Chima Mock Exam Part A: Quiz!
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The Canadian health information management association exam is designed to help you test out what you learned to be certified in health information management and what is expected of you. Take up this Chima mock exam part A and gauge your preparedness for the upcoming exam. All the best!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The most common blood borne infection in the Canada is
- A.
Helicobacter pylori
- B.
Hepatitis A
- C.
Hepatitis C
- D.
Hemophilia
Correct Answer
C. Hepatitis CExplanation
Hepatitis C is the most common blood-borne infection in Canada. It is a viral infection that primarily affects the liver. It is transmitted through contact with infected blood, such as through sharing needles or other drug paraphernalia, receiving contaminated blood transfusions, or through unprotected sexual contact with an infected person. Hepatitis C can lead to chronic liver disease and, in some cases, liver cancer. It is important to raise awareness about this infection and promote preventive measures to reduce its spread.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A pharyngeal culture is taken from a 13-year-old male patient presenting to the ER with fever, painful cervical lymph nodes, purulent tonsillar exudate, and difficulty swallowing. A blood agar culture plate shows complete hemolysis around Streptococcus pyogenes bacterial colonies. The patient is given a prescription for erythromycin. The diagnosis in this case is
- A.
A group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection
- B.
A methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infection
- C.
Tuberculosis with drug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis-positive sputum.
- D.
Meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid.
Correct Answer
A. A group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infectionExplanation
The correct answer is a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection. This is indicated by the presence of Streptococcus pyogenes bacterial colonies on the blood agar culture plate and the patient's symptoms of fever, painful cervical lymph nodes, purulent tonsillar exudate, and difficulty swallowing. Erythromycin is commonly prescribed for streptococcal infections, further supporting this diagnosis.Rate this question:
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- 3.
______________ is the most common type of skin cancer and ________________ is the most deadly type of skin cancer.
- A.
Malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma
- B.
Basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma
- C.
Oat cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma
- D.
Squamous cell carcinoma​, oat cell carcinoma
Correct Answer
B. Basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanomaExplanation
Basal cell carcinoma is the most common type of skin cancer, while malignant melanoma is the most deadly type of skin cancer.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Process, test, or procedure in which something is measured or observed in a living organism.
- A.
In vitro
- B.
In vivo
- C.
Uptake
- D.
Bone scan
Correct Answer
B. In vivoExplanation
In vivo refers to a process, test, or procedure in which something is measured or observed in a living organism. This term is used to differentiate from in vitro, which refers to experiments conducted outside of a living organism, such as in a test tube or petri dish. In the context of the given options, in vivo is the most appropriate term as it specifically relates to measurements or observations made within a living organism.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Cancer derived from epithelial tissue is classified as a(n)
- A.
Adenoma
- B.
Carcinoma
- C.
Lipoma
- D.
Sarcoma
Correct Answer
B. CarcinomaExplanation
Cancer derived from epithelial tissue is classified as carcinoma because carcinoma refers to cancer that originates in the epithelial cells, which are the cells that line the internal and external surfaces of the body. Adenoma, lipoma, and sarcoma are all different types of tumors, but they do not specifically refer to cancer originating from epithelial tissue.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Mary has diabetes. Her physician has told her about some factors that put her more at risk for infections. Which of the following factors would probably NOT be applicable?
- A.
Hypoxia
- B.
Increased glucose in body fluids
- C.
Increased blood supply
- D.
Both A and C
Correct Answer
C. Increased blood supplyExplanation
Increased blood supply would probably NOT be applicable as a factor that puts Mary more at risk for infections. While hypoxia (low oxygen levels) and increased glucose in body fluids can both weaken the immune system and make it harder for the body to fight off infections, increased blood supply would actually enhance the immune response by delivering more oxygen and nutrients to the affected area. Therefore, it would not increase the risk of infections for Mary.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the rule when coding a patient who had lithotripsy performed for a condition of bladder stones followed by a subsequent extraction of the fragments?
- A.
The condition of hydronephrosis is assumed to be with calculus obstruction and is MRDx with an additional code for urolithiasis as a type 3
- B.
When extraction follows lithotripsy, both the destruction and the extraction are coded
- C.
In jurisdictions not requiring extraction to be recorded, only the code for destruction is assigned.
- D.
Always code extraction whether or not there was an extraction
Correct Answer
B. When extraction follows lithotripsy, both the destruction and the extraction are codedExplanation
When a patient undergoes lithotripsy for bladder stones and then has subsequent extraction of the fragments, both the destruction of the stones and the extraction procedure should be coded. This means that the codes for both the destruction and the extraction should be assigned. This rule applies when extraction follows lithotripsy.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The small hole between the upper heart chambers; congenital anomaly:
- A.
Coronary artery disease
- B.
Atrial septal defect
- C.
Tetralogy of Fallot
- D.
Patent Ductus Arteriosus
Correct Answer
B. Atrial septal defectExplanation
Atrial septal defect is a congenital anomaly characterized by a small hole between the upper heart chambers. This defect allows oxygen-rich blood to mix with oxygen-poor blood, leading to an increased workload on the heart and potential complications. It is not related to coronary artery disease, tetralogy of Fallot, or patent ductus arteriosus.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following is NOT the cause of cirrhosis?
- A.
Alcoholic
- B.
Hepatitis
- C.
Ascites
- D.
Pancreatitis
Correct Answer
C. AscitesExplanation
Ascites is not a cause of cirrhosis. Cirrhosis is a condition characterized by scarring of the liver, which can be caused by various factors such as alcohol abuse (alcoholic cirrhosis) or viral infections like hepatitis. Ascites, on the other hand, is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is often a complication of cirrhosis, rather than a cause. Pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas, is also not a direct cause of cirrhosis.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Immediately after an action potential is propagated, one of the following ions rapidly diffuses out of the cell into the tissue fluid:
- A.
Potassium
- B.
Calcium
- C.
Sodium
- D.
magnesium
Correct Answer
A. PotassiumExplanation
After an action potential is propagated, the cell membrane becomes permeable to potassium ions. This allows potassium ions to rapidly diffuse out of the cell into the tissue fluid. This movement of potassium ions out of the cell helps to restore the resting membrane potential and prepare the cell for the next action potential.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Sally has a brain injury; she knows what she wants to say but canʹt vocalize the words. The part of her brain that deals with the ability to speak are the:
- A.
Central sulcus
- B.
Brocaʹs area
- C.
Primary motor area
- D.
Gyrus
Correct Answer
B. Brocaʹs areaExplanation
Sally's inability to vocalize words despite knowing what she wants to say suggests that the part of her brain responsible for speech production is affected. This is known as Broca's area, which is located in the frontal lobe of the brain. Broca's area plays a crucial role in the planning and coordination of the movements required for speech production. Therefore, it is likely that Sally's brain injury has affected her Broca's area, leading to her difficulty in vocalizing words.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is the effect of an enlarging brain abscess on cardiovascular activity?
- A.
Immediate depression of the cardiac control centers
- B.
Systemic vasoconstriction and slower heart rate
- C.
Low blood pressure and irregular heart and respiratory rates
- D.
Increased heart rate and systemic vasodilation
Correct Answer
B. Systemic vasoconstriction and slower heart rateExplanation
An enlarging brain abscess can lead to increased pressure within the skull, which can cause compression of the blood vessels. This compression can result in systemic vasoconstriction, where the blood vessels narrow, leading to a decrease in blood flow throughout the body. Additionally, the increased pressure can also affect the cardiac control centers in the brain, leading to a slower heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is systemic vasoconstriction and slower heart rate.Rate this question:
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- 13.
All of the following may precipitate a seizure EXCEPT:
- A.
Hypoglycemia
- B.
Severe acidosis
- C.
Brain abscess
- D.
High fever in young child
Correct Answer
B. Severe acidosisExplanation
Severe acidosis is not typically known to precipitate a seizure. Acidosis refers to an abnormal increase in acidity in the blood, which can be caused by various factors such as kidney disease or uncontrolled diabetes. While acidosis can have neurological effects, it is not commonly associated with seizures. On the other hand, hypoglycemia (low blood sugar), brain abscess, and high fever in young children are all known to be potential triggers for seizures.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The brachial vein:
- A.
Drains blood from the axillary vein, then empties that blood into the superior vena cava
- B.
Drains blood from the popliteal vein, then empties that blood into the external iliac vein
- C.
Drains blood from the radial and ulnar veins, then empties that blood into the axillary vein
- D.
Drains blood from the internal jugular vein, then empties that blood into the superior vena cava
Correct Answer
C. Drains blood from the radial and ulnar veins, then empties that blood into the axillary veinExplanation
The brachial vein drains blood from the radial and ulnar veins, which are located in the forearm. It then empties this blood into the axillary vein. This pathway allows for the return of deoxygenated blood from the forearm back to the heart. The other options mentioned in the question are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the course and drainage of the brachial vein.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which one of the following is true concerning the lub-dub sound of the heart:
- A.
The first sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the semilunar valves; the second sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the AV valves
- B.
The first sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the tricuspid valve; the second sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the mitral valve
- C.
The first sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the tricuspid valve; the second sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the mitral valve
- D.
The first sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the AV valves; the second sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the semilunar valves
Correct Answer
D. The first sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the AV valves; the second sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the semilunar valvesExplanation
The first sound of the heart, known as "lub," is longer and louder because it is caused by the closure of the AV valves. These valves, including the tricuspid and mitral valves, prevent blood from flowing back into the atria when the ventricles contract. The second sound, known as "dub," is shorter and sharper because it is caused by the closure of the semilunar valves. These valves, including the aortic and pulmonary valves, prevent blood from flowing back into the ventricles when they relax.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The path of blood flow within the systemic vascular system is:
- A.
Arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, veins, venules
- B.
Arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins
- C.
Arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, veins, venules
- D.
Arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, venules, veins
Correct Answer
B. Arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins -
- 17.
This disease is classified as primary, secondary, or congenital and can be treated with iridotomy/partial iridectomy, or drainage of the anterior chamber, or scleral drainage.
- A.
Retinal detachment
- B.
Retinopathy
- C.
Glaucoma
- D.
Macular Degeneration
Correct Answer
C. GlaucomaExplanation
Glaucoma is a disease that affects the optic nerve and is characterized by increased pressure within the eye. It can be classified as primary, secondary, or congenital depending on the underlying cause. Treatment options for glaucoma include iridotomy/partial iridectomy, which involves creating a small hole in the iris to allow fluid drainage, or drainage of the anterior chamber, which involves creating a new drainage pathway for the fluid. Scleral drainage is another treatment option that involves creating a small channel in the white part of the eye to allow fluid to drain. Therefore, glaucoma is the correct answer based on the given information.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Seventy-five-year-old Beatrice had been a pack-a-day smoker all of her adult life. Over the previous 3 months she noticed a persistent cough, weight loss, blood in her sputum __________________ and dyspnea. A chest CT scan revealed a mass. Biopsy confirmed the diagnosis of ______________________, which is a type of _____________________ lung cancer.
- A.
Hematemesis, small cell, pneumoconiosis
- B.
Hemoptysis, small cell, adenocarcinoma
- C.
Hemoptysis, non–small cell, adenocarcinoma
- D.
Asbestosis, non–small cell, tuberculosis
Correct Answer
C. Hemoptysis, non–small cell, adenocarcinomaExplanation
The correct answer is "hemoptysis, non–small cell, adenocarcinoma." Hemoptysis refers to coughing up blood, which is a symptom that Beatrice experienced. Non-small cell lung cancer is a type of lung cancer that is more common than small cell lung cancer. Adenocarcinoma is a specific type of non-small cell lung cancer that develops in the cells that line the air sacs in the lungs. This explanation aligns with the information given in the passage.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Visual examination of the chest via endoscope and a video monitor.
- A.
Video-assisted thoracic surgery
- B.
PET scan
- C.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- D.
Chest X-Ray
Correct Answer
A. Video-assisted thoracic surgeryExplanation
Video-assisted thoracic surgery involves the use of an endoscope and a video monitor to visually examine the chest. This minimally invasive procedure allows surgeons to perform various diagnostic and therapeutic interventions, such as biopsies, removal of tumors, and repair of damaged tissues in the chest cavity. It provides a clearer and magnified view of the internal structures, enabling precise and targeted surgical interventions. Compared to traditional open chest surgery, video-assisted thoracic surgery offers several advantages, including smaller incisions, reduced pain and scarring, shorter hospital stays, and faster recovery times.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is NOT a circulatory complication of Diabetes mellitus?
- A.
Hypertension
- B.
DVT
- C.
COPD
- D.
Acute myocardial infarction
Correct Answer
C. COPDExplanation
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is not a circulatory complication of Diabetes mellitus. COPD is a respiratory condition characterized by obstructed airflow to the lungs, typically caused by long-term exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke. While Diabetes mellitus can lead to various circulatory complications such as hypertension, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and acute myocardial infarction (heart attack), it does not directly cause COPD.Rate this question:
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- 21.
James has significant lower back pain radiating down his left leg. This condition is called ______________. MRI shows an intervertebral ____________________ impinging on spinal nerves at the __________________ level. Bed rest produced no improvement. His orthopedist decided to perform a ____________________ to relieve pressure on his nerves.
- A.
Fibromyalgia, exostosis, C2–C3, microdiskectomy
- B.
Talipes, disk, L5–S1, tenorrhaphy
- C.
Talipes, bunion, T3–T5, bunionectomy
- D.
Sciatica, disk, L5–S1, microdiskectomy
Correct Answer
D. Sciatica, disk, L5–S1, microdiskectomyExplanation
The correct answer is "sciatica, disk, L5-S1, microdiskectomy." Sciatica refers to the condition of lower back pain radiating down the leg, which matches James' symptoms. The MRI shows a herniated disk impinging on spinal nerves at the L5-S1 level, indicating the location of the problem. Bed rest did not improve the condition, so the orthopedist decided to perform a microdiskectomy to relieve pressure on the nerves.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Alice and her friends had been staying up late for weeks, cramming for exams. She developed a sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in her neck and felt fatigued all the time. Dr. Smith did a blood test, and the results showed lymphocytosis and antibodies to EBV in the bloodstream. His diagnosis was
- A.
Leukapheresis
- B.
Lymphocytopenia
- C.
Mononucleosis
- D.
Thalassemia
Correct Answer
C. MononucleosisExplanation
Alice's symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, fatigue, and the presence of antibodies to EBV in her bloodstream are consistent with a diagnosis of mononucleosis. Mononucleosis, also known as "mono," is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). It is characterized by an increase in lymphocytes (lymphocytosis) and can cause symptoms such as fatigue, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. Leukapheresis is a procedure to remove white blood cells, lymphocytopenia is a low lymphocyte count, and thalassemia is a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin production, none of which align with Alice's symptoms and test results.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A system of preferred terminology for naming disease processes is known as a?
- A.
Set of categories
- B.
Classification system
- C.
Medical nomenclature
- D.
Diagnosis listing
Correct Answer
C. Medical nomenclatureExplanation
Medical nomenclature refers to the system of preferred terminology used for naming disease processes. It is a standardized and organized way of classifying and categorizing diseases, conditions, and medical procedures. This helps in effective communication among healthcare professionals and ensures consistency in the naming and classification of diseases across different medical settings. Therefore, medical nomenclature is the correct answer for the given question.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In reviewing the medical record of a patient admitted for a left herniorrhaphy, the coder discovers an extremely low potassium level on the laboratory report. In examining the physician's orders, the coder notices that intravenous potassium was ordered. The physician has not listed any indication of an abnormal potassium level or any related condition on the discharge summary. The best course of action for the coder to take is to
- A.
Confer with the physician and ask him or her to list the condition as a final diagnosis if he or she considers the abnormal potassium level to be clinically significant.
- B.
Code the record as is
- C.
Code the condition as abnormal blood chemistry
- D.
Code the abnonnal potassium level as a complication following surgery
Correct Answer
A. Confer with the pHysician and ask him or her to list the condition as a final diagnosis if he or she considers the abnormal potassium level to be clinically significant.Explanation
The best course of action for the coder is to confer with the physician and ask them to list the condition as a final diagnosis if they consider the abnormal potassium level to be clinically significant. This is because the physician's orders indicate that intravenous potassium was ordered, suggesting that the low potassium level may be related to a specific condition or treatment. By discussing this with the physician, the coder can ensure that the final diagnosis accurately reflects the patient's medical condition.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Coders must assign this procedure on the basis of the title of the report and not on the structures that were viewed or by the findings listed on the report.
- A.
Ultrasound of the abodmen
- B.
CT scan of head
- C.
CT scan of brain
- D.
Gastroscopy
Correct Answer
B. CT scan of headExplanation
The correct answer is CT scan of head because the instruction states that coders should assign the procedure based on the title of the report, not the structures viewed or the findings listed. Therefore, even though the other procedures listed may be related to the head or abdomen, the specific instruction given indicates that the CT scan of head is the correct procedure to assign.Rate this question:
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- 26.
This term is given for those patients who abuse drugs or alcohol to the point where if they do not take the drug or alcohol it may result in withdrawal symptoms.
- A.
Nondependent
- B.
Psychoactive
- C.
Obsessive
- D.
Dependent
Correct Answer
D. DependentExplanation
This term is given for those patients who abuse drugs or alcohol to the point where if they do not take the drug or alcohol it may result in withdrawal symptoms. The term "dependent" accurately describes this situation as it signifies a reliance or addiction to the substance.Rate this question:
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- 27.
When a procedure is performed because of a problem or complication of an ileostomy or colostomy the coders would look for an ICD 10 CA listed as a:
- A.
Malfunction
- B.
Ileostomy
- C.
Complication
- D.
Misadventure
Correct Answer
A. MalfunctionExplanation
In this case, the correct answer is "malfunction." When a procedure is performed due to a problem or complication of an ileostomy or colostomy, coders would search for an ICD 10 CA code that indicates a malfunction. This suggests that there is an issue with the functioning of the ileostomy or colostomy, which requires medical intervention or treatment. The other options listed (ileostomy, complication, misadventure) are not specifically related to a malfunction and may not accurately describe the reason for the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following classification systems was designed with electronic systems in mind and is currently being used for problem lists, ICU unit monitoring, patient care assessments, data collection, medical research studies, clinical trials, disease surveillance, and images?
- A.
SNOMED CT
- B.
SNDO
- C.
ICPC
- D.
ICD 10
Correct Answer
A. SNOMED CTExplanation
SNOMED CT is the correct answer because it is a comprehensive clinical terminology and classification system that was specifically designed for electronic systems. It is currently being used in various healthcare settings such as problem lists, ICU unit monitoring, patient care assessments, data collection, medical research studies, clinical trials, disease surveillance, and images. SNOMED CT allows for standardized and interoperable communication of clinical information, making it an essential tool for healthcare professionals and researchers.Rate this question:
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- 29.
You just completed a process through which you reviewed a patient record and entered the required elements into a database. What is this process called?
- A.
Case finding
- B.
Abstracting
- C.
Staging
- D.
Nomenclature
Correct Answer
B. AbstractingExplanation
Abstracting is the process of reviewing a patient record and entering the required elements into a database. It involves extracting relevant information from the record and recording it in a structured format. This process is important for maintaining accurate and comprehensive patient records, which can be used for various purposes such as research, quality improvement, and billing. Case finding, staging, and nomenclature are not the correct terms for this process.Rate this question:
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- 30.
You are looking at statistics for your facility that include average length of stay (ALOS) and discharge data by Dr. Mosley. What type of data are you reviewing?
- A.
Aggregate data
- B.
Patient-identifiable data
- C.
Clinical data
- D.
Primary health data
Correct Answer
A. Aggregate dataExplanation
The correct answer is "Aggregate data." In this scenario, the statistics being reviewed include average length of stay (ALOS) and discharge data, which are indicators of overall performance and outcomes for the facility as a whole. This type of data summarizes and combines information from multiple individual cases, providing a broader perspective on trends and patterns in patient care. Patient-identifiable data, clinical data, and primary health data would focus on specific patient information or individual health records, which is not the case here.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A barrier to widespread use of automated code assignment is
- A.
Inadequate technology
- B.
Poor quality of documentation
- C.
Resistance by physicians
- D.
Resistance by HIM professionals
Correct Answer
B. Poor quality of documentationExplanation
Poor quality of documentation can be a barrier to widespread use of automated code assignment because accurate and detailed documentation is crucial for the coding process. If the documentation is incomplete, unclear, or inconsistent, it becomes difficult for automated coding systems to accurately assign appropriate codes. This can lead to errors and discrepancies in coding, affecting the quality and reliability of healthcare data. Therefore, improving the quality of documentation is essential for the successful implementation and effectiveness of automated code assignment systems.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The coding supervisor notices that the coders are routinely failing to code all possible diagnoses and procedures for a patient encounter. This indicates to the supervisor that there is a problem with
- A.
Completeness
- B.
Validity
- C.
Reliability
- D.
TimeIiness
Correct Answer
A. CompletenessExplanation
The correct answer is completeness. The fact that the coders are routinely failing to code all possible diagnoses and procedures for a patient encounter suggests that there is a problem with completeness. This means that the coders are not capturing all the necessary information and are leaving out important details in their coding process. This can lead to inaccurate and incomplete medical records, which can have negative consequences for patient care and reimbursement.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Facts and figures that have been organized, either through manual or electronic processes, to reveal meaningful, useful, or valuable patterns, is/are:
- A.
Data
- B.
Wisdom
- C.
Knowledge
- D.
Information
Correct Answer
D. InformationExplanation
The term "information" refers to facts and figures that have been organized, either manually or electronically, to reveal meaningful, useful, or valuable patterns. This implies that information is the result of processing and organizing data in a way that it becomes meaningful and usable. While data refers to raw and unprocessed facts, information is the transformed and organized version of data that provides insights and understanding. Therefore, in this context, the correct answer is information.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Management Information Systems (MIS) standards were developed by the Canadian Institute for Health Information (CIHI) to:
- A.
Collect and report administrative, clinical, and demographic information on inpatient separations from acute care hospitals.
- B.
Enable comparison of health human resources overtime at national and provincial/territorial levels.
- C.
Facilitate provincial/territorial, national and international comparative reporting and also support policy planning, decision-making and research.
- D.
Collect and report financial and statistical data on the day-to-day operations of health service organizations.
Correct Answer
D. Collect and report financial and statistical data on the day-to-day operations of health service organizations.Explanation
The correct answer is "collect and report financial and statistical data on the day-to-day operations of health service organizations." This is because MIS standards were developed to gather and present information related to the financial and statistical aspects of health service organizations' daily operations. These standards aim to provide valuable data that can be used for decision-making, policy planning, and research purposes.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The collection of software programs that supports a database by managing the database structure and controlling access to the data stored in the database is called a:
- A.
Data dictionary
- B.
Data warehouse
- C.
Database management system
- D.
Database security program
Correct Answer
C. Database management systemExplanation
A database management system (DBMS) is a collection of software programs that supports a database by managing the database structure and controlling access to the data stored in the database. It provides tools and functions for creating, modifying, and querying the database, as well as ensuring data integrity, security, and efficient data management. The DBMS acts as an interface between the users and the database, allowing them to interact with the data and perform various operations on it. It is responsible for organizing and storing the data, as well as handling concurrency control and transaction management.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following would be considered administrative data?
- A.
Birth date, postal code, health care number
- B.
Diagnosis, procedures, ICU units
- C.
Health care provider profile, date of admission, separation dates
- D.
Religion, gender, weight
Correct Answer
C. Health care provider profile, date of admission, separation datesExplanation
The answer is health care provider profile, date of admission, separation dates. Administrative data refers to information that is collected for administrative purposes, such as managing and organizing healthcare services. Health care provider profiles contain information about the healthcare professionals, date of admission refers to the date a patient is admitted to a healthcare facility, and separation dates refer to the date a patient is discharged or leaves the facility. These pieces of information are all administrative in nature and are used for managing and coordinating healthcare services.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The first five characters of a Canadian Classification of Interventions (CCI) code are referred to as:
- A.
Blocks
- B.
Categories
- C.
Identifiers
- D.
Rubric.
Correct Answer
D. Rubric.Explanation
The first five characters of a Canadian Classification of Interventions (CCI) code are referred to as "rubric." A rubric is a set of guidelines or instructions used to classify or evaluate something. In this context, the first five characters of the CCI code serve as an identifier or classification system for interventions. Therefore, "rubric" accurately describes the purpose and function of these characters in the CCI code.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following is assigned to data submitted to the Canadian Institute for Health Information from typical inpatient hospital visits based on pre-determined resources?
- A.
CACS
- B.
CMGs
- C.
RIWs
- D.
RUG
Correct Answer
C. RIWsExplanation
RIWs stands for Resource Intensity Weights. It is assigned to data submitted to the Canadian Institute for Health Information from typical inpatient hospital visits based on pre-determined resources. RIWs are used to measure the relative resource intensity of a patient's hospital stay. This information is important for healthcare planning, resource allocation, and funding decisions. CMGs (Case Mix Groups) and RUG (Resource Utilization Groups) are also used in healthcare to classify patients based on their resource needs, but in this case, RIWs are the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Data quality audits should include a report that summarizes the findings and provides recommendations. The report should include:
- A.
Subjective conclusions about the quality of the data.
- B.
A comparison of findings to peer benchmarks and industry best practices.
- C.
Indicators that measure the quality of the information objectively
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
A data quality audit should include a report that summarizes the findings and provides recommendations. This report should include subjective conclusions about the quality of the data, a comparison of findings to peer benchmarks and industry best practices, and indicators that measure the quality of the information objectively. Including all of these elements in the report ensures a comprehensive assessment of the data quality and provides a basis for making informed decisions and improvements.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What criterion is critical in selecting performance indicators for a health record department?
- A.
Identify at least 25 indicators that are reflective of all department functions.
- B.
Indicators must include the most important aspects of performance.
- C.
Select indicators that reflect positively on the department.
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
B. Indicators must include the most important aspects of performance.Explanation
The criterion critical in selecting performance indicators for a health record department is that the indicators must include the most important aspects of performance. This means that the selected indicators should accurately measure the key functions and goals of the department. By focusing on the most important aspects of performance, the department can effectively track and evaluate its progress and make informed decisions for improvement.Rate this question:
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- 41.
In the role of a Health Information Management coding supervisor, you are asked to compare the current retrospective coding process with the proposed concurrent coding process. Which visual tool would best identify the pros and cons of each process?
- A.
Affinity diagram
- B.
Decision matrix
- C.
Force Field analysis
- D.
Pareto chart
Correct Answer
C. Force Field analysisExplanation
Force Field analysis is the best visual tool to identify the pros and cons of each process. This tool helps in analyzing the driving forces (pros) and restraining forces (cons) that affect a particular situation or decision. By using this tool, the coding supervisor can identify the factors that support or hinder the implementation of the current retrospective coding process and the proposed concurrent coding process. This analysis will provide a comprehensive understanding of the advantages and disadvantages of each process, enabling the supervisor to make an informed decision.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A pre-determined performance standard which an organization compares its performance against is called a/an:
- A.
Indicator.
- B.
Benchmark.
- C.
Balanced scorecard.
- D.
Matrix.
Correct Answer
B. Benchmark.Explanation
A pre-determined performance standard which an organization compares its performance against is called a benchmark. A benchmark is a reference point or a standard of comparison that helps organizations measure their performance and identify areas for improvement. It allows organizations to assess their performance in relation to industry best practices or their own past performance. By comparing their performance against benchmarks, organizations can set goals, track progress, and make informed decisions to enhance their performance and competitiveness.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The type of assessment that would be done to assess the effects of new medical staff, program, diagnostic technology, intervention types to assess the financial and other consequences is a/an:
- A.
Decision tree
- B.
Impact analysis.
- C.
Process map.
- D.
Cause and effect diagram.
Correct Answer
B. Impact analysis.Explanation
An impact analysis is a type of assessment that would be done to assess the effects of new medical staff, program, diagnostic technology, and intervention types on the financial and other consequences. It involves evaluating the potential outcomes and consequences of implementing these changes and determining the extent to which they will affect various aspects of the organization or system. This analysis helps in understanding the potential risks, benefits, and overall impact of the proposed changes before implementing them.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which phase of the data analysis process is considered most critical?
- A.
Data analysis and interpretation.
- B.
Data evaluation.
- C.
Needs assessment.
- D.
Data promotion.
Correct Answer
C. Needs assessment.Explanation
Needs assessment is considered the most critical phase of the data analysis process because it involves identifying the specific information needs and objectives of the analysis. This phase helps determine what data should be collected, what methods should be used, and what analysis techniques should be applied to address the research questions or solve the problem at hand. Without a thorough needs assessment, the subsequent phases of data analysis and interpretation, data evaluation, and data promotion may not be effective or relevant.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which best describes a correlational study?
- A.
It uses data from entire populations to compare disease frequencies between same/different groups during the same or different points in time.
- B.
It cannot be used to test a hypothesis because of a number of limitations.
- C.
It consists of the carefully detailed report by one or more clinicians of the profile of a single patient.
- D.
Both a and b.
Correct Answer
D. Both a and b.Explanation
A correlational study is a type of research design that examines the relationship between two or more variables. It uses data from entire populations to compare disease frequencies between same/different groups during the same or different points in time. Additionally, correlational studies have a number of limitations that prevent them from being used to test a hypothesis. Therefore, the correct answer is "Both a and b" because it encompasses both aspects of a correlational study.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A researcher has obtained referrals from 5 different healthcare locations and would like to determine if there is a relationship between locations and the number of home visits per year. Which hypothesis test is the most appropriate to use in order to assess the statistical significance of the differences between the 5 locations?
- A.
Chi-square independence
- B.
Chi-square goodness of fit
- C.
ANOVA
- D.
Two related means
Correct Answer
C. ANOVAExplanation
ANOVA (Analysis of Variance) is the most appropriate hypothesis test to determine if there is a significant difference between the means of multiple groups. In this case, the researcher wants to assess the statistical significance of the differences between the 5 healthcare locations in terms of the number of home visits per year. ANOVA allows for comparing means across multiple groups and determining if any of the differences are statistically significant. Therefore, ANOVA is the most suitable test for this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 47.
All of the following items mean the same thing, EXCEPT
- A.
Inpatient service day.
- B.
Daily inpatient census.
- C.
Daily census.
- D.
Inpatient census.
Correct Answer
D. Inpatient census.Explanation
"Inpatient service day," "daily inpatient census," and "daily census" are terms that generally refer to the count of patients receiving inpatient care within a 24-hour period. "Inpatient census," however, is a broader term that may refer to the total number of inpatients present at a specific time rather than the daily count of services provided. Therefore, "inpatient census" doesn't mean exactly the same as the other terms.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Ln order to derive the total inpatient service days for any given day, you would need to
- A.
Subtract intra-hospital transfers from the inpatient census.
- B.
Add same-day admits and discharges to the inpatient census.
- C.
Add intra hospital transfers to the inpatient census.
- D.
Subtract same day admits and discharges from the inpatient census.
Correct Answer
B. Add same-day admits and discharges to the inpatient census.Explanation
To calculate the total inpatient service days for a given day, you would need to add the number of same-day admits and discharges to the inpatient census. This is because same-day admits and discharges contribute to the overall number of patients in the hospital on that day, which is represented by the inpatient census. By adding these numbers, you can accurately determine the total inpatient service days for that specific day.Rate this question:
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- 49.
At the start of January 2013, the bed count in a hospital was 345 it was increased to 422 as of January 15th. Given that the Total IPSD for January was 11,333 find the Bed occupancy rate for January.
- A.
3%
- B.
6.7%
- C.
94.41%
- D.
84.59%
Correct Answer
C. 94.41%Explanation
The bed occupancy rate for January can be calculated by dividing the total inpatient service days (IPSD) by the product of the average bed count and the number of days in January. The average bed count can be calculated by taking the average of the bed count at the start and end of the month. The bed count at the start of January was 345 and it increased to 422 by January 15th. Therefore, the average bed count for January is (345 + 422)/2 = 383.5. The number of days in January is 31. Plugging these values into the formula, we get (11,333 / (383.5 * 31)) * 100 = 94.41%.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The following data are recorded for November: Deaths Service Admissions <48hrs >48hrs Discharges Medical 250 5 20 261 Surgical 150 2 8 103 Pediatric 33 0 2 35 Obstetrical 36 1 0 34 Psychiatric 47 1 0 45 Newborn 40 1 1 38 Calculate: net death rate
- A.
7.95%
- B.
6.11%
- C.
5.26%
- D.
7.84%
Correct Answer
B. 6.11% -
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Sep 03, 2024Quiz Edited by
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