Chima Mock Test Practice Questions! Quiz
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Below are some CHIMA mock test practice questions! When it comes to health services, one of the most important things one can do is ensure that they have proper documentation of a patient, which comes in handy when looking for one’s medical history. Take the quiz and see how good you are at proper documentation under CHIMA and your role.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
This principle requires provinces to fund 100% of the cost of “all insured health services” provided by hospitals, medical practitioners and dentists.
- A.
Accessibility
- B.
Universality
- C.
Comprehensiveness
- D.
Public Administration
Correct Answer
C. ComprehensivenessExplanation
This principle of comprehensiveness requires provinces to fund 100% of the cost of all insured health services provided by hospitals, medical practitioners, and dentists. It means that all necessary health services, regardless of the specific type or provider, should be covered and funded by the provinces. This ensures that individuals have access to a wide range of health services without financial barriers, promoting equitable healthcare for all.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which is true about correcting documentation errors?
- A.
Failure to document the chart at all during a critical time is a breach of standard of care and documentation standards
- B.
Correction must be completed by the care provider within 60 days of the request
- C.
Both original and revised documentation must be retained as part of the record
- D.
Incorrect information should be deleted and replaced with the correct information.
Correct Answer
C. Both original and revised documentation must be retained as part of the recordExplanation
Both original and revised documentation must be retained as part of the record. This means that even after correcting any errors in the documentation, the original version of the document should still be kept along with the revised version. This is important for maintaining a complete and accurate record of the patient's care and treatment. It also ensures transparency and accountability in case there are any questions or disputes regarding the documentation.Rate this question:
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- 3.
All of the following should be considered prior to releasing health information except:
- A.
Access whether further consultation is necessary and whether further legal processes may apply if the disclosure is required by law
- B.
Verify the identity of the requesting party
- C.
Ensure that the written consent form (if any) is filed on the individual’s health record, or that documentation is included providing the date of consent, the information provided and the date of disclosure
- D.
Verify that the consent form was dated less than 90 days ago
Correct Answer
D. Verify that the consent form was dated less than 90 days agoExplanation
The correct answer is "Verify that the consent form was dated less than 90 days ago." This is because there is no requirement to verify the date on the consent form. The other options are all important steps to consider before releasing health information, such as assessing the need for further consultation, verifying the identity of the requesting party, and ensuring proper documentation of consent.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Provides services to two or more health information custodians, where the services are provided primarily to enable the custodians to use electronic means to disclose personal health information to one another.
- A.
Entity
- B.
Electronic Service Provider
- C.
HIE
- D.
Health Information Network Provider
Correct Answer
D. Health Information Network ProviderExplanation
A health information network provider is a type of entity that offers services to multiple health information custodians. These services are primarily aimed at facilitating the electronic disclosure of personal health information between the custodians. In other words, a health information network provider acts as a bridge or intermediary between different custodians, allowing them to securely exchange health information using electronic means.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is NOT a health record documentation best practice?
- A.
Documentation should be true, complete, clear, concise, and legible.
- B.
Documentation should include the date and time when the entry was made.
- C.
Documentation should be authenticated by the person who prepared it.
- D.
Documentation should take place within an hour of the event that is being recorded.
Correct Answer
D. Documentation should take place within an hour of the event that is being recorded.Explanation
The other options listed are all considered health record documentation best practices. However, the statement that documentation should take place within an hour of the event that is being recorded is not a best practice. While timely documentation is important, there is no specific time frame within which documentation must occur. The focus should be on ensuring that the documentation is true, complete, clear, concise, and legible, includes the date and time of the entry, and is authenticated by the person who prepared it.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following reports should be placed in a health record?
- A.
Consultation reports.
- B.
Incident reports.
- C.
Independent medical examination reports.
- D.
Reports to government ministries.
Correct Answer
A. Consultation reports.Explanation
Consultation reports should be placed in a health record because they provide important information about a patient's medical history, diagnosis, and treatment plan. These reports are typically generated by a healthcare provider after a consultation with the patient, and they help to ensure continuity of care and facilitate communication between healthcare professionals. Incident reports, independent medical examination reports, and reports to government ministries may contain relevant information but are not typically included in a patient's health record.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Dr. Brown of Toronto General Hospital is treating Monica for peptic ulcer. She was in St. Joseph Hospital six months ago. Dr. Brown has asked the St. Joseph Hospital for a copy of her discharge summary and endoscopy report. What action should be taken by the hospital?
- A.
Ask Dr. Brown to provide a consent form from Amy
- B.
Provide the records to Dr. Brown only if he is on your medical staff
- C.
Provide the records to Dr. Brown since he is treating the patient
- D.
Refuse access to the records
Correct Answer
C. Provide the records to Dr. Brown since he is treating the patientExplanation
The hospital should provide the records to Dr. Brown since he is treating the patient. As a treating physician, Dr. Brown has a legitimate need for the patient's medical records in order to provide appropriate care and treatment. Access to relevant medical information is crucial for effective healthcare management.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The following laws impose legal obligations on health information custodians or trustees to put appropriate privacy policies and procedures in place.
- A.
Privacy laws.
- B.
PIPEDA.
- C.
Security laws.
- D.
Provincial laws.
Correct Answer
A. Privacy laws.Explanation
The correct answer is "Privacy laws." Privacy laws impose legal obligations on health information custodians or trustees to put appropriate privacy policies and procedures in place. These laws are designed to protect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals' personal health information. They require custodians and trustees to establish safeguards to prevent unauthorized access, use, or disclosure of health information. By complying with privacy laws, custodians and trustees ensure that they are handling personal health information in a responsible and secure manner, respecting individuals' privacy rights.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Rules and principles determined by legislative bodies constitute which type of law?
- A.
Administrative law
- B.
Case law
- C.
Common law
- D.
Statutory law
Correct Answer
D. Statutory lawExplanation
Statutory law refers to the rules and principles established by legislative bodies. These laws are enacted by the government and are written down in statutes or codes. They are created to regulate various aspects of society and are applicable to everyone within a jurisdiction. Administrative law, case law, and common law are different types of laws that are not determined by legislative bodies, making them incorrect choices.Rate this question:
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- 10.
William is a 16-year-old male who lives with his father but his mother has custody of him. While playing baseball, William is hit in the head by the ball and rendered unconscious. He arrives by ambulance to the emergency room of his locaI acute care hospital for treatment with his girlfriend. Given the emergency of the situation, who should the health care provider seek consent from in order to provide treatment to William?
- A.
The mother
- B.
The patient
- C.
No consent is needed for emergency care
- D.
The girlfriend
Correct Answer
C. No consent is needed for emergency careExplanation
In emergency situations, when immediate medical attention is required to save a person's life or prevent further harm, consent is not needed from the patient or their legal guardian. The principle of implied consent applies, which means that the healthcare provider can provide necessary treatment without seeking explicit consent. In this case, since William is unconscious and in need of urgent treatment, the healthcare provider does not need to seek consent from his mother, girlfriend, or anyone else.Rate this question:
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- 11.
While performing routine quantitative analysis of a record, a medical record employee finds an incident report in the record. The employee brings this to the attention of her supervisor. Which best practice should the supervisor follow to deal with this situation?
- A.
Remove the incident report and send it to the patient.
- B.
Tell the employee to leave the report in the record.
- C.
Remove the incident report and have nursing personnel transfer all documentation from the report to the medical record.
- D.
Refer this record to the Risk Manager for further review and removal of the incident report.
Correct Answer
D. Refer this record to the Risk Manager for further review and removal of the incident report.Explanation
The supervisor should refer the record to the Risk Manager for further review and removal of the incident report. This is the best practice because the incident report may contain sensitive information that should not be included in the patient's medical record. The Risk Manager is responsible for assessing and managing potential risks and can determine the appropriate course of action regarding the incident report.Rate this question:
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- 12.
An improper disclosure of patient information to unauthorized individuals, agencies, or news media may be considered a(n)
- A.
Invasion of privacy.
- B.
Violation of security of person
- C.
Slander.
- D.
Defamation.
Correct Answer
A. Invasion of privacy.Explanation
An improper disclosure of patient information to unauthorized individuals, agencies, or news media can be considered an invasion of privacy because it violates the patient's right to keep their personal and medical information confidential. This breach of privacy can cause harm to the individual by exposing sensitive information that should only be shared with authorized healthcare professionals. Invasion of privacy is the appropriate term to describe this violation, as it encompasses the unauthorized disclosure of personal information.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Health Information Exchange and data-Sharing Agreements deals with the protection of all the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Intellectual property rights
- B.
Accountability and governance
- C.
Software licensing
- D.
Dispute resolution
Correct Answer
B. Accountability and governanceExplanation
Health Information Exchange and data-sharing agreements deal with various aspects related to the protection and sharing of health information. This includes intellectual property rights, software licensing, and dispute resolution. However, accountability and governance are not directly related to the protection of health information but rather focus on the overall management and responsibility for the exchange and sharing of health data. Therefore, accountability and governance are not included in the list of aspects that these agreements deal with.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following privacy breach would be due to inadvertent collection, sharing, alteration, access or destruction data?
- A.
Accidental
- B.
Malicious
- C.
Catastrophic
- D.
Intentional
Correct Answer
A. AccidentalExplanation
Accidental privacy breaches occur when data is collected, shared, altered, accessed, or destroyed unintentionally. This can happen due to human error, system glitches, or technical issues. Unlike malicious breaches, accidental breaches do not involve any deliberate intent to harm or exploit the data. Instead, they are often the result of mistakes or oversights. Accidental breaches can still have significant consequences, as they may lead to unauthorized access or exposure of sensitive information. It is important for organizations to implement proper safeguards and protocols to minimize the risk of accidental privacy breaches.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Mary processed a request for information and mailed it out last week. Today, the requestor, an attorney, called and said that all of the requested information was not provided. Mary pulls the documentation, including the authorization and what was sent. She believes that she sent everything that was required based on what was requested. She confirms this with her supervisor. The requestor still believes that some extra documentation is required. Given the above information, which of the following statements is true?
- A.
Mary is not required to release the extra documentation because the facility has the right to interpret a request and apply the minimum standard rule.
- B.
Mary is required to release the extra documentation because the requestor knows what is needed.
- C.
Mary is required to release the extra documentation because, in the customer service program for the facility, the customer is always right.
- D.
Mary is not required to release the additional information because her administrator agrees with her
Correct Answer
A. Mary is not required to release the extra documentation because the facility has the right to interpret a request and apply the minimum standard rule.Explanation
Mary is not required to release the extra documentation because the facility has the right to interpret a request and apply the minimum standard rule. This means that Mary followed the guidelines and provided all the necessary information based on what was requested. She confirmed with her supervisor, indicating that she took the necessary steps to ensure she fulfilled the request correctly. The fact that the requestor still believes additional documentation is needed does not override the facility's right to interpret the request and apply their own standards.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Physical safeguards include1. use of alarm system 2. tools to control access to computer systems 3. flood protection4. fire wall
- A.
1 and 2 only
- B.
1 and 3 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
2 and 4 only
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 3 onlyExplanation
Physical safeguards are measures implemented to protect physical assets and resources. In this case, the correct answer is "1 and 3 only" because option 1 includes the use of an alarm system and option 3 includes flood protection. These measures help to ensure the physical security of the premises and protect against potential threats such as theft, unauthorized access, and damage caused by natural disasters like floods. Option 2, which refers to tools to control access to computer systems, and option 4, which mentions a firewall, are not considered physical safeguards but rather fall under the category of logical or technical safeguards.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Many facilities do not approve of auto authentication of entries in a health record. The primary objection is that:
- A.
Electronic signatures are not acceptable in many health care facilities
- B.
Evidence cannot be provided that the physician reviewed and approved each report
- C.
It is too easy to delegate use of computer passwords
- D.
Tampering too often occurs with this method of authentication
Correct Answer
B. Evidence cannot be provided that the physician reviewed and approved each reportExplanation
The primary objection to auto authentication of entries in a health record is that evidence cannot be provided that the physician reviewed and approved each report. This means that there is no way to ensure the accuracy and legitimacy of the information entered into the health record. Without the physician's review and approval, there is a risk of errors or false information being recorded, which can have serious consequences for patient care.Rate this question:
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- 18.
An example of an advance directive is a/an:
- A.
Acknowledgement of having received patient’s rights information
- B.
Consent to release information
- C.
Consent to undergo treatment
- D.
Living will
Correct Answer
D. Living willExplanation
A living will is an example of an advance directive because it is a legal document that allows individuals to express their wishes regarding medical treatment in the event that they become unable to communicate their preferences. It outlines specific instructions about the type of medical care they would like to receive or refuse, such as life-sustaining treatments, resuscitation, or organ donation. This document helps healthcare providers and family members make decisions that align with the individual's values and wishes when they are unable to do so themselves.Rate this question:
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- 19.
All of the following are examples of physical safeguards used to protect computer systems EXCEPT:
- A.
Access control
- B.
Destruction process
- C.
System inventory
- D.
Terminal lock
Correct Answer
A. Access controlExplanation
Access control is not an example of a physical safeguard used to protect computer systems. Access control refers to the process of managing and controlling user access to computer systems and resources, which is typically implemented through software and administrative measures rather than physical means. Physical safeguards, on the other hand, include measures such as terminal locks, destruction processes, and system inventory to physically protect computer systems from unauthorized access or damage.Rate this question:
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- 20.
You have been asked what should be done with the notice of privacy practice acknowledgment when the patient had been discharged before it was signed. Your response is to
- A.
Shred it.
- B.
Try to get it signed, and if not, to document the action taken.
- C.
Keep trying to get the document signed until you succeed, even if you must go to the patient's hotline.
- D.
File the blank form in the chart.
Correct Answer
B. Try to get it signed, and if not, to document the action taken.Explanation
If the patient had been discharged before the notice of privacy practice acknowledgment was signed, the appropriate response would be to try to get it signed. However, if the patient cannot be reached or refuses to sign, it is important to document the action taken. This documentation is necessary to show that attempts were made to obtain the signed acknowledgment and to ensure that the healthcare provider has fulfilled their responsibility in informing the patient about their privacy rights.Rate this question:
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- 21.
You have been assigned the responsibility of performing an audit to confirm that all of the workforce's access is appropriate for their role in the organization. This process is called
- A.
Risk assessment.
- B.
Information system activity review.
- C.
Workforce clearance procedure.
- D.
Information access management.
Correct Answer
C. Workforce clearance procedure.Explanation
The correct answer is workforce clearance procedure. This is because the responsibility of performing an audit to confirm that all of the workforce's access is appropriate for their role in the organization refers to the process of clearing individuals for access to certain information or systems based on their job requirements. This procedure ensures that employees only have access to the information and systems that are necessary for them to perform their duties effectively and securely.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Process helps departments and agencies determine whether new technologies, information systems, initiatives or proposed programs and policies meet the established privacy requirements.
- A.
TRA
- B.
BCP
- C.
HIE
- D.
PIA
Correct Answer
D. PIAExplanation
The correct answer is PIA. PIA stands for Privacy Impact Assessment, which is a process that helps departments and agencies evaluate whether new technologies, information systems, initiatives, or proposed programs and policies meet the established privacy requirements. It involves identifying and assessing the potential privacy risks and impacts associated with the implementation of these initiatives and ensuring that appropriate measures are taken to mitigate those risks and protect individual privacy.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A written reprimand expressing disapproval of unethical conduct by a member, but without loss of membership or registration status is called:
- A.
Probation.
- B.
Censure.
- C.
Expulsion.
- D.
Suspension.
Correct Answer
B. Censure.Explanation
A written reprimand expressing disapproval of unethical conduct by a member, but without loss of membership or registration status is called censure. Censure is a formal expression of disapproval or criticism, typically issued by a governing body or organization. It serves as a way to publicly reprimand and express disapproval of unethical behavior without imposing harsher penalties such as probation, expulsion, or suspension.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The second step in the seven-step process for considering ethical dilemmas is to identify:
- A.
How the situation might be averted in the future.
- B.
The principles and values at stake.
- C.
The facts.
- D.
The ethical question.
Correct Answer
C. The facts.Explanation
In the seven-step process for considering ethical dilemmas, the second step is to identify the facts. This involves gathering all relevant information and understanding the specific details of the situation at hand. By identifying the facts, individuals can have a clear understanding of the context and circumstances surrounding the ethical dilemma, which is crucial for making informed decisions and considering the potential implications of different choices.Rate this question:
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- 25.
An HIM professional is chronically late and has poor work performance. These issues should initially be addressed by the:
- A.
CHIMA Code of Ethics.
- B.
Staff members union.
- C.
Human resources department.
- D.
Departmental manager.
Correct Answer
D. Departmental manager.Explanation
The departmental manager should initially address the HIM professional's chronic lateness and poor work performance. As the immediate supervisor, the departmental manager is responsible for managing and overseeing the performance of their team members. They have the authority to address performance issues, provide feedback, and implement corrective actions if necessary. The CHIMA Code of Ethics is a professional code of conduct that guides HIM professionals' ethical behavior but does not specifically address performance issues. The staff members union and human resources department may become involved if the issues persist or require further intervention.Rate this question:
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- 26.
If it is unclear if an issue regarding a certified HIM is an ethics violation or an employment issue,who should initially be notified to help in the determination.
- A.
Manager.
- B.
Union.
- C.
Governing body.
- D.
Human Resources.
Correct Answer
C. Governing body.Explanation
If there is uncertainty about whether an issue with a certified HIM (Health Information Management) professional is an ethics violation or an employment problem, the appropriate initial step would be to notify the governing body. The governing body is responsible for setting and enforcing the ethical standards and guidelines for certified HIM professionals. They have the expertise and authority to assess the situation and determine whether it constitutes an ethics violation or an employment issue. They can provide guidance and support in resolving the matter appropriately.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Glover outlines a seven-step process for examining an ethical dilemma. The first step is to:
- A.
Identify the facts.
- B.
Define the ethical question.
- C.
Identify the principles and values at stake.
- D.
Identify how the situation might be averted in the future.
Correct Answer
B. Define the ethical question.Explanation
The first step in Glover's seven-step process for examining an ethical dilemma is to define the ethical question. This involves clearly identifying and understanding the specific ethical issue or problem that needs to be addressed. By defining the ethical question, one can focus on the core problem at hand and begin to analyze it from an ethical standpoint. This step helps to provide clarity and direction in the decision-making process when faced with an ethical dilemma.Rate this question:
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- 28.
When an ethical complaint is made against a CHIM professional, this complaint is investigated by the:
- A.
CHIMA Board of Directors.
- B.
CHIMA Chief Executive Officer.
- C.
CHIMA Vice President of Professional Practice.
- D.
Professional Ethics Committee.
Correct Answer
D. Professional Ethics Committee.Explanation
When an ethical complaint is made against a CHIM professional, the complaint is investigated by the Professional Ethics Committee. This committee is responsible for reviewing and addressing ethical concerns raised against CHIM professionals. They ensure that the professional standards and code of ethics are upheld and take appropriate actions if any violations are found. The committee consists of experienced professionals who are knowledgeable about the industry and its ethical practices. They play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and reputation of the CHIM profession.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Coding data in such a way as to increase the facilitys resource intensity weight (RIW) would be a representation of what type of ethical dilemma
- A.
Privacy
- B.
Quality
- C.
Secondary use
- D.
Risk
Correct Answer
B. QualityExplanation
Coding data in a way that increases the facility's resource intensity weight (RIW) suggests a focus on improving the quality of the data. By increasing the RIW, the coding process aims to enhance the accuracy, reliability, and usefulness of the data. This ethical dilemma revolves around the decision of prioritizing data quality over other considerations such as privacy, secondary use, or risk.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which disciplinary direction would include mandatory participation in professional counselling.
- A.
Expulsion and revocation of credential
- B.
Censure
- C.
Suspension of membership and credential
- D.
Probation
Correct Answer
D. ProbationExplanation
Probation is the disciplinary direction that would include mandatory participation in professional counseling. When an individual is put on probation, they are given a chance to rectify their behavior or actions under certain conditions. In this case, one of the conditions of probation is mandatory participation in professional counseling. This requirement aims to address any underlying issues or concerns that may have contributed to the disciplinary action and help the individual improve their professional conduct.Rate this question:
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- 31.
All would be questions to consider when determining the penalty for a violation EXCEPT:
- A.
Will the corrective actions result in the respondent's being more aware of and complaint with appropriate ethical practice principles then he or she was before the infraction?
- B.
Why is the person limiting the information to be released?
- C.
What is the rationale for the specific corrective action(s) in relation to the ethics violations?
- D.
What is the rationale for the sanction(s)?
Correct Answer
B. Why is the person limiting the information to be released?Explanation
The question asks for an exception, and the correct answer is "Why is the person limiting the information to be released?" This question does not pertain to determining the penalty for a violation. The other three questions are relevant in determining the appropriate penalty by considering factors such as the respondent's awareness and compliance with ethical practice principles, the rationale for corrective actions and sanctions.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Lack of skilled human resources would be considered as what type of risk?
- A.
Business Risk
- B.
Operational Risk
- C.
Project Risk
- D.
Privacy Risk
Correct Answer
B. Operational RiskExplanation
Lack of skilled human resources would be considered as an operational risk. This type of risk arises from the potential failure of internal processes, systems, or human resources within an organization. In this case, the lack of skilled human resources can lead to operational inefficiencies, decreased productivity, and potential errors or mistakes in the execution of tasks. It can impact the overall operational performance and success of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 33.
This theory argues that those in a leadership role react differently to their trusted and limited "IN GROUP" who are given more autonomy and flexibility in tasks than the "out group" who may also report to or work with the person in the leadership role, but who have more clearly defined roles and a greater formality in their relationship with him.
- A.
Behavioral Theories
- B.
Contingency Theories
- C.
Dyadic Relationship Theory
- D.
Trait Theory
Correct Answer
C. Dyadic Relationship TheoryExplanation
The Dyadic Relationship Theory suggests that leaders treat their trusted "in group" members differently from the "out group" members. The "in group" members are given more autonomy and flexibility in tasks, while the "out group" members have more clearly defined roles and a more formal relationship with the leader. This theory emphasizes the importance of the leader's relationship with individual followers and how it influences their behavior and performance.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The Director of the Health Information Services Department has asked that the supervisor of coding institute a method to monitor the accuracy of coding. What method would be the most effective approach?
- A.
Perform a 100% review of one of the employees' work each day.
- B.
Review a sample of each employee's work annually.
- C.
Review a random sample of each employee's work monthly.
- D.
Have each employee check each other's work and report any problems to the supervisor.
Correct Answer
C. Review a random sample of each employee's work monthly.Explanation
Reviewing a random sample of each employee's work monthly would be the most effective approach to monitor the accuracy of coding. This method allows for a regular and ongoing evaluation of the employees' work without being too burdensome or time-consuming. By reviewing a random sample, it ensures that all employees have an equal chance of being assessed, providing a fair and unbiased assessment of their coding accuracy. Additionally, reviewing the work on a monthly basis allows for timely feedback and identification of any potential issues or areas for improvement.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Choose the system below that is the type of identification system in which the patient is issued a different number for each admission or encounter for care and the records of past episodes of care are brought forward to be filed under the last number issued.
- A.
Serial unit numbering
- B.
Unit numbering system
- C.
Family numbering system
- D.
Serial numbering system
Correct Answer
A. Serial unit numberingExplanation
The correct answer is serial unit numbering. In this type of identification system, each patient is assigned a different number for each admission or encounter for care. The records of past episodes of care are then brought forward and filed under the last number issued to the patient. This system allows for easy organization and retrieval of patient records, as each encounter is assigned a unique number.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The supervisor of release of information in a Health Information Department is preparing a work distribution chart in the hopes of identifying some problem areas. Although the work distribution chart can provide the supervisor with a great deal of information concerning the work performed by her staff, it will not indicate
- A.
If a task is divided among employees disproportionately.
- B.
The solution to a specific problem area.
- C.
If the skills of each employee are utilized appropriately.
- D.
The appropriate method of work division.
Correct Answer
B. The solution to a specific problem area.Explanation
The work distribution chart can provide the supervisor with information about the work performed by her staff, but it will not indicate the solution to a specific problem area. The chart can help identify areas where tasks are divided disproportionately or where the skills of employees are not utilized appropriately. However, it does not provide specific solutions to address these issues. The supervisor will need to analyze the information from the chart and take further action to solve any identified problem areas.Rate this question:
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- 37.
One of your first tasks as the new Manager of Health lnformation Services is to review the department policy and procedure manual. You have determined that several policy statements are incongruent with appropriate current employee practices. Proper management conventions require
- A.
Leaving the policy as written in the manual.
- B.
Contacting the hospital attorney to decide what action to take.
- C.
Enforcing tile existing policy.
- D.
Revising the policy appropriately and documenting the date of the change
Correct Answer
D. Revising the policy appropriately and documenting the date of the changeExplanation
As the new Manager of Health Information Services, it is important to ensure that the department policy and procedure manual reflects current employee practices. Leaving the policy as written in the manual would not address the issue of incongruence and may lead to confusion or noncompliance. Contacting the hospital attorney may be necessary in certain situations, but it is not the appropriate action in this case. Enforcing the existing policy without revising it would not address the incongruence. Therefore, the best course of action is to revise the policy appropriately and document the date of the change to ensure that it aligns with current employee practices.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What two types of budgets are often prepared by managers of health information departments?
- A.
Capital budget and the finance budget
- B.
Capital budget and the operational or revenue and expense budget
- C.
Profit and loss budget and the finance budget
- D.
Finance budget and the revenue and expense budget
Correct Answer
B. Capital budget and the operational or revenue and expense budgetExplanation
Managers of health information departments often prepare two types of budgets: the capital budget and the operational or revenue and expense budget. The capital budget focuses on long-term investments and expenditures related to equipment, infrastructure, and facilities. On the other hand, the operational or revenue and expense budget focuses on day-to-day expenses, revenue generation, and operational activities. These two budgets are crucial for managers to effectively plan and allocate resources in the health information department.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Jessica is the leader of a project team working on the definition of the women's health service line. Several departments are so enthusiastic about the progress that they ask for additions to the project. This is not uncommon, and is known as
- A.
Add-ons
- B.
Scope creep
- C.
Effort expansion
- D.
Deliverable increase
Correct Answer
B. Scope creepExplanation
Scope creep refers to the phenomenon where the project's scope gradually expands beyond its original boundaries. In this scenario, several departments are requesting additions to the project, indicating that the project's scope is expanding. This is a common occurrence in projects, where stakeholders may request additional features or requirements, leading to scope creep.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The director of the Health information Services Department is developing a plan to convert their existing filing system to a terminal digit filing system. The tool that is most useful to the director in displaying the steps and completion schedule for each phase of the conversion is a
- A.
Work distribution chart.
- B.
Gantt chart
- C.
Procedure flowchart.
- D.
Flow process chart.
Correct Answer
B. Gantt chartExplanation
A Gantt chart is a visual tool that displays the steps and completion schedule for each phase of a project. It provides a timeline view of tasks, allowing the director to see the sequence of activities and their duration. In the context of converting a filing system to a terminal digit filing system, the director can use a Gantt chart to plan and track the various steps involved in the conversion process. This chart will help the director allocate resources, set deadlines, and monitor the progress of the project.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The project definition justifies the need for the new project. What would you expect to see in the project justification?
- A.
Project scope, resources needed, and amount of time required
- B.
Project scope, resources needed, and developing the solution
- C.
Resources needed, amount of time required, and preparing supporting documentation for the system chosen
- D.
Amount of time required, alternative analysis, and implementation review
Correct Answer
A. Project scope, resources needed, and amount of time requiredExplanation
The project justification should include the project scope, which outlines the goals and objectives of the project. It should also specify the resources needed, such as manpower, equipment, and budget, to successfully complete the project. Additionally, the justification should mention the amount of time required to complete the project, including any deadlines or milestones.Rate this question:
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- 42.
CHIMA Code of Ethics include ALL of the following statements EXCEPT:
- A.
Offer leadership and a proactive, innovative approach to advancements in health information management practices.
- B.
Perform duties diligently and offer only those services for which one is qualified.
- C.
Conduct oneself in an ethical manner consistent with the values of the Canadian College of Health Information Management and report any unethical practices to the privacy commissioner.
- D.
Support and mentor students, peers and colleagues to develop and strengthen the workforce and profession.
Correct Answer
C. Conduct oneself in an ethical manner consistent with the values of the Canadian College of Health Information Management and report any unethical practices to the privacy commissioner.Explanation
The Chima Code of Ethics includes all of the statements except for conducting oneself in an ethical manner consistent with the values of the Canadian College of Health Information Management and reporting any unethical practices to the privacy commissioner.Rate this question:
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- 43.
As the Director of Health Information Services, you manage the department with the assistance of four supervisors. One day you observe a coder coding charts from the face sheet without reviewing the record for additional documentation. The most appropriate course of action would be to
- A.
Do nothing because the coding area is extremely productive.
- B.
Discuss the problem with the CFO.
- C.
Discuss the matter directly with the coder and instruct him to review the entire record for correct assignment of codes
- D.
Discuss your concerns with the supervisor of coding and direct her to address this issue immediately.
Correct Answer
D. Discuss your concerns with the supervisor of coding and direct her to address this issue immediately.Explanation
The most appropriate course of action would be to discuss your concerns with the supervisor of coding and direct her to address this issue immediately. This option addresses the problem directly by involving the supervisor, who is responsible for managing the coders. By discussing the concerns and instructing the supervisor to address the issue, it ensures that the coder receives the necessary instructions and guidance to review the entire record for correct assignment of codes. This approach promotes accountability and helps maintain the quality and accuracy of the coding process.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A national HIM publication routinely requests that practitioners submit statistics from their facility regarding department functions. These are then summarized and published in graphic form, providing a tool for which of the following activities?
- A.
Job redesign
- B.
Work standards
- C.
Job evaluation
- D.
Benchmarking
Correct Answer
D. BenchmarkingExplanation
The correct answer is benchmarking. Benchmarking is the process of comparing one's own performance or practices against industry standards or best practices. In this case, the national HIM publication requests statistics from practitioners to summarize and publish them in graphic form. This allows practitioners to compare their facility's department functions with others in the industry, providing a benchmark for performance evaluation and improvement.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The HlM employee is consistently late for work. Her supervisor has given her an verbal warning. According to the definition of progressive discipline, what would the next step be?
- A.
Written warning and reprimand
- B.
Meeting with the supervisor of her supervisor
- C.
Suspension
- D.
Termination
Correct Answer
A. Written warning and reprimandExplanation
Based on the concept of progressive discipline, the next step after a verbal warning would be a written warning and reprimand. Progressive discipline is a systematic approach where disciplinary actions escalate in severity if an employee continues to violate workplace policies or rules. In this case, since the employee is consistently late for work even after a verbal warning, a written warning and reprimand would be the appropriate next step to clearly document the issue and emphasize the importance of punctuality.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The type of assessment that would be done to assess the effects of a new medical staff, program, diagnostic technology, intervention types to assess the financial and other consequences is a/an:
- A.
Decision tree.
- B.
Impact analysis.
- C.
Process map.
- D.
Cause and effect diagram
Correct Answer
B. Impact analysis.Explanation
An impact analysis is the type of assessment that would be done to assess the effects of a new medical staff, program, diagnostic technology, or intervention types on the financial and other consequences. It involves evaluating the potential outcomes and consequences of implementing a new initiative or change in order to understand its overall impact on various aspects. This assessment helps in making informed decisions and understanding the potential benefits or drawbacks of the proposed changes.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following is part of the external context related to e-health solutions?
- A.
Political context.
- B.
Technical solution.
- C.
Information governance.
- D.
Organizational culture.
Correct Answer
A. Political context.Explanation
The external context related to e-health solutions includes factors that are beyond the control of the organization or individual implementing the solutions. Political context refers to the influence of government policies, regulations, and political environment on e-health solutions. This can include laws related to privacy and data protection, funding and reimbursement policies, and government initiatives promoting e-health adoption. It is important to consider the political context when developing and implementing e-health solutions to ensure compliance with regulations and to align with government priorities.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The phase of the risk management process that involves ensuring that adverse events are continuously reported, investigated and managed and that risks are identified is:
- A.
Communication and consultation.
- B.
Risk assessment.
- C.
Risk treatment.
- D.
Monitoring and review.
Correct Answer
D. Monitoring and review.Explanation
The phase of the risk management process that involves ensuring that adverse events are continuously reported, investigated, and managed, and that risks are identified is monitoring and review. This phase involves regularly monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of risk controls, identifying any new risks that may arise, and ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to address them. It also involves reviewing incident reports and conducting investigations to understand the root causes of adverse events and implementing measures to prevent their recurrence. By continuously monitoring and reviewing the risk management process, organizations can proactively identify and address potential risks and improve their overall risk management effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Stages of the change cycle with the emotional components that tend to be exhibited in shock, denial, depression, anxiety.
- A.
Comfort Zone
- B.
The "No" Zone
- C.
The Chasm
- D.
The "Go" Zone
Correct Answer
B. The "No" ZoneExplanation
The "No" Zone refers to the stage in the change cycle where individuals tend to exhibit emotional components such as shock, denial, depression, and anxiety. This stage is characterized by resistance to change and a reluctance to accept the new situation or idea. People in the "No" Zone may feel overwhelmed or threatened by the change, leading to negative emotions and a refusal to adapt. It is important to acknowledge and address these emotions in order to move forward in the change cycle.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The Knowledge Area of project management that includes the project management processes necessary to ensure that the project satisfies the objective of why the project was carried out is called project:
- A.
Risk management.
- B.
Objective management.
- C.
Quality management.
- D.
Milestone management.
Correct Answer
C. Quality management.Explanation
Quality management is the correct answer because it focuses on ensuring that the project satisfies its objectives. This knowledge area involves processes such as quality planning, quality assurance, and quality control, which aim to ensure that the project deliverables meet the specified requirements and standards. By effectively managing the quality of the project, the team can ensure that the final product or service meets the intended purpose and satisfies the needs of the stakeholders.Rate this question:
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Mar 14, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jul 07, 2015Quiz Created by
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