MLT Chemistry Class 1120

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1. Cerebrospinal fluid for glucose assay should be:

Explanation

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) should be analyzed immediately for glucose assay because glucose levels can rapidly change after collection. Delayed analysis may lead to inaccurate results, as glucose can be metabolized by cells in the CSF or may be affected by bacterial or fungal contamination. Therefore, it is crucial to analyze CSF for glucose levels promptly to obtain reliable and meaningful results.

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MLT Chemistry Class 1120 - Quiz

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2. Which of the following enzymes are used in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?

Explanation

Amylase and lipase are enzymes that are commonly used in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. In cases of acute pancreatitis, the pancreas becomes inflamed, causing these enzymes to be released into the bloodstream. Elevated levels of amylase and lipase in the blood can indicate the presence of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, measuring the levels of these enzymes can help in the diagnosis of this condition. The other options listed do not specifically relate to the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis.

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3. When myocardial infarction occurs, the first enzyme to become elevated is:

Explanation

When myocardial infarction occurs, the first enzyme to become elevated is CK (creatine kinase). CK is an enzyme found in the heart muscle, and its levels increase in the blood when there is damage to the heart muscle, such as during a heart attack. Elevated CK levels are an important diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. LD (lactate dehydrogenase), AST (aspartate aminotransferase), and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are also enzymes that can be elevated in certain conditions, but CK is the specific enzyme that is the first to become elevated in the case of a heart attack.

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4. Which of the following is secreted by the placents and used for the early detection of pregnancy?

Explanation

Human chronic gonadotropin (HCG) is secreted by the placenta and is used for the early detection of pregnancy. HCG is a hormone that is produced by the developing placenta shortly after fertilization. It can be detected in a woman's urine or blood and is the hormone that is typically tested for in pregnancy tests. The presence of HCG in the body indicates that a woman is pregnant, as it is only produced during pregnancy. This hormone helps to support the pregnancy by stimulating the production of other hormones, such as progesterone, which are necessary for maintaining the pregnancy.

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5. A serum sample was assayed for bilirubin at 10am , and the result was 12 mg/dL (205.6 umol/L). The same sample was retested at 3pm. The result now is 8 mg/dL (136.8 umol/L). The most likely explanation for this discrepancy is:

Explanation

The most likely explanation for the discrepancy in the bilirubin levels between the two assays is that the sample was exposed to light. Bilirubin is sensitive to light and can degrade when exposed, resulting in a decrease in its measured levels. This is supported by the fact that the bilirubin level decreased from 12 mg/dL to 8 mg/dL, indicating a potential degradation of the sample.

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6. Monitoring long-term glucose control in patients with adult onset diabetes mellitus can best be accomplished by measuring:

Explanation

Hemoglobin A1c is the best measure for monitoring long-term glucose control in patients with adult onset diabetes mellitus. This is because hemoglobin A1c reflects the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive picture of glucose control compared to the other options. Weekly fasting 7am serum glucose, glucose tolerance testing, and 2hr postprandial serum glucose are all measures of short-term glucose control and may not accurately represent long-term control. Hemoglobin A1c is a reliable indicator of overall glucose control and is commonly used in clinical practice to assess diabetes management.

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7. A potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L (6.8 mmol/L) is obtatined. Before reporting the results, the first step the technologist should take is to:

Explanation

The first step the technologist should take is to check the serum for hemolysis. Hemolysis refers to the breakdown of red blood cells, which can release potassium into the serum and cause falsely elevated potassium levels. By checking for hemolysis, the technologist can ensure that the potassium level obtained is accurate and not influenced by any external factors.

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8. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT ) are both elevated in which of the following diseases ?

Explanation

Both AST and ALT are enzymes that are found mainly in the liver. When the liver is damaged or inflamed, these enzymes are released into the bloodstream, causing elevated levels. Viral hepatitis is a disease that specifically affects the liver, causing inflammation and damage. Therefore, it is expected that both AST and ALT levels would be elevated in viral hepatitis. Muscular dystrophy, pulmonary emboli, and infectious mononucleosis do not primarily affect the liver, so it is less likely for AST and ALT levels to be elevated in these conditions.

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9. Which of the following hormones regulates normal blood calcium levels?

Explanation

Parathyroid hormone is responsible for regulating normal blood calcium levels. It acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium levels in the blood. It stimulates the release of calcium from bones, enhances the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys, and promotes the absorption of calcium from the intestines. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of calcium in the body, which is essential for various physiological processes such as bone health, muscle function, and nerve transmission.

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10. The referance range for the pH of arterial blood measured at 37 degree celsius is:

Explanation

The correct answer is 7.35-7.45. This range represents the normal pH level of arterial blood when measured at 37 degrees Celsius. The pH of arterial blood is tightly regulated within this range to maintain normal physiological functions. Values below 7.35 indicate acidosis, while values above 7.45 indicate alkalosis. Therefore, the pH range of 7.35-7.45 is considered the normal reference range for arterial blood pH.

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11. The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called:

Explanation

Glycolysis is the correct answer because it refers to the process of breaking down glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate. This process occurs in the cytoplasm of cells and is the first step in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. Glycolysis produces ATP, which is used as an energy source for various cellular activities.

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12. A stool specimen that appears black and tarry should be tested for the presence of:

Explanation

When a stool specimen appears black and tarry, it indicates the presence of occult blood. Occult blood refers to blood that is not visible to the naked eye but can be detected through laboratory tests. This condition is often caused by bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract, such as ulcers, gastritis, or bleeding from the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine. Testing for occult blood in the stool helps to identify and diagnose the underlying cause of the bleeding. Fecal fat, trypsin, and excess mucus do not typically cause the stool to appear black and tarry.

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13. A physician suspects his patient has pancreatitis. Which test(s) would be most indicative of this disease?

Explanation

Amylase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas. Elevated levels of amylase in the blood can indicate pancreatitis, which is inflammation of the pancreas. Therefore, testing for amylase levels would be most indicative of this disease. Creatinine is a waste product that is filtered by the kidneys, LD isoenzymes are used to diagnose heart attacks, and beta-hydroxybutyrate is a ketone produced during ketosis. None of these tests are specific to pancreatitis.

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14. Aspartate amino transferase (AST) is characteristically elevated in diseases of the:

Explanation

AST, also known as serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT), is an enzyme found primarily in the liver. Elevated levels of AST in the blood indicate liver damage or disease. Therefore, AST is characteristically elevated in liver diseases such as hepatitis, cirrhosis, and liver cancer.

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15. The presence of increased CKMB activity on a CK electrophoresis pattern is most likely found in a patient suffering from:

Explanation

Increased CKMB activity on a CK electrophoresis pattern is most likely found in a patient suffering from myocardial infarction. CKMB is an isoform of creatine kinase that is predominantly found in the heart muscle. During a heart attack, the heart muscle is damaged, causing an increase in CKMB levels in the blood. This can be detected on a CK electrophoresis pattern, indicating myocardial infarction as the likely cause. Acute muscular stress following strenuous exercise may also cause an increase in CK levels, but CKMB specifically points towards myocardial infarction. Malignant liver disease and severe head injury are not associated with increased CKMB activity.

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16. Scurvy is assoiciated with defiency of which of the following vitamins?

Explanation

Scurvy is associated with a deficiency of Vitamin C.

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17. The glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a hemolysate reflect the:

Explanation

The correct answer is that glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a hemolysate reflect the average blood glucose levels of the past 2-3 months. This is because glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as Hemoglobin A1c, is formed when glucose attaches to hemoglobin in red blood cells. The level of glycosylated hemoglobin in the blood is directly proportional to the average blood glucose levels over a period of 2-3 months. Therefore, measuring the level of glycosylated hemoglobin provides an indication of long-term blood glucose control.

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18. Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated by:

Explanation

Parathyroid hormone is responsible for regulating calcium concentration in the serum. It acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium levels in the blood. When blood calcium levels drop, the parathyroid gland releases parathyroid hormone, which stimulates the release of calcium from the bones, enhances calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, and promotes the production of active vitamin D, which aids in calcium absorption from the intestines. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body.

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19. A healthy person with a blood glucose of 80 mg/dl (4.4 mmol/L) would have a simultaneously determined cerebrospinal fluid glucose value of:

Explanation

The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose value is typically about two-thirds of the blood glucose value. Therefore, a healthy person with a blood glucose of 80 mg/dl would have a CSF glucose value of approximately 50 mg/dl. This is because glucose is actively transported from the blood into the CSF, but at a slower rate than in other tissues.

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20. A 45-year old woman has a fasting serum glucose concentration of 95 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L) and a 2-hour postprandial glucose concentration of 105 mg/dL(5.8 mmol/L). The statement which best describes this patient's fasting serum glucose concentration is:

Explanation

The fasting serum glucose concentration of 95 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L) falls within the normal range, indicating that the patient's blood sugar level is not elevated. The statement suggests that this normal fasting glucose concentration is a result of glycogen breakdown by the liver. During fasting, the liver breaks down glycogen to release glucose into the bloodstream to maintain normal blood sugar levels. Therefore, the correct answer is "normal; reflecting glycogen breakdown by the liver."

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21. Pregnant women with symptoms of thirst, frequent urination or unexplained weight loss should have which of the following tests performed?

Explanation

Pregnant women experiencing symptoms of thirst, frequent urination, or unexplained weight loss should undergo a glucose tolerance test. This test is used to diagnose gestational diabetes, a condition that affects pregnant women and causes high blood sugar levels. By measuring how the body processes glucose, the test can determine if a woman has gestational diabetes and needs treatment to manage her blood sugar levels during pregnancy.

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22. The most important buffer pair in plasma is the

Explanation

The bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair is the most important buffer pair in plasma because it helps maintain the pH balance in the body. When there is an increase in acidity, carbonic acid dissociates into bicarbonate ions, which helps to neutralize the excess hydrogen ions and maintain a stable pH. On the other hand, when there is an increase in alkalinity, bicarbonate ions can combine with hydrogen ions to form carbonic acid, thus reducing the pH. This buffer system plays a crucial role in regulating the acid-base balance in the body and ensuring the proper functioning of various physiological processes.

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23. A 25 yr old man became nauseated and vomited 90 minutes after receiving a standard 75g carbohydrate dose for an oral glucose tolerance test. the best course of action is to:

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of nausea and vomiting after receiving a standard 75g carbohydrate dose for an oral glucose tolerance test suggest that they may be experiencing an adverse reaction or intolerance to the high carbohydrate load. Drawing blood for glucose levels will help determine if the patient is experiencing hyperglycemia, which could be causing their symptoms. Discontinuing the test is the best course of action to ensure the patient's safety and to prevent further discomfort or complications.

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24. A patient has the following test results:       increased serum calcium levels       decreased serum phosphate levels       increased level sof parathyroid hormone This patient most likely has:

Explanation

The patient's increased serum calcium levels, decreased serum phosphate levels, and increased levels of parathyroid hormone indicate hyperparathyroidism. In this condition, the parathyroid glands produce excessive amounts of parathyroid hormone, which leads to increased calcium levels in the blood. The decreased phosphate levels can also be attributed to the excessive parathyroid hormone. Nephrosis, hypoparathyroidism, and steatorrhea do not present with the same combination of test results as seen in this patient.

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25. A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased neuromuscular irritability (tetany). Which of the following tests should be ordered immediately?

Explanation

Calcium levels should be ordered immediately because increased neuromuscular irritability (tetany) can be a symptom of hypocalcemia, which is a low level of calcium in the blood. Calcium is essential for proper nerve and muscle function, and low levels can lead to muscle spasms, twitching, and irritability. Ordering a calcium test will help determine if the patient's symptoms are due to low calcium levels and guide appropriate treatment.

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26. Night blindness is associated with deficiency of which of the followng vitamins?

Explanation

Night blindness is associated with a deficiency of Vitamin A. Vitamin A is essential for the production of a pigment called rhodopsin in the retina of the eye, which is necessary for vision in low light conditions. A deficiency in Vitamin A can lead to a decreased ability to see in dim light, known as night blindness.

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27. The regulation of calcium and phosphorus metabolism is accomplished by which of the following glands?

Explanation

The parathyroid glands are responsible for regulating calcium and phosphorus metabolism in the body. These small glands, located near the thyroid gland, produce parathyroid hormone (PTH) which helps control the levels of calcium and phosphorus in the blood. PTH acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium levels when they are low and decrease phosphorus levels when they are high. This regulation is important for maintaining healthy bones, nerve function, and muscle contraction. The other glands listed (thyroid, adrenal glands, and pituitary) do not directly regulate calcium and phosphorus metabolism.

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28. Which of the following hemoglobins has a glucose-6-phosphate on the amino-terminal valine of the beta chain:

Explanation

The correct answer is A1c. Hemoglobin A1c is a form of hemoglobin that is formed when glucose binds to the amino-terminal valine of the beta chain. This process, known as glycation, occurs in individuals with high blood sugar levels over a prolonged period of time. Measurement of hemoglobin A1c levels is commonly used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes.

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29. The enzyme, which exists chiefly in skeletal muscle, heart, and brain, is grossly elevated in active muscular dystrophy, and rises early in myocardial infarction is:

Explanation

Creatine kinase is an enzyme that is found mainly in skeletal muscle, heart, and brain. It is known to be significantly increased in active muscular dystrophy and rises early in myocardial infarction. Therefore, creatine kinase is the correct answer for this question.

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30. Plasma for cortisol determinations were collected at 7 am, after waking the patient, and at 10 pm that evening. the cortisol level of the morning sample was higher then the evening sample this is consistent with:

Explanation

The cortisol level being higher in the morning sample compared to the evening sample is a normal finding. Cortisol follows a diurnal pattern, with levels being highest in the morning and gradually decreasing throughout the day. This is known as the cortisol awakening response. Therefore, it is expected to see higher cortisol levels in the morning and lower levels in the evening. This pattern is considered normal and does not indicate any specific medical condition such as Cushing syndrome, Addison disease, or hypopituitarism.

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31. A common cause of respiratory alkalosis is:

Explanation

Hyperventilation is a common cause of respiratory alkalosis. When a person hyperventilates, they breathe rapidly and shallowly, leading to an excessive elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. This decrease in carbon dioxide levels causes a shift in the body's acid-base balance towards alkalinity, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Vomiting, starvation, and asthma may cause other respiratory or metabolic imbalances, but they are not directly associated with respiratory alkalosis.

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32. Acidosis and alkalosis are best defined as fluctuations in blood pH and CO2 content due to changes in:

Explanation

Acidosis and alkalosis refer to imbalances in blood pH and CO2 content. The bicarbonate buffer system plays a crucial role in maintaining the acid-base balance in the body. It consists of a weak acid (carbonic acid) and its conjugate base (bicarbonate ions). When there is an excess of acid in the blood, the bicarbonate ions act as a buffer, binding with the excess acid to maintain a stable pH. Conversely, when there is an excess of base in the blood, carbonic acid is produced to neutralize it. Therefore, fluctuations in blood pH and CO2 content are best defined by changes in the bicarbonate buffer system.

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33. Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main fuction is maintaining osmotic pressure?

Explanation

Sodium is the chief plasma cation that maintains osmotic pressure. Osmotic pressure is the force that keeps water balanced between the inside and outside of cells. Sodium plays a crucial role in this process by regulating the movement of water across cell membranes. It helps maintain the balance of fluids inside and outside of cells, ensuring that cells are properly hydrated and functioning optimally. Sodium also plays a role in nerve function and muscle contraction, further highlighting its importance in maintaining overall body function.

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34. The solute that contributes the most to the total serum osmolality is:

Explanation

Sodium is the correct answer because it is the main solute responsible for maintaining serum osmolality. Sodium ions are the most abundant positively charged ions in the extracellular fluid, and their concentration greatly affects the osmotic pressure. Changes in sodium levels can lead to imbalances in fluid distribution, affecting cell function and overall body homeostasis. Therefore, sodium contributes the most to the total serum osmolality.

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35. The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative urine protein is:

Explanation

The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative urine protein is to measure the total volume. This is important because it allows for accurate calculation of the protein concentration in the urine. By measuring the total volume, the laboratory can determine the amount of protein excreted over a 24-hour period, which is necessary for diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as kidney disease or proteinuria. Subculturing the urine for bacteria, adding the appropriate preservative, and screening for albumin using a dipstick are not the initial steps in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative urine protein.

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36. Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting  capacity of :

Explanation

Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is a laboratory test that measures the maximum amount of iron that can be bound to transferrin, a protein responsible for transporting iron in the blood. Transferrin is synthesized in the liver and is the primary iron-binding protein in the blood. It helps transport iron from the intestines to the bone marrow, where it is used for red blood cell production. Therefore, TIBC measures the serum iron transporting capacity of transferrin, making it the correct answer.

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37. The presence of which of the following isoenzymes indicates acute myocardial damage?

Explanation

CKMB is an isoenzyme of creatine kinase that is primarily found in the heart muscle. Therefore, the presence of CKMB indicates acute myocardial damage. CKMB levels are typically elevated in the blood following a heart attack or other forms of cardiac injury. This is because CKMB is released into the bloodstream when heart muscle cells are damaged, making it a useful marker for diagnosing acute myocardial damage.

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38. At blood ph  7.40, what is the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid?

Explanation

The ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid at a blood pH of 7.40 is 20:1. This means that there are 20 times more bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) than carbonic acid (H2CO3) present in the blood at this pH level. This ratio is important for maintaining the acid-base balance in the body, as bicarbonate acts as a buffer to regulate pH levels and prevent excessive acidity.

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39. Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:

Explanation

Creatinine clearance is a measure used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). GFR refers to the rate at which blood is filtered by the glomeruli in the kidneys. By measuring the amount of creatinine in the urine and comparing it to the amount in the blood, creatinine clearance can provide an estimate of how well the kidneys are functioning. Therefore, the correct answer is glomerular filtration rate.

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40. Most of the carbon dioxide present in blood in the form of:

Explanation

In the blood, carbon dioxide is mostly present in the form of bicarbonate ions. When carbon dioxide enters the bloodstream, it combines with water to form carbonic acid. This carbonic acid then dissociates into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions. The bicarbonate ions are important for maintaining the pH balance of the blood and are transported to the lungs where they are converted back into carbon dioxide to be exhaled. Therefore, the majority of carbon dioxide in the blood exists as bicarbonate ions.

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41. Turbidity in serum siggest elevation of:

Explanation

Turbidity in serum suggests elevation of chylomicrons. Chylomicrons are large lipoprotein particles that transport dietary triglycerides from the intestines to the body's tissues. When chylomicron levels are elevated, it can lead to increased turbidity in the serum. This can be seen in conditions such as familial hyperlipoproteinemia type I, where there is a deficiency in lipoprotein lipase, the enzyme responsible for breaking down chylomicrons. Elevated chylomicron levels can also be seen in conditions like pancreatitis or malabsorption syndromes.

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42. Rickets is associated with deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

Explanation

Rickets is a condition that is associated with a deficiency of vitamin D. Vitamin D plays a crucial role in the body's ability to absorb calcium and phosphorus, which are essential for healthy bone development. Without enough vitamin D, the body is unable to properly mineralize and strengthen bones, leading to the softening and weakening of bones seen in rickets.

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43. Serial bilirubin determinations are charted below.            Day           Collected           Assayed        Result       1                7 AM                   8 AM                14.0 mg/dL (239.4 umol/L)       2                7 AM                   6 PM                9.0   mg/dL (153.9 umol/L)       3                6 AM                   8 AM                15.0 mg/dL (256.5 umol/L) The best explanation for the results is:

Explanation

The best explanation for the results is sample exposure to light. This is supported by the fact that the bilirubin levels are higher at 8 AM compared to the levels collected at 7 AM and 6 AM. Bilirubin is known to be sensitive to light, and exposure to light can cause its degradation, leading to higher levels being measured. This is further supported by the fact that the bilirubin levels decrease when the sample is assayed later in the day, indicating that the exposure to light over time has caused the degradation of bilirubin.

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44. Osmolal gap is aa difference between:

Explanation

The osmolal gap is a difference between the calculated and measured osmolality values. Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solutes in a solution, specifically in this case, in the blood plasma. The calculated osmolality is determined using a formula based on the concentrations of various solutes, while the measured osmolality is determined through laboratory tests. The osmolal gap represents any unaccounted for solutes or errors in the measurement process.

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45. The anion gap is useful for quality control of laboratory results for:

Explanation

The anion gap is a calculated value that helps to evaluate the balance of electrolytes in the body. It is primarily used in blood gas analyses to assess the levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, and total CO2. By measuring the concentration of these ions, the anion gap can be determined, which can provide valuable information about acid-base balance and the presence of certain metabolic disorders. Monitoring the anion gap is essential for quality control of laboratory results in these specific electrolytes.

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46. A serum sample demonstrates an elevated result when tested with the Jaffe reaction. This indicates:

Explanation

The Jaffe reaction is a test used to measure creatinine levels in the blood. Creatinine is a waste product that is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. An elevated result in the Jaffe reaction indicates that there is an increase in creatinine levels, suggesting renal functional impairment. This means that the kidneys are not functioning properly and are unable to filter out waste products effectively.

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47. Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are most characteristically associated with:

Explanation

Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are most characteristically associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. AFP is a protein that is normally produced by the liver during fetal development but its production decreases after birth. However, in certain conditions like hepatocellular carcinoma, which is a type of liver cancer, the production of AFP increases. Therefore, elevated levels of AFP in adults are highly suggestive of hepatocellular carcinoma. Alcoholic cirrhosis, chronic active hepatitis, and multiple myeloma are not typically associated with increased AFP levels.

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48. Pellagra is associated witg defiency of which of the following vitamins?

Explanation

Pellagra is a disease that is associated with a deficiency of niacin. Niacin, also known as vitamin B3, is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in the body's energy production and metabolism. A deficiency of niacin can lead to symptoms such as dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and even death if left untreated. Therefore, the correct answer is niacin.

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49. If a fasting glucose was 90 mg/dl, which of the following 2hr postprandial glucose results would most closely represent normal glucose metabalism

Explanation

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50. An infant with diarrhea is being evaluated for a carbohydrate intolerance. his stool yields a positive copper reduction test and a ph of 5.0. it should be concluded that

Explanation

The positive copper reduction test and low pH in the stool suggest a possible carbohydrate intolerance. However, these results alone are not conclusive enough to make a definitive diagnosis. Further tests are needed to confirm the presence of carbohydrate intolerance and to determine the specific cause of the diarrhea.

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51. The following bilirubin results are obtained on a patient: day 1:  4.3 mg/dL (73.5 umol/L)             day 2:  4.6 mg/dL (78.7 umol/L) day 3:  4.5 mg/dL (77.0 umol/L) day 4:  2.2 mg/dL (37.6 umol/L) day 5:  4.4 mg/dL (75.2 umol/L) day 6:  4.5 mg/dL (77.0 umol/L)    Given that the controls were within range each day, what is a probable explanation for the result on day 4?

Explanation

The probable explanation for the result on day 4 is that the specimen had prolonged exposure to light. This is because the bilirubin level significantly decreased from day 3 to day 4, which is unlikely to happen naturally. Prolonged exposure to light can cause the breakdown of bilirubin, leading to lower levels in the sample. The other options, such as using serum instead of plasma or specimen being hemolyzed, do not explain the sudden decrease in bilirubin levels.

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52. Urobilinogen is formed in the:

Explanation

Urobilinogen is formed in the intestine. This is because urobilinogen is a byproduct of the breakdown of bilirubin, which is produced in the liver and then excreted into the bile. In the intestine, bilirubin is further broken down by bacteria, leading to the formation of urobilinogen. From there, urobilinogen can be further metabolized and excreted in the urine or feces.

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53. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of starch to glucose and maltose?

Explanation

Amylase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of starch to glucose and maltose. Starch is a complex carbohydrate made up of many glucose molecules linked together, and amylase breaks down these bonds to release glucose and maltose. Malate dehydrogenase, creatine kinase, and isocitric dehydrogenase are enzymes involved in other metabolic pathways and do not play a role in starch digestion.

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54. The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and:

Explanation

The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and chloride. This process helps to regulate the pH of the blood by balancing the levels of acid and base. Chloride ions play a crucial role in this process as they can easily move across cell membranes and participate in the exchange of bicarbonate ions. This exchange helps to maintain the acid-base balance in the blood and ensures that the pH remains within the normal range.

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55. TSH is prouced by the:

Explanation

The correct answer is pituitary gland. The pituitary gland is responsible for producing and releasing various hormones, including the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH plays a crucial role in regulating the production and release of thyroid hormones from the thyroid gland. It stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and release thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which are essential for the regulation of metabolism, growth, and development in the body. Therefore, the pituitary gland is directly involved in the production of TSH.

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56. Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for:

Explanation

Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for monitoring the course of a known cancer. This is because tumor markers are substances that are produced by cancer cells or by the body in response to cancer. By measuring the levels of these markers in the blood or other body fluids, healthcare professionals can track the progression or regression of a known cancer. This helps in assessing the effectiveness of treatment, determining the need for additional therapies, and monitoring the overall health status of the patient.

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57. The following results are from a 21 yr old patient with a back injury who appears otherwise healthy: whole blood glucose:       77mg/dl (4.2 mmol/L) serum glucose:                88 mg/dl (4.8 mmol/L) CSF glucose:               56 mg/dl (3.1 mmol/L)

Explanation

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58. The glycated hemoglobin value represents the integrated values of glucose concentration during the preceding:

Explanation

Glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the average blood glucose levels over a period of time. It reflects the amount of glucose that has attached to hemoglobin molecules in red blood cells. As red blood cells have a lifespan of around 120 days, HbA1c provides an indication of blood glucose control over the previous 2-3 months. Therefore, the correct answer is 6-8 weeks, as this timeframe aligns with the lifespan of red blood cells and provides an accurate representation of long-term glucose levels.

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59. The expected blood gas results for a patient in chronic renal failure would match the pattern of:

Explanation

In chronic renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively remove metabolic waste products, such as acids, from the body. This leads to an accumulation of acid in the blood, resulting in metabolic acidosis. The expected blood gas results for a patient in chronic renal failure would show decreased pH, decreased bicarbonate levels, and possibly decreased pCO2 levels. This pattern is consistent with metabolic acidosis.

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60. Fasting serum phosphate concentration is controlled primarily by the:

Explanation

The parathyroid glands are responsible for controlling fasting serum phosphate concentration. These glands produce and release parathyroid hormone (PTH), which plays a crucial role in regulating phosphate levels in the blood. PTH acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase phosphate reabsorption and decrease phosphate excretion. This helps maintain a stable phosphate concentration in the blood, which is important for various physiological processes such as bone health, energy metabolism, and cellular function.

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61. To assure an accurate ammonia level result, the specimen should be:

Explanation

To assure an accurate ammonia level result, the specimen should be spun to separate the liquid part (serum or plasma) from the cells. Then, it should be immediately iced to prevent any further metabolism or degradation of ammonia. Finally, the specimen should be tested as soon as possible to minimize any potential changes in ammonia levels. This process ensures that the ammonia level result is reliable and reflective of the true concentration in the specimen.

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62. The preparation of a patient for standard for glucose tolerance testing should include:

Explanation

The correct answer is a high carbohydrate diet for 3 days. This is because glucose tolerance testing is used to diagnose diabetes or assess insulin resistance. By consuming a high carbohydrate diet for several days prior to the test, it ensures that the body has a sufficient amount of carbohydrates to measure how well it processes glucose. This helps in obtaining accurate results and ensures that the test is effective in diagnosing or monitoring the patient's condition.

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63. Which of the following 2 hr postprandial glucose values demonstrates unequivocal hyperglycemia diagnostic for biabetes mellitus

Explanation

A 2 hr postprandial glucose value of 200 mg/dl (11. mmol/L) demonstrates unequivocal hyperglycemia diagnostic for diabetes mellitus. This level of blood glucose after a meal indicates that the body is unable to effectively regulate blood sugar levels, which is a characteristic feature of diabetes mellitus.

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64. The following laboratory results were obtainted:                      Calcium          Alkaline Phosphate       Alkaline Phosphatase serum:        increased       decreased                        normal or increased urine:            increased      increased These results are most compatible with:

Explanation

The laboratory results show an increased level of calcium in the serum and urine, along with a decreased level of alkaline phosphate in the serum. These findings are most commonly seen in primary hyperparathyroidism, a condition characterized by excessive production of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid glands. Increased PTH leads to increased calcium levels in the blood and urine, while also causing a decrease in alkaline phosphate levels. This combination of findings is consistent with primary hyperparathyroidism.

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65. Following overnight fasting, hypoglycemia in adults is defined as glucose of:  

Explanation

Hypoglycemia in adults is defined as a low blood glucose level. The correct answer, option d, suggests that the glucose level after overnight fasting is below the normal range, indicating hypoglycemia.

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66. Which of the following values obtained during a glucose tolerance test are diagnosticof diabetes mellitus?

Explanation

A fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dl (6.9 mmol/L) is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus according to the criteria set by the American Diabetes Association. A fasting plasma glucose level of 110 mg/dl (6.1 mmol/L) is within the normal range, and a 2-hour specimen glucose level of 150 mg/dl (8.3 mmol/L) and 180 mg/dl (9.9 mmol/L) are elevated but not diagnostic of diabetes.

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67. The major action of angiotensin II is:

Explanation

Angiotensin II is a hormone that plays a significant role in regulating blood pressure. One of its major actions is increased vasoconstriction, which means that it causes the blood vessels to constrict or narrow. This narrowing of blood vessels leads to an increase in blood pressure. By constricting the blood vessels, angiotensin II helps to regulate blood flow and maintain adequate blood pressure throughout the body. This action is important in situations where the body needs to increase blood pressure, such as during times of low blood volume or low blood pressure.

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68. The primary function serum albumin in the peripheral blood is to:

Explanation

Serum albumin is a protein found in the blood that plays a crucial role in maintaining the colloidal osmotic pressure. Colloidal osmotic pressure is the pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin, in the blood vessels that helps to keep fluid within the blood vessels and prevent it from leaking into the surrounding tissues. This is important for maintaining proper fluid balance in the body and preventing edema. Therefore, the primary function of serum albumin in the peripheral blood is to maintain colloidal osmotic pressure.

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69. In addition to carcinoma of the prostate, elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) can occur due to:

Explanation

Elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels can occur due to various reasons other than prostate carcinoma. One of these reasons is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), a non-cancerous condition where the prostate gland enlarges. BPH can cause PSA levels to rise because the enlarged prostate puts pressure on the urinary tract, leading to increased PSA production. Aspirin therapy, exogenous steroid use, and statin therapy (cholesterol-lowering drug) are not typically associated with elevated PSA levels.

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70. In the fasting state, the arterial blood and the capillary blood glucose concentration varies from venous glucose concentration by approximately  how many mg/dl (mmol/L)

Explanation

In the fasting state, the arterial blood and the capillary blood glucose concentration are higher than the venous glucose concentration by approximately 5 mg/dl (0.27 mmol/L). This means that the glucose levels in the arteries and capillaries are slightly elevated compared to the venous blood.

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71. 90% of the copper present in the blood is bound to:

Explanation

Ceruloplasmin is a protein found in the blood that plays a crucial role in copper transport and metabolism. It binds to copper ions, allowing them to be transported throughout the body. Therefore, it is responsible for binding and carrying approximately 90% of the copper present in the blood. Transferrin is a protein that binds and transports iron, not copper. Albumin is a protein that carries various substances in the blood, but it does not specifically bind to copper. Cryoglobulin is a protein complex that can be found in certain medical conditions, but it is not involved in copper binding.

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72. A 2 year old child with decreased serum (T4) is described as being somewhat dwarfed, stocky, overweight, and having coarse features. of the following , the most informative additional laboratory test would be the serum:

Explanation

In this case, the most informative additional laboratory test would be the serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level. The description of the child being somewhat dwarfed, stocky, overweight, and having coarse features suggests a possible thyroid disorder, specifically hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism in children can cause growth retardation and weight gain. TSH is the hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones, and an elevated TSH level would indicate that the thyroid gland is not functioning properly. Therefore, measuring TSH levels would provide important information about the child's thyroid function and help confirm the diagnosis of hypothyroidism.

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73. Whi the following steroids is an adrenal cortical hormone?

Explanation

Aldosterone is an adrenal cortical hormone because it is produced by the adrenal cortex, which is the outer layer of the adrenal gland. This hormone plays a crucial role in regulating the balance of water and electrolytes in the body, particularly by promoting the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. Aldosterone also helps to regulate blood pressure and maintain overall fluid balance in the body. Therefore, among the given options, aldosterone is the only steroid that fits the description of being an adrenal cortical hormone.

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74. Serum levels that define hypoglycemia in pre-term or low birth weight infants are:

Explanation

Pre-term or low birth weight infants have underdeveloped organs, including the liver, which is responsible for regulating blood sugar levels. As a result, their serum levels are lower than those of adults. This is because their bodies are not yet capable of producing and regulating glucose at the same level as fully developed adults. Therefore, their serum levels defining hypoglycemia are lower than adults.

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75. A reciprocal relationship exists between:

Explanation

Calcium and phosphate have a reciprocal relationship because they are both essential minerals that work together in various bodily functions. Calcium is necessary for strong bones and teeth, while phosphate plays a crucial role in energy production and cell signaling. These minerals interact in a reciprocal manner, with calcium aiding in the absorption of phosphate and phosphate helping to regulate calcium levels in the body. This reciprocal relationship ensures the proper balance and functioning of these minerals in maintaining overall health and well-being.

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76. The enzyme present in almost all tissues that may be separated by electrophoresis into 5 components is:

Explanation

Lactate dehydrogenase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that is present in almost all tissues and can be separated into 5 components using electrophoresis. This enzyme is involved in the conversion of lactate to pyruvate during anaerobic respiration and is commonly used as a biomarker for tissue damage or disease.

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77. A scanning of a CK isoenzyme  fractionation revealed 2 peaks: a slow cathodic peak (CKMM) and an intermediate peak (CKMB). A possible interpretation for this pattern is:

Explanation

A scanning of a CK isoenzyme fractionation revealed 2 peaks: a slow cathodic peak (CKMM) and an intermediate peak (CKMB). This pattern is indicative of myocardial infarction. CKMB is a cardiac-specific isoenzyme of creatine kinase, and its presence in the fractionation indicates damage to the heart muscle. The slow cathodic peak (CKMM) represents the skeletal muscle isoenzyme, which may also be elevated in myocardial infarction due to the release of CK from damaged heart tissue. Therefore, the presence of both CKMB and CKMM peaks suggests myocardial infarction as the most likely explanation.

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78. The most sensitive enzymatic indicator for liver damage from ethanol intake is:

Explanation

Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) is the most sensitive enzymatic indicator for liver damage from ethanol intake. GGT is primarily found in the liver and is involved in the metabolism of glutathione, a potent antioxidant. Elevated levels of GGT in the blood indicate liver dysfunction or damage, particularly from alcohol abuse. GGT levels are more specific to liver damage caused by alcohol compared to other liver enzymes like alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST). Therefore, GGT is considered the most reliable marker for assessing ethanol-induced liver damage. Alkaline phosphatase is not as specific to liver damage from ethanol intake as GGT.

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79. A patient with type 1 insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus has the following results: test                                                                          patient                                                            referance range fasting blood glucose                  150 mg/dl (8.3 mmol/L)                                      70-110 mg/dl (3.9-6.1 mmol/L) hemoglobin A1c                                    8.5%                                                                                4.0%-6.0% fructosamine                                     2.5 mmol/L                                                                  2.0- 2.9 mmol/L

Explanation

The patient's fasting blood glucose level is higher than the reference range, indicating a state of flux and progressively worsening metabolic control. However, the patient's fructosamine level is within the reference range, indicating an improving state of metabolic control. Therefore, the correct answer is that the patient is in an improving state of metabolic control as indicated by fructosamine.

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80. Kernicterus is an abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in:

Explanation

Kernicterus is a condition characterized by the buildup of bilirubin in the brain tissue. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells break down. In normal circumstances, it is processed by the liver and excreted from the body. However, in cases of excessive bilirubin production or impaired liver function, such as in newborns with jaundice, bilirubin can accumulate in the brain and cause damage. This can lead to neurological problems, including developmental delays, hearing loss, and movement disorders. Therefore, the correct answer is brain tissue.

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81. A person with hemolytic anemia will:

Explanation

A person with hemolytic anemia will show a decrease in glycated hgb value because hemolytic anemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be produced. Glycated hemoglobin (hgb) is a measure of the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. In hemolytic anemia, the lifespan of red blood cells is shortened, leading to a decrease in the amount of time available for glucose to bind to hemoglobin. As a result, there will be a decrease in the glycated hgb value.

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82. A common cause of falsely increased LD1 fraction of lactic dehydrogenase is:

Explanation

Specimen hemolysis can cause falsely increased LD1 fraction of lactic dehydrogenase. Hemolysis refers to the breakdown of red blood cells, which can release LD1 into the bloodstream. This can lead to an elevated LD1 fraction, which is a specific form of lactic dehydrogenase found in red blood cells. Liver disease, congestive heart failure, and drug toxicity are not known to directly cause an increase in LD1 fraction, making specimen hemolysis the most likely cause.

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83. A blood creatinine value of 5.0 mg/dL (442 umol/L) is most likely to be found with which of the following blood values?

Explanation

A blood creatinine value of 5.0 mg/dL (442 umol/L) is most likely to be found with a high urea nitrogen level of 80 mg/dL (28.56 mmol/L). Creatinine and urea nitrogen are both waste products that are filtered out by the kidneys. When the kidneys are not functioning properly, these waste products can build up in the blood, leading to elevated levels. Therefore, a high urea nitrogen level is consistent with a high creatinine level, indicating impaired kidney function.

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84. The recommended intial thyroid function test for either a healthy asymptomatic patient, or a patient with symptoms which may be related to a thyroid disorder is:

Explanation

The recommended initial thyroid function test for either a healthy asymptomatic patient or a patient with symptoms related to a thyroid disorder is thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones. TSH levels are the most sensitive indicator of thyroid dysfunction and can help identify both hypo- and hyperthyroidism. TSH levels outside the normal range can indicate an underlying thyroid disorder and further testing may be required to determine the specific condition. Therefore, TSH is the most appropriate initial test to assess thyroid function.

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85. Blood samples were collected at the beginning of an excercise class and afer thirty minutes of aerobic activity. which of the following would be most consistent with the post exercise sample?

Explanation

After thirty minutes of aerobic activity, the body goes through a process called glycolysis, in which glucose is broken down to produce energy. This process produces lactic acid as a byproduct. Therefore, the post-exercise sample would have elevated levels of lactic acid. Additionally, pyruvate is an intermediate product of glycolysis, so it would also be expected to be elevated in the post-exercise sample. Therefore, the answer "elevated lactic acid, elevated pyruvate" is the most consistent with the post-exercise sample.

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86. A 45 year old woman complains of fatigue, heat intolerance and hair loss. total free T4 are abnormally low. if the TSH showed marked elevation, this would be consistent with:

Explanation

The given symptoms of fatigue, heat intolerance, and hair loss, along with abnormally low total free T4 levels, suggest a decrease in thyroid hormone production. If the TSH levels are markedly elevated, it indicates that the pituitary gland is trying to stimulate the thyroid to produce more hormones, but the thyroid is unable to respond adequately. This pattern is consistent with primary hypothyroidism, where there is a dysfunction in the thyroid gland itself leading to decreased thyroid hormone production.

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87. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is most likely to be produced in a malignany involving the:

Explanation

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a protein that is usually produced during fetal development but can also be produced in certain types of cancer. It is commonly used as a tumor marker for colorectal cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is colon, as it is most likely to be produced in a malignancy involving the colon.

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88. An emphysema patient suffering from fluid accumulation in the alveolar spaces is the likely to be in what metabolic state?

Explanation

An emphysema patient suffering from fluid accumulation in the alveolar spaces is likely to be in a state of respiratory acidosis. Emphysema is a chronic lung disease that causes damage to the alveoli, leading to impaired gas exchange. Fluid accumulation in the alveolar spaces further impairs the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. This results in a buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to respiratory acidosis, which is characterized by low blood pH and high levels of carbon dioxide.

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89. Respiratory acidosis is described as a (n):

Explanation

Respiratory acidosis is a condition characterized by an increase in carbon dioxide (CO2) content and partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) in the blood, which leads to a decrease in pH. This occurs when the lungs are unable to effectively remove CO2 from the body, causing it to accumulate in the bloodstream. The increased CO2 levels result in the formation of carbonic acid, leading to a decrease in pH and an acidic environment.

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90. The most specific enzyme test for acute pancreatitis is:

Explanation

Lipase is the most specific enzyme test for acute pancreatitis. Lipase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas that helps in the digestion of fats. In cases of acute pancreatitis, there is inflammation of the pancreas which leads to the leakage of lipase into the bloodstream. Therefore, measuring the levels of lipase in the blood can help in diagnosing acute pancreatitis. Other enzymes like amylase and trypsin can also be elevated in pancreatitis, but lipase is considered more specific to the condition. Acid phosphatase is not typically used as an enzyme test for pancreatitis.

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91. An increase in serum acetone is indicative of a defect in the metabolism of:

Explanation

An increase in serum acetone is indicative of a defect in the metabolism of carbohydrates. This is because acetone is produced when the body breaks down fats for energy in the absence of sufficient carbohydrates. When carbohydrates are not properly metabolized, the body starts using fats as an alternative energy source, leading to the production of acetone. Therefore, an increase in serum acetone suggests that there is a problem with the metabolism of carbohydrates.

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92. Factors that contribute to a PCO2 electrode requiring 60-120 seconds to reach equilibrium include the:

Explanation

The diffusion characteristics of the membrane play a significant role in the time it takes for a PCO2 electrode to reach equilibrium. The membrane acts as a barrier between the sample and the electrode, allowing the diffusion of CO2 molecules. If the membrane has low permeability or thickness, it can impede the diffusion process, resulting in a longer time for the electrode to reach equilibrium. On the other hand, a membrane with high permeability or thinness allows for faster diffusion, reducing the time required for equilibrium to be reached. Therefore, the diffusion characteristics of the membrane directly affect the time it takes for the PCO2 electrode to reach equilibrium.

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93. The following laboratory results were obtained:         Serum electrolytes         sodium:                   136 mEq/L(136mmol/L)         potassium:              4.4 mEq/L(4.4mmol/L)         chloride:                   92 mEq/L(92mmol/L)         bicarbonate:            40 mEq/L(40mmol/L)        Arterial blood        pH:                             7.32        PCO2:                       79 mm Hg These results are most compatible with:

Explanation

The laboratory results show a low pH (7.32) and a high PCO2 (79 mm Hg), indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood due to inadequate ventilation, leading to an increase in PCO2 and a decrease in pH. The other options (respiratory alkalosis, metabolic alkalosis, and metabolic acidosis) do not match the laboratory findings in this case.

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94. The urinary excretion product measured as an indicator of epinephrine production is:

Explanation

Vanillymandelic acid (VMA) is the correct answer because it is a urinary excretion product that is measured as an indicator of epinephrine production. Epinephrine is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands in response to stress or excitement, and VMA is a metabolite of epinephrine. Therefore, measuring the levels of VMA in the urine can provide information about the production of epinephrine in the body.

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95. Which of the following statements most correctly describes the utility of clinical laboratory assays for tumor markers?

Explanation

Clinical laboratory assays for tumor markers are useful in tracking the efficacy of treatment. Tumor markers are substances that are produced by tumor cells or by the body in response to the presence of a tumor. By measuring the levels of these markers in the blood or other body fluids, healthcare professionals can monitor the progress of treatment and determine if it is effectively reducing the tumor burden. This information is valuable in making decisions about the continuation or modification of treatment plans. However, tumor markers are not typically used for screening asymptomatic patients for tumors or for predicting the likelihood of developing a tumor.

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96. What is the best method to diagnose lactase deficiency?

Explanation

The best method to diagnose lactase deficiency is the h2 breath test. This test measures the levels of hydrogen in the breath after consuming a lactose-rich beverage. Lactase deficiency leads to the undigested lactose being fermented by bacteria in the colon, producing hydrogen gas that is absorbed into the bloodstream and exhaled through the breath. Elevated levels of hydrogen indicate lactose malabsorption, confirming the diagnosis of lactase deficiency. The h2 breath test is a non-invasive and reliable method for diagnosing lactase deficiency.

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97. Severe diarrhea causes

Explanation

Severe diarrhea causes metabolic acidosis because the loss of fluids and electrolytes through diarrhea leads to an imbalance in the body's acid-base levels. The excessive loss of bicarbonate ions in the stool causes a decrease in the body's buffering capacity, resulting in an accumulation of acid and a decrease in pH. This leads to metabolic acidosis, characterized by symptoms such as increased breathing rate, confusion, and fatigue.

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98. A 68 year-old man arrives in the emergency room with a glucose level of 722 mg/dl (39.7 mmol/L) and serum acetone of 4+ undiluted. an arterial blood gas from this patient is likely to be

Explanation

A glucose level of 722 mg/dl (39.7 mmol/L) and serum acetone of 4+ undiluted indicate that the patient is most likely experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is a serious complication of diabetes characterized by high blood glucose levels, ketones in the blood, and metabolic acidosis. Metabolic acidosis is associated with a low pH level in the arterial blood gas. Therefore, the arterial blood gas from this patient is likely to show a low pH.

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99. Serum "anion gap" is increased in patients with:

Explanation

The correct answer is lactic acidosis. Lactic acidosis is a condition characterized by the accumulation of lactic acid in the body. This can occur due to various reasons, such as impaired oxygen delivery to tissues, impaired lactate metabolism, or increased lactate production. In lactic acidosis, the body's ability to clear lactic acid is compromised, leading to an increase in the anion gap. The anion gap is a measure of the difference between the concentrations of positively charged ions (sodium and potassium) and negatively charged ions (chloride and bicarbonate) in the blood. An increased anion gap is indicative of an underlying metabolic acidosis, which is commonly seen in lactic acidosis.

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100. Beriberi is associated with deficiency of vitamin:

Explanation

Beriberi is a disease that is caused by a deficiency of thiamine, also known as vitamin B1. Thiamine is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in the metabolism of carbohydrates, as well as the proper functioning of the nervous system. A deficiency of thiamine can lead to symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, nerve damage, and cardiovascular problems, which are all characteristic of beriberi. Niacin, vitamin A, and vitamin C deficiencies are associated with other health conditions, but not beriberi.

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101. What battery of tests is most useful in evaluating an anion gap of 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L) ?

Explanation

The correct answer is BUN, creatinine, salicylate, and methanol. An anion gap of 22 mEq/L suggests an imbalance of electrolytes in the body. BUN and creatinine are markers of kidney function and can help determine if there is a renal cause for the anion gap. Salicylate and methanol are toxic substances that can cause an increased anion gap. Therefore, testing for these substances can help identify potential causes for the abnormal anion gap. The other options listed do not directly relate to the evaluation of an anion gap.

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102. A patient has the followning thyroid profile: total t4:                                        decreased free t4:                                         decreased thyroid peroxidase antibody:   positive TSH:                                            decreased

Explanation

The patient's thyroid profile shows decreased levels of total T4, free T4, and TSH, along with a positive result for thyroid peroxidase antibody. These findings are consistent with hypothyroidism, which is a condition characterized by an underactive thyroid gland. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to a decrease in total and free T4 levels. The decrease in TSH is a compensatory response by the body to try to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. The presence of thyroid peroxidase antibody suggests an autoimmune cause for the hypothyroidism, which can be seen in conditions such as Hashimoto's thyroiditis.

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103. In which of the following conditions would a normal level of creatine kinase be found?

Explanation

A normal level of creatine kinase would be found in hepatitis. Creatine kinase is an enzyme that is released into the bloodstream when there is damage to muscle tissue. In conditions such as acute myocardial infarct, progressive muscular dystrophy, and intramuscular injection, there is muscle damage or breakdown, leading to an elevated level of creatine kinase. However, in hepatitis, which is inflammation of the liver, there is no direct damage to muscle tissue, so the level of creatine kinase remains within the normal range.

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104. Which of the following chemical determinations may be of help in establishing the presence of seminal fluid?

Explanation

Acid phosphatase can be helpful in establishing the presence of seminal fluid. Acid phosphatase is an enzyme that is found in high concentrations in seminal fluid. Therefore, testing for acid phosphatase can indicate the presence of seminal fluid, which can be useful in forensic investigations, sexual assault cases, or determining fertility. Lactic dehydrogenase and isocitrate dehydrogenase are not specific to seminal fluid and may not provide accurate results. Alkaline phosphatase is found in various tissues and fluids in the body, so it is not specific to seminal fluid either.

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105. Which of the following is useful in the detection and management of carcinoma of the prostate?

Explanation

Total prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is useful in the detection and management of carcinoma of the prostate. PSA is a protein produced by the prostate gland, and elevated levels of PSA in the blood can indicate the presence of prostate cancer. PSA testing is commonly used as a screening tool for prostate cancer, and it can also be used to monitor the effectiveness of treatment and detect recurrence. However, it is important to note that elevated PSA levels can also be caused by non-cancerous conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), so further diagnostic tests are usually required to confirm a prostate cancer diagnosis.

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106. Cancer antigen 125 (CA 125) is a tumor marker associated with:

Explanation

CA 125 is a tumor marker that is primarily associated with ovarian and endometrial carcinoma. This means that elevated levels of CA 125 in the blood can indicate the presence of these types of cancer. While breast carcinoma, colon cancer, and lung cancer are all types of cancer, CA 125 is not typically used as a marker for these specific types. Therefore, the correct answer is ovarian and endometrial carcinoma.

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107. A patient has the following serum results:          Na:              140 mEq/L (140 mmol/L)     K:                 4.0 mEq/L  (4.0 mmol/L)     glucose:     95 mg/dL   (5.2 mmol/L)     BUN:           10 mg/dL   (3.57 mmol/L) Which osmolaity is consistent with these results? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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108. Erroneous ammonia levels can be eliminated by all of the following except:

Explanation

Storing the specimen protected from light until the analysis is done does not eliminate erroneous ammonia levels. Light exposure does not have an impact on ammonia levels, so storing the specimen in a light-protected environment will not affect the accuracy of the test results. The other options listed, such as assuring ammonia-free water and reagents, separating plasma from cells, and keeping the specimen chilled, are effective methods for eliminating erroneous ammonia levels.

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109. Hemoglobin S can be separated from hemoglobin D by:

Explanation

Hemoglobin S and hemoglobin D can be separated by electrophoresis on a different medium and acidic pH. Electrophoresis is a technique that separates molecules based on their charge and size. By using a different medium and adjusting the pH to be acidic, the hemoglobin molecules will migrate at different rates, allowing for their separation. This method takes advantage of the different properties of hemoglobin S and hemoglobin D to distinguish between them.

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110. What common substrate is used in the biosynthesis of adrenal steroids, including androgens and estrogens?

Explanation

Cholesterol is the common substrate used in the biosynthesis of adrenal steroids, including androgens and estrogens. Adrenal glands convert cholesterol into various hormones through a series of enzymatic reactions. This process starts with the conversion of cholesterol into pregnenolone, which is then further metabolized to produce different adrenal steroids, including cortisol, androgens, and estrogens. Therefore, cholesterol serves as the precursor for the synthesis of these important hormones in the adrenal glands.

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111. The following blood gas results were obtained:  pH:                        7.18 PO2:                     86 mm Hg PCO2:                  60 mm Hg O2 saturation:     92% HCO3:                  7921 mEq/L (21 mmol/L) TCO2:                   23 mEq/L   (23mmol/L) base excess:      -8.0 mEq/L (-8.0 mmol/L) The patients results are compatible with which of the following?

Explanation

The given blood gas results show a low pH (7.18) and a high PCO2 (60 mm Hg), which indicates respiratory acidosis. This is commonly seen in patients with emphysema, a lung condition characterized by damage to the air sacs in the lungs. Emphysema leads to impaired gas exchange, causing an increase in carbon dioxide levels and a decrease in oxygen levels. The low pH and high PCO2 in this patient's blood gas results are consistent with the respiratory acidosis seen in emphysema.

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112. A 68 yr old female patient tells her physician of being "cold all the time" and recent weight gain, with no change in diet. the doctor orders a TSH level , and the laboratory reports a value of (8.7uU/mL (referance range= 0.5-5.0 uU/mL [0.5-5.o IU/L]). this patient most likely has:

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of feeling cold all the time and recent weight gain, along with the elevated TSH level, indicate that she most likely has primary hypothyroidism. Primary hypothyroidism occurs when the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to a decrease in metabolism and symptoms such as feeling cold and weight gain. The elevated TSH level is a result of the body's attempt to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. Graves disease and primary hyperthyroidism would typically present with opposite symptoms, such as feeling hot and weight loss. A TSH-secreting tumor would result in elevated TSH levels, but the symptoms described by the patient are more indicative of hypothyroidism rather than hyperthyroidism.

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113. The first step in the quantitation of serum iron is:

Explanation

The first step in the quantitation of serum iron is the separation of iron from transferring. This is because in order to accurately measure the amount of iron in the serum, it needs to be separated from the protein transferring. This separation can be achieved through various methods such as centrifugation or filtration. Once the iron is separated, it can then be quantitated using methods such as colorimetry or atomic absorption spectroscopy.

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114. Isoenzyme assays are performed to improve:

Explanation

Isoenzyme assays are performed to improve specificity. Isoenzymes are different forms of an enzyme that have the same function but differ in their amino acid sequence. By performing isoenzyme assays, it is possible to differentiate between different forms of the same enzyme and determine their specific activity. This helps in identifying specific enzymes and distinguishing them from other similar enzymes, thus improving the specificity of the assay.

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115. Which of the following sample collections would give an accurate assessment of potential excess cortisol production (hypercortisolism)

Explanation

Collecting a 24 hr urine free cortisol sample would provide an accurate assessment of potential excess cortisol production (hypercortisolism) because it measures the total amount of cortisol excreted in the urine over a 24-hour period. This method is useful for evaluating cortisol levels over a longer period of time and can help identify any abnormalities in cortisol production throughout the day. Other sample collections, such as plasma samples at specific times or after administration of metyrapone, may provide limited information and not capture the overall cortisol production accurately.

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116. A person suspected of having metabolic alkalosis would have which of the following laboratory findings?

Explanation

A person suspected of having metabolic alkalosis would have elevated CO2 content and pH. This is because metabolic alkalosis is a condition characterized by an increase in bicarbonate (HCO3-) levels in the blood, which leads to an increase in CO2 content. This increase in CO2 content causes a shift in the pH towards the alkaline side, resulting in an elevated pH. Therefore, the laboratory findings of elevated CO2 content and pH support the diagnosis of metabolic alkalosis.

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117. Which is the following is most likely to be ordered in addition to serum calcium to determine the cause of tetany?

Explanation

To determine the cause of tetany, ordering a serum magnesium level is most likely. Tetany is often caused by hypomagnesemia, which is a deficiency of magnesium in the blood. Therefore, it is necessary to measure the magnesium level in addition to serum calcium to determine if low magnesium is contributing to the tetany. The other options (phosphate, sodium, and vitamin D) are not directly related to the cause of tetany and would not provide as much insight into the condition.

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118. The protein portion of an enzyme complec is called the:

Explanation

The protein portion of an enzyme complex is called the apoenzyme. The apoenzyme is the inactive form of the enzyme and requires the binding of a cofactor or a coenzyme to become active. The coenzyme is a non-protein organic molecule that assists in the enzyme's catalytic activity. The holoenzyme refers to the complete, active form of the enzyme, which includes both the apoenzyme and the bound cofactor or coenzyme. The proenzyme, on the other hand, is an inactive precursor of an enzyme that requires further modification or activation to become functional.

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119. Quantitation of Na+ and K+ by ion-selective electrode is the standard method because:

Explanation

The correct answer is "of advances in electrochemistry". This is because advances in electrochemistry have allowed for the development of ion-selective electrodes, which can accurately and selectively measure the concentration of Na+ and K+ ions in a sample. This method does not require dilution like flame photometry, and it also does not suffer from lipoprotein interference. Additionally, the ion-selective electrode method does not require an internal standard, making it a more convenient and efficient technique for quantitating Na+ and K+ ions.

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120. Which percentage of total serum calcium is nondiffusible protein bound?

Explanation

40%-50% of total serum calcium is nondiffusible protein bound. This means that a significant portion of calcium in the blood is bound to proteins and cannot freely move or diffuse. This protein-bound calcium plays a crucial role in various physiological processes such as blood clotting, muscle contraction, and nerve function. The remaining percentage of calcium is either ionized (free and active) or bound to other substances like citrate or phosphate.

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121. Which of the following clinical disorders is associated with the greatest elevation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme 1?

Explanation

Pernicious anemia is associated with the greatest elevation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme 1. Lactate dehydrogenase is an enzyme found in many tissues, including red blood cells. Pernicious anemia is a condition characterized by a deficiency of vitamin B12, which leads to the production of abnormal red blood cells. These abnormal red blood cells are more fragile and have a shorter lifespan, leading to an increased breakdown of red blood cells and subsequent release of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme 1 into the bloodstream. This explains the elevated levels of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme 1 in pernicious anemia.

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122. In using ion-exchange chromotographic methods, falsely increased levels of hgb A1c might be demonstrated in the presence of:

Explanation

In ion-exchange chromatographic methods, falsely increased levels of Hgb A1c can be demonstrated in the presence of Hgb S. This is because Hgb S has a different charge compared to Hgb A1c, which can lead to interference in the chromatographic separation. Therefore, when analyzing Hgb A1c levels using this method, the presence of Hgb S can result in inaccurate measurements, leading to falsely increased levels.

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123. A serum sample drawn in the emergency room from a 42 yr-old man yielded the following laboratory results:             patient                                              referance range ck:     185U/L                                              15-160 U/L AST:   123/U/L                                           0-48 U/L CKMB: 6U/L                                                2-12 U/L which of the following conditions might account for these values

Explanation

The elevated levels of CK (creatine kinase), AST (aspartate aminotransferase), and normal levels of CKMB (creatine kinase MB) suggest muscle damage. A crush injury to the thigh can cause muscle damage, leading to the release of these enzymes into the bloodstream. This explains the abnormal laboratory results in the serum sample of the 42-year-old man.

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124. In amniotic fluid, the procedure used to detect hemolytic disease of the newborn is:

Explanation

The procedure used to detect hemolytic disease of the newborn in amniotic fluid is the measurement of absorbance at 450 nm. This is because hemolytic disease of the newborn involves the destruction of red blood cells, which leads to the release of bilirubin. The measurement of absorbance at 450 nm allows for the quantification of bilirubin levels in the amniotic fluid, which can help diagnose the condition.

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125. During a normal pregnancy, quantitative human chorionic gonadotropin levels peak at how many weeks after the last menstrual period?

Explanation

During a normal pregnancy, quantitative human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels peak at 8-10 weeks after the last menstrual period. This hormone is produced by the placenta and its levels increase rapidly during the early stages of pregnancy. The peak levels of hCG usually occur around the 8-10 week mark and then gradually decline as the pregnancy progresses. Monitoring hCG levels is important in confirming a viable pregnancy and can also help detect potential issues such as ectopic pregnancy or miscarriage.

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126. Sodium determination by indirect ion selective electrode is falsely decreased by:

Explanation

Elevated lipid levels can interfere with the determination of sodium by indirect ion selective electrode. This is because lipids can bind to sodium ions and prevent them from being detected accurately by the electrode. This interference can lead to falsely decreased sodium levels.

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127. What specimen preparation is commonly used to perform the alkaline phosphatase isoenzyme determination?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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128. A patient with myeloproliferative disorder has the following values: Hgb:            10 g/dL ( 130 mmol/L) Hct:              38% WBC:           30 x 10^3/uL (30 x 10^9/L) platelets:     1000 x 10^/uL (1000 x 10^9/L) serum Na:   140 mEq/L (140 mmol/L) serum K:      7 mEq/L (7 mmol/L) The serum K should be confirmed by:

Explanation

The correct answer is testing heparinized plasma. Heparinized plasma should be used to confirm the serum potassium (K) level in patients with myeloproliferative disorder. This is because platelet counts can be extremely high in these patients, which can lead to in vitro release of potassium from platelets during serum collection. Heparinized plasma prevents this release of potassium, providing a more accurate measurement of the patient's true serum potassium level. Repeat testing of the original serum or testing freshly drawn serum may still be affected by platelet release of potassium, while atomic absorption spectrometry is not necessary for confirming the serum K level in this case.

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129. A sweat chloride result of 55 mEq/L (55 mmol/L) and a sweat sodium of 52 mEq/L (52 mmol/L) were obtatined on a patient who has a respiratory problems. The best interpretation of these results is:

Explanation

The sweat chloride result of 55 mEq/L and sweat sodium of 52 mEq/L fall within a borderline range, suggesting that further testing is necessary. The abnormal chloride test should be repeated to confirm the results and ensure accuracy.

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130. The following data was obtained from a cellulose acetate protein electrophoresis scan:      albumin area:                75 units      gamma globulin area: 30 units      total area:                       180 units      total protein:                   6.5 g/dL (6.5 g/L) The gamma globulin content in g/dL is:

Explanation

To calculate the gamma globulin content in g/dL, we can use the formula:

Gamma globulin content (g/dL) = (gamma globulin area / total area) * total protein

Plugging in the given values, we get:

Gamma globulin content (g/dL) = (30 units / 180 units) * 6.5 g/dL
= 0.1667 * 6.5 g/dL
= 1.0833 g/dL

Rounding to one decimal place, the gamma globulin content is approximately 1.1 g/dL or 11 g/L.

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131. A diagnosisof primary adrenal insufficiency requires  demonstration of:

Explanation

A diagnosis of primary adrenal insufficiency requires an impaired response to ACTH stimulation. This means that when ACTH is administered to stimulate the adrenal glands to produce cortisol, there is a lack of or inadequate response. This is indicative of dysfunction or damage to the adrenal glands, leading to decreased cortisol production. The other options mentioned, such as decreased urinary 17-keto and 17-hydroxysteroids and increased urinary cortisol excretion after metyrapone, may be seen in different conditions but are not specific to primary adrenal insufficiency.

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132. A patient is admitted to the emergency room in a state of metaboolic alkalosis. which of the following would be consistent with diagnosis?

Explanation

A patient with metabolic alkalosis would have an increased bicarbonate (HCO3) level and a high total carbon dioxide (TCO2) level. This is because metabolic alkalosis is characterized by an excess of bicarbonate in the blood, which leads to an increase in TCO2. The increased HCO3 and TCO2 levels indicate an imbalance in the body's acid-base balance, resulting in alkalosis.

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133. Given the following results: alkaline phosphatase:      marked increase aspartate amino transferase: slight increase alanine amino transferase:    slight increase gamma-glutamyl transferase: slight increase this is most consistent with:

Explanation

The marked increase in alkaline phosphatase and the slight increase in aspartate amino transferase, alanine amino transferase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase suggest a pattern consistent with obstructive jaundice. In obstructive jaundice, there is a blockage or obstruction of the bile ducts, leading to impaired bile flow. This can result in elevated levels of liver enzymes, such as alkaline phosphatase, as well as slight increases in other liver function tests. Acute hepatitis would typically present with more significant increases in liver enzymes, while chronic hepatitis may show a more prolonged elevation. Osteitis fibrosa is unrelated to the liver and would not cause these specific enzyme changes.

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134. Select the test which evaluates renal tubular function:

Explanation

Osmolarity is a measure of the concentration of solutes in a solution. In the context of evaluating renal tubular function, osmolarity can provide information about the ability of the kidneys to regulate water and electrolyte balance. It can help determine if the kidneys are properly concentrating or diluting the urine. By measuring the osmolarity of urine, healthcare professionals can assess the functioning of the renal tubules and identify any abnormalities or disorders affecting the kidneys' ability to regulate fluid and electrolyte balance. Therefore, osmolarity is a suitable test for evaluating renal tubular function.

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135. Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular cancer?

Explanation

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a substance that is produced by certain types of cancer cells, including testicular cancer. Monitoring the levels of AFP in a patient's blood can be useful in tracking the progress of testicular cancer and determining the effectiveness of treatment. Elevated levels of AFP may indicate the presence of cancer or the recurrence of cancer after treatment. Therefore, monitoring AFP levels can help healthcare professionals assess the course of a patient's testicular cancer and make informed decisions regarding their treatment plan.

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136. In respiratory acidosis, a compensatory mechanism is the increase in :

Explanation

In respiratory acidosis, the body is unable to remove enough carbon dioxide from the lungs, leading to an increase in blood PCO2 levels. As a compensatory mechanism, the kidneys increase the reabsorption and production of bicarbonate ions, which helps to neutralize the excess acid in the blood. This increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration helps to restore the acid-base balance in the body. Therefore, the correct answer is plasma bicarbonate concentration.

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137. The majority if thyroxine (T4) is converted into the more biologically active hormone:

Explanation

Triiodothyronine (T3) is the more biologically active hormone that is derived from thyroxine (T4). T4 is converted into T3 in various tissues, including the liver, kidney, and thyroid gland. T3 is responsible for regulating metabolism, growth, and development in the body. It binds to specific receptors in target cells and initiates gene transcription, leading to various physiological effects. Therefore, the majority of T4 is converted into T3 to exert its biological actions in the body.

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138. The degree to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate can be determined by:

Explanation

The urine to serum osmolality ratio is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the urine compared to the concentration in the blood. This ratio indicates how well the kidney is able to concentrate the glomerular filtrate. If the ratio is high, it means that the kidney is effectively reabsorbing water and concentrating the urine. On the other hand, if the ratio is low, it suggests that the kidney is not able to concentrate the urine properly. Therefore, the urine to serum osmolality ratio is a useful indicator of the kidney's ability to concentrate the glomerular filtrate.

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139. The most heat labile fraction of alkaline phosphatase is obtained from:

Explanation

The most heat labile fraction of alkaline phosphatase is obtained from bone. Heat lability refers to the sensitivity of a substance to heat, and in this case, it suggests that the alkaline phosphatase derived from bone is easily denatured or inactivated when exposed to high temperatures. This implies that the alkaline phosphatase obtained from bone is less stable compared to the fractions obtained from liver, intestine, or placenta.

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140. Which of the following is an example of a peptide bond?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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141. On electrophoresis at alkaline pH, which of the following is the slowest migrating hemoglobin?

Explanation

Hemoglobin C is the slowest migrating hemoglobin on electrophoresis at alkaline pH. This is because hemoglobin C has a different charge compared to the other hemoglobins listed. The migration of hemoglobin during electrophoresis is influenced by the charge and size of the molecule. Hemoglobin C has a different amino acid substitution in its beta chain, resulting in a different charge distribution. This difference in charge causes hemoglobin C to migrate more slowly compared to the other hemoglobins on electrophoresis at alkaline pH.

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142. Increaseed serum lactic dehydrogenase activity due to elevation of fast fraction (1 and 2) on elctrophoretic seperation is caused by:

Explanation

The correct answer is hemolytic anemia. Hemolytic anemia is a condition characterized by the destruction of red blood cells, leading to an increased release of lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) into the bloodstream. LDH is an enzyme found in various tissues, including red blood cells, and its activity can be measured to assess tissue damage. In hemolytic anemia, the destruction of red blood cells causes an elevation of the fast fractions (1 and 2) on electrophoretic separation, indicating increased LDH activity. This is why hemolytic anemia is the likely cause of the increased serum LDH activity in this scenario.

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143. Of the following diseases, the one most often associated with elevations of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes 4 and 5 on electrophoresis is:

Explanation

Elevations of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) isoenzymes 4 and 5 on electrophoresis are most commonly associated with liver disease. LDH is an enzyme found in many tissues, including the liver. In liver disease, such as hepatitis or cirrhosis, there is damage to liver cells, leading to the release of LDH into the bloodstream. This can result in elevated levels of LDH isoenzymes 4 and 5 on electrophoresis. Hemolytic anemia, myocardial infarction, and pulmonary edema may also cause elevations in LDH, but liver disease is most often associated with the specific isoenzymes mentioned.

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144. Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that orginates in the

Explanation

The regan isoenzyme shares the same properties as alkaline phosphatase, and it is primarily found in the placenta.

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145. Aldosterone is released by the adrenal cortex upon stimulation by:

Explanation

When the adrenal cortex is stimulated by angiotensin II, it releases aldosterone. Angiotensin II is formed from angiotensin I through the action of the enzyme angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). This hormone is involved in the regulation of blood pressure and electrolyte balance. It acts on the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of sodium and water, while promoting the excretion of potassium. This helps to maintain blood volume and blood pressure within normal limits. Therefore, the correct answer is angiotensin II.

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146. Metabolic acidosis is described as a (n):

Explanation

Metabolic acidosis is characterized by an increase in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH. This means that there is an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the body, leading to an increase in its content and partial pressure. This results in a decrease in pH, making the blood more acidic.

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147. Given the following results: alkaline phosphatase:        slight increase aspartate aminotransferase: slight increase alanine aminotransferase:  slight increase gamma-glutamyl transferase: slight increase

Explanation

The given results show slight increases in alkaline phosphatase, aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase. These enzymes are commonly used to assess liver function. A slight increase in all of these enzymes suggests ongoing liver inflammation, which is characteristic of chronic hepatitis. Acute hepatitis may also cause increased liver enzyme levels, but it is usually associated with a more significant increase. Obstructive jaundice and liver hemangioma are not typically associated with elevated liver enzymes.

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148. The screen for adrenal cortical hyperfunction with the greatest sensitivity and specificity is:

Explanation

A 24-hour free cortisol test is the most sensitive and specific screening test for adrenal cortical hyperfunction. This test measures the level of cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, in the urine over a 24-hour period. Adrenal cortical hyperfunction refers to an overproduction of cortisol, which can indicate conditions such as Cushing's syndrome. By measuring cortisol levels over a 24-hour period, this test provides a more accurate assessment of cortisol production compared to a single plasma cortisol or urinary 17-hydroxycorticosteroids test. Plasma corticosterone is not commonly used as a screening test for adrenal cortical hyperfunction.

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149. A blood gas sample was sent to the lab on ice and a bubble was present in the syringe. the blood  had been exposed to room air for at least 30 minutes. The following change in blood gases will occur

Explanation

When a blood gas sample is exposed to room air for an extended period of time, the oxygen (O2) content in the blood will increase (PO2 increased) due to the oxygen in the air diffusing into the sample. Additionally, the bicarbonate (HCO3) levels in the blood will decrease (HCO3 decreased) as the exposure to room air causes a shift towards the formation of carbonic acid, leading to a decrease in bicarbonate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is PO2 increased/HCO3 decreased.

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150. Which of the following is true about direct ion selective electrode is falsely decreased by:

Explanation

This statement means that direct ion selective electrode is not affected by the use of whole blood specimens. It suggests that the electrode can accurately measure ion levels in whole blood without any interference or false readings.

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151. In the immunoinhibition phase of the CKMB procedure:

Explanation

In the immunoinhibition phase of the CKMB procedure, the M subunit is inactivated. This suggests that during this phase, the M subunit of CKMB is rendered inactive or unable to function. The exact reason or mechanism behind this inactivation is not provided in the question.

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152. Refer to the following illustration: (Pg 102 BOC Book) Which of the following is the most likely interpretation of the LD isoenzyme scan illustrated above?

Explanation

The LD isoenzyme scan illustrated above is most likely indicating viral hepatitis. This is because viral hepatitis can cause an increase in the LD isoenzymes, specifically LD1 and LD2. LD isoenzyme levels are often used as a marker for liver damage, and viral hepatitis is a common cause of liver inflammation and damage. Therefore, the elevated LD isoenzyme levels seen in the scan suggest viral hepatitis as the most likely interpretation.

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153. Chylomicrons are present in which of the following dylipidemias?

Explanation

Chylomicrons are present in individuals with deficiency in lipoprotein lipase activity. Lipoprotein lipase is an enzyme that breaks down triglycerides in chylomicrons, allowing the release of fatty acids for energy. When there is a deficiency in lipoprotein lipase activity, chylomicrons accumulate in the bloodstream, leading to a condition called chylomicronemia or type I hyperlipoproteinemia. This condition is characterized by extremely high levels of triglycerides and can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, pancreatitis, and eruptive xanthomas.

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154. A physician requested that electrolytes on a multiple myeloma patient specimen be run by direst ISE abnd not indirect ISE because:

Explanation

In multiple myeloma patients, there is an excess of protein present in the blood. This excess protein can bind to sodium (Na) ions during the indirect ISE (Ion-Selective Electrode) method, leading to a falsely decreased measurement of sodium levels. Therefore, to obtain accurate results, the physician requested that electrolytes be run by direct ISE instead of indirect ISE.

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155. A 10-year-old was admitted to pediatrics with an initial diagnosis of skeletal muscle disease. The best confirmatory tests would be:

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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156. A 1 year old girl with a hyperlipoproteinemia and lipase deficiency has the following lipid profile: cholesterol:         300mg/dl (7.77 mmol/L) LDL:                     increased HDL:                     decreased triglycerides:        200 mg/dl chylomicrons:       present a serum specimen from this patient that was refrigerated overnight would most likely be:

Explanation

The presence of a creamy layer over clear serum in a refrigerated specimen suggests the presence of chylomicrons. Chylomicrons are large lipoprotein particles that contain triglycerides and are responsible for the milky appearance of postprandial plasma. In this case, the patient has hyperlipoproteinemia and lipase deficiency, which impairs the breakdown of triglycerides. As a result, chylomicrons accumulate in the serum, leading to the formation of a creamy layer when refrigerated. The clear serum underneath indicates that the other lipoproteins, such as LDL and HDL, are not significantly affected.

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157. A low concentration of serum phosphorus is commonly found in:

Explanation

A low concentration of serum phosphorus is commonly found in patients who are receiving carbohydrate hyperalimentation. This is because carbohydrate hyperalimentation involves the administration of high levels of carbohydrates, which can lead to increased insulin secretion. Insulin promotes the uptake of phosphorus into cells, leading to lower levels of phosphorus in the bloodstream.

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158. Which one of the following sets of results is consistent with primary hypothyroidism, (eg hishimoto disease) result                            TSH                           T4 (free thyroxine)                      antimicrosomal antibody Result A                decreased                     decreased                                   positive Result B                increased                       increased                                   positive Result C               normal                            decreased                                   negative Result D               increased                       decreased                                   positive

Explanation

Result D is consistent with primary hypothyroidism (Hashimoto's disease) because it shows an increased level of TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) and a decreased level of T4 (free thyroxine). In primary hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is unable to produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to increased TSH production by the pituitary gland in an attempt to stimulate the thyroid. However, the thyroid gland is still unable to produce sufficient T4, resulting in a decreased level of T4. The presence of positive antimicrosomal antibodies also supports the diagnosis of Hashimoto's disease, as these antibodies are commonly found in this condition.

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159. The screening test for congenital hypothyroidism is based upon:

Explanation

The correct answer is "al thyroxine (t4) level in the newborn." The screening test for congenital hypothyroidism is based on measuring the levels of thyroxine (T4) in the newborn. Congenital hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone, and it can lead to developmental and growth issues if left untreated. Measuring T4 levels helps to identify newborns with low thyroid hormone levels, allowing for early intervention and treatment.

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160. The greatest activities of serum AST and ALT are seen in which of the following?

Explanation

The greatest activities of serum AST and ALT are seen in primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune disease that affects the bile ducts in the liver, leading to inflammation and damage. As a result, the liver enzymes AST and ALT are released into the bloodstream, causing their levels to increase. This is reflected in the elevated activities of AST and ALT in the serum of individuals with primary biliary cirrhosis.

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Cerebrospinal fluid for glucose assay should be:
Which of the following enzymes are used in the diagnosis of acute...
When myocardial infarction occurs, the first enzyme to become elevated...
Which of the following is secreted by the placents and used for the...
A serum sample was assayed for bilirubin at 10am , and the result was...
Monitoring long-term glucose control in patients with adult onset...
A potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L (6.8 mmol/L) is obtatined. Before...
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT )...
Which of the following hormones regulates normal blood calcium levels?
The referance range for the pH of arterial blood measured at 37 degree...
The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is...
A stool specimen that appears black and tarry should be tested for the...
A physician suspects his patient has pancreatitis. Which test(s) would...
Aspartate amino transferase (AST) is characteristically elevated in...
The presence of increased CKMB activity on a CK electrophoresis...
Scurvy is assoiciated with defiency of which of the following...
The glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a hemolysate reflect the:
Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated by:
A healthy person with a blood glucose of 80 mg/dl (4.4 mmol/L) would...
A 45-year old woman has a fasting serum glucose concentration of 95...
Pregnant women with symptoms of thirst, frequent urination or...
The most important buffer pair in plasma is the
A 25 yr old man became nauseated and vomited 90 minutes after...
A patient has the following test results:...
A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased neuromuscular...
Night blindness is associated with deficiency of which of the followng...
The regulation of calcium and phosphorus metabolism is accomplished by...
Which of the following hemoglobins has a glucose-6-phosphate on the...
The enzyme, which exists chiefly in skeletal muscle, heart, and brain,...
Plasma for cortisol determinations were collected at 7 am, after...
A common cause of respiratory alkalosis is:
Acidosis and alkalosis are best defined as fluctuations in blood pH...
Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose...
The solute that contributes the most to the total serum osmolality is:
The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative...
Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting ...
The presence of which of the following isoenzymes indicates acute...
At blood ph  7.40, what is the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic...
Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:
Most of the carbon dioxide present in blood in the form of:
Turbidity in serum siggest elevation of:
Rickets is associated with deficiency of which of the following...
Serial bilirubin determinations are charted below....
Osmolal gap is aa difference between:
The anion gap is useful for quality control of laboratory results for:
A serum sample demonstrates an elevated result when tested with the...
Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are most...
Pellagra is associated witg defiency of which of the following...
If a fasting glucose was 90 mg/dl, which of the following 2hr...
An infant with diarrhea is being evaluated for a carbohydrate...
The following bilirubin results are obtained on a patient:...
Urobilinogen is formed in the:
Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of starch to...
The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange...
TSH is prouced by the:
Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for:
The following results are from a 21 yr old patient with a back injury...
The glycated hemoglobin value represents the integrated values of...
The expected blood gas results for a patient in chronic renal failure...
Fasting serum phosphate concentration is controlled primarily by the:
To assure an accurate ammonia level result, the specimen should be:
The preparation of a patient for standard for glucose tolerance...
Which of the following 2 hr postprandial glucose values demonstrates...
The following laboratory results were obtainted:...
Following overnight fasting, hypoglycemia in adults is defined as...
Which of the following values obtained during a glucose tolerance test...
The major action of angiotensin II is:
The primary function serum albumin in the peripheral blood is to:
In addition to carcinoma of the prostate, elevated prostate-specific...
In the fasting state, the arterial blood and the capillary blood...
90% of the copper present in the blood is bound to:
A 2 year old child with decreased serum (T4) is described as being...
Whi the following steroids is an adrenal cortical hormone?
Serum levels that define hypoglycemia in pre-term or low birth weight...
A reciprocal relationship exists between:
The enzyme present in almost all tissues that may be separated by...
A scanning of a CK isoenzyme  fractionation revealed 2 peaks: a...
The most sensitive enzymatic indicator for liver damage from ethanol...
A patient with type 1 insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus has the...
Kernicterus is an abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in:
A person with hemolytic anemia will:
A common cause of falsely increased LD1 fraction of lactic...
A blood creatinine value of 5.0 mg/dL (442 umol/L) is most likely to...
The recommended intial thyroid function test for either a healthy...
Blood samples were collected at the beginning of an excercise class...
A 45 year old woman complains of fatigue, heat intolerance and hair...
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is most likely to be produced in a...
An emphysema patient suffering from fluid accumulation in the alveolar...
Respiratory acidosis is described as a (n):
The most specific enzyme test for acute pancreatitis is:
An increase in serum acetone is indicative of a defect in the...
Factors that contribute to a PCO2 electrode requiring 60-120 seconds...
The following laboratory results were obtained:...
The urinary excretion product measured as an indicator of epinephrine...
Which of the following statements most correctly describes the utility...
What is the best method to diagnose lactase deficiency?
Severe diarrhea causes
A 68 year-old man arrives in the emergency room with a glucose level...
Serum "anion gap" is increased in patients with:
Beriberi is associated with deficiency of vitamin:
What battery of tests is most useful in evaluating an anion gap of 22...
A patient has the followning thyroid profile:...
In which of the following conditions would a normal level of creatine...
Which of the following chemical determinations may be of help in...
Which of the following is useful in the detection and management of...
Cancer antigen 125 (CA 125) is a tumor marker associated with:
A patient has the following serum results: ...
Erroneous ammonia levels can be eliminated by all of the following...
Hemoglobin S can be separated from hemoglobin D by:
What common substrate is used in the biosynthesis of adrenal steroids,...
The following blood gas results were obtained:...
A 68 yr old female patient tells her physician of being "cold all...
The first step in the quantitation of serum iron is:
Isoenzyme assays are performed to improve:
Which of the following sample collections would give an accurate...
A person suspected of having metabolic alkalosis would have which of...
Which is the following is most likely to be ordered in addition to...
The protein portion of an enzyme complec is called the:
Quantitation of Na+ and K+ by ion-selective electrode is the standard...
Which percentage of total serum calcium is nondiffusible protein...
Which of the following clinical disorders is associated with the...
In using ion-exchange chromotographic methods, falsely increased...
A serum sample drawn in the emergency room from a 42 yr-old man...
In amniotic fluid, the procedure used to detect hemolytic disease of...
During a normal pregnancy, quantitative human...
Sodium determination by indirect ion selective electrode is falsely...
What specimen preparation is commonly used to perform the alkaline...
A patient with myeloproliferative disorder has the following values:...
A sweat chloride result of 55 mEq/L (55 mmol/L) and a sweat sodium of...
The following data was obtained from a cellulose acetate protein...
A diagnosisof primary adrenal insufficiency requires ...
A patient is admitted to the emergency room in a state of metaboolic...
Given the following results:...
Select the test which evaluates renal tubular function:
Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to...
In respiratory acidosis, a compensatory mechanism is the increase in :
The majority if thyroxine (T4) is converted into the more biologically...
The degree to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate...
The most heat labile fraction of alkaline phosphatase is obtained...
Which of the following is an example of a peptide bond?
On electrophoresis at alkaline pH, which of the following is the...
Increaseed serum lactic dehydrogenase activity due to elevation of...
Of the following diseases, the one most often associated with...
Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that...
Aldosterone is released by the adrenal cortex upon stimulation by:
Metabolic acidosis is described as a (n):
Given the following results:...
The screen for adrenal cortical hyperfunction with the greatest...
A blood gas sample was sent to the lab on ice and a bubble was present...
Which of the following is true about direct ion selective electrode is...
In the immunoinhibition phase of the CKMB procedure:
Refer to the following illustration:...
Chylomicrons are present in which of the following dylipidemias?
A physician requested that electrolytes on a multiple myeloma patient...
A 10-year-old was admitted to pediatrics with an initial diagnosis of...
A 1 year old girl with a hyperlipoproteinemia and lipase deficiency...
A low concentration of serum phosphorus is commonly found in:
Which one of the following sets of results is consistent with primary...
The screening test for congenital hypothyroidism is based upon:
The greatest activities of serum AST and ALT are seen in which of the...
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