterns. The correct answer of 8 suggests that there are eight distinct personality patterns that can be observed in these patients. This implies that there is a significant range of personality changes that can occur as a result of a general medical condition, highlighting the complexity and diversity of this phenomenon.

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57. What is the simplest format used for reporting a psychological test session?

Explanation

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58. What common perceptual disturbance is categorized as a misperception or misrepresentation of real external stimuli?

Explanation

An illusion is a common perceptual disturbance that involves a misperception or misrepresentation of real external stimuli. It occurs when our brain misinterprets or distorts sensory information, causing us to perceive something differently from what it actually is. Illusions can occur in various senses, such as visual, auditory, or tactile, and they can often be influenced by factors like context, expectations, or previous experiences. Unlike hallucinations, which involve perceiving things that are not actually present, illusions involve a misinterpretation of real stimuli.

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59. Who is responsible for approving all requests for release of information?

Explanation

The MTF commander is responsible for approving all requests for release of information. This individual holds a position of authority within the medical treatment facility and has the final say in determining whether or not information can be released. The Mental Health Services OIC, Outpatient Medical Records OIC, and Mental Health Services NCOIC may have roles and responsibilities related to the release of information, but the ultimate decision-making authority lies with the MTF commander.

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60. The Mental Health Clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the

Explanation

The Mental Health Clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the MTF (Medical Treatment Facility). This means that the goals of the clinic align with the goals of the medical facility where it is located. The MTF is responsible for providing medical care to military personnel and their families, and the Mental Health Clinic is a part of this facility, focusing specifically on mental health services. Therefore, it is expected that their goals would be in line with each other to ensure comprehensive and coordinated care for patients.

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61. Which aspect of doing all of your duty is considered extremely important?

Explanation

Reliability is considered extremely important in doing all of your duty because it means being trustworthy and dependable. When someone is reliable, they can be counted on to fulfill their responsibilities and commitments consistently. This aspect is crucial in ensuring that tasks are completed on time and to the expected standard. Reliability also builds trust and confidence in others, as they know they can rely on the individual to deliver what is expected of them.

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62. According to the "Jellinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, what is the most primal of all defenses?

Explanation

Denial is considered the most primal defense mechanism according to the Jellinek Chart. Denial is a psychological defense mechanism in which a person refuses to acknowledge or accept a painful reality or truth. It involves blocking external events or circumstances from awareness in order to avoid anxiety or distress. Denial is often the first line of defense and can be seen as a natural instinct to protect oneself from emotional pain or discomfort. It allows individuals to maintain a sense of control and avoid facing difficult or threatening situations.

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63. Accreditation findings that raise specific issues are reviewed by the

Explanation

The correct answer is the Joint Commission's accreditation committee. This committee is responsible for reviewing accreditation findings that raise specific issues. The Joint Commission is an independent, non-profit organization that evaluates and accredits healthcare organizations. Their accreditation committee plays a crucial role in ensuring that accredited healthcare organizations meet the necessary standards and address any identified issues. The board of commissioners and the board of accreditation may have different responsibilities within the Joint Commission, but they are not specifically mentioned in relation to reviewing accreditation findings. The hospital commander is not mentioned in the context of accreditation review.

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64. Which of these is not used to prepare for health services inspections?

Explanation

A health services questionnaire is not used to prepare for health services inspections. Inspections typically involve reviewing various documents and resources such as the Joint Commission manual, documents from previous inspections, and Air Force directives and policy letters. These materials provide guidelines, standards, and information necessary for conducting the inspections effectively. However, a health services questionnaire is not mentioned as one of the resources used for this purpose.

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65. What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is developed from feeling of independence, competence, self-respect, and recognition from others

Explanation

Self-esteem and love are the levels of Maslow's hierarchy of needs that are developed from feelings of independence, competence, self-respect, and recognition from others. These needs are part of the psychological needs category, which comes after the basic physiological and security needs. Self-esteem involves the need for self-worth, self-confidence, and respect from others, while love refers to the need for friendship, intimacy, and a sense of belonging. Both of these needs contribute to a person's overall well-being and self-actualization.

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66. What is the most common form of alcohol-induced liver disease?

Explanation

Fatty liver is the most common form of alcohol-induced liver disease. Excessive alcohol consumption can lead to the accumulation of fat in the liver cells, causing inflammation and damage to the liver. If left untreated, fatty liver can progress to more severe conditions such as cirrhosis or alcoholic hepatitis. However, in terms of prevalence, fatty liver is the most frequently observed form of liver disease associated with alcohol consumption.

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67. What is the first phase of the active phases in the assaultive cycle?

Explanation

The first phase of the active phases in the assaultive cycle is the trigger. This refers to the initial event or stimulus that sets off the cycle of aggression or violence. It could be something that provokes or angers the individual, leading to an escalation in their behavior. Understanding the trigger phase is crucial in preventing or managing aggressive situations, as it allows for early intervention and de-escalation techniques to be employed.

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68. How many duty days does a alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program manager (ADAPTPM) have to make a treatment decision for a new referral to the ADAPT office?

Explanation

The alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program manager (ADAPTPM) has 15 duty days to make a treatment decision for a new referral to the ADAPT office. This time frame allows the ADAPTPM to thoroughly evaluate the referral, gather necessary information, consult with other professionals if needed, and make an informed decision regarding the appropriate treatment plan for the individual.

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69. The BDI II is suitable for what patients over the age of

Explanation

The BDI II is suitable for patients over the age of 13 because it is specifically designed for individuals aged 13 and above. This assessment tool is used to measure the severity of depressive symptoms in adolescents and adults, making it appropriate for patients who fall within this age range. The BDI II may not be suitable for younger individuals or children, as it is not tailored to assess their unique experiences and symptoms of depression.

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70. How many minutes are allotted for each subtest on the SILS?

Explanation

Each subtest on the SILS is allotted 10 minutes.

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71. According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, in which stage does the individual have the ability to reason using abstract concepts?

Explanation

According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, the individual's ability to reason using abstract concepts occurs in the formal operations stage. In this stage, typically occurring during adolescence and adulthood, individuals can think logically and systematically about hypothetical situations and abstract ideas. They can engage in hypothetical-deductive reasoning, consider multiple possibilities, and think in a more abstract and complex manner. This stage represents a higher level of cognitive development compared to the previous stages of sensorimotor, preoperational thought, and concrete operations.

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72. Who developed the five phases of goal setting and goal attainment?

Explanation

Buhler developed the five phases of goal setting and goal attainment.

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73. How many minutes does intoxication from an inhalant last?

Explanation

Intoxication from an inhalant typically lasts for 15-20 minutes. Inhalants are chemical substances that produce mind-altering effects when inhaled, and their effects are usually short-lived. The duration of intoxication can vary depending on factors such as the type of inhalant used, the amount inhaled, and individual differences in metabolism. However, on average, the effects of inhalant intoxication tend to last for around 15-20 minutes before wearing off.

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74. Which of the following is not an attending behavior?

Explanation

An attending behavior refers to actions that demonstrate active listening and engagement. Displaying an attentive posture, using verbal following, and making eye contact are all examples of attending behaviors. However, clarification is not an attending behavior as it involves seeking further information or understanding, rather than actively listening or engaging with the speaker.

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75. Which area is not a basic ethical foundation of trust you must exercise as a mental health technician?

Explanation

Respect is not a basic ethical foundation of trust that a mental health technician must exercise. While respect is important in any profession, it is not specific to the role of a mental health technician. Autonomy, beneficence, and nonmaleficence are all ethical principles that are crucial for mental health technicians to uphold in their practice. Autonomy refers to respecting the client's right to make decisions about their own treatment, beneficence involves acting in the best interest of the client, and nonmaleficence focuses on avoiding harm to the client.

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76. How many group participants can one facilitator effectively manage?

Explanation

One facilitator can effectively manage a group of 8 to 10 participants. This number allows the facilitator to provide individual attention and support to each participant while still maintaining control and managing the group dynamics effectively. With a smaller group size, the facilitator can ensure that everyone's needs are met and that there is ample opportunity for participation and engagement from each participant. Additionally, a smaller group size allows for better communication and interaction among participants, fostering a more intimate and collaborative learning environment.

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77. During which stage of group has the "birthing" process of merging personalities subside?

Explanation

The "birthing" process of merging personalities subsides during the working and cohesion stage of group development. This stage occurs after the initiation stage, where members of the group come together and begin to form relationships. In the working and cohesion stage, the group members have established a sense of trust and collaboration, and they are able to work together effectively towards achieving their goals. The conflicts and controversies that may have arisen during the earlier stages have been resolved, and the group is now focused on maintaining productivity and cohesion.

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78. Which anxiety disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of intense apprehension, terror, and impending doom?

Explanation

Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of intense apprehension, terror, and impending doom. During these episodes, individuals may experience symptoms such as heart palpitations, shortness of breath, trembling, and a sense of losing control. These panic attacks can occur unexpectedly and without any apparent trigger. Therefore, panic is the correct answer for the given question.

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79. Which behaviorist stated the most important determinants of behavior are in the environment and not the individual?

Explanation

B.F. Skinner is the correct answer because he is a well-known behaviorist who believed that the most important determinants of behavior are in the environment and not the individual. Skinner's theory of operant conditioning emphasizes the role of reinforcement and punishment in shaping behavior. He believed that behavior is influenced by external factors and that individuals learn through consequences in their environment. This perspective contrasts with other behaviorists like Thorndike, Watson, and Pavlov, who also made significant contributions to the field but had different emphases in their theories.

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80. Each SUAT is transmitted via the internet to the  

Explanation

Each SUAT (System User Access Tool) is transmitted via the internet to DISA (Defense Information Systems Agency). DISA is responsible for providing information technology and communication support to the US Department of Defense. As SUAT is related to user access to systems, it makes sense for it to be transmitted to DISA, which oversees the management and security of the Department of Defense's information systems.

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81. What interview process skill, when employed, is a sign of competence and self-awareness?

Explanation

Knowing your boundaries is a skill that demonstrates competence and self-awareness in the interview process. It shows that the individual understands their limitations and is aware of what is appropriate and acceptable behavior during an interview. This skill helps to maintain professionalism and avoid crossing any lines that could potentially harm their chances of being considered for the position. By knowing their boundaries, the individual can effectively navigate the interview process and present themselves in the best possible light.

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82. What would you be assessing if you asked a client about something he or she said previously during the interview?

Explanation

When asking a client about something they said previously during the interview, you would be assessing their immediate recall. Immediate recall refers to the ability to remember and retrieve information that was just presented or discussed in the immediate past. It tests the client's short-term memory and their ability to retain and recall information after a short period of time. By asking about something mentioned earlier, you can evaluate their ability to remember and retrieve that specific information.

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83. Regarding group participation, which term would be used to describe the extremely shy patient?

Explanation

The term "contraindication" would be used to describe the extremely shy patient in the context of group participation. A contraindication refers to a factor or condition that makes a particular treatment or intervention inappropriate or potentially harmful. In this case, the extreme shyness of the patient may be seen as a contraindication for group participation, as it may hinder their ability to actively engage and benefit from the group setting.

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84. The somatic nervous system's motor responses are

Explanation

The somatic nervous system is responsible for voluntary motor responses. This means that it controls movements that are under conscious control, such as walking, talking, and writing. The somatic nervous system sends signals from the brain to the muscles, allowing us to intentionally move our bodies. This is in contrast to the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary actions like heartbeat and digestion.

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85. What effects do inhalants have on the CNS?

Explanation

Inhalants are substances that are inhaled to produce mind-altering effects. They typically depress the central nervous system (CNS), which means they slow down brain activity and bodily functions. This can lead to a range of effects such as relaxation, drowsiness, and impaired coordination. Therefore, the correct answer is depressant.

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86. What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is characterized by the need for friendship, love, and a sense of belonging?

Explanation

Affiliation refers to the level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs that is characterized by the need for friendship, love, and a sense of belonging. This level comes after physiological needs and security needs, and before self-esteem and self-actualization. It represents the human desire to form connections and relationships with others, and to feel accepted and valued within a social group. Meeting this need for affiliation is important for emotional well-being and overall happiness.

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87. What memory impairments primary characteristic is a failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function?

Explanation

Agnosia is a memory impairment characterized by a failure to recognize or identify objects, even though sensory function is intact. This means that individuals with agnosia may have no problem seeing, hearing, or feeling objects, but they are unable to interpret or understand what those objects are. This can occur in different sensory modalities, such as visual agnosia (inability to recognize objects visually) or auditory agnosia (inability to recognize sounds). Agnosia is often caused by damage to specific areas of the brain, such as the occipital or temporal lobes.

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88. Which is not considered an advantage of a guided discussion?

Explanation

A guided discussion is a collaborative learning approach that encourages active participation and critical thinking among students. It provides a safe and supportive environment where students can freely express their thoughts and ideas without fear of judgment or criticism. The advantages of a guided discussion include promoting student participation, stimulating reflective thinking, and correcting misconceptions. However, a nonthreatening environment is not considered an advantage because it is already implied in the nature of a guided discussion, which aims to create a safe and inclusive space for students to engage in open dialogue.

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89. Which MCMI III scale is designed to measure responses which appear unusually selfdisclosing?

Explanation

The MCMI III scale designed to measure responses which appear unusually self-disclosing is the Debasement scale. This scale assesses individuals who may exhibit a tendency to exaggerate their faults, weaknesses, or negative qualities in order to gain sympathy or attention from others. It measures the extent to which individuals may engage in self-deprecating behavior or self-sabotage in an attempt to manipulate others' perceptions of them.

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90. Which element of MI validates ambivalence and resistance as being a normal part of the human experience?

Explanation

Expressing empathy validates ambivalence and resistance as being a normal part of the human experience because it acknowledges and understands the client's feelings and struggles without judgment. By showing empathy, the MI practitioner creates a safe and non-judgmental space for the client to explore their ambivalence and resistance, which can help them feel understood and accepted. This validation can then facilitate the client's willingness to engage in the change process.

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91. Who is responsible for conducting the biennial community needs assessment?

Explanation

The Integrated Delivery System (IDS) is responsible for conducting the biennial community needs assessment. This assessment helps identify the needs and preferences of the community in order to provide appropriate and effective services. The IDS is a comprehensive healthcare system that coordinates and delivers a range of services, making it the most suitable entity to conduct this assessment. The Community Action Information Board (CAIB), Family Advocacy Program (FAP), and Airman and Family Readiness Center (AFRC) may have their own roles in supporting the assessment, but the IDS has the primary responsibility for conducting it.

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92. Who notifies the applicants of the results of the certified alcohol and drug abuse counselor (CADAC) written examination?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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93. When exploring a patient's substance use history, in which area do you identify any adverse consequences experienced from substance usage?

Explanation

When exploring a patient's substance use history, identifying any adverse consequences experienced from substance usage falls under the category of severity/amount used. This involves evaluating the extent and intensity of substance use, including the dosage or quantity consumed, as well as any negative effects or harm caused by the substance. By assessing the severity/amount used, healthcare professionals can better understand the impact of substance usage on the patient's overall well-being and determine appropriate interventions or treatment plans.

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94. Sullivan's personality developmental stages concluded that intimacy and sexual urges was the distinction of which stage of development?

Explanation

Sullivan's personality developmental stages concluded that intimacy and sexual urges were the distinction of late adolescence. This stage is characterized by the development of close relationships and the exploration of romantic and sexual feelings. During late adolescence, individuals begin to form deeper emotional connections and engage in more mature and intimate relationships. This stage marks a significant shift in social and emotional development, as individuals navigate the complexities of romantic and sexual relationships.

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95. What refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an individual?

Explanation

Emotional intelligence refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an individual. It involves the ability to recognize, understand, and manage one's own emotions, as well as the ability to recognize and understand the emotions of others. Emotional intelligence includes skills such as empathy, self-awareness, self-regulation, and social skills, which are important for effective communication, decision-making, and building relationships. It is different from intelligence quotient (IQ) which measures intellectual abilities, affective quotient which measures emotional abilities, and common sense which refers to practical intelligence.

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96. In strategic family therapy, what is defined as communication that is intentionally misleading, misunderstood, and inconsistent and often leaves the receiver with an impossible conclusion to an answer?

Explanation

Disqualification is the correct answer because it refers to communication that intentionally misleads, confuses, and is inconsistent, leading the receiver to an impossible conclusion. This type of communication creates a sense of uncertainty and confusion within the family system, making it difficult for members to understand each other's intentions and create meaningful connections. By disqualifying certain messages or disregarding them, individuals in the family can maintain power dynamics and avoid addressing underlying issues.

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97. Which term describes the inability to form new memories after the condition producing the amnesia occurs?

Explanation

Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to form new memories after the condition causing the amnesia occurs. This means that individuals with anterograde amnesia have difficulty remembering new information or events that occur after the onset of the condition. It is important to note that anterograde amnesia does not affect the ability to recall past memories or events, which is characteristic of retrograde amnesia.

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98. Which cognitive distortion is best defined as always making a negative conclusion without supporting information?

Explanation

Arbitrary inference is the cognitive distortion that involves making a negative conclusion without any supporting information. This means that a person jumps to negative conclusions without any evidence or rational basis. It is a form of cognitive bias where individuals tend to focus on negative outcomes or interpretations without considering other possibilities or gathering sufficient evidence. This distortion can lead to negative thinking patterns and can impact one's overall perception of themselves and their experiences.

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99. During which crisis stage does the individual realize that attempts to escape the problem fail and move into this stage?

Explanation

In the given question, the individual realizes that attempts to escape the problem fail and moves into the stage of "Local reorganization." This stage signifies that the individual recognizes that their initial efforts to solve the problem or escape from it have been unsuccessful. They now understand the need to reorganize their approach and find new ways to address the crisis they are facing. This stage is a crucial turning point where the individual acknowledges the limitations of their previous attempts and begins to explore alternative solutions.

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100. What percentage of all formal mental health care is provided by primary care managers?

Explanation

Primary care managers provide 25% of all formal mental health care. This means that a quarter of mental health care services are delivered by primary care managers, who are typically the first point of contact for individuals seeking mental health treatment. These managers play a crucial role in providing initial assessments, referrals, and ongoing management of mental health conditions, ensuring that individuals receive appropriate care and support.

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If you touch a patient unnecessarily you are violating
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Who are considered extremely important models for children as they are...
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Mental health records are prepared for retirement shipment in what...
What is the most abused amphetamine?
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Who manages the SUAT information?
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Who conducts Health Services Inspections?
The Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application has been...
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Emptying the stomach by induced vomiting or emptying the bowels by...
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Which aspect of doing all of your duty is considered extremely...
According to the "Jellinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, what...
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How many minutes are allotted for each subtest on the SILS?
According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, in which stage...
Who developed the five phases of goal setting and goal attainment?
How many minutes does intoxication from an inhalant last?
Which of the following is not an attending behavior?
Which area is not a basic ethical foundation of trust you must...
How many group participants can one facilitator effectively manage?
During which stage of group has the "birthing" process of...
Which anxiety disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of...
Which behaviorist stated the most important determinants of behavior...
Each SUAT is transmitted via the internet to the  
What interview process skill, when employed, is a sign of competence...
What would you be assessing if you asked a client about something he...
Regarding group participation, which term would be used to describe...
The somatic nervous system's motor responses are
What effects do inhalants have on the CNS?
What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is characterized by the...
What memory impairments primary characteristic is a failure to...
Which is not considered an advantage of a guided discussion?
Which MCMI III scale is designed to measure responses which appear...
Which element of MI validates ambivalence and resistance as being a...
Who is responsible for conducting the biennial community needs...
Who notifies the applicants of the results of the certified alcohol...
When exploring a patient's substance use history, in which area do you...
Sullivan's personality developmental stages concluded that...
What refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an...
In strategic family therapy, what is defined as communication that is...
Which term describes the inability to form new memories after the...
Which cognitive distortion is best defined as always making a negative...
During which crisis stage does the individual realize that attempts to...
What percentage of all formal mental health care is provided by...
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