Quiz On Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)

286 Questions

Settings
EMT Quizzes & Trivia

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?
    • A. 

      100 mm Hg

    • B. 

      150 mm Hg

    • C. 

      200 mm Hg

    • D. 

      300 mm Hg

  • 2. 
    When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate?
    • A. 

      Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip

    • B. 

      Remove paddles and release joules

    • C. 

      Make a list of expired medications

    • D. 

      Remove the battery and recharge

  • 3. 
    When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?
    • A. 

      Age

    • B. 

      Name

    • C. 

      Chief complaint

    • D. 

      Medications and allergies

  • 4. 
    In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on a n ambulance call only
    • A. 

      When the senior medical technician on board approves it

    • B. 

      When local protocol authorizes it

    • C. 

      During the response phase

    • D. 

      During the transport phase

  • 5. 
    The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called
    • A. 

      Expanded primary survey

    • B. 

      Secondary survey

    • C. 

      Trauma history

    • D. 

      Scene sizeup

  • 6. 
    When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle?
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      150

    • D. 

      200

  • 7. 
    When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds y spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status?
    • A. 

      Able

    • B. 

      Alert

    • C. 

      Ambulatory

    • D. 

      Asymptomatic

  • 8. 
    If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide
    • A. 

      High-concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask..

    • B. 

      Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask(BVM) and high flow oxygen.

    • C. 

      High-concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask.

    • D. 

      Low concentration oxygen with nasal cannula.

  • 9. 
    As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above the
    • A. 

      Nose

    • B. 

      Hips

    • C. 

      Neck

    • D. 

      Clavicles

  • 10. 
    A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with
    • A. 

      A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • B. 

      An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • C. 

      A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

    • D. 

      An significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

  • 11. 
    When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about
    • A. 

      Onset

    • B. 

      Quality

    • C. 

      Radiation

    • D. 

      Provocation

  • 12. 
    While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?
    • A. 

      Time

    • B. 

      Quality

    • C. 

      Severity

    • D. 

      Radiation

  • 13. 
    What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident?
    • A. 

      Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members.

    • B. 

      Determining wind flow and type of chemical involved.

    • C. 

      Putting out the fire and gaining access to the patient

    • D. 

      Stabilizing the incident as fast as possible.

  • 14. 
    Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?
    • A. 

      Army field litter

    • B. 

      Long backboard

    • C. 

      Scoop stretcher

    • D. 

      Stoke's basket

  • 15. 
    If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask
    • A. 

      If the patient can walk to determine if you need to call for help

    • B. 

      How old the patient is to determine if you should call another clinic

    • C. 

      What is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device

    • D. 

      If the patient is authorized care at your facility

  • 16. 
    If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the
    • A. 

      Initial patient assessment

    • B. 

      Detailed physical exam

    • C. 

      Initial physical exam

    • D. 

      Vital signs

  • 17. 
    In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of a unstable patient?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 18. 
    Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?
    • A. 

      Range of motion (ROM)

    • B. 

      Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)

    • C. 

      Purified protein derivative (PPD)

    • D. 

      Alert, verbal, painful, unresponsive (AVPU).

  • 19. 
    Which classifications of a fracture are considered more serious because greater blood loss or contamination is possible?
    • A. 

      Open

    • B. 

      Closed

    • C. 

      Internal fixation

    • D. 

      External fixation

  • 20. 
    While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first?
    • A. 

      The patient's visual acuity

    • B. 

      If the patient is experiencing any pain

    • C. 

      Whether the patient is authorized care in this facility

    • D. 

      If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which eye

  • 21. 
    In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?
    • A. 

      Left atrium

    • B. 

      Right atrium

    • C. 

      Left ventricle

    • D. 

      Right ventricle

  • 22. 
    In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's
    • A. 

      Statement that he or she feels dizzy

    • B. 

      Plan to resolve a health issue

    • C. 

      Complaint of headache

    • D. 

      Pulse rate

  • 23. 
    A proctoscopy is an inspection of the
    • A. 

      Rectum

    • B. 

      Sigmoid colon

    • C. 

      Ascending colon

    • D. 

      Transverse colon

  • 24. 
    When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving
    • A. 

      In the opposite direction of hair growth

    • B. 

      In the direction of hair growth

    • C. 

      With facial skin stretched

    • D. 

      With slow strokes

  • 25. 
    The eye can generally see wavelengths between
    • A. 

      200 and 800 nanometers(nm)

    • B. 

      300 and 650 nm

    • C. 

      400 and 750 nm

    • D. 

      500 and 850 nm

  • 26. 
    At what ages is visual acuity at its best?
    • A. 

      20 to 30

    • B. 

      10 to 25

    • C. 

      5 to 15

    • D. 

      15 to 20

  • 27. 
    When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at one second(FEVI) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?
    • A. 

      65

    • B. 

      75

    • C. 

      80

    • D. 

      90

  • 28. 
    During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are
    • A. 

      1;1

    • B. 

      1;2

    • C. 

      2;2

    • D. 

      2;3

  • 29. 
    Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called
    • A. 

      Artifacts

    • B. 

      Disturbances

    • C. 

      Random waves

    • D. 

      Deflection waves

  • 30. 
    What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardigan activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings?
    • A. 

      Arrhythmia

    • B. 

      Cardiac arrest

    • C. 

      Depolarization

    • D. 

      Atrial excitation

  • 31. 
    If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the
    • A. 

      Major command (MAJCOM)

    • B. 

      Local medical examination board (MEB)

    • C. 

      Command level Electrocardiographic Library

    • D. 

      US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library

  • 32. 
    What is another term for orthostatic hypotension?
    • A. 

      Postural hypotension

    • B. 

      Positional hypotension

    • C. 

      Situational hypotension

    • D. 

      Environmental hypotension

  • 33. 
    Notify the nurse of physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below
    • A. 

      88 percent

    • B. 

      90 percent

    • C. 

      97 percent

    • D. 

      100 percent

  • 34. 
    When can the minor surgery procedure begin?
    • A. 

      When the provider says its time

    • B. 

      After the consent form is signed

    • C. 

      Once a set of vitals are repeated

    • D. 

      Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room

  • 35. 
    When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a
    • A. 

      Retractor

    • B. 

      Allis clamp

    • C. 

      Iris scissors

    • D. 

      Mayo scissors

  • 36. 
    When cleaning a two in laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?
    • A. 

      Begin suturing

    • B. 

      Flush the wound

    • C. 

      Clean out the debris with an allis clamp

    • D. 

      Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution

  • 37. 
    After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment what should you do next?
    • A. 

      Apply a sterile dressing

    • B. 

      Assess sensory awareness

    • C. 

      Begin suturing the wound

    • D. 

      Soak the wound in cold water

  • 38. 
    Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure  
    • A. 

      Hypervolemia

    • B. 

      Hypovolemia

    • C. 

      Hyperkalemia

    • D. 

      Hypokalemia

  • 39. 
    What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?
    • A. 

      Hypercalcemia

    • B. 

      Hypocalcemia

    • C. 

      Hyperkalemia

    • D. 

      Hypernatremia

  • 40. 
    Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?
    • A. 

      Metabolic acidosis

    • B. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C. 

      Respiratory acidosis

    • D. 

      Respiratory alkalosis

  • 41. 
    Deficiency in a respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called
    • A. 

      Metabolic acidosis

    • B. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C. 

      Respiratory acidosis

    • D. 

      Respiratory Alkalosis

  • 42. 
    The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to
    • A. 

      Administer fluids into the circulatory system

    • B. 

      Increase overall muscular strength

    • C. 

      Decrease susceptibility to infection

    • D. 

      Control blood loss

  • 43. 
    What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution?
    • A. 

      Use only the bag the nurse has spiked and ready to hang

    • B. 

      Look for cloudiness or floating particles

    • C. 

      Remove protective devices yourself

    • D. 

      Culture the fluid prior to use

  • 44. 
    In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions?
    • A. 

      Vent port

    • B. 

      In-line filter

    • C. 

      Back-check valve

    • D. 

      Self-sealing rubber cover

  • 45. 
    To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on patients scheduled for long-term therapy, how often should you change a patient's intravenous (IV) site?
    • A. 

      Every 24 hours

    • B. 

      Every 24 to 48 hours

    • C. 

      Every 24 to 72 hours

    • D. 

      Every 48 to 72 hours

  • 46. 
    In cubic centimeters (cc), what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution?
    • A. 

      1 to 5 cc

    • B. 

      5 to 10 cc

    • C. 

      10 to 50 cc

    • D. 

      50 to 100 cc

  • 47. 
    Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient?
    • A. 

      Hematest

    • B. 

      Specific gravity

    • C. 

      Sugar and acetone

    • D. 

      Clean catch mid stream

  • 48. 
    What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?
    • A. 

      Call the nurse to come see the patient

    • B. 

      Call the doctor to come seethe patient

    • C. 

      Place it in a gauze pad and take it to the lab

    • D. 

      Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse

  • 49. 
    After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for
    • A. 

      1 to 2 minutes

    • B. 

      2 to 3 minutes

    • C. 

      3 to 4 minutes

    • D. 

      4 to 5 minutes

  • 50. 
    What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?
    • A. 

      Read the operating instructions

    • B. 

      Confirm the order with a co-worker

    • C. 

      Choose a site to obtain a blood sample

    • D. 

      Ask all family members to leave the room

  • 51. 
    The very low-density lipoproteins transport
    • A. 

      Glucose from the small intestine to the liver to be stored as glycogen

    • B. 

      Amino acids to the liver to dispose of most of the cholesterol through bile

    • C. 

      Lipids from the liver to the stomach where they are joined with amino acids

    • D. 

      Triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells

  • 52. 
    Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care?
    • A. 

      Illness

    • B. 

      Wellness

    • C. 

      Diagnosis

    • D. 

      Rehabilitation

  • 53. 
    A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at
    • A. 

      12 months

    • B. 

      18 months

    • C. 

      24 months

    • D. 

      30 months

  • 54. 
    Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?
    • A. 

      Muscle atrophy

    • B. 

      Caring for elderly parents

    • C. 

      Increased cellular oxygen content

    • D. 

      Calcium loss in females is first noticed

  • 55. 
    What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and environment?
    • A. 

      Fitness

    • B. 

      Pure water

    • C. 

      Work site safety

    • D. 

      Psychological wellness

  • 56. 
    Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?
    • A. 

      Blood pressure screenings

    • B. 

      Assessing current fitness status

    • C. 

      Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants

    • D. 

      Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle

  • 57. 
    A good source of protein is?
    • A. 

      Fruits

    • B. 

      Rice

    • C. 

      Poultry

    • D. 

      Vitamins

  • 58. 
    Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by
    • A. 

      Aplastic anemia

    • B. 

      Hemolytic anemia

    • C. 

      Pernicious anemia

    • D. 

      Sickle cell anemia

  • 59. 
    Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with
    • A. 

      Anemia

    • B. 

      Seizures

    • C. 

      Strabismus

    • D. 

      Disfigurement

  • 60. 
    Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except?
    • A. 

      Citrus

    • B. 

      Cheese

    • C. 

      Broccoli

    • D. 

      Tomatoes

  • 61. 
    A sign of vitamin A deficiency include
    • A. 

      Myopia

    • B. 

      Presbyopia

    • C. 

      Night blindness

    • D. 

      Macular degeneration

  • 62. 
    Which ailment is not treated by vitamin K?
    • A. 

      Ulcerative colitis

    • B. 

      Heparin overdose

    • C. 

      Malabsorption syndromes

    • D. 

      Prolonged use of salicylates

  • 63. 
    What percentage of the body's weight are minerals responsible for?
    • A. 

      16

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      2

  • 64. 
    Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen
    • A. 

      During a blood transfusion

    • B. 

      As a result of not using table salt

    • C. 

      When a individual is unable to sink in water

    • D. 

      Through an excessive amount of fluid loss

  • 65. 
    When administering potassium intravenously, you should
    • A. 

      Give in a bolus

    • B. 

      Administer directly through a saline lock

    • C. 

      Mix potassium thoroughly before administration

    • D. 

      Add the potassium to an IV solution bag that is already infusing

  • 66. 
    Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except
    • A. 

      Kale

    • B. 

      Pork

    • C. 

      Salmon

    • D. 

      Turnip greens

  • 67. 
    Which route is injectable iron administered?
    • A. 

      Intra muscular

    • B. 

      Intra venous

    • C. 

      Transdermal

    • D. 

      Z-track

  • 68. 
    Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called
    • A. 

      Salts

    • B. 

      Acids

    • C. 

      Catalyzed

    • D. 

      Synthesized

  • 69. 
    What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis?
    • A. 

      Weak and malaise

    • B. 

      Dizzy and agitated

    • C. 

      Emotional and tired

    • D. 

      Short of breath and confused

  • 70. 
    Complex carbohydrates are called
    • A. 

      Bisaccharides

    • B. 

      Disaccharides

    • C. 

      Polysaccharides

    • D. 

      Monosaccharide's

  • 71. 
    What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?
    • A. 

      Stomach

    • B. 

      Heart

    • C. 

      Brain

    • D. 

      Liver

  • 72. 
    Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of  
    • A. 

      Lipids

    • B. 

      Proteins

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      Carbohydrates

  • 73. 
    Which is an accurate definition of leukocytes
    • A. 

      Protect against disease at the cellular level

    • B. 

      The body's only defense against infection

    • C. 

      Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body

    • D. 

      Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion

  • 74. 
    The life span of lymphocytes is
    • A. 

      12 hours

    • B. 

      2 weeks

    • C. 

      Years

    • D. 

      Days

  • 75. 
    What cells do lymph nods contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?
    • A. 

      Lymphocytes and macrophages

    • B. 

      Polyleukocytes and monocytes

    • C. 

      Monocytes and phagocytes

    • D. 

      Neutrophils and leukocytes

  • 76. 
    The primary central gland of the lymphatic system is the
    • A. 

      Parathyroid glands

    • B. 

      Pituitary gland

    • C. 

      Thymus gland

    • D. 

      Thyroid gland

  • 77. 
    Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body's response is called a
    • A. 

      Secondary immune response

    • B. 

      Primary immune response

    • C. 

      Partial immune response

    • D. 

      Single immune response

  • 78. 
    During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?
    • A. 

      Bruising

    • B. 

      Maturation

    • C. 

      Inflammation

    • D. 

      Reconstruction

  • 79. 
    For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is
    • A. 

      Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes

    • B. 

      Uncoordinated movement, loud voice, sweet smelling breath

    • C. 

      Muscle tremors, behavior changes, rapid pulse rate

    • D. 

      Loud voice, difficulty breathing, muscle tremors

  • 80. 
    What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria?
    • A. 

      The Joint Commission

    • B. 

      Infection Control Committee

    • C. 

      American College of Surgeons

    • D. 

      Center for Disease control and Prevention

  • 81. 
    As a minimum, how frequently should area-specific general operating instructions (OI) be reviewed?
    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Annually

    • C. 

      Every two years

    • D. 

      As needed

  • 82. 
    Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?
    • A. 

      Antigen

    • B. 

      Antibody

    • C. 

      Pathogen

    • D. 

      Micro-organism

  • 83. 
    Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant like organisms that reproduce rapidly?
    • A. 

      Helminths

    • B. 

      Viruses

    • C. 

      Bacteria

    • D. 

      Fungi

  • 84. 
    Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeasts and molds?
    • A. 

      Fungi

    • B. 

      Virus

    • C. 

      Bacteria

    • D. 

      Chlamydiae

  • 85. 
    What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?
    • A. 

      Water and soil

    • B. 

      Cool and dry

    • C. 

      Warm and moist

    • D. 

      Susceptible tissue

  • 86. 
    Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?
    • A. 

      Illness

    • B. 

      Virulence

    • C. 

      Incubation

    • D. 

      Convalescence

  • 87. 
    Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)?
    • A. 

      Prevent the risk of transmission of blood pathogens

    • B. 

      Reduce the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organism's known method of transmission

    • C. 

      Prevent the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organism's known method of reproduction

    • D. 

      Reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals

  • 88. 
    What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated?
    • A. 

      Change into clean clothes before leaving work and throw the clothes in the trash

    • B. 

      Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water

    • C. 

      Wipe off the affected area before leaving work and launder clothes in hot soapy water

    • D. 

      Wipe off the affected area, change into clean clothes and throw dirty clothes away

  • 89. 
    One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea
    • A. 

      Pelvic inflammatory disease

    • B. 

      Irregular menstral cycles

    • C. 

      Vaginal discharge

    • D. 

      Chlamydia

  • 90. 
    A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by
    • A. 

      Using the telephone or locally derived form

    • B. 

      Completing an Air Force (AF) Form 422, Physical Profile

    • C. 

      Paging a Public Health representative to report to the clinic

    • D. 

      Faxing a Standard Form (SF) 600, Chronological Record of Patient Care

  • 91. 
    Which medical term means the absence of infection?
    • A. 

      Antimicrobial

    • B. 

      Antiseptic

    • C. 

      Asepsis

    • D. 

      Sepsis

  • 92. 
    Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?
    • A. 

      Disinfectant

    • B. 

      Antiseptic

    • C. 

      Detergent

    • D. 

      Antitoxin

  • 93. 
    When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on
    • A. 

      After entering the unit, and take it off before leaving

    • B. 

      After entering the unit, and take it off after leaving

    • C. 

      Before entering, and take it off before leaving

    • D. 

      Before entering, and take it off after leaving

  • 94. 
    What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?
    • A. 

      30 days

    • B. 

      45 days

    • C. 

      6 months

    • D. 

      When package integrity is compromised

  • 95. 
    Which is not commonly used disinfecting agent?
    • A. 

      Formaldehydes

    • B. 

      Hydrochloric acid

    • C. 

      Phenolics

    • D. 

      Alcohol

  • 96. 
    What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer?
    • A. 

      Between 112 and 121 degrees F

    • B. 

      Between 122 and 131 degrees F

    • C. 

      Between 215 and 230 degrees F

    • D. 

      Option 4Between 270 and 285 degrees F

  • 97. 
    Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?
    • A. 

      Plastic trays

    • B. 

      Count sheets

    • C. 

      Metal instruments

    • D. 

      Nonmetal instruments

  • 98. 
    What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?
    • A. 

      Patient's full name and date of birth

    • B. 

      Patient's full name and Social Security Number

    • C. 

      Patient's Social Security Number and date of birth

    • D. 

      Patient's last name, age, and Social Security Number

  • 99. 
    What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?
    • A. 

      Risk assessment and control

    • B. 

      Risk management and patient safety

    • C. 

      Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control

    • D. 

      Competent patient-centered care and a culture of safety

  • 100. 
    For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is
    • A. 

      Guilt

    • B. 

      Acceptance

    • C. 

      Fear and anxiety

    • D. 

      Shock and disorientation

  • 101. 
    Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?
    • A. 

      Dentists

    • B. 

      Registered Nurses

    • C. 

      Physician Assistants (PA)

    • D. 

      Certified Nurse Midwives (CNM)

  • 102. 
    What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?
    • A. 

      Patient's condition and the cost of admission per day

    • B. 

      Facility policy and the patient's distance from home

    • C. 

      Patient's condition and the facility policy

    • D. 

      Facility policy and patient's request

  • 103. 
    What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?
    • A. 

      Evaluate patient

    • B. 

      Obtain patient's history

    • C. 

      Transcribe doctor's order

    • D. 

      Obtain patient's vital signs, height and weight

  • 104. 
    Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?
    • A. 

      Pass

    • B. 

      Discharges

    • C. 

      Subsisting elsewhere

    • D. 

      Absent without leave (AWOL)

  • 105. 
    How many pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being areomedically evacuated to another facility?
    • A. 

      56

    • B. 

      66

    • C. 

      76

    • D. 

      10

  • 106. 
    A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered
    • A. 

      On pass

    • B. 

      Subsisting out

    • C. 

      On convalescent leave

    • D. 

      Discharged and an outpatient

  • 107. 
    If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the
    • A. 

      Patient was likely off the unit having tests completed

    • B. 

      Patient is doing well and no problems were noted

    • C. 

      Doctor probably changed the orders verbally

    • D. 

      Vital signs were not completed

  • 108. 
    What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?
    • A. 

      No documentation is required at shift change

    • B. 

      Document all totals in the Remarks section

    • C. 

      Document in the Grand Total book

    • D. 

      Circle the last accumulated total

  • 109. 
    Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?
    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Assessing

    • C. 

      Evaluating

    • D. 

      Implementing

  • 110. 
    Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?
    • A. 

      An observable change in patient behavior

    • B. 

      A measurable change in the patient's condition

    • C. 

      A realistic and measurable statement of end result of care planning

    • D. 

      A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior

  • 111. 
    What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?
    • A. 

      Sedation

    • B. 

      Back message

    • C. 

      Oxygen therapy

    • D. 

      Preoperative teaching

  • 112. 
    What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?
    • A. 

      Credentials of the surgeon

    • B. 

      Availability of a base chaplain

    • C. 

      Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff

    • D. 

      Number of nurses and technicians on staff

  • 113. 
    What is the best reason for prepping the skin prior to surgery?
    • A. 

      Reduces the chance of infection

    • B. 

      Prevents contamination of the operating room (OR)

    • C. 

      Allows for proper suturing of the incision

    • D. 

      Reduces pain when the surgical dressing is removed

  • 114. 
    Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings maybe removed?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 115. 
    What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?
    • A. 

      Isolation is necessary

    • B. 

      No precautions are necessary

    • C. 

      A lead apron is placed over the patient

    • D. 

      Lead aprons are placed on other recovery patients

  • 116. 
    Which position is the bed placed in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient?
    • A. 

      Low

    • B. 

      High

    • C. 

      Fowler's

    • D. 

      Trendelenburg

  • 117. 
    Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?
    • A. 

      Standing hamstring stretches

    • B. 

      Turn, cough and deep breath (TC&DB)

    • C. 

      Diaphragmatic breathing

    • D. 

      Circles with the big toes

  • 118. 
    Which form is used to document a patient's blood transfusion?
    • A. 

      Standard Form 518

    • B. 

      Standard Form 3066

    • C. 

      AF Form 2019

    • D. 

      AF Form 3066

  • 119. 
    How is whole blood normally supplied?
    • A. 

      100 cc units

    • B. 

      250 cc units

    • C. 

      450 cc units

    • D. 

      500 cc units

  • 120. 
    What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      90

  • 121. 
    If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?
    • A. 

      Continue to monitor; this is a normal side effect

    • B. 

      Place the patient on his or her left side

    • C. 

      Administer 100 percent oxygen

    • D. 

      Stop the transfusion

  • 122. 
    Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system?
    • A. 

      Application of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation(TENS) devices

    • B. 

      Injection of long duration local anesthetic into the incisional area

    • C. 

      Administration of oral analgesics

    • D. 

      Administration of narcotics

  • 123. 
    Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?
    • A. 

      Modified lateral

    • B. 

      Trendelenburg

    • C. 

      Semisitting

    • D. 

      Supine

  • 124. 
    Orthopedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as
    • A. 

      Infectious

    • B. 

      Congenital

    • C. 

      Pathologic

    • D. 

      Temporary

  • 125. 
    A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone is called
    • A. 

      Hairline

    • B. 

      Pathologic

    • C. 

      Congenital

    • D. 

      Traumatic

  • 126. 
    The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patient with orthopedic disorders because it
    • A. 

      Causes drop foot

    • B. 

      Causes venous stasis

    • C. 

      Causes external hip rotation

    • D. 

      Promotes flexion deformities of the hip

  • 127. 
    Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?
    • A. 

      Crepitus

    • B. 

      Vibration

    • C. 

      Resonance

    • D. 

      Intonation

  • 128. 
    Pin care is required with what type of reduction of the bone?
    • A. 

      Closed reduction, external fixation

    • B. 

      Closed reduction, internal fixation

    • C. 

      Open reduction, external fixation

    • D. 

      Open reduction, internal fixation

  • 129. 
    What actions, if any, should you take if your patient complains that his/her short le cast feels tight?
    • A. 

      None. It is normal for a cast to feel tight

    • B. 

      Remove the cast

    • C. 

      Bivalve the cast

    • D. 

      Petal the cast

  • 130. 
    The cramping, burning or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a
    • A. 

      Phantom limb pain

    • B. 

      Phantom limb sensation

    • C. 

      Physiological phenomena

    • D. 

      Psychological phenomena

  • 131. 
    What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?
    • A. 

      NG tube

    • B. 

      Tourniquet

    • C. 

      Oxygen

    • D. 

      Suction

  • 132. 
    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause
    • A. 

      Aspiration

    • B. 

      Cardiac arrest

    • C. 

      Disorientation

    • D. 

      Respiratory arrest

  • 133. 
    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally
    • A. 

      A lifelong process

    • B. 

      Of no use because they do not fully recover

    • C. 

      Continued for six months after the injury occurred

    • D. 

      Continued for up to two years after the final surgery

  • 134. 
    The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the
    • A. 

      Dominant right or left side

    • B. 

      Side of the body that is weaker

    • C. 

      Side of the brain that was traumatized

    • D. 

      Position the patient was in when the stroke occurred

  • 135. 
    During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?
    • A. 

      Early infancy

    • B. 

      Preschool

    • C. 

      School age

    • D. 

      Adolescence

  • 136. 
    The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is
    • A. 

      Fantasy

    • B. 

      Projection

    • C. 

      Regression

    • D. 

      Displacement

  • 137. 
    When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be
    • A. 

      Hypernatremia

    • B. 

      Hyperkalemia

    • C. 

      Dehydration

    • D. 

      Aspiration

  • 138. 
    Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?
    • A. 

      The physician needs to suture the child's face

    • B. 

      The child continues to climb out of bed in the night

    • C. 

      To prevent the child from falling out of a highchair

    • D. 

      You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child

  • 139. 
    When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using
    • A. 

      Alcohol

    • B. 

      Lotion

    • C. 

      Lanolin

    • D. 

      Antiseptic soap

  • 140. 
    How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?
    • A. 

      Explain the importance of nutrition

    • B. 

      Ask the patient to try new foods

    • C. 

      Cater to the patient's custom

    • D. 

      Bring a tray full of choices

  • 141. 
    Which is a sign of uremia?
    • A. 

      Oliguria

    • B. 

      Hematuria

    • C. 

      Polyuria

    • D. 

      Dysuria

  • 142. 
    The first stage of dying is
    • A. 

      Bargaining

    • B. 

      Depression

    • C. 

      Anger

    • D. 

      Deinal

  • 143. 
    All that a person is, feels and does is generally termed
    • A. 

      Environment

    • B. 

      Personality

    • C. 

      Character

    • D. 

      Heredity

  • 144. 
    What affects an individual's feeling about themselves?
    • A. 

      Socioeconomic status

    • B. 

      Opinions of others

    • C. 

      Self-perception

    • D. 

      Job title

  • 145. 
    Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?
    • A. 

      Compulsion

    • B. 

      Delusion

    • C. 

      Anxiety

    • D. 

      Conflict

  • 146. 
    Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and well-being, flight of ideas and physical overactivity?
    • A. 

      Neurosis

    • B. 

      Mania

    • C. 

      Obsession

    • D. 

      Psychosis

  • 147. 
    Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be
    • A. 

      Excited

    • B. 

      Consistent

    • C. 

      Demanding

    • D. 

      Unsympathetic

  • 148. 
    A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior and hurt displays a behavior of
    • A. 

      Withdrawal

    • B. 

      Suspicion

    • C. 

      Anxiety

    • D. 

      Anger

  • 149. 
    When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?
    • A. 

      During preadmission

    • B. 

      Within 12 hours of admission

    • C. 

      Within 24 hours of admission

    • D. 

      As soon as the patient is admitted

  • 150. 
    What is the primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient?
    • A. 

      Strengthening the patient's defenses

    • B. 

      Group therapy to prevent relapse

    • C. 

      Prevention of regression

    • D. 

      Social action follow-up

  • 151. 
    When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is
    • A. 

      Behavior

    • B. 

      Appearance

    • C. 

      Conversation

    • D. 

      Sleeping habits

  • 152. 
    Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except
    • A. 

      Hypnosis

    • B. 

      Psychoanalysis

    • C. 

      Occupational therapy

    • D. 

      Electroconvulsive therapy(ECT)

  • 153. 
    What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises?
    • A. 

      Report the suspected abuse

    • B. 

      Only report if the parents admits abuse

    • C. 

      Counsel the parent on his or her actions.

    • D. 

       Nothing, the technician is not responsible for reporting abuse.

  • 154. 
    What occurs in the third and final phase of spousal abuse? 
    • A. 

      Counseling is sought.

    • B. 

      Tension and stress builds.

    • C. 

      Physical or verbal abuse occurs.

    • D. 

      Spouse states it will never happen again.

  • 155. 
    Which drug classification causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing? 
    • A. 

      Depressant.

    • B. 

      Narcotic

    • C. 

      Alcohol.

    • D. 

      Stimulant.

  • 156. 
    What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused a substance? 
    • A. 

      Draw blood for alcohol and drug testing.

    • B. 

      Monitor vital signs and sustain life.

    • C. 

      Contact the First Sergeant.

    • D. 

      Contact Security Forces.

  • 157. 
    For patients who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to 
    • A. 

      Schedule the activities for afternoon or evenings.

    • B. 

      Begin the program early in the patient's hospital stay.

    • C. 

      Plan the activities in conjunction with pain medications.

    • D. 

      Provide reassurance and a clear explanation of the program.

  • 158. 
    When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, your primary goal should be to 
    • A. 

      Motivate the patient.

    • B. 

      Reassure the patient.

    • C. 

      Show sincere concern.

    • D. 

      Develop a good rapport. d. develop a good rapport. develop a good rapport. d. develop a good rapport. develop a good rapport. d. develop a good rapport. develop a good rapport.

  • 159. 
    What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile? 
    • A. 

      Involve the patient in group therapy sessions.

    • B. 

      Allow the patient to become physically abusive.

    • C. 

      Refer the patient to the nurse or physician for counseling.

    • D. 

      Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression.

  • 160. 
    To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every 
    • A. 

      One hour.

    • B. 

      Two hours.

    • C. 

      Three hours.

    • D. 

      Four hours.

  • 161. 
    Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing? 
    • A. 

      Prevent back, hip, and leg strain.

    • B. 

      Prevent back, hip, and neck strain.

    • C. 

      Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain.

    • D. 

      Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and neck strain.

  • 162. 
    To use the internal girdle of support, you must 
    • A. 

      Simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles.

    • B. 

      Simultaneously contract abdominal and shoulder muscles.

    • C. 

      Contract buttocks muscles and relax abdominal muscles.

    • D. 

      Contract abdominal muscles and relax buttocks muscles.

  • 163. 
    Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed? 
    • A. 

      Size and capabilities of the patient.

    • B. 

      Size and capabilities of the technicians.

    • C. 

      Size of the patient and capabilities of the technicians.

    • D. 

      Size of the patient, capabilities of the technicians, and available equipment.

  • 164. 
    When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient? 
    • A. 

      Do not push too hard.

    • B. 

      Raise the far siderail.

    • C. 

      Raise the near siderail.

    • D. 

      Lock the wheels on the bed. b. Raise the far siderail. Lock the wheels on the bed. b. Raise the far siderail. Lock the wheels on the bed.

  • 165. 
    The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned 
    • A. 

      Near patient's shoulder furthest from stretcher.

    • B. 

      At the bottom of the bed on the stretcher side.

    • C. 

      At the head of the bed on the stretcher side.

    • D. 

      Near patient's shoulder closest to stretcher.

  • 166. 
    Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher?
    • A. 

      Drawsheet and trapeze.

    • B. 

      Drawsheet and roller board.

    • C. 

      Drawsheet and patient hoist.

    • D. 

      Roller board and patient hoist.

  • 167. 
    When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands?
    • A. 

      Beside the patient with your near arm interlocked with the patient's near arm.

    • B. 

      Beside the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under his or her near arm.

    • C. 

      Beside and a little behind the patient with your near arm interlocked with the patient's near arm. 

    • D. 

      Beside and a little behind the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under the patient's near arm.

  • 168. 
    Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs? 
    • A. 

      Two-point.

    • B. 

      Three-point.

    • C. 

      Four-point.

    • D. 

      Swing-through.

  • 169. 
    Which type of patient exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise? 
    • A. 

      Isometric.

    • B. 

      Isotonic.

    • C. 

      Passive.

    • D. 

      Active.

  • 170. 
     Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while holding their breath when performing isometric exercises as that may cause 
    • A. 

      Muscle strain.

    • B. 

      Heart attack.

    • C. 

      Dizziness.

    • D. 

      Acidosis.

  • 171. 
    What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract?
    • A. 

      Soft.

    • B. 

      Bland.

    • C. 

      Liquid.

    • D. 

      Regular.

  • 172. 
    The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than three days is the 
    • A. 

      Soft diet.

    • B. 

      Full liquid.

    • C. 

      Clear liquid.

    • D. 

      Mineral-restricted.

  • 173. 
    Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the patient's nasogastric (NG) tube? 
    • A. 

      Check the physician's orders.

    • B. 

      Check for tube placement.

    • C. 

      Inform the patient.

    • D. 

      Wash your hands. b. Check for tube placement. Wash your hands. b. Check for tube placement. Wash your hands. b. Check for tube placement. Wash your hands.

  • 174. 
    What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage? 
    • A. 

      Hot.

    • B. 

      Chilled.

    • C. 

      Lukewarm.

    • D. 

      Room temperature.

  • 175. 
    During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted? 
    • A. 

      20°, 4 to 5 inches.

    • B. 

      30°, 6 to 10 inches.

    • C. 

      60°, 4 to 5 inches.

    • D. 

      90°, 6 to 10 inches.

  • 176. 
    During catheterization of a female patient, how many inches (how far) is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder?
    • A. 

      2 to 3.

    • B. 

      3 to 4.

    • C. 

      4 to 5.

    • D. 

      5 to 6

  • 177. 
    When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram (g) of diaper weight is equal to  a. one milliliter (ml). 
    • A. 

      One milliliter (ml).

    • B. 

      Two ml.

    • C. 

      three ml.

    • D. 

      four ml.

  • 178. 
    For administration of an enema, the patient is preferably positioned 
    • A. 

      Prone.

    • B. 

      Supine.

    • C. 

      On his or her left side.

    • D. 

      On his or her right side.

  • 179. 
    Colostomy irrigations are performed to 
    • A. 

      Prevent the patient from having to wear an ostomy appliance.

    • B. 

      Keep the bowel empty as much as possible.

    • C. 

      Prevent the possibility of odors.

    • D. 

      Establish fecal control.

  • 180. 
    What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range? 
    • A. 

      85 to 88 percent.

    • B. 

      89 to 91 percent.

    • C. 

      92 to 95 percent.

    • D. 

      95 to 98 percent.

  • 181. 
    What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream? 
    • A. 

      Metabolic acidosis.

    • B. 

      Metabolic alkalosis.

    • C. 

      Respiratory acidosis.

    • D. 

      Respiratory alkalosis.

  • 182. 
    When using an oxygen tent, how frequently should oxygen concentrations and temperature be checked? 
    • A. 

      1 to 2 hours.

    • B. 

      3 to 4 hours.

    • C. 

      4 to 8 hours.

    • D. 

      8 to 12 hours.

  • 183. 
    For patients using a nonrebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is 
    • A. 

      30 to 40 percent.

    • B. 

      40 to 50 percent.

    • C. 

      60 to 90 percent.

    • D. 

      80 to 100 percent.

  • 184. 
    What action(s) should you take when moving a patient on a venturi mask? 
    • A. 

      Monitor in transport.

    • B. 

      Reduce oxygen flow in transport.

    • C. 

      Monitor in transport and reassess patient on arrival.

    • D. 

      Reduce oxygen flow in transport and reassess patient on arrival.

  • 185. 
    What complications could occur to the patient following a thoracentesis? 
    • A. 

      Shock, bleeding, and dyspnea.

    • B. 

      Hypertension, tachycardia, and dyspnea.

    • C. 

      Bleeding and increase in distance between systolic and diastolic blood pressures.

    • D. 

      Dyspnea and decrease in distance between systolic and diastolic blood pressures.

  • 186. 
    Closed-chest drainage is a drainage system used to 
    • A. 

      Deflate the chest cavity.

    • B. 

      Deflate a collapsed lung.

    • C. 

      Reexpand a collapsed lung.

    • D. 

      Reexpand the chest cavity.

  • 187. 
    What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia? 
    • A. 

      Palpitations.

    • B. 

      Syncope.

    • C. 

      Dyspnea.

    • D. 

      Fatigue.

  • 188. 
    The physiological function that the heart sound S1 ("lub") is associated with is 
    • A. 

      Closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves.

    • B. 

      Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves.

    • C. 

      Opening of the aortic and pulmonic valves.

    • D. 

      Opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves

  • 189. 
    When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism? 
    • A. 

      Webber.

    • B. 

      Valsalva.

    • C. 

      Vagal.

    • D. 

      Allen.

  • 190. 
    What position should a patient be placed in for insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein? 
    • A. 

      Left lateral recumbent.

    • B. 

      Right lateral recumbent.

    • C. 

      Trendelenburg.

    • D. 

      Supine.

  • 191. 
    As a minimum, how many minutes should you irrigate a patient's eye with chemical burns? 
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      20.

    • D. 

      30.

  • 192. 
    How are corneal abrasions detected? 
    • A. 

      X-ray.

    • B. 

      Venogram.

    • C. 

      Angiogram.

    • D. 

      Fluorescein stain.

  • 193. 
    There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within how many minutes of the accident? 
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      40

  • 194. 
    Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn? 
    • A. 

      Superficial.

    • B. 

      Full thickness.

    • C. 

      Partial thickness.

    • D. 

      Severe thickness.

  • 195. 
    A burn is classified as moderate if it involves 
    • A. 

      Full-thickness burns that involve 2 to 10 percent of the body surface.

    • B. 

      Partial thickness burns that involve less than 15 percent of the body surface.

    • C. 

      Partial thickness burns involving more than 30 percent of the body surface.

    • D. 

      Full-thickness burns involving more than 10 percent of the body surface.

  • 196. 
    When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, your first priority is
    • A. 

      To apply sterile dressings to the burn sites.

    • B. 

      Management of the patient's airway.

    • C. 

      Evaluate extent of the burn.

    • D. 

      Infection control.

  • 197. 
    How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound? 
    • A. 

      Dry

    • B. 

      Wet.

    • C. 

      Wet to dry.

    • D. 

      Wet to wet.

  • 198. 
    What is the proper sequence for cleaning a wound? 
    • A. 

      Remove old dressing, don sterile gloves, wipe from the wound out.

    • B. 

      Remove old dressing, don sterile gloves, wipe towards the wound.

    • C. 

      Apply sterile gloves, remove old dressing wipe from the wound out.

    • D. 

      Apply sterile gloves, remove old dressing, wipe towards the wound.

  • 199. 
    What reflex action would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time? 
    • A. 

      Reflex vasoconstriction.

    • B. 

      Reflex vasodilatation.

    • C. 

      Babinski's reflex.

    • D. 

      Haab's reflex.

  • 200. 
     How do you apply moist heat? 
    • A. 

      Fill a water bottle with hot water and place on affected area.

    • B. 

      Moisten a towel and place between heat application and patient.

    • C. 

      Wash the affected area with warm water then apply a heat source.

    • D. 

      Place the patient under a heat lamp and use a spray bottle to dampen skin

  • 201. 
    A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as 
    • A. 

      Pharmacist

    • B. 

      Clinical provider

    • C. 

      Clinical pharmacist

    • D. 

      Pharmaceutical technician

  • 202. 
    Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer? 
    • A. 

      Trade name

    • B. 

      Official name

    • C. 

      Generic name

    • D. 

      Chemical name

  • 203. 
    Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration? 
    • A. 

      Technicians are not trained to prepare medications for administration.

    • B. 

      A nurse or physician must directly observe technicians when they are administering medication.

    • C. 

      Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician.

    • D. 

      Nurses can always allow technicians to decide on their own to administer a medication if the decision is in the patients best interest.

  • 204. 
    Which statement is not considered one of the patients legal and ethical rights?
    • A. 

      Be informed of a drugs name

    • B. 

      Be informed of a drugs purpose

    • C. 

      Choice the method of administration

    • D. 

      Receive clearly labeled medication containers

  • 205. 
    What form should be filled out when reporting a medication error? 
    • A. 

      AF Form 765

    • B. 

      AF Form 786

    • C. 

      AF Form 3066

    • D. 

      AF Form 3069

  • 206. 
    How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Five.

  • 207. 
    What so many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when copying a drug order?
    • A. 

      Kardex.

    • B. 

      Medication card.

    • C. 

      Telephone consults.

    • D. 

      Computer-generated product.

  • 208. 
    Drug administration is controlled primarily by
    • A. 

      State amendments.

    • B. 

      Facility mandate.

    • C. 

      Federal law.

    • D. 

      State law.

  • 209. 
    Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have a high potential for abuse, but have acceptable medical uses are classified as
    • A. 

      Schedule I

    • B. 

      Schedule II

    • C. 

      Schedule III

    • D. 

      Schedule IV

  • 210. 
    What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?
    • A. 

      Drug regulatory act.

    • B. 

      Drug control regulation

    • C. 

      Controlled substances act

    • D. 

      Attorney general mandate of 1974

  • 211. 
    As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage be monitored?
    • A. 

      Beginning of each shift.

    • B. 

      Once per day.

    • C. 

      Once per week.

    • D. 

      Once per month.

  • 212. 
    Penicillin administered to treat and infection is an example of what category of drugs?
    • A. 

      Chemotherapeutic

    • B. 

      Substitutive

    • C. 

      Supportive

    • D. 

      Curative

  • 213. 
    The process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as 
    • A. 

      Osmosis

    • B. 

      Solubility

    • C. 

      Absorption

    • D. 

      Stimulation

  • 214. 
     A patients weight is a factor in a drug action due to 
    • A. 

      Acid content

    • B. 

      Water content

    • C. 

      Enzyme production

    • D. 

      Body fat absorption

  • 215. 
    Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting? 
    • A. 

      Slower circulation level.

    • B. 

      Higher body metabolism.

    • C. 

      Lower body metabolism.

    • D. 

      Lower digestive system content.

  • 216. 
    Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?   
    • A. 

      Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action.

    • B. 

      Warmer temperatures decrease circulation and cause slow drug action.

    • C. 

      Colder temperatures cause blood vessels to dilate cause slow drug action.

    • D. 

      Colder temperatures cause blood vessels to constrict cause rapid drug action.

  • 217. 
    Which of these is a common reference source for drugs? 
    • A. 

      Internet search.

    • B. 

      Physician Desk Reference.

    • C. 

      Nurse's Pharmacy Handbook.

    • D. 

      Technicians Pharmacy Handbook.

  • 218. 
    A finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a 
    • A. 

      Pill.

    • B. 

      Paste.

    • C. 

      Powder.

    • D. 

      Tincture.

  • 219. 
    What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content? 
    • A. 

      Antiarrhythmics.

    • B. 

      Antiemetics.

    • C. 

      Cathartics.

    • D. 

      Antacids.

  • 220. 
    Which element is not required on a medication order? 
    • A. 

      Patient's age.

    • B. 

      Patient's name.

    • C. 

      Specified time.

    • D. 

      Provider's signature.

  • 221. 
     Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except 
    • A. 

      For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day.

    • B. 

      Performing all steps in the six medication rights.

    • C. 

      Being knowledgeable of the side effects of the medication.

    • D. 

      Verifying any possible interactions against current medications.

  • 222. 
    How many pounds are equal to 65 kg? 
    • A. 

      130.

    • B. 

      143.

    • C. 

      152.

    • D. 

      170.

  • 223. 
    Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5 mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50 mg/mL. How many mLs of the Ancef will be given for each dose? 
    • A. 

      5.0.

    • B. 

      0.6.

    • C. 

      6.5.

    • D. 

      65.

  • 224. 
    LtCol McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscularly to A1C Jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mLs would you administer? 
    • A. 

      0.25

    • B. 

      0.50

    • C. 

      2.5

    • D. 

      5.0

  • 225. 
     The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is 
    • A. 

      Intravenous (IV) push.

    • B. 

      Intramuscular (IM).

    • C. 

      Subcutaneous (sc).

    • D. 

      IV drip.

  • 226. 
    Name the parts of a needle. 
    • A. 

      Hub, shaft, and bevel.

    • B. 

      Cylinder, shank, and tip.

    • C. 

      Barrel, bevel, and gauges.

    • D. 

      Hub, tip, and calibrations.

  • 227. 
     What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system? 
    • A. 

      Oral.

    • B. 

      Buccal.

    • C. 

      Inhalation.

    • D. 

      Sublingual (SL).

  • 228. 
    To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location? 
    • A. 

      In the pharmacy.

    • B. 

      At a work station.

    • C. 

      At the nurses' station.

    • D. 

      At the patient's bedside.

  • 229. 
    Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication? 
    • A. 

      Unconscious patients cannot be treated.

    • B. 

      Positive-pressure devices are sometimes used.

    • C. 

      Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult.

    • D. 

      Respiratory distress is not relieved through the use of an inhalation.

  • 230. 
    When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to 
    • A. 

      Maintain patient comfort.

    • B. 

      Keep the medication off the patient's face.

    • C. 

      Prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye.

    • D. 

      Allow the solution to pool in the affected eye, filling the conjunctival sac.

  • 231. 
    Into what body cavity are otic medications administered? 
    • A. 

      External auditory canal.

    • B. 

      Internal auditory canal.

    • C. 

      Lower conjunctival sac.

    • D. 

      Upper conjunctival sac.

  • 232. 
    To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe 
    • A. 

      Down to straighten the canal. ​​​​​​​

    • B. 

      Outward to expose the canal.

    • C. 

      Inward to confine the canal.

    • D. 

      Up to shorten the canal.

  • 233. 
    Vaginal suppositories are 
    • A. 

      Cooled before administration.

    • B. 

      Useful for cleansing purposes.

    • C. 

      Administered to combat infection.

    • D. 

      Administered along the anterior wall of the vagina.

  • 234. 
    When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag? 
    • A. 

      4 to 8 inches.

    • B. 

      6 to 10 inches.

    • C. 

      12 to 18 inches.

    • D. 

      24 to 36 inches.

  • 235. 
    Which medication's primary action is pain relief? 
    • A. 

      Endorphins, hypnotics and sedatives.

    • B. 

      Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics.

    • C. 

      Placebo, tricyclics, and analgesics.

    • D. 

      Stimulant, sedatives, and placebo. b. Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics. Stimulant, sedatives, and placebo. b. Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics. Stimulant, sedatives, and placebo.

  • 236. 
    Opioids are contraindicated with 
    • A. 

      The treatment of extremity injuries.

    • B. 

      A Phenergan combination.

    • C. 

      Head injury treatment.

    • D. 

      Caffeine use.

  • 237. 
    Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of 
    • A. 

      Acetaminophen overdose.

    • B. 

      Ibuprofen overdose.

    • C. 

      Vitamin C overdose.

    • D. 

      Opioid overdose.

  • 238. 
    Nonopioid analgesics are available 
    • A. 

      Through product sampling. 

    • B. 

      During clinical trials.

    • C. 

      by prescription only.

    • D. 

      Over the counter. d. over the counter. over the counter. d. over the counter. over the counter. d. over the counter. over the counter.

  • 239. 
    Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with 
    • A. 

      Preventing the formation of prostaglandins.

    • B. 

      The recovery of alcohol abuse.

    • C. 

      Increased kidney functions. 

    • D. 

      Curing joint dysfunctions.

  • 240. 
     A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is 
    • A. 

      A depressed state of rapid eye movement (REM) phase of sleep.

    • B. 

      An increased risk for developing cardiovascular disease.

    • C. 

      The constant stimulation to the central nervous system.

    • D. 

      The high level of red blood cell production.

  • 241. 
    Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence? 
    • A. 

      Dexadrine.

    • B. 

      Concerta. 

    • C. 

      Caffeine.

    • D. 

      Ritalin.

  • 242. 
    What is not a side effects of tricyclics? 
    • A. 

      Urinary retention.

    • B. 

      Pupil constriction. 

    • C. 

      Cardiac arrhythmias.

    • D. 

      Postural hypotension.

  • 243. 
    Antianxiety medications are prescribed for 
    • A. 

      Suicidal tendencies treatment. ​​​​​​​

    • B. 

      The treatment of withdrawals.

    • C. 

      Prolonged treatment.

    • D. 

      The treat of insomnia.

  • 244. 
    Antipsychotic medications are categorized as 
    • A. 

      Hypnotics.

    • B. 

      Major tranquilizers.

    • C. 

      Seizure medications.

    • D. 

      Antisynovial producers.

  • 245. 
    Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) common to typical phenothiazines antipsychotic medications is a result of 
    • A. 

      Increasing body secretion function.

    • B. 

      Decreasing norepinephrine relay.

    • C. 

      Increasing serotonin reuptake.

    • D. 

      Blocking dopamine receptors.

  • 246. 
    Which pulse point should be checked before the administration of digitalis? 
    • A. 

      Brachial.

    • B. 

      Apical.

    • C. 

      Radial.

    • D. 

      Pedal.

  • 247. 
    Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except 
    • A. 

      Vertigo.

    • B. 

      Diplopia.

    • C. 

      Tachycardia.

    • D. 

      Bradycardia.

  • 248. 
    Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with 
    • A. 

      Lung conditions that cause bronchospasm.

    • B. 

      Heart block and congestive heart failure.

    • C. 

      Renal and hepatic impairment.

    • D. 

      Diabetes militeus.

  • 249. 
    Calcium channel blockers should not be taken with 
    • A. 

      Grapefruit juice.

    • B. 

      Soy products.

    • C. 

      Water.

    • D. 

      Milk.

  • 250. 
    The drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions associated with a myocardial infarction is 
    • A. 

      Epinephrine.

    • B. 

      Lidocaine.

    • C. 

      Tonocard.

    • D. 

      Ultram.

  • 251. 
    Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to 
    • A. 

      Treat anemia.

    • B. 

      Produce bradycardia.

    • C. 

      Increase myocardial excitability.

    • D. 

      Maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion.

  • 252. 
    What is the most common side effect of antihypertensives? 
    • A. 

      Tinnitus.

    • B. 

      Tachycardia.

    • C. 

      Vasoconstriction.

    • D. 

      Postural hypotension.

  • 253. 
    Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by 
    • A. 

      Antagonizing myocardial excitability.

    • B. 

      Producing the enzyme protease.

    • C. 

      decreasing vasoconstriction.

    • D. 

      increasing heart rate.

  • 254. 
     When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, what affect is produced? 
    • A. 

      Antagonize hypokalemia.

    • B. 

      Potentiate hypotension.

    • C. 

      Potentiate depression.

    • D. 

      Synergism.

  • 255. 
    Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are usually combined with 
    • A. 

      Barbiturates.

    • B. 

      Stimulants.

    • C. 

      Diuretics.

    • D. 

      Aspirin.

  • 256. 
    What is the primary side effect of central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors? 
    • A. 

      Swelling to lower extremities.

    • B. 

      Sodium and water retention.

    • C. 

      Severe rhinitis.

    • D. 

      Polyuria.

  • 257. 
    What antidote is administered for serious bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy? 
    • A. 

      Protamine sulfate.

    • B. 

      Vitamin B12.

    • C. 

      Vitamin K.

    • D. 

      Heparin.

  • 258. 
    Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment. Mr. Johnson's daughter has received education from the nurse at the hospital regarding the heparin treatment. What patient education instructions would Mr. Johnson's daughter receive in regards to the site of the heparin injection? 
    • A. 

      Give injections in close proximity.

    • B. 

      Rub injection site vigorously.

    • C. 

      Give intramuscular.

    • D. 

      Do not aspirate.

  • 259. 
    While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin 
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      D

    • C. 

      E

    • D. 

      K

  • 260. 
    The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is 
    • A. 

      Bleeding.

    • B. 

      Arrhythmia.

    • C. 

      Tachycardia.

    • D. 

      Vasoconstriction.

  • 261. 
    Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of? 
    • A. 

      Excessive gas.

    • B. 

      Constipation.

    • C. 

      Vomiting.

    • D. 

      Diarrhea.

  • 262. 
    What is a potential side effect when antacids are taken concurrently with coumarin derivatives? 
    • A. 

      Antagonist effect on the coumarin.

    • B. 

      Both medications are synergistic.

    • C. 

      Decreases bleeding time.

    • D. 

      Increase bleeding time.

  • 263. 
    Which medication acts as an absorbent and protectant to achieve a drying effect to the gastrointestinal tract? 
    • A. 

      Tums.

    • B. 

      Riopan.

    • C. 

      Maalox.

    • D. 

      Kaopectate.

  • 264. 
    Cathartics are categorized as 
    • A. 

      Antidiarrheal.

    • B. 

      Antiemetics.

    • C. 

      Laxatives.

    • D. 

      Emetics.

  • 265. 
     What type of laxative is sorbitol? 
    • A. 

      Saline.

    • B. 

      Stimulant.

    • C. 

      Hyperosmotic.

    • D. 

      Bulk forming.

  • 266. 
    When should Dramamine be taken when orally administered?
    • A. 

      2 hours before expected sleep.

    • B. 

      30 minutes before expected motion.

    • C. 

      When in a large crowd for longer than 30 minutes.

    • D. 

      When activity will raise heart rate over 80 beats per minute.

  • 267. 
    Among the endocrine medications, what drug action category do adrenal corticosteroids fall within? 
    • A. 

      Curative.

    • B. 

      Palliative.

    • C. 

      Restorative.

    • D. 

      Supportive.

  • 268. 
     Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection? 
    • A. 

      Insulin.

    • B. 

      Tapazole.

    • C. 

      Corticosteroids.

    • D. 

      Thyroid agents.

  • 269. 
    A major contributor of young children developing type II diabetes is 
    • A. 

      Family history.

    • B. 

      Increased obesity.

    • C. 

      Too much exercise.

    • D. 

      Excessive sugar in their diet.

  • 270. 
    With type I diabetes, the pancreas 
    • A. 

      Releases more glycogen into the blood for the cells to use for energy.

    • B. 

      Produces excessive amounts of insulin to control blood sugar.

    • C. 

      takes over the production of bile salts to control blood sugar.

    • D. 

      Is unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar.

  • 271. 
    Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with 
    • A. 

      Daypro or antacids.

    • B. 

      Alcohol or salicylates.

    • C. 

      Triclyclics or caffeine.

    • D. 

      Procardia or anticoagulants.

  • 272. 
    What are the actions of sulfonylurea medications? 
    • A. 

      Decrease the absorption of the blood sugar by the stomach to use the sugar for the cells.

    • B. 

      Decrease the insulin production of the gall bladder for better peripheral insulin activity.

    • C. 

      Increase the absorption of the blood sugar to be excreted rapidly through the kidneys.

    • D. 

      Increase the insulin production of the pancreas and better peripheral insulin activity.

  • 273. 
    Aminoglycosides are used for 
    • A. 

      Short term treatment.

    • B. 

      Long term treatment.

    • C. 

      The treatment of tinnitus.

    • D. 

      The treatment of renal dysfunction

  • 274. 
    Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also most likely to be allergic to 
    • A. 

      Macrolides.

    • B. 

      Tetracyclines.

    • C. 

      Cephalosporins.

    • D. 

      Aminoglycosides.

  • 275. 
    When a patient is receiving penicillin for the treatment of severe strep throat, what further patient-education is appropriate if the patient is also taking oral contraceptives for birth control? 
    • A. 

      Use a back up method of birth control while taking the penicillin.

    • B. 

      There are no contraindications with oral contraceptives.

    • C. 

      Avoid taking the two medications at the same time.

    • D. 

      Always take the two medications at the same time.

  • 276. 
    If after five days of the penicillin treatment the patient develops diarrhea, what advice would be appropriate? 
    • A. 

      Stop taking the medication.

    • B. 

      Crush the penicillin before taking the dose.

    • C. 

      Add yogurt or buttermilk to her diet and monitor the number of episodes.

    • D. 

      Bring the medication in to exchange for a different lot to begin treatment over.

  • 277. 
    Which medication can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest? 
    • A. 

      Tetracyclines.

    • B. 

      Theophyline.

    • C. 

      Gentamycin.

    • D. 

      Procardia.

  • 278. 
    Which vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products?
    • A. 

      Anthrax

    • B. 

      Influenza

    • C. 

      Small Pox

    • D. 

      Hep B

  • 279. 
    Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of...
    • A. 

      Contaminated food or water

    • B. 

      Droplets through the air

    • C. 

      Blood and body fluids

    • D. 

      Reused linen

  • 280. 
    Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the AF?
    • A. 

      Small pox

    • B. 

      Influenza

    • C. 

      Anthrax

    • D. 

      Tetanus

  • 281. 
    What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa?
    • A. 

      Hepatitis and polio

    • B. 

      Anthrax and influenza

    • C. 

      Small pox and varicella

    • D. 

      Yellow fever and typhoid

  • 282. 
    Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 and in early 2000s the vaccine was reintroduced as a mobility vaccine for military personnel?
    • A. 

      Typhoid

    • B. 

      Varicella

    • C. 

      Small Pox

    • D. 

      Yellow fever

  • 283. 
    Which viral disease do mosquitos transmit?
    • A. 

      Yellow fever

    • B. 

      Influenza

    • C. 

      Typhoid

    • D. 

      Anthrax

  • 284. 
    What type of medication would be prescribed for a pt with allergies to grass and tree pollen?
    • A. 

      Antineoplastics

    • B. 

      Antihistimines

    • C. 

      Antifungals

    • D. 

      Antivirals

  • 285. 
    What pt-education would be appropriate for a pt who has been prescribed tessalon perles to help stop coughing?
    • A. 

      Take only at bedtime

    • B. 

      Take with orange juice

    • C. 

      Do not chew the capsule

    • D. 

      Do not take with food or milk

  • 286. 
    What food or drink is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines and sedative-hypnotic drugs?
    • A. 

      Milk

    • B. 

      Bread

    • C. 

      Cranberry juice

    • D. 

      Grapefruit juice