Quiz On Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)

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1/286 Questions

How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?
- 100 mm Hg
- 150 mm Hg
- 200 mm Hg
- 300 mm Hg

About This Quiz

This EMT quiz assesses critical skills and knowledge required for emergency medical technicians. It covers equipment usage, communication protocols, and scene assessment, crucial for effective emergency response and patient care.

Quiz On Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) - Quiz

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2.

When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate?
- Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip
- Remove paddles and release joules
- Make a list of expired medications
- Remove the battery and recharge
Correct Answer

A. Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip

Explanation

After ensuring that the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate, the next step is to annotate the date and time on a rhythm strip. This is important for documentation purposes and helps in tracking the patient's progress and any changes in their cardiac rhythm over time. It provides a clear record of when the rhythm strip was taken and can be used for future reference or comparison.

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3.

When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?
- Age
- Name
- Chief complaint
- Medications and allergies
Correct Answer

A. Name

Explanation

When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, the name should not be broadcast. This is because sharing a patient's name over a public channel can violate their privacy and confidentiality. It is important to protect patient information and only share necessary details that are relevant to their medical condition.

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1
4.

In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on a n ambulance call only
- When the senior medical technician on board approves it
- When local protocol authorizes it
- During the response phase
- During the transport phase
Correct Answer

A. When local protocol authorizes it

Explanation

The correct answer is when local protocol authorizes it. This means that the use of lights and sirens on an ambulance call in the Air Force is only allowed when the local protocol, which could be specific rules or guidelines set by the local authorities or medical facilities, permits it. This ensures that the use of lights and sirens is regulated and used appropriately based on the specific circumstances and needs of each situation.

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1
5.

The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called
- Expanded primary survey
- Secondary survey
- Trauma history
- Scene sizeup
Correct Answer

A. Scene sizeup

Explanation

Scene sizeup refers to the action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT). This involves evaluating the safety of the scene, determining the number of patients, and identifying any potential hazards or resources that may impact the care provided. It is an essential step in the initial assessment of a patient and helps the EMT prioritize and plan their approach to the situation.

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1
6.

When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle?
- 50
- 100
- 150
- 200
Correct Answer

A. 100

Explanation

In the case of an apparent vehicle fire, the ambulance should be parked at a distance of 100 feet from the affected vehicle. This distance ensures the safety of the ambulance crew and patients, as well as allows for the proper functioning of firefighting equipment and emergency response. Being too close to the fire can put the ambulance at risk of damage or explosion, while being too far away may delay the provision of necessary medical assistance. Therefore, parking the ambulance at a distance of 100 feet strikes a balance between safety and prompt response.

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2
7.

When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds y spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status?
- Able
- Alert
- Ambulatory
- Asymptomatic
Correct Answer

A. Alert

Explanation

If a patient responds by spontaneously opening their eyes or answering clearly during an initial assessment, it indicates that the patient is alert. This means that the patient is awake, aware of their surroundings, and able to respond appropriately to stimuli. Assessing the patient's mental status in this situation would involve further evaluation of their cognitive abilities, memory, attention, and orientation to determine if there are any deficits or abnormalities.

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2
8.

If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide
- High-concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask..
- Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask(BVM) and high flow oxygen.
- High-concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask.
- Low concentration oxygen with nasal cannula.
Correct Answer

A. Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask(BVM) and high flow oxygen.

Explanation

If the patient is not alert and their breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, it indicates that their respiratory function is compromised. In such a situation, providing ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high flow oxygen is the most appropriate course of action. This method ensures that the patient receives adequate oxygen supply and helps to maintain their breathing until further medical assistance is available. Using a BVM allows for manual control of the patient's breathing, while high flow oxygen ensures a sufficient oxygen concentration.

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9.

As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above the
- Nose
- Hips
- Neck
- Clavicles
Correct Answer

A. Clavicles

Explanation

A cervical collar should be applied if there is any blow above the clavicles. The clavicles are the collarbones, and any impact or injury above this area can potentially affect the cervical spine or neck. Therefore, it is important to immobilize the neck using a cervical collar to prevent further damage or injury.

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10.

A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with
- A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
- An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
- A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to
- An significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to
Correct Answer

A. A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

Explanation

A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are. This means that when a patient has experienced a significant mechanism of injury, such as a severe car accident or a fall from a height, the assessment will prioritize assessing and addressing any potential life-threatening injuries in the area of the body that is most at risk. This allows medical professionals to quickly identify and treat any immediate threats to the patient's life and stabilize them before addressing other injuries or areas of the body.

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11.

When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about
- Onset
- Quality
- Radiation
- Provocation
Correct Answer

A. Provocation

Explanation

When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about provocation. This means you are asking about any specific factor or action that may have caused or worsened the pain. By understanding the provocation, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat the underlying condition causing the pain.

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12.

While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?
- Time
- Quality
- Severity
- Radiation
Correct Answer

A. Time

Explanation

When asking a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, you are trying to determine the time pattern of the pain. This information helps in understanding if the pain is present all the time or if it comes and goes. It provides insight into the duration and frequency of the pain, which can be important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition.

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13.

What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident?
- Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members.
- Determining wind flow and type of chemical involved.
- Putting out the fire and gaining access to the patient
- Stabilizing the incident as fast as possible.
Correct Answer

A. Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members.

Explanation

As an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident, your responsibilities include caring for the injured and monitoring and rehabilitating the hazmat team members. This involves providing medical assistance to those who are injured and ensuring their safety. Additionally, you are responsible for monitoring the condition of the hazmat team members who may have been exposed to hazardous materials and providing necessary medical treatment or rehabilitation as needed. This is crucial in ensuring the well-being of all individuals involved in the incident.

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1
14.

Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?
- Army field litter
- Long backboard
- Scoop stretcher
- Stoke's basket
Correct Answer

A. Army field litter

Explanation

The Army field litter is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations. This device is specifically designed to safely transport injured individuals in challenging environments. It is lightweight, portable, and can be easily carried by a team of medical personnel. The litter is equipped with handles and straps to secure the patient during transportation. Its design allows for quick and efficient evacuation of casualties, making it an essential tool in emergency situations.

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15.

If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask
- If the patient can walk to determine if you need to call for help
- How old the patient is to determine if you should call another clinic
- What is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device
- If the patient is authorized care at your facility
Correct Answer

A. What is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device

Explanation

The question asks what should be asked when an individual walks into a medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member. The correct answer is to ask what is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device. This is because knowing the patient's condition will help in selecting the right equipment or device to safely transfer them.

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1
16.

If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the
- Initial patient assessment
- Detailed physical exam
- Initial physical exam
- Vital signs
Correct Answer

A. Detailed physical exam

Explanation

In a situation where a severely injured patient's life is at risk, it may be necessary to prioritize immediate life-saving interventions over a detailed physical examination. The detailed physical exam involves a thorough assessment of the patient's body systems, which can be time-consuming and may delay critical interventions. In such cases, it is more important to quickly assess and address the life-threatening problem, such as controlling bleeding or ensuring proper breathing, rather than conducting a detailed examination.

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17.

In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of a unstable patient?
- 5
- 10
- 15
- 20
Correct Answer

A. 5

Explanation

The recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient is 5 minutes. This means that medical professionals should check and evaluate the patient's condition every 5 minutes to ensure their stability and make any necessary adjustments to their treatment plan. Regular reassessment is crucial in monitoring the patient's vital signs, response to treatment, and overall progress, especially in critical or unstable situations.

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18.

Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?
- Range of motion (ROM)
- Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)
- Purified protein derivative (PPD)
- Alert, verbal, painful, unresponsive (AVPU).
Correct Answer

A. Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)

Explanation

Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) use the acronym PSD to describe a possible fracture in the field. When a fracture occurs, it often causes pain, swelling, and a visible deformity. Therefore, the acronym PSD accurately represents these common symptoms associated with a fracture.

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19.

Which classifications of a fracture are considered more serious because greater blood loss or contamination is possible?
- Open
- Closed
- Internal fixation
- External fixation
Correct Answer

A. Open

Explanation

Open fractures are considered more serious because they involve a break in the skin, which increases the risk of infection and contamination. The open wound allows bacteria to enter the fracture site, potentially leading to severe infection. Additionally, open fractures often result in significant blood loss due to damage to blood vessels in the area. Prompt medical attention and treatment are crucial for open fractures to minimize the risk of complications.

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20.

While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first?
- The patient's visual acuity
- If the patient is experiencing any pain
- Whether the patient is authorized care in this facility
- If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which eye
Correct Answer

A. If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which eye

Explanation

In this scenario, determining if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which eye is important because it can affect the course of treatment. If the patient is wearing contact lenses, they may need to be removed immediately to prevent further damage to the eye. Additionally, knowing which eye is affected helps prioritize the urgency of the situation and allows for appropriate treatment planning.

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1
21.

In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?
- Left atrium
- Right atrium
- Left ventricle
- Right ventricle
Correct Answer

A. Right atrium

Explanation

The pacemaker lead is inserted in the right atrium when using a temporary external pulse generator system. This is because the right atrium is one of the chambers of the heart where the electrical signals originate and is commonly used as the insertion site for temporary pacemaker leads.

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22.

In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's
- Statement that he or she feels dizzy
- Plan to resolve a health issue
- Complaint of headache
- Pulse rate
Correct Answer

A. Pulse rate

Explanation

In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's pulse rate. This is because the pulse rate provides valuable information about the patient's cardiovascular health and can help in assessing their overall well-being. Monitoring the pulse rate can help identify any abnormalities or irregularities that may require further investigation or treatment. Additionally, changes in the pulse rate can also indicate the effectiveness of any interventions or treatments being implemented to resolve a health issue.

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23.

A proctoscopy is an inspection of the
- Rectum
- Sigmoid colon
- Ascending colon
- Transverse colon
Correct Answer

A. Rectum

Explanation

A proctoscopy is a medical procedure that involves the inspection of the rectum. It allows healthcare professionals to visually examine the rectal area for any abnormalities or signs of disease. During a proctoscopy, a thin, flexible tube with a light and camera at the end, called a proctoscope, is inserted into the rectum. This procedure is commonly used to diagnose conditions such as hemorrhoids, rectal bleeding, and inflammation. The other options mentioned (sigmoid colon, ascending colon, and transverse colon) are not part of a proctoscopy procedure as they involve different parts of the colon.

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24.

When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving
- In the opposite direction of hair growth
- In the direction of hair growth
- With facial skin stretched
- With slow strokes
Correct Answer

A. In the direction of hair growth

Explanation

When educating a patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, it is important to instruct them to avoid shaving in the opposite direction of hair growth, with facial skin stretched, and with slow strokes. However, shaving in the direction of hair growth is actually the correct method to prevent PFB. This helps to minimize irritation and ingrown hairs. Shaving against the direction of hair growth can increase the risk of irritation and ingrown hairs, exacerbating the condition.

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25.

The eye can generally see wavelengths between
- 200 and 800 nanometers(nm)
- 300 and 650 nm
- 400 and 750 nm
- 500 and 850 nm
Correct Answer

A. 400 and 750 nm

Explanation

The correct answer is 400 and 750 nm. These wavelengths correspond to the visible light spectrum that the human eye can perceive. The eye is most sensitive to wavelengths around 550 nm (green light), and as the wavelength increases or decreases from this range, the eye's sensitivity decreases. Therefore, the range of 400 to 750 nm includes the entire visible light spectrum, allowing the eye to see the full range of colors.

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26.

At what ages is visual acuity at its best?
- 20 to 30
- 10 to 25
- 5 to 15
- 15 to 20
Correct Answer

A. 15 to 20

Explanation

Visual acuity refers to the sharpness of vision, specifically the ability to see fine details. During the teenage years, the eyes go through significant development and maturation, resulting in improved visual acuity. This is why visual acuity is at its best between the ages of 15 to 20. After this period, visual acuity may gradually decline due to various factors such as aging or eye conditions.

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27.

When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at one second(FEVI) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?
- 65
- 75
- 80
- 90
Correct Answer

A. 80

Explanation

According to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present in a pulmonary function test if the predicted forced expiratory volume at one second (FEVI) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than 80.

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28.

During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are
- 1;1
- 1;2
- 2;2
- 2;3
Correct Answer

A. 2;3

Explanation

During pulmonary function testing, it is essential for the examinee to have a minimum of 2 practice attempts in order to familiarize themselves with the procedure and ensure accurate results. Additionally, they must perform a minimum of 3 acceptable tracings, which refers to the successful completion of the required tests without any errors or abnormalities. This ensures that the examinee has adequately demonstrated their respiratory function and allows for a comprehensive evaluation of their pulmonary health.

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29.

Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called
- Artifacts
- Disturbances
- Random waves
- Deflection waves
Correct Answer

A. Artifacts

Explanation

Artifacts are any artificial products or features that appear on an electrocardiogram tracing. These can be caused by various sources such as patient movement, improper electrode placement, electrical interference, or equipment malfunction. Artifacts can mimic abnormal cardiac activity and may lead to misinterpretation of the ECG. Therefore, it is important to identify and differentiate artifacts from true cardiac abnormalities to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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30.

What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardigan activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings?
- Arrhythmia
- Cardiac arrest
- Depolarization
- Atrial excitation
Correct Answer

A. Arrhythmia

Explanation

Arrhythmia is the correct answer for this question. Arrhythmia refers to any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities observed on electrocardiogram tracings. It can manifest as irregular heartbeats, abnormal heart rhythms, or a disruption in the normal sequence of electrical impulses in the heart. Cardiac arrest, depolarization, and atrial excitation are not the appropriate terms to describe this condition.

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31.

If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the
- Major command (MAJCOM)
- Local medical examination board (MEB)
- Command level Electrocardiographic Library
- US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library
Correct Answer

A. US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library

Explanation

When performing an electrocardiogram on a rated individual, a copy of the electrocardiogram must be sent to the US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library. This suggests that the library plays a crucial role in storing and maintaining electrocardiogram records for rated individuals in the US Air Force. It is likely that the library is responsible for archiving and analyzing these records, making it important to send a copy of the electrocardiogram to ensure that it is included in the individual's medical history and can be accessed for future reference or analysis.

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32.

What is another term for orthostatic hypotension?
- Postural hypotension
- Positional hypotension
- Situational hypotension
- Environmental hypotension
Correct Answer

A. Postural hypotension

Explanation

Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. It is also known as postural hypotension because it is characterized by a decrease in blood pressure upon assuming an upright posture. The term "postural hypotension" accurately describes the condition and is commonly used interchangeably with orthostatic hypotension. The other options, including positional hypotension, situational hypotension, and environmental hypotension, do not accurately represent the condition and are not commonly used terms.

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33.

Notify the nurse of physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below
- 88 percent
- 90 percent
- 97 percent
- 100 percent
Correct Answer

A. 97 percent

Explanation

If a patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below 97 percent, it is important to notify the nurse or physician immediately. This is because a SaO2 level below 97 percent indicates a decrease in the amount of oxygen being carried by the blood, which can be a sign of respiratory distress or inadequate oxygenation. Prompt notification allows for timely intervention and appropriate management to prevent further complications and ensure the patient's safety.

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34.

When can the minor surgery procedure begin?
- When the provider says its time
- After the consent form is signed
- Once a set of vitals are repeated
- Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room
Correct Answer

A. After the consent form is signed

Explanation

The minor surgery procedure can begin after the consent form is signed. This is because the consent form ensures that the patient has given their informed consent for the procedure, understanding the risks and benefits involved. It is a legal and ethical requirement to obtain the patient's consent before proceeding with any medical intervention. Therefore, once the consent form is signed, the provider can proceed with the minor surgery procedure.

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35.

When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a
- Retractor
- Allis clamp
- Iris scissors
- Mayo scissors
Correct Answer

A. Mayo scissors

Explanation

Mayo scissors would be the most suitable tool for cutting through thick muscular skin on the back. Mayo scissors have a strong and curved blade that allows for precise and controlled cutting. They are commonly used in surgical procedures to cut through tough tissues. The other options, such as a retractor, Allis clamp, and iris scissors, are not specifically designed for cutting through thick skin and may not provide the same level of efficiency and precision as Mayo scissors.

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36.

When cleaning a two in laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?
- Begin suturing
- Flush the wound
- Clean out the debris with an allis clamp
- Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution
Correct Answer

A. Flush the wound

Explanation

The next step would be to flush the wound. This is important because foreign material in the wound can increase the risk of infection and hinder the healing process. Flushing the wound with a sterile solution helps to remove any debris or contaminants, reducing the chances of infection and promoting proper healing. It is a crucial step in wound care to ensure the wound is clean before further treatment or suturing.

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37.

After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment what should you do next?
- Apply a sterile dressing
- Assess sensory awareness
- Begin suturing the wound
- Soak the wound in cold water
Correct Answer

A. Assess sensory awareness

Explanation

After applying a topical anesthetic to a wound, it is important to assess sensory awareness next. This is because the anesthetic may numb the area and temporarily impair the person's ability to feel pain or sensation. By assessing sensory awareness, you can ensure that the anesthetic has taken effect and determine if further treatment, such as suturing the wound or applying a sterile dressing, can be done without causing discomfort or harm to the patient.

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38.

Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure
- Hypervolemia
- Hypovolemia
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypokalemia
Correct Answer

A. Hypovolemia

Explanation

Hypovolemia is a fluid imbalance characterized by a decrease in blood volume. This can lead to symptoms such as dry mucous membranes, a weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), and a low central venous pressure. Hypovolemia occurs when there is a loss of fluids, such as through excessive sweating, vomiting, diarrhea, or bleeding. It can also result from inadequate fluid intake or certain medical conditions. Hypervolemia, on the other hand, is an excess of fluid in the body, while hyperkalemia and hypokalemia refer to imbalances in potassium levels.

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39.

What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?
- Hypercalcemia
- Hypocalcemia
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypernatremia
Correct Answer

A. Hyperkalemia

Explanation

Hyperkalemia refers to an excess of potassium in the blood, which can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart. This disturbance in the heart's rhythm can lead to dysrhythmias, which are abnormal heart rhythms. In severe cases, dysrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia can progress to cardiac arrest, where the heart stops beating, or respiratory arrest, where breathing ceases. Therefore, hyperkalemia can cause dysrhythmias that can ultimately result in cardiac or respiratory arrest.

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40.

Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?
- Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Respiratory acidosis
- Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer

A. Respiratory alkalosis

Explanation

Respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilating because it leads to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide from the body, causing a decrease in carbonic acid levels. This results in an increase in pH, making the blood more alkaline.

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41.

Deficiency in a respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called
- Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Respiratory acidosis
- Respiratory Alkalosis
Correct Answer

A. Respiratory acidosis

Explanation

Deficiency in respirations, such as slow or irregular shallow respirations, can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. This causes a decrease in blood pH, leading to a condition called respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the respiratory system is unable to eliminate enough carbon dioxide from the body, resulting in an acidic imbalance.

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42.

The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to
- Administer fluids into the circulatory system
- Increase overall muscular strength
- Decrease susceptibility to infection
- Control blood loss
Correct Answer

A. Administer fluids into the circulatory system

Explanation

Infusion therapy is a medical procedure that involves the administration of fluids, medication, or nutrients directly into the circulatory system. By delivering fluids into the circulatory system, infusion therapy helps to maintain hydration, restore electrolyte balance, and provide necessary medications or nutrients to the body. It is commonly used in various medical conditions such as dehydration, infections, and chronic diseases. Therefore, the basic purpose of infusion therapy is to administer fluids into the circulatory system.

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43.

What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution?
- Use only the bag the nurse has spiked and ready to hang
- Look for cloudiness or floating particles
- Remove protective devices yourself
- Culture the fluid prior to use
Correct Answer

A. Remove protective devices yourself

Explanation

The best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution is to remove protective devices themselves. This means that the technician should be responsible for removing any protective covers or caps on the IV solution, ensuring that the solution remains sterile during the process. By doing this themselves, the technician can minimize the risk of contamination from external sources and maintain the sterility of the solution before it is administered to the patient.

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44.

In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions?
- Vent port
- In-line filter
- Back-check valve
- Self-sealing rubber cover
Correct Answer

A. Back-check valve

Explanation

A back-check valve is a device that allows fluid to flow in only one direction. In a piggyback setup, where a secondary infusion is connected to the primary infusion, a back-check valve prevents the mixing of the two infusions by ensuring that the flow of fluid is restricted to one direction. This prevents any backflow or mixing of the primary and secondary infusions, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the medication administration process.

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45.

To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on patients scheduled for long-term therapy, how often should you change a patient's intravenous (IV) site?
- Every 24 hours
- Every 24 to 48 hours
- Every 24 to 72 hours
- Every 48 to 72 hours
Correct Answer

A. Every 48 to 72 hours

Explanation

To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage, it is recommended to change a patient's intravenous (IV) site every 48 to 72 hours. Frequent changes of the IV site help prevent the buildup of bacteria and reduce the risk of infection. However, changing the site too frequently can also cause vessel damage, so it is important to find a balance between preventing infection and minimizing trauma to the patient's veins.

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46.

In cubic centimeters (cc), what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution?
- 1 to 5 cc
- 5 to 10 cc
- 10 to 50 cc
- 50 to 100 cc
Correct Answer

A. 10 to 50 cc

Explanation

The slowest possible flow rate per hour for an intravenous (IV) solution is 10 to 50 cc. This range allows for a slow and controlled administration of the solution, ensuring that it is delivered at a safe and appropriate rate for the patient. Higher flow rates could potentially overwhelm the patient's system, while lower flow rates may not provide the necessary amount of the solution in a timely manner.

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47.

Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient?
- Hematest
- Specific gravity
- Sugar and acetone
- Clean catch mid stream
Correct Answer

A. Specific gravity

Explanation

Specific gravity is a urine test that is done to determine the hydration level of a patient. This test measures the concentration of particles in the urine, which can indicate the amount of water present in the body. A higher specific gravity indicates dehydration, while a lower specific gravity suggests overhydration. Therefore, this test is used to assess the hydration status of a patient.

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1
48.

What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?
- Call the nurse to come see the patient
- Call the doctor to come seethe patient
- Place it in a gauze pad and take it to the lab
- Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse
Correct Answer

A. Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse

Explanation

If a small object is identified while straining urine, the appropriate steps would be to place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse. This is the correct answer because placing the object in a sterile urine cup ensures that it is properly contained and preserved for further examination. Notifying the nurse is important as they can then inform the relevant healthcare professionals and take appropriate actions based on the findings.

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49.

After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for
- 1 to 2 minutes
- 2 to 3 minutes
- 3 to 4 minutes
- 4 to 5 minutes
Correct Answer

A. 2 to 3 minutes

Explanation

After obtaining a blood sample, instructing the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for 2 to 3 minutes allows for proper clotting and prevents excessive bleeding. This duration ensures that the blood vessel is sealed and reduces the risk of hematoma formation. Maintaining pressure for a shorter duration may result in continued bleeding, while applying pressure for a longer period may unnecessarily prolong the discomfort for the patient. Therefore, 2 to 3 minutes is the optimal time frame for maintaining pressure after obtaining a blood sample.

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Jul 12, 2018

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