MLT Chemistry Class 1120

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  • 1/160 Questions

    Cerebrospinal fluid for glucose assay should be:

    • Refrigerated
    • Analyzed immediately
    • Heated to 56 degrees celsius
    • Stored at room temperature
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About This Quiz

Another certification quiz enjoy its straight from the book edition 5

MLT Chemistry Class 1120 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following enzymes are used in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?

    • Amylase (AMS) and lipase (LPS)

    • Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

    • 5' -nucleotidase (5'N) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)

    • Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and lactate dehydrogenase(LD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Amylase (AMS) and lipase (LPS)
    Explanation
    Amylase and lipase are enzymes that are commonly used in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. In cases of acute pancreatitis, the pancreas becomes inflamed, causing these enzymes to be released into the bloodstream. Elevated levels of amylase and lipase in the blood can indicate the presence of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, measuring the levels of these enzymes can help in the diagnosis of this condition. The other options listed do not specifically relate to the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis.

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  • 3. 

    When myocardial infarction occurs, the first enzyme to become elevated is:

    • CK

    • LD

    • AST

    • ALT

    Correct Answer
    A. CK
    Explanation
    When myocardial infarction occurs, the first enzyme to become elevated is CK (creatine kinase). CK is an enzyme found in the heart muscle, and its levels increase in the blood when there is damage to the heart muscle, such as during a heart attack. Elevated CK levels are an important diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. LD (lactate dehydrogenase), AST (aspartate aminotransferase), and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are also enzymes that can be elevated in certain conditions, but CK is the specific enzyme that is the first to become elevated in the case of a heart attack.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is secreted by the placents and used for the early detection of pregnancy?

    • Luteinizing hormone (LH)

    • Human chronic gonadotropin (HCG)

    • Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

    • Progesterone

    Correct Answer
    A. Human chronic gonadotropin (HCG)
    Explanation
    Human chronic gonadotropin (HCG) is secreted by the placenta and is used for the early detection of pregnancy. HCG is a hormone that is produced by the developing placenta shortly after fertilization. It can be detected in a woman's urine or blood and is the hormone that is typically tested for in pregnancy tests. The presence of HCG in the body indicates that a woman is pregnant, as it is only produced during pregnancy. This hormone helps to support the pregnancy by stimulating the production of other hormones, such as progesterone, which are necessary for maintaining the pregnancy.

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  • 5. 

    A serum sample was assayed for bilirubin at 10am , and the result was 12 mg/dL (205.6 umol/L). The same sample was retested at 3pm. The result now is 8 mg/dL (136.8 umol/L). The most likely explanation for this discrepancy is:

    • The reagent has deteriorated

    • The sample was exposed to light

    • A calulation erroe in the first assay

    • The sample was not refrigerated

    Correct Answer
    A. The sample was exposed to light
    Explanation
    The most likely explanation for the discrepancy in the bilirubin levels between the two assays is that the sample was exposed to light. Bilirubin is sensitive to light and can degrade when exposed, resulting in a decrease in its measured levels. This is supported by the fact that the bilirubin level decreased from 12 mg/dL to 8 mg/dL, indicating a potential degradation of the sample.

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  • 6. 

    Monitoring long-term glucose control in patients with adult onset diabetes mellitus can best be accomplished by measuring:

    • Weekly fasting 7am serum glucose

    • Glucose tolerance testing

    • 2hr postprandial serum glucose

    • Hemoglobin A1c

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemoglobin A1c
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin A1c is the best measure for monitoring long-term glucose control in patients with adult onset diabetes mellitus. This is because hemoglobin A1c reflects the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive picture of glucose control compared to the other options. Weekly fasting 7am serum glucose, glucose tolerance testing, and 2hr postprandial serum glucose are all measures of short-term glucose control and may not accurately represent long-term control. Hemoglobin A1c is a reliable indicator of overall glucose control and is commonly used in clinical practice to assess diabetes management.

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  • 7. 

    A potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L (6.8 mmol/L) is obtatined. Before reporting the results, the first step the technologist should take is to:

    • Check the serum for hemolysis

    • Rerun the test

    • Check the age of the patient

    • Do nothing simply report out the result

    Correct Answer
    A. Check the serum for hemolysis
    Explanation
    The first step the technologist should take is to check the serum for hemolysis. Hemolysis refers to the breakdown of red blood cells, which can release potassium into the serum and cause falsely elevated potassium levels. By checking for hemolysis, the technologist can ensure that the potassium level obtained is accurate and not influenced by any external factors.

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  • 8. 

    Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT ) are both elevated in which of the following diseases ?

    • Muscular dystrophy

    • Viral hepatitis

    • Pulmonary emboli

    • Infectious mononucleosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Viral hepatitis
    Explanation
    Both AST and ALT are enzymes that are found mainly in the liver. When the liver is damaged or inflamed, these enzymes are released into the bloodstream, causing elevated levels. Viral hepatitis is a disease that specifically affects the liver, causing inflammation and damage. Therefore, it is expected that both AST and ALT levels would be elevated in viral hepatitis. Muscular dystrophy, pulmonary emboli, and infectious mononucleosis do not primarily affect the liver, so it is less likely for AST and ALT levels to be elevated in these conditions.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following hormones regulates normal blood calcium levels?

    • Thyroxine

    • Estriol

    • Parathyroid hormone

    • Growth hormone

    Correct Answer
    A. Parathyroid hormone
    Explanation
    Parathyroid hormone is responsible for regulating normal blood calcium levels. It acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium levels in the blood. It stimulates the release of calcium from bones, enhances the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys, and promotes the absorption of calcium from the intestines. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of calcium in the body, which is essential for various physiological processes such as bone health, muscle function, and nerve transmission.

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  • 10. 

    The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called:

    • Glycogenesis

    • Glycolysis

    • Gluconeogenesis

    • Glycogenolysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycolysis
    Explanation
    Glycolysis is the correct answer because it refers to the process of breaking down glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate. This process occurs in the cytoplasm of cells and is the first step in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. Glycolysis produces ATP, which is used as an energy source for various cellular activities.

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  • 11. 

    The referance range for the pH of arterial blood measured at 37 degree celsius is:

    • 7.28-7.34

    • 7.33-7.37

    • 7.35-7.45

    • 7.45-7.50

    Correct Answer
    A. 7.35-7.45
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 7.35-7.45. This range represents the normal pH level of arterial blood when measured at 37 degrees Celsius. The pH of arterial blood is tightly regulated within this range to maintain normal physiological functions. Values below 7.35 indicate acidosis, while values above 7.45 indicate alkalosis. Therefore, the pH range of 7.35-7.45 is considered the normal reference range for arterial blood pH.

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  • 12. 

    A physician suspects his patient has pancreatitis. Which test(s) would be most indicative of this disease?

    • Creatinine

    • LD isoenzymes

    • Beta-hydroxybutyrate

    • Amylase

    Correct Answer
    A. Amylase
    Explanation
    Amylase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas. Elevated levels of amylase in the blood can indicate pancreatitis, which is inflammation of the pancreas. Therefore, testing for amylase levels would be most indicative of this disease. Creatinine is a waste product that is filtered by the kidneys, LD isoenzymes are used to diagnose heart attacks, and beta-hydroxybutyrate is a ketone produced during ketosis. None of these tests are specific to pancreatitis.

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  • 13. 

    Aspartate amino transferase (AST) is characteristically elevated in diseases of the:

    • Liver

    • Kidney

    • Intestine

    • Pancreas

    Correct Answer
    A. Liver
    Explanation
    AST, also known as serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT), is an enzyme found primarily in the liver. Elevated levels of AST in the blood indicate liver damage or disease. Therefore, AST is characteristically elevated in liver diseases such as hepatitis, cirrhosis, and liver cancer.

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  • 14. 

    Scurvy is assoiciated with defiency of which of the following vitamins?

    • C

    • Thiamine

    • A

    • Niacin

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    Scurvy is associated with a deficiency of Vitamin C.

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  • 15. 

    The glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a hemolysate reflect the:

    • Average blood glucose levels of the past 2-3 months

    • Average blood glucose levels for the past week

    • Blood glucose level at the time the sample drawn

    • Hemoglobin a1c level at the time the sample is drawn

    Correct Answer
    A. Average blood glucose levels of the past 2-3 months
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a hemolysate reflect the average blood glucose levels of the past 2-3 months. This is because glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as Hemoglobin A1c, is formed when glucose attaches to hemoglobin in red blood cells. The level of glycosylated hemoglobin in the blood is directly proportional to the average blood glucose levels over a period of 2-3 months. Therefore, measuring the level of glycosylated hemoglobin provides an indication of long-term blood glucose control.

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  • 16. 

    Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated by:

    • Insulin

    • Parathyroid hormone

    • Thyroxine

    • Vitamin C

    Correct Answer
    A. Parathyroid hormone
    Explanation
    Parathyroid hormone is responsible for regulating calcium concentration in the serum. It acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium levels in the blood. When blood calcium levels drop, the parathyroid gland releases parathyroid hormone, which stimulates the release of calcium from the bones, enhances calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, and promotes the production of active vitamin D, which aids in calcium absorption from the intestines. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body.

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  • 17. 

    A stool specimen that appears black and tarry should be tested for the presence of:

    • Occult blood

    • Fecal fat

    • Trypsin

    • Excess mucus

    Correct Answer
    A. Occult blood
    Explanation
    When a stool specimen appears black and tarry, it indicates the presence of occult blood. Occult blood refers to blood that is not visible to the naked eye but can be detected through laboratory tests. This condition is often caused by bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract, such as ulcers, gastritis, or bleeding from the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine. Testing for occult blood in the stool helps to identify and diagnose the underlying cause of the bleeding. Fecal fat, trypsin, and excess mucus do not typically cause the stool to appear black and tarry.

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  • 18. 

    The presence of increased CKMB activity on a CK electrophoresis pattern is most likely found in a patient suffering from:

    • Acute muscular stress following strenuous exercise

    • Malignant liver disease

    • Myocardial infarction

    • Severe head injury

    Correct Answer
    A. Myocardial infarction
    Explanation
    Increased CKMB activity on a CK electrophoresis pattern is most likely found in a patient suffering from myocardial infarction. CKMB is an isoform of creatine kinase that is predominantly found in the heart muscle. During a heart attack, the heart muscle is damaged, causing an increase in CKMB levels in the blood. This can be detected on a CK electrophoresis pattern, indicating myocardial infarction as the likely cause. Acute muscular stress following strenuous exercise may also cause an increase in CK levels, but CKMB specifically points towards myocardial infarction. Malignant liver disease and severe head injury are not associated with increased CKMB activity.

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  • 19. 

    A healthy person with a blood glucose of 80 mg/dl (4.4 mmol/L) would have a simultaneously determined cerebrospinal fluid glucose value of:

    • 25 mg/dl (1.4 mmol/L)

    • 50 mg/dl (2.3 mmol/L)

    • 100 mg/dl (5.5 mmol/L)

    • 150 mg/dl (8.3 mmol/L)

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 mg/dl (2.3 mmol/L)
    Explanation
    The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose value is typically about two-thirds of the blood glucose value. Therefore, a healthy person with a blood glucose of 80 mg/dl would have a CSF glucose value of approximately 50 mg/dl. This is because glucose is actively transported from the blood into the CSF, but at a slower rate than in other tissues.

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  • 20. 

    Pregnant women with symptoms of thirst, frequent urination or unexplained weight loss should have which of the following tests performed?

    • Tolbutamide test

    • Lactose tolerance test

    • Epinephrine glucose tolerance test

    • Glucose tolerance test

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucose tolerance test
    Explanation
    Pregnant women experiencing symptoms of thirst, frequent urination, or unexplained weight loss should undergo a glucose tolerance test. This test is used to diagnose gestational diabetes, a condition that affects pregnant women and causes high blood sugar levels. By measuring how the body processes glucose, the test can determine if a woman has gestational diabetes and needs treatment to manage her blood sugar levels during pregnancy.

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  • 21. 

    A 45-year old woman has a fasting serum glucose concentration of 95 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L) and a 2-hour postprandial glucose concentration of 105 mg/dL(5.8 mmol/L). The statement which best describes this patient's fasting serum glucose concentration is:

    • Normal; reflecting glycogen breakdown by the liver

    • Normal; reflecting glycogen breakdown by skeletal muscle

    • Abnormal; indicating diabetes mellitus

    • Abnormal; indicating hypoglycemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal; reflecting glycogen breakdown by the liver
    Explanation
    The fasting serum glucose concentration of 95 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L) falls within the normal range, indicating that the patient's blood sugar level is not elevated. The statement suggests that this normal fasting glucose concentration is a result of glycogen breakdown by the liver. During fasting, the liver breaks down glycogen to release glucose into the bloodstream to maintain normal blood sugar levels. Therefore, the correct answer is "normal; reflecting glycogen breakdown by the liver."

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  • 22. 

    The most important buffer pair in plasma is the

    • Phosphate/biphosphate pair

    • Hemoglobin/imidazole pair

    • Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair

    • Sulfate/bisulfate pair

    Correct Answer
    A. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair
    Explanation
    The bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair is the most important buffer pair in plasma because it helps maintain the pH balance in the body. When there is an increase in acidity, carbonic acid dissociates into bicarbonate ions, which helps to neutralize the excess hydrogen ions and maintain a stable pH. On the other hand, when there is an increase in alkalinity, bicarbonate ions can combine with hydrogen ions to form carbonic acid, thus reducing the pH. This buffer system plays a crucial role in regulating the acid-base balance in the body and ensuring the proper functioning of various physiological processes.

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  • 23. 

    A 25 yr old man became nauseated and vomited 90 minutes after receiving a standard 75g carbohydrate dose for an oral glucose tolerance test. the best course of action is to:

    • Give the patient a glass of orange juice and continue test

    • Start the test over immediately with a 50 g carbohydrate dose

    • Draw blood for glucose and discontinue

    • Place the patient in the dorsal recumbent position

    Correct Answer
    A. Draw blood for glucose and discontinue
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of nausea and vomiting after receiving a standard 75g carbohydrate dose for an oral glucose tolerance test suggest that they may be experiencing an adverse reaction or intolerance to the high carbohydrate load. Drawing blood for glucose levels will help determine if the patient is experiencing hyperglycemia, which could be causing their symptoms. Discontinuing the test is the best course of action to ensure the patient's safety and to prevent further discomfort or complications.

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  • 24. 

    The regulation of calcium and phosphorus metabolism is accomplished by which of the following glands?

    • Thyroid

    • Parathyroid

    • Adrenal glands

    • Pituitary

    Correct Answer
    A. Parathyroid
    Explanation
    The parathyroid glands are responsible for regulating calcium and phosphorus metabolism in the body. These small glands, located near the thyroid gland, produce parathyroid hormone (PTH) which helps control the levels of calcium and phosphorus in the blood. PTH acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium levels when they are low and decrease phosphorus levels when they are high. This regulation is important for maintaining healthy bones, nerve function, and muscle contraction. The other glands listed (thyroid, adrenal glands, and pituitary) do not directly regulate calcium and phosphorus metabolism.

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  • 25. 

    A patient has the following test results:       increased serum calcium levels       decreased serum phosphate levels       increased level sof parathyroid hormone This patient most likely has:

    • Hyperparathyroidism

    • Hypoparathyroidism

    • Nephrosis

    • Steatorrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperparathyroidism
    Explanation
    The patient's increased serum calcium levels, decreased serum phosphate levels, and increased levels of parathyroid hormone indicate hyperparathyroidism. In this condition, the parathyroid glands produce excessive amounts of parathyroid hormone, which leads to increased calcium levels in the blood. The decreased phosphate levels can also be attributed to the excessive parathyroid hormone. Nephrosis, hypoparathyroidism, and steatorrhea do not present with the same combination of test results as seen in this patient.

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  • 26. 

    A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased neuromuscular irritability (tetany). Which of the following tests should be ordered immediately?

    • Calcium

    • Phosphate

    • BUN

    • Glucose

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium
    Explanation
    Calcium levels should be ordered immediately because increased neuromuscular irritability (tetany) can be a symptom of hypocalcemia, which is a low level of calcium in the blood. Calcium is essential for proper nerve and muscle function, and low levels can lead to muscle spasms, twitching, and irritability. Ordering a calcium test will help determine if the patient's symptoms are due to low calcium levels and guide appropriate treatment.

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  • 27. 

    Night blindness is associated with deficiency of which of the followng vitamins?

    • A

    • C

    • Niacin

    • Thiamine

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Night blindness is associated with a deficiency of Vitamin A. Vitamin A is essential for the production of a pigment called rhodopsin in the retina of the eye, which is necessary for vision in low light conditions. A deficiency in Vitamin A can lead to a decreased ability to see in dim light, known as night blindness.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following hemoglobins has a glucose-6-phosphate on the amino-terminal valine of the beta chain:

    • S

    • C

    • A2

    • A1c

    Correct Answer
    A. A1c
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A1c. Hemoglobin A1c is a form of hemoglobin that is formed when glucose binds to the amino-terminal valine of the beta chain. This process, known as glycation, occurs in individuals with high blood sugar levels over a prolonged period of time. Measurement of hemoglobin A1c levels is commonly used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main fuction is maintaining osmotic pressure?

    • Chloride

    • Calcium

    • Potassium

    • Sodium

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium
    Explanation
    Sodium is the chief plasma cation that maintains osmotic pressure. Osmotic pressure is the force that keeps water balanced between the inside and outside of cells. Sodium plays a crucial role in this process by regulating the movement of water across cell membranes. It helps maintain the balance of fluids inside and outside of cells, ensuring that cells are properly hydrated and functioning optimally. Sodium also plays a role in nerve function and muscle contraction, further highlighting its importance in maintaining overall body function.

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  • 30. 

    The enzyme, which exists chiefly in skeletal muscle, heart, and brain, is grossly elevated in active muscular dystrophy, and rises early in myocardial infarction is:

    • Lipase

    • Transaminase

    • Lactate dehydrogenase

    • Creatine kinase

    Correct Answer
    A. Creatine kinase
    Explanation
    Creatine kinase is an enzyme that is found mainly in skeletal muscle, heart, and brain. It is known to be significantly increased in active muscular dystrophy and rises early in myocardial infarction. Therefore, creatine kinase is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 31. 

    Plasma for cortisol determinations were collected at 7 am, after waking the patient, and at 10 pm that evening. the cortisol level of the morning sample was higher then the evening sample this is consistent with:

    • A normal finding

    • Cushing syndrome

    • Addison disease

    • Hypopituitarism

    Correct Answer
    A. A normal finding
    Explanation
    The cortisol level being higher in the morning sample compared to the evening sample is a normal finding. Cortisol follows a diurnal pattern, with levels being highest in the morning and gradually decreasing throughout the day. This is known as the cortisol awakening response. Therefore, it is expected to see higher cortisol levels in the morning and lower levels in the evening. This pattern is considered normal and does not indicate any specific medical condition such as Cushing syndrome, Addison disease, or hypopituitarism.

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  • 32. 

    A common cause of respiratory alkalosis is:

    • Vomiting

    • Starvation

    • Asthma

    • Hyperventilation

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperventilation
    Explanation
    Hyperventilation is a common cause of respiratory alkalosis. When a person hyperventilates, they breathe rapidly and shallowly, leading to an excessive elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. This decrease in carbon dioxide levels causes a shift in the body's acid-base balance towards alkalinity, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Vomiting, starvation, and asthma may cause other respiratory or metabolic imbalances, but they are not directly associated with respiratory alkalosis.

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  • 33. 

    Acidosis and alkalosis are best defined as fluctuations in blood pH and CO2 content due to changes in:

    • Bohr effect

    • O2 content

    • Bicarbonate buffer

    • Carbonic anhydrase

    Correct Answer
    A. Bicarbonate buffer
    Explanation
    Acidosis and alkalosis refer to imbalances in blood pH and CO2 content. The bicarbonate buffer system plays a crucial role in maintaining the acid-base balance in the body. It consists of a weak acid (carbonic acid) and its conjugate base (bicarbonate ions). When there is an excess of acid in the blood, the bicarbonate ions act as a buffer, binding with the excess acid to maintain a stable pH. Conversely, when there is an excess of base in the blood, carbonic acid is produced to neutralize it. Therefore, fluctuations in blood pH and CO2 content are best defined by changes in the bicarbonate buffer system.

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  • 34. 

    The solute that contributes the most to the total serum osmolality is:

    • Glucose

    • Sodium

    • Chloride

    • Urea

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium
    Explanation
    Sodium is the correct answer because it is the main solute responsible for maintaining serum osmolality. Sodium ions are the most abundant positively charged ions in the extracellular fluid, and their concentration greatly affects the osmotic pressure. Changes in sodium levels can lead to imbalances in fluid distribution, affecting cell function and overall body homeostasis. Therefore, sodium contributes the most to the total serum osmolality.

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  • 35. 

    Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting  capacity of :

    • Hemoglobin

    • Cerruloplasmin

    • Transferrin

    • Fetrritin

    Correct Answer
    A. Transferrin
    Explanation
    Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is a laboratory test that measures the maximum amount of iron that can be bound to transferrin, a protein responsible for transporting iron in the blood. Transferrin is synthesized in the liver and is the primary iron-binding protein in the blood. It helps transport iron from the intestines to the bone marrow, where it is used for red blood cell production. Therefore, TIBC measures the serum iron transporting capacity of transferrin, making it the correct answer.

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  • 36. 

    The presence of which of the following isoenzymes indicates acute myocardial damage?

    • CKMM

    • CKMB

    • CKBB

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. CKMB
    Explanation
    CKMB is an isoenzyme of creatine kinase that is primarily found in the heart muscle. Therefore, the presence of CKMB indicates acute myocardial damage. CKMB levels are typically elevated in the blood following a heart attack or other forms of cardiac injury. This is because CKMB is released into the bloodstream when heart muscle cells are damaged, making it a useful marker for diagnosing acute myocardial damage.

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  • 37. 

    At blood ph  7.40, what is the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid?

    • 15:1

    • 20:1

    • 25:1

    • 30:1

    Correct Answer
    A. 20:1
    Explanation
    The ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid at a blood pH of 7.40 is 20:1. This means that there are 20 times more bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) than carbonic acid (H2CO3) present in the blood at this pH level. This ratio is important for maintaining the acid-base balance in the body, as bicarbonate acts as a buffer to regulate pH levels and prevent excessive acidity.

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  • 38. 

    The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative urine protein is:

    • Subculture the urine for bacteria

    • Add the appropriate preservative

    • Screen for albumin using a dipstick

    • Measure the total volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure the total volume
    Explanation
    The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative urine protein is to measure the total volume. This is important because it allows for accurate calculation of the protein concentration in the urine. By measuring the total volume, the laboratory can determine the amount of protein excreted over a 24-hour period, which is necessary for diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as kidney disease or proteinuria. Subculturing the urine for bacteria, adding the appropriate preservative, and screening for albumin using a dipstick are not the initial steps in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative urine protein.

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  • 39. 

    Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:

    • Tubular secretion of creatinine

    • Glomerular secretion of creatinine

    • Renal glomerular and tubular mass

    • Glomerular filtration rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Glomerular filtration rate
    Explanation
    Creatinine clearance is a measure used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). GFR refers to the rate at which blood is filtered by the glomeruli in the kidneys. By measuring the amount of creatinine in the urine and comparing it to the amount in the blood, creatinine clearance can provide an estimate of how well the kidneys are functioning. Therefore, the correct answer is glomerular filtration rate.

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  • 40. 

    Most of the carbon dioxide present in blood in the form of:

    • Dissolved CO^2

    • Carbonate

    • Bicarbonate ion

    • Carbonic acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Bicarbonate ion
    Explanation
    In the blood, carbon dioxide is mostly present in the form of bicarbonate ions. When carbon dioxide enters the bloodstream, it combines with water to form carbonic acid. This carbonic acid then dissociates into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions. The bicarbonate ions are important for maintaining the pH balance of the blood and are transported to the lungs where they are converted back into carbon dioxide to be exhaled. Therefore, the majority of carbon dioxide in the blood exists as bicarbonate ions.

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  • 41. 

    Turbidity in serum siggest elevation of:

    • Cholesterol

    • Total protein

    • Chylomicrons

    • Albumin

    Correct Answer
    A. Chylomicrons
    Explanation
    Turbidity in serum suggests elevation of chylomicrons. Chylomicrons are large lipoprotein particles that transport dietary triglycerides from the intestines to the body's tissues. When chylomicron levels are elevated, it can lead to increased turbidity in the serum. This can be seen in conditions such as familial hyperlipoproteinemia type I, where there is a deficiency in lipoprotein lipase, the enzyme responsible for breaking down chylomicrons. Elevated chylomicron levels can also be seen in conditions like pancreatitis or malabsorption syndromes.

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  • 42. 

    Rickets is associated with deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

    • Niacin

    • B1

    • D

    • C

    Correct Answer
    A. D
    Explanation
    Rickets is a condition that is associated with a deficiency of vitamin D. Vitamin D plays a crucial role in the body's ability to absorb calcium and phosphorus, which are essential for healthy bone development. Without enough vitamin D, the body is unable to properly mineralize and strengthen bones, leading to the softening and weakening of bones seen in rickets.

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  • 43. 

    Serial bilirubin determinations are charted below.            Day           Collected           Assayed        Result       1                7 AM                   8 AM                14.0 mg/dL (239.4 umol/L)       2                7 AM                   6 PM                9.0   mg/dL (153.9 umol/L)       3                6 AM                   8 AM                15.0 mg/dL (256.5 umol/L) The best explanation for the results is:

    • Sample hemolysis and hemoglobin deterioration

    • Sample exposure to light

    • Sample left in warm location

    • Reagent deterioration

    Correct Answer
    A. Sample exposure to light
    Explanation
    The best explanation for the results is sample exposure to light. This is supported by the fact that the bilirubin levels are higher at 8 AM compared to the levels collected at 7 AM and 6 AM. Bilirubin is known to be sensitive to light, and exposure to light can cause its degradation, leading to higher levels being measured. This is further supported by the fact that the bilirubin levels decrease when the sample is assayed later in the day, indicating that the exposure to light over time has caused the degradation of bilirubin.

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  • 44. 

    A serum sample demonstrates an elevated result when tested with the Jaffe reaction. This indicates:

    • Prolonged hypothermia

    • Renal functional impairment

    • Pregnancy

    • Arrhythmia

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal functional impairment
    Explanation
    The Jaffe reaction is a test used to measure creatinine levels in the blood. Creatinine is a waste product that is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. An elevated result in the Jaffe reaction indicates that there is an increase in creatinine levels, suggesting renal functional impairment. This means that the kidneys are not functioning properly and are unable to filter out waste products effectively.

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  • 45. 

    Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are most characteristically associated with:

    • Hepatocellular carcinoma

    • Alcoholic cirrhosis

    • Chronic active hepatitis

    • Multiple myeloma

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
    Explanation
    Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are most characteristically associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. AFP is a protein that is normally produced by the liver during fetal development but its production decreases after birth. However, in certain conditions like hepatocellular carcinoma, which is a type of liver cancer, the production of AFP increases. Therefore, elevated levels of AFP in adults are highly suggestive of hepatocellular carcinoma. Alcoholic cirrhosis, chronic active hepatitis, and multiple myeloma are not typically associated with increased AFP levels.

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  • 46. 

    If a fasting glucose was 90 mg/dl, which of the following 2hr postprandial glucose results would most closely represent normal glucose metabalism

    • 55 mg/dl (3.0 mmol/L)

    • 100 mg/dl (5.5 mmol/L)

    • 180 mg/dl (9.9 mmol/L)

    • 260 mg/dl (14.3 mmol/L)

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 mg/dl (5.5 mmol/L)
  • 47. 

    Osmolal gap is aa difference between:

    • The ideal and real osmolality values

    • Calculated and measured osmolality values

    • Plasma and water osmolality values

    • Molality and molarity at 4 degres celsius

    Correct Answer
    A. Calculated and measured osmolality values
    Explanation
    The osmolal gap is a difference between the calculated and measured osmolality values. Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solutes in a solution, specifically in this case, in the blood plasma. The calculated osmolality is determined using a formula based on the concentrations of various solutes, while the measured osmolality is determined through laboratory tests. The osmolal gap represents any unaccounted for solutes or errors in the measurement process.

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  • 48. 

    The anion gap is useful for quality control of laboratory results for:

    • Amino acids and proteins

    • Blood gas analyses

    • Sodium, potassium, chloride, and total CO2

    • Calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium, potassium, chloride, and total CO2
    Explanation
    The anion gap is a calculated value that helps to evaluate the balance of electrolytes in the body. It is primarily used in blood gas analyses to assess the levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, and total CO2. By measuring the concentration of these ions, the anion gap can be determined, which can provide valuable information about acid-base balance and the presence of certain metabolic disorders. Monitoring the anion gap is essential for quality control of laboratory results in these specific electrolytes.

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  • 49. 

    Pellagra is associated witg defiency of which of the following vitamins?

    • A

    • B1

    • Niacin

    • Thiamine

    Correct Answer
    A. Niacin
    Explanation
    Pellagra is a disease that is associated with a deficiency of niacin. Niacin, also known as vitamin B3, is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in the body's energy production and metabolism. A deficiency of niacin can lead to symptoms such as dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and even death if left untreated. Therefore, the correct answer is niacin.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 27, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Red_Ghost

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