Chima Mock Exam Part A

88 Questions | Total Attempts: 942

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Chima Mock Exam Part A

The Canadian health information management association exam is designed to help you test out what you learnt in order to be a certified in health information management and what is expected of you. Take up this Chima mock exam part A and gauge your preparedness for the upcoming exam. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The most common blood borne infection in the Canada is
    • A. 

      Helicobacter pylori

    • B. 

      Hepatitis A

    • C. 

      Hepatitis C

    • D. 

      Hemophilia

  • 2. 
    A pharyngeal culture is taken from a 13-year-old male patient presenting to the ER with fever, painful cervical lymph nodes, purulent tonsillar exudate, and difficulty swallowing. A blood agar culture plate shows complete hemolysis around Streptococcus pyogenes bacterial colonies. The patient is given a prescription for erythromycin. The diagnosis in this case is 
    • A. 

      A group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection

    • B. 

      A methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infection

    • C. 

      Tuberculosis with drug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis-positive sputum.

    • D. 

      Meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid.

  • 3. 
    ______________ is the most common type of skin cancer and ________________ is the most deadly type of skin cancer.
    • A. 

      Malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma

    • B. 

      Basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma

    • C. 

      Oat cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma

    • D. 

      Squamous cell carcinoma​, oat cell carcinoma

  • 4. 
    Process, test, or procedure in which something is measured or observed in a living organism.
    • A. 

      In vitro

    • B. 

      In vivo

    • C. 

      Uptake

    • D. 

      Bone scan

  • 5. 
    Cancer derived from epithelial tissue is classified as a(n)
    • A. 

      Adenoma

    • B. 

      Carcinoma

    • C. 

      Lipoma

    • D. 

      Sarcoma

  • 6. 
    Mary has diabetes. Her physician has told her about some factors that put her more at risk for infections. Which of the following factors would probably NOT be applicable?
    • A. 

      Hypoxia

    • B. 

      Increased glucose in body fluids

    • C. 

      Increased blood supply

    • D. 

      Both A and C

  • 7. 
    What is the rule when coding a patient who had a lithotripsy performed for a condition of bladder stones followed by a subsequent extraction of the fragments?
    • A. 

      The condition of hydronephrosis is assumed to be with calculus obstruction and is MRDx with an additional code for urolithiasis as a type 3

    • B. 

      When extraction follows lithotripsy, both the destruction and the extraction are coded

    • C. 

      In jurisdictions not requiring extraction to be recorded, only the code for destruction is assigned.

    • D. 

      Always code extraction whether or not there was an extraction

  • 8. 
    Small hole between the upper heart chambers; congenital anomaly 
    • A. 

      Coronary artery disease

    • B. 

      Atrial septal defect

    • C. 

      Tetralogy of Fallot

    • D. 

      Patent Ductus Arteriosus

  • 9. 
    Which of the following is NOT the cause cirrhosis
    • A. 

      Alcoholic

    • B. 

      Hepatitis

    • C. 

      Ascites

    • D. 

      Pancreatitis

  • 10. 
    Immediately after an action potential is propagated, which one of the following ions rapidly diffuses out of the cell into the tissue fluid: 
    • A. 

      Potassium

    • B. 

      Calcium

    • C. 

      Sodium

    • D. 

      magnesium

  • 11. 
    Sally has a brain injury; she knows what she wants to say but canʹt vocalize the words. The part of her brain that deals with the ability to speak is the: 
    • A. 

      Central sulcus

    • B. 

      Brocaʹs area

    • C. 

      Primary motor area

    • D. 

      Gyrus

  • 12. 
    What is the effect of an enlarging brain abscess on cardiovascular activity?
    • A. 

      Immediate depression of the cardiac control centers

    • B. 

      Systemic vasoconstriction and slower heart rate

    • C. 

      Low blood pressure and irregular heart and respiratory rates

    • D. 

      Increased heart rate and systemic vasodilation

  • 13. 
    All of the following may precipitate a seizure EXCEPT:  
    • A. 

      Hypoglycemia

    • B. 

      Severe acidosis

    • C. 

      Brain abscess

    • D. 

      High fever in young child

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      Drains blood from the axillary vein, then empties that blood into the superior vena cava

    • B. 

      Drains blood from the popliteal vein, then empties that blood into the external iliac vein

    • C. 

      Drains blood from the radial and ulnar veins, then empties that blood into the axillary vein

    • D. 

      Drains blood from the internal jugular vein, then empties that blood into the superior vena cava

  • 15. 
     Which one of the following is true concerning the lub-dup sounds of the heart:   
    • A. 

      The first sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the semilunar valves; the second sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the AV valves

    • B. 

      The first sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the tricuspid valve; the second sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the mitral valve

    • C. 

      The first sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the tricuspid valve; the second sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the mitral valve

    • D. 

      The first sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the AV valves; the second sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the semilunar valves

  • 16. 
    The path of blood flow within the systemic vascular system is:  
    • A. 

      Arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, veins, venules

    • B. 

      Arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins

    • C. 

      Arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, veins, venules

    • D. 

      Arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, venules, veins

  • 17. 
    This disease is classified as primary, secondary or congenital and can be treated with iridotomy/partial iridectomy, or drainage of anterior chamber, or scleral drainage.
    • A. 

      Retinal detachment

    • B. 

      Retinopathy

    • C. 

      Glaucoma

    • D. 

      Macular Degeneration

  • 18. 
    Seventy-five-year-old Beatrice had been a pack-a-day smoker all of her adult life. Over the previous 3 months she noticed a persistent cough, weight loss, blood in her sputum __________________ and dyspnea. A chest CT scan revealed a mass. Biopsy confirmed the diagnosis of ______________________, which is a type of _____________________ lung cancer. 
    • A. 

      Hematemesis, small cell, pneumoconiosis

    • B. 

      Hemoptysis, small cell, adenocarcinoma

    • C. 

      Hemoptysis, non–small cell, adenocarcinoma

    • D. 

      Asbestosis, non–small cell, tuberculosis

  • 19. 
    Visual examination of the chest via endoscope and a video monitor. 
    • A. 

      Video-assisted thoracic surgery

    • B. 

      PET scan

    • C. 

      Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

    • D. 

      Chest X-Ray

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      Hypertension

    • B. 

      DVT

    • C. 

      COPD

    • D. 

      Acute myocardial infarction

  • 21. 
    James has significant lower back pain radiating down his left leg. This condition is called ______________. MRI shows an intervertebral ____________________ impinging on spinal nerves at the __________________ level. Bed rest produced no improvement. His orthopedist decided to perform a ____________________ to relieve pressure on his nerves. 
    • A. 

      Fibromyalgia, exostosis, C2–C3, microdiskectomy

    • B. 

      Talipes, disk, L5–S1, tenorrhaphy

    • C. 

      Talipes, bunion, T3–T5, bunionectomy

    • D. 

      Sciatica, disk, L5–S1, microdiskectomy

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Leukapheresis

    • B. 

      Lymphocytopenia

    • C. 

      Mononucleosis

    • D. 

      Thalassemia

  • 23. 
    A system of preferred terminology for naming disease processes is known as a
    • A. 

      Set of categories

    • B. 

      Classification system

    • C. 

      Medical nomenclature

    • D. 

      Diagnosis listing

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      Confer with the physician and ask him or her to list the condition as a final diagnosis if he or she considers the abnormal potassium level to be clinically significant.

    • B. 

      Code the record as is

    • C. 

      Code the condition as abnormal blood chemistry

    • D. 

      Code the abnonnal potassium level as a complication following surgery

  • 25. 
    Coders must assign this procedure on the basis of the title of the report and not on the structures that were viewed or by the findings listed on the report.
    • A. 

      Ultrasound of the abodmen

    • B. 

      CT scan of head

    • C. 

      CT scan of brain

    • D. 

      Gastroscopy

  • 26. 
    This term is given for those patients who abuse drugs or alcohol to the point where if they do not take the drug or alcohol it may result in withdrawal symptoms.
    • A. 

      Nondependent

    • B. 

      Psychoactive

    • C. 

      Obsessive

    • D. 

      Dependent

  • 27. 
    When a procedure is performed because of a problem or complication of an ileostomy or colostomy the coders would look for an ICD 10 CA listed as a:
    • A. 

      Malfunction

    • B. 

      Ileostomy

    • C. 

      Complication

    • D. 

      Misadventure

  • 28. 
    Which of the following classification systems was designed with electronic systems in mind and is currently being used for problem lists, ICU unit monitoring, patient care assessments, data collection, medical research studies, clinical trials, disease surveillance, and images?
    • A. 

      SNOMED CT

    • B. 

      SNDO

    • C. 

      ICPC

    • D. 

      ICD 10

  • 29. 
    You just completed a process through which you reviewed a patient record and entered the required elements into a database. What is this process called?
    • A. 

      Case finding

    • B. 

      Abstracting

    • C. 

      Staging

    • D. 

      Nomenclature

  • 30. 
    You are looking at statistics for your facility that include average length of stay (ALOS) and discharge data by Dr. Mosley. What type of data are you reviewing?
    • A. 

      Aggregate data

    • B. 

      Patient-identifiable data

    • C. 

      Clinical data

    • D. 

      Primary health data

  • 31. 
    A barrier to widespread use of automated code assignment is
    • A. 

      Inadequate technology

    • B. 

      Poor quality of documentation

    • C. 

      Resistance by physicians

    • D. 

      Resistance by HIM professionals

  • 32. 
    The coding supervisor notices that the coders are routinely failing to code all possible diagnoses and procedures for a patient encounter. This indicates to the supervisor that there is a problem with
    • A. 

      Completeness

    • B. 

      Validity

    • C. 

      Reliability

    • D. 

      TimeIiness

  • 33. 
    Facts and figures that have been organized, either through manual or electronic processes, to reveal meaningful, useful, or valuable patterns, is/are:
    • A. 

      Data

    • B. 

      Wisdom

    • C. 

      Knowledge

    • D. 

      Information

  • 34. 
    Management Information Systems (MIS) standards were developed by the Canadian Institute for Health Information (CIHI) to:
    • A. 

      Collect and report administrative, clinical, and demographic information on inpatient separations from acute care hospitals.

    • B. 

      Enable comparison of health human resources overtime at national and provincial/territorial levels.

    • C. 

      Facilitate provincial/territorial, national and international comparative reporting and also support policy planning, decision-making and research.

    • D. 

      Collect and report financial and statistical data on the day-to-day operations of health service organizations.

  • 35. 
    The collection of software programs that supports a database by managing the database structureand controlling access to the data stored in the database is called a:
    • A. 

      Data dictionary

    • B. 

      Data warehouse

    • C. 

      Database management system

    • D. 

      Database security program

  • 36. 
    Which of the following would be considered administrative data?
    • A. 

      Birth date, postal code, health care number

    • B. 

      Diagnosis, procedures, ICU units

    • C. 

      Health care provider profile, date of admission, separation dates

    • D. 

      Religion, gender, weight

  • 37. 
    The first five characters of a Canadian Classification of Interventions (CCI) code are referred to as: 
    • A. 

      Blocks

    • B. 

      Categories

    • C. 

      Identifiers

    • D. 

      Rubric.

  • 38. 
    Which of the following is assigned to data submitted to Canadian Institute for Health Information from typical inpatient hospital visits based on pre-determined resources?
    • A. 

      CACS

    • B. 

      CMGs

    • C. 

      RIWs

    • D. 

      RUG

  • 39. 
    Data quality audits should include a report that summarizes the findings and provides recommendations. The report should include:.
    • A. 

      Subjective conclusions about the quality of the data.

    • B. 

      A comparison of findings to peer benchmarks and industry best practices.

    • C. 

      Indicators that measure the quality of the information objectively

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      Identify at least 25 indicators that are reflective of all department functions.

    • B. 

      Indicators must include the most important aspects of performance.

    • C. 

      Select indicators that reflect positively on the department.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 41. 
    • A. 

      Affinity diagram

    • B. 

      Decision matrix

    • C. 

      Force Field analysis

    • D. 

      Pareto chart

  • 42. 
    A pre-determined performance standard which an organization compares their performance against is called a/an: 
    • A. 

      Indicator.

    • B. 

      Benchmark.

    • C. 

      Balanced scorecard.

    • D. 

      Matrix.

  • 43. 
    The type of assessment that would bed one to assess the effects of a new medical staff, program, diagnostic technology, intervention types to assess the financial and other consequences is a/an:  
    • A. 

      Decision tree

    • B. 

      Impact analysis.

    • C. 

      Process map.

    • D. 

      Cause and effect diagram.

  • 44. 
    Which phase of the data analysis process is considered most critical?
    • A. 

      Data analysis and interpretation.

    • B. 

      Data evaluation.

    • C. 

      Needs assessment.

    • D. 

      Data promotion.

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      It uses data from entire populations to compare disease frequencies between same/different groups during the same or different points in time.

    • B. 

      It cannot be used to test a hypothesis because of a number of limitations.

    • C. 

      It consists of the carefully detailed report by one or more clinicians of the profile of a single patient.

    • D. 

      Both a and b.

  • 46. 
    • A. 

      Chi-square independence

    • B. 

      Chi-square goodness of fit

    • C. 

      ANOVA

    • D. 

      Two related means

  • 47. 
    All of the following items mean the same thing, EXCEPT 
    • A. 

      Inpatient service day.

    • B. 

      Daily inpatient census.

    • C. 

      Daily census.

    • D. 

      Inpatient census.

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      Subtract intra-hospital transfers from the inpatient census.

    • B. 

      Add same-day admits and discharges to the inpatient census.

    • C. 

      Add intra hospital transfers to the inpatient census.

    • D. 

      Subtract same day admits and discharges from the inpatient census.

  • 49. 
    At the start of January 2013, the bed count in a hospital was 345 it was increased to 422 as of January 15th. Given that the Total IPSD for January was 11,333 find the Bed occupancy rate for January.
    • A. 

      3%

    • B. 

      6.7%

    • C. 

      94.41%

    • D. 

      84.59%

  • 50. 
    • A. 

      0.0795

    • B. 

      0.0613

    • C. 

      0.0526

    • D. 

      0.0784

  • 51. 
    A patient admitted to the hospital on January 24 and discharged on February 9 has a length of stay of 
    • A. 

      16 days.

    • B. 

      15 days.

    • C. 

      17 days.

    • D. 

      14 days.

  • 52. 
    The best form/graph for demonstrating trends over time would be 
    • A. 

      Frequency polygon.

    • B. 

      Line graph.

    • C. 

      Pie chart.

    • D. 

      Histogram.

  • 53. 
    Looking at the data represented in the scatter diagram below, you would conclude that there is  
    • A. 

      No correlation between Variable X and Variable Y.

    • B. 

      A positive correlation between Variable X and Variable Y.

    • C. 

      A negative correlation between Variable X and Variable Y.

    • D. 

      A cause and effect relationship between Variable X and Variable Y.

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      Added to the denominator of the hospital's nosocomial infection rate.

    • B. 

      Added to the numerator of the hospital's community-acquired infection rate.

    • C. 

      Considered separately because Harry H. Potter is immune suppressed from chemotherapy.

    • D. 

      Added to the numerator of the hospital's nosocomial infection rate.

  • 55. 
    A researcher has repeated the same study 10 times. Each tune the study is repeated, the p value decreases. As the p value approaches zero, the 
    • A. 

      Size of the sample increases.

    • B. 

      Value of the study decreases.

    • C. 

      Chance that the results are due to a sampling error decreases.

    • D. 

      Chance that the results are due to a sampling error increases.

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      Systematic sampling.

    • B. 

      Stratified sampling.

    • C. 

      Variable sampling.

    • D. 

      Convenience sampling.

  • 57. 
    You are planning a prospective study to try to prove a cause and effect relationship between dipping snuff and throat cancer. First, you identify subjects who regularly dip snuff and who are free of any signs of throat cancer. Next, you need to identify subjects who 
    • A. 

      Dip snuff regularly and who currently have throat cancer.

    • B. 

      Dip snuff regularly and who currently have significant signs of throat cancer.

    • C. 

      Do not dip snuff and who currently have significant signs of throat cancer.

    • D. 

      Do not dip snuff and who are free of any signs of throat cancer.

  • 58. 
    The major purpose of random assignment in a clinical trial is to 
    • A. 

      Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment.

    • B. 

      Help ensure that study subjects are representative of the general population.

    • C. 

      Facilitate double-blinding.

    • D. 

      Ensure that the study groups are comparable on baseline characteristics.

  • 59. 
    The standard deviation of a particular set of measures was found to be 20.00. The sample variance would then be: 
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      400

    • D. 

      10

  • 60. 
    If a constant is added to all measurements within a sample 
    • A. 

      The mean remains the same.

    • B. 

      The standard deviation remains the same.

    • C. 

      Both A and B are true.

    • D. 

      Both A and B are false.

  • 61. 
    A retrospective cohort study:
    • A. 

      Is referred to as a non-concurrent study.

    • B. 

      Can reduce the time required to under take the study.

    • C. 

      Can increase the time required to undertake the study.

    • D. 

      Both a and b.

  • 62. 
    Individuals get assigned one of the groups randomly. One of the groups (treatment) gets a dose of the independent variable, while the other (control) gets nothing or a placebo.
    • A. 

      Control

    • B. 

      Sampling

    • C. 

      Unit of Analysis

    • D. 

      Randomization

  • 63. 
    Incidence of disease can be defined as the number of: 
    • A. 

      New cases in a given population over a given time period

    • B. 

      Persons exposed to the risk during the time period

    • C. 

      Existing cases at a single point in time

    • D. 

      Both a and b

  • 64. 
    • A. 

      Show a cause-effect relationship in the sample or population studied.

    • B. 

      Can be generalized to a broader, more general population.

    • C. 

      Produce unbiased inferences or conclusions about a target population.

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 65. 
    A risk manager needs to locate a full report of a patient's fall from his bed, including witness reports and probable reasons for the fall. She would most likely find this information in the
    • A. 

      Doctors' progress notes

    • B. 

      Incident report

    • C. 

      Integrated progress notes

    • D. 

      Nurses' notes

  • 66. 
    As part of a quality improvement study, you have been asked to provide information on the menstrual history, number of pregnancies, and number of living children on each OB patient from a stack of old obstetrical records. The best place in the record to locate this information is the 
    • A. 

      Prenatal record

    • B. 

      Postparttun record

    • C. 

      Labor and delivery record

    • D. 

      Discharge summary

  • 67. 
    The use of personalized signature stamps for authentication of entries in a paper-based record requires special measures to guard against delegated use of the stamp. In a completely computerized patient record system, similar measures might be utilized to govern the use of
    • A. 

      Fingerprint signatures

    • B. 

      Expert systems

    • C. 

      Voice recognition systems

    • D. 

      Electronic signatures

  • 68. 
    This component of SOAP includes vital signs, measurement such as height, weight, blood pressure as well as laboratory or diagnostic tests.
    • A. 

      Subjective

    • B. 

      Plan

    • C. 

      Assessment

    • D. 

      Objective

  • 69. 
    • A. 

      Quantitative Analysis

    • B. 

      Clinical Documentation Improvement Analysis

    • C. 

      Data Integrity

    • D. 

      Qualitative Analysis

  • 70. 
    When there is documentation that palliative care is the sole purpose for the admission this element must precede the Z code.
    • A. 

      Type 2

    • B. 

      Prefix 8

    • C. 

      Prefix 6

    • D. 

      Type 1

  • 71. 
    Setting up a drop-down menu to make sure that the registration clerk collects "gender" as "male, female, or unknown" is an example of ensuring data 
    • A. 

      Reliability

    • B. 

      Timeliness

    • C. 

      Precision

    • D. 

      Validity

  • 72. 
    In 2002, The Kirby Senate Committee report helped shift the focus in health care towards the promise of an integrated health information systems. As a result, core investments were made in information and communication technologies which significantly improved all of the following except
    • A. 

      Quality

    • B. 

      Safety

    • C. 

      Confidentiality

    • D. 

      Accessibility

  • 73. 
    As the Chair of a Forms Review Committee, you need to track the field name of a particular datafield and the description of that field. Your best source for this information would be the
    • A. 

      Data dictionary

    • B. 

      Facility's data dictionary

    • C. 

      Data warehouse

    • D. 

      System development life cycle

  • 74. 
    Which of the four distinct components of the problem-oriented record serves to help index documentation throughout the record? 
    • A. 

      Database

    • B. 

      Problem list

    • C. 

      Initial plan

    • D. 

      Progress notes

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      Missing signatures on progress notes

    • B. 

      Missing discharge stummaries

    • C. 

      Absence of SOAP format in progress notes

    • D. 

      Missing operative reports

  • 76. 
    Which of the following is defined as "the intersection of clinical sciences in which the application of computers in medicine and healthcare are used together with management practices that promote the proper implementation, use and maintenance of health information systems?"
    • A. 

      Information and Communications Technology Council (ICTC)

    • B. 

      Health Informatics (HI)

    • C. 

      Health Information Management (HIM)

    • D. 

      Healthcare Information and Management Systems Society (HIMSS)

  • 77. 
    Which of the following would NOT be addressed in the maintenance phase of the system development lifecycle
    • A. 

      Increased volume of data, images and videos

    • B. 

      Application version is obsolete

    • C. 

      Ease of use, training, performance and communication

    • D. 

      Application does not meet the needs of the end user

  • 78. 
    Which organization has been the catalyst in establishing the blueprint towards the creation of the pan-Canadian Electronic Health Record (EHR)? 
    • A. 

      Canada Health Infoway.

    • B. 

      Canadian Health Information Management (CHIMA)

    • C. 

      Canadian Standards Association (CSA).

    • D. 

      Health Level Seven International (HL7).

  • 79. 
    Which of the following is an example of cybernetics? 
    • A. 

      Algorithm design.

    • B. 

      Computer engineering.

    • C. 

      Computational theory.

    • D. 

      Feedback control.

  • 80. 
    An example of biosignal(s) would be: 
    • A. 

      An ECG recording.

    • B. 

      A blood pressure reading.

    • C. 

      Monitoring the colour of a skin lesion.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 81. 
    Which of the following is described as "the ability to appropriately transmit formatted data from one system to another"? 
    • A. 

      Direct collection.

    • B. 

      Indirect collection.

    • C. 

      Semantic interoperability.

    • D. 

      Syntactic interoperability.

  • 82. 
    Which of the following is concerned with analysis and prediction of genomics, proteomics and protein structure? 
    • A. 

      Bioinformatics.

    • B. 

      Clinical informatics.

    • C. 

      Health informatics.

    • D. 

      Nursing informatics.

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      General public access to a portal over Internet.

    • B. 

      Auditing of access to software to guard against privacy breaches.

    • C. 

      Connection to a secure local area network (LAN).

    • D. 

      Data flow from one software application to another application.

  • 84. 
    Connections to the internet on a network are managed by: 
    • A. 

      Routers.

    • B. 

      Switches.

    • C. 

      Firewalls.

    • D. 

      VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol).

  • 85. 
    Which of the following is NOT a type of Standards Collaborative (SC) governance committee or group: 
    • A. 

      Standards Collaborative Working Groups (SCWG).

    • B. 

      Standards Collaborative Strategic and Coordinating Committees.

    • C. 

      Canadian Institute for Health Information (CIHI).

    • D. 

      Domain Committees and Jurisdictional Implementation Groups.

  • 86. 
    Clinical Document Architecture (CDA)is an HL7 V3 standard focused on:
    • A. 

      Organization of data and information for easier communication purposes.

    • B. 

      Specification of data groups that could contribute to the standardization of clinical practice.

    • C. 

      Coherently combining data models and terminologies for easy use in different systems.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 87. 
    Which stage, of the standards lifecycle ensures that the health information standards are kept relevant and sustainable?
    • A. 

      Implementation.

    • B. 

      Education and training.

    • C. 

      Conformance.

    • D. 

      Maintenance.

  • 88. 
    What is the first step in the process of disposing of health information? 
    • A. 

      Take an inventory of each machine that stores health information and develop a process to regularly erase the memory.

    • B. 

      Develop a destruction policy in conjunction with the organization's retention schedule.

    • C. 

      Perform audits on compliance to the disposition policy.

    • D. 

      Record the destruction of any information.