Online Physics Quiz 2020 For B. Sc. Sem II Organized By Department Of Physics, Kamla Nehru Mahavidyalaya, NaGPur

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  • 1/50 Questions

    In simple harmonic motion (SHM), at the mean position.

    • The velocity of a particle moving is zero
    • The velocity of a particle moving is minimum
    • The velocity of a particle moving is maximum
    • None of the mentioned
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About This Quiz

B. Sc. Sem II
Instructions: The Quiz is based on the R. T. M. Nagpur University Syllabus of B. Sc. (Physics). The Quiz consist of total 50 questions. Question no. 1 to 25 based on Physics paper I and Question no. 26 to 50 based on Physics Paper II. All Questions are compulsory. No negative marking Has a time See morelimit of 120 minutes Has a pass mark of 40% You can download certificate after finishing the quiz.

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  • 2. 

    In simple harmonic (SHM), the maximum acceleration of a particle moving is 

    • ω

    • ω.r

    • ω2∙r

    • ω2/r

    Correct Answer
    A. ω2∙r
    Explanation
    In simple harmonic motion (SHM), the maximum acceleration of a particle moving is directly proportional to the square of the angular frequency (ω) and the displacement (r) of the particle. This means that as the angular frequency increases, the maximum acceleration also increases. Similarly, as the displacement of the particle increases, the maximum acceleration also increases. Therefore, the correct answer is ω2∙r, which represents the product of the square of the angular frequency and the displacement of the particle.

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  • 3. 

    When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it oscillates with a small amplitude under the action of the force of gravity, the body is known as

    • Simple pendulum

    • Torsional pendulum

    • Compound pendulum

    • Second’s pendulum

    Correct Answer
    A. Compound pendulum
    Explanation
    A compound pendulum refers to a rigid body that is suspended vertically and oscillates with a small amplitude under the force of gravity. Unlike a simple pendulum, which consists of a mass attached to a string or rod, a compound pendulum has a more complex shape and mass distribution. This makes its motion more complicated and requires a different analysis compared to a simple pendulum. Therefore, the given answer of "Compound pendulum" is correct in this context.

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  • 4. 

    The Lissajous figures can be used to measure

    • Phase difference between two waves

    • Velocity of waves

    • Frequency of the waves

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Phase difference between two waves
    Explanation
    Lissajous figures are graphical representations of the relationship between two waves. By observing the shape of the figure, we can determine the phase difference between the two waves. The phase difference refers to the shift in the starting point of one wave relative to the other wave. Therefore, the correct answer is that Lissajous figures can be used to measure the phase difference between two waves.

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  • 5. 

    Quality Factor (Q) for the Damped Oscillator is defined as:

    • Q = 2π (energy stored in the system /energy lost per period)

    • Q = 2π (energy lost per period/ energy stored in the system)

    • Q = 2π (energy stored in the system x energy lost per period)

    • Q = 2π (energy lost per period + energy stored in the system)

    Correct Answer
    A. Q = 2π (energy stored in the system /energy lost per period)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Q = 2π (energy stored in the system / energy lost per period). This formula for the Quality Factor (Q) of a damped oscillator is derived from the definition of Q as the ratio of energy stored in the system to energy lost per period. It represents the efficiency of the oscillator, with a higher Q value indicating less energy lost and a more efficient system.

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  • 6. 

    Forced vibration is known as

    • Simple harmonic vibration

    • Natural vibration

    • Driven harmonic vibration

    • Free vibration

    Correct Answer
    A. Driven harmonic vibration
    Explanation
    Driven harmonic vibration refers to the type of vibration that occurs when an external force or driver continuously applies energy to a system. This external force causes the system to vibrate at a specific frequency, which is usually different from its natural frequency. Unlike free vibration, where the system vibrates on its own without any external influence, driven harmonic vibration is characterized by a forced response that is directly proportional to the driving force. Therefore, the given answer correctly identifies driven harmonic vibration as the term used to describe forced vibration.

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  • 7. 

    The temperature of gas molecule in the container is _______ proportional to mean free path of a gas molecule.

    • Inversely

    • Directly

    • No effect

    • None of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Directly
    Explanation
    The temperature of a gas molecule in a container is directly proportional to the mean free path of the gas molecule. This means that as the temperature increases, the mean free path of the gas molecule also increases. The mean free path is the average distance a gas molecule travels between collisions with other molecules. As the temperature increases, the gas molecules gain more kinetic energy and move faster, leading to longer mean free paths.

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  • 8. 

    For Boyle’s law to hold good, the gas should be ___________

    • Perfect and of constant mass and temperature

    • Real and of constant mass and temperature

    • Perfect and at constant temperature but variable mass

    • Real and at constant temperature but variable mass

    Correct Answer
    A. Perfect and of constant mass and temperature
    Explanation
    For Boyle's law to hold good, the gas should be perfect and of constant mass and temperature. This means that the gas should follow the ideal gas law, which assumes that the gas particles have no volume and do not interact with each other. Additionally, the mass of the gas should remain constant throughout the process, and the temperature should also remain constant. These conditions are necessary for Boyle's law, which states that at a constant temperature, the volume of a given amount of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.

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  • 9. 

    A real gas most closely approaches the behavior of an ideal gas under conditions of:

    • High Pressure and low Temperature

    • Low Pressure and high Temperature

    • Low Pressure and Temperature

    • High Pressure and Temperature

    Correct Answer
    A. Low Pressure and high Temperature
    Explanation
    A real gas most closely approaches the behavior of an ideal gas under conditions of low pressure and high temperature. At low pressure, the gas molecules are far apart and experience less intermolecular forces, allowing them to behave more like ideal gases. At high temperature, the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases, causing them to move faster and collide more frequently, which also resembles the behavior of ideal gases.

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  • 10. 

    In a gas the transport of momentum gives rise to the phenomenon of:

    • Viscosity

    • Conduction

    • Diffusion

    • Volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Viscosity
    Explanation
    In a gas, the transport of momentum gives rise to the phenomenon of viscosity. Viscosity is the measure of a fluid's resistance to flow. When momentum is transferred between gas molecules, it causes them to collide and exert forces on each other, resulting in the resistance to flow. This resistance is known as viscosity. Therefore, the correct answer is viscosity.

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  • 11. 

    The number of degrees of freedom of a diatomic gas molecule is:

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    A diatomic gas molecule consists of two atoms connected by a chemical bond. Each atom has three degrees of freedom (DOF) associated with its translational motion in three dimensions. Additionally, each atom can rotate around two axes perpendicular to the bond axis, contributing two more DOF. Therefore, a diatomic gas molecule has a total of five degrees of freedom.

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  • 12. 

    The constant used in pressure correction by Vander Waal is

    • D

    • C

    • B

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    The constant used in pressure correction by Vander Waal is "a". The Vander Waal equation is a modification of the ideal gas law that accounts for the attractive forces between gas molecules and the finite volume occupied by the gas particles. The constant "a" represents the attractive forces between the gas molecules and is used to correct the pressure calculation.

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  • 13. 

    The term N.T.P. stands for.......

    • Nominal temperature and pressure

    • Natural temperature and pressure

    • Normal temperature and pressure

    • Normal thermodynamic pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal temperature and pressure
    Explanation
    The term N.T.P. stands for Normal temperature and pressure. This is a commonly used reference condition in various scientific and engineering applications. N.T.P. represents a standard set of conditions for comparing and measuring the properties of gases, such as temperature and pressure. It is defined as a temperature of 0 degrees Celsius (32 degrees Fahrenheit) and a pressure of 1 atmosphere (101.325 kilopascals or 14.7 pounds per square inch). This standard allows for consistent and accurate comparisons and calculations in different experiments and industries.

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  • 14. 

    “If two system are both in equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal equilibrium with each other” This is the statement of

    • Zeroth law of thermodynamics

    • First law of thermodynamics

    • Second law of thermodynamics

    • Third law of thermodynamics

    Correct Answer
    A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
    Explanation
    The statement "If two systems are both in equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal equilibrium with each other" is the statement of the Zeroth law of thermodynamics. This law establishes the concept of temperature and states that if two systems are separately in thermal equilibrium with a third system, then they are also in thermal equilibrium with each other. This law forms the basis for the measurement of temperature and the establishment of a temperature scale.

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  • 15. 

    First law of thermodynamics is ________

    • Internal Energy= (Heat added) x (work done)

    • Internal Energy= (Heat added) – (work done)

    • Internal Energy= (Heat added) / (work done)

    • Internal Energy=(Heat added) + (work done)

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal Energy= (Heat added) – (work done)
    Explanation
    The first law of thermodynamics states that the change in internal energy of a system is equal to the heat added to the system minus the work done by the system. This means that the internal energy of a system can increase if heat is added to it or work is done on it, and it can decrease if heat is removed from it or work is done by it. Therefore, the correct answer is "Internal Energy= (Heat added) – (work done)".

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  • 16. 

    An increase in enthalpy results increase in __________

    • Pressure

    • Volume

    • Internal energy

    • Mass

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal energy
    Explanation
    An increase in enthalpy results in an increase in internal energy. Enthalpy is the sum of the internal energy of a system and the product of its pressure and volume. Therefore, when enthalpy increases, it means there is an increase in the internal energy of the system.

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  • 17. 

    A reversible cycle has following processes.

    • 4 isothermal processes

    • 4 adiabatic processes

    • 2 isothermal and 2 adiabatic processes

    • None of the mentioned

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 isothermal and 2 adiabatic processes
    Explanation
    A reversible cycle consists of both isothermal and adiabatic processes. In this case, the answer states that there are 2 isothermal and 2 adiabatic processes, which is a valid combination for a reversible cycle. Isothermal processes involve a constant temperature, while adiabatic processes involve no heat exchange with the surroundings. This combination allows for the efficient transfer of energy in the cycle, making it reversible.

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  • 18. 

    Total amount of energy in the universe is

    • Increasing

    • Decreasing

    • Constant

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Constant
    Explanation
    The total amount of energy in the universe is constant because of the law of conservation of energy, which states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred or transformed from one form to another. This means that while energy may change from one form to another, the total amount of energy in the universe remains the same. Therefore, the correct answer is constant.

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  • 19. 

    The average kinetic energy is given by_________

    • 0.5 KT

    • 1.5 KT

    • 2.5 KT

    • 3.5 KT

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.5 KT
    Explanation
    The average kinetic energy is given by 1.5 KT. This is because the average kinetic energy of a system is directly proportional to the temperature of the system. The formula for average kinetic energy is 1/2 mv^2, where m is the mass of the particles and v is the velocity. In this case, the temperature is represented by KT, where K is the Boltzmann constant and T is the temperature in Kelvin. Therefore, the correct answer is 1.5 KT.

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  • 20. 

    The closed system can be represented by equation

    • DQ = dU - pdV

    • DQ = dU + pdV

    • DQ = dU x pdV

    • None of the mentioned

    Correct Answer
    A. DQ = dU + pdV
    Explanation
    The equation dQ = dU + pdV represents the closed system. In this equation, dQ represents the heat added to the system, dU represents the change in internal energy, p represents the pressure, and dV represents the change in volume. This equation shows that the change in heat added to the system is equal to the change in internal energy plus the product of pressure and change in volume. Therefore, the correct answer is dQ = dU + pdV.

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  • 21. 

    “It is impossible to reduce any system to the absolute zero of temperature in a finite number of operations.” This is the statement of

    • First law of thermodynamics

    • Second law of thermodynamics

    • Third law of thermodynamics

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Third law of thermodynamics
    Explanation
    The statement "It is impossible to reduce any system to the absolute zero of temperature in a finite number of operations" aligns with the Third Law of Thermodynamics. This law states that as the temperature of a system approaches absolute zero, the entropy of the system approaches a minimum value. It implies that it is not possible to reach absolute zero temperature through a finite number of operations, as the entropy of the system would need to reach zero, which is not achievable. Therefore, the correct answer is the Third Law of Thermodynamics.

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  • 22. 

    When Helium expands at room temperature

    • Heating is produced

    • Cooling is produced

    • Neither heating nor cooling is produced

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. Heating is produced
    Explanation
    When helium expands at room temperature, heating is produced. This is because when a gas expands, it does work on its surroundings by pushing against the atmospheric pressure. As a result, the gas molecules gain kinetic energy and their average speed increases, leading to an increase in temperature. This phenomenon is known as the Joule-Thomson effect and is observed when gases expand without any external work being done on them. Therefore, in this case, the expansion of helium at room temperature leads to the production of heat.

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  • 23. 

    In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the

    • Compressor and condenser

    • Condenser and receiver

    • Receiver and evaporator

    • Evaporator and compressor

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver and evaporator
    Explanation
    In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the receiver and the evaporator. The receiver is a storage tank for the refrigerant, which receives the high-pressure, high-temperature refrigerant from the condenser. The expansion device is responsible for reducing the pressure and temperature of the refrigerant before it enters the evaporator. This allows the refrigerant to absorb heat from the surrounding environment, causing it to evaporate and cool the area being refrigerated. Therefore, the expansion device must be placed between the receiver and the evaporator to ensure proper functioning of the system.

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  • 24. 

    Example of reversed heat engine is

    • Heat pump

    • Refrigerator

    • Both of the mentioned

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Both of the mentioned
    Explanation
    A reversed heat engine is a system that takes in heat from a cold reservoir and transfers it to a hot reservoir, using work input. Both a heat pump and a refrigerator are examples of reversed heat engines. In a heat pump, heat is extracted from a cold space and transferred to a hot space, while in a refrigerator, heat is extracted from a cold space and transferred to the surroundings. Therefore, both options mentioned in the question are correct examples of reversed heat engines.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following gas will satisfy Boyle’s law over a wider range of temperatures and pressures?

    • Oxygen

    • Hydrogen

    • Helium

    • Carbon monoxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Helium
    Explanation
    Helium will satisfy Boyle's law over a wider range of temperatures and pressures because it is a noble gas with low atomic mass and weak intermolecular forces. This means that helium molecules are highly compressible and can easily occupy a larger volume at low pressures and temperatures. Additionally, helium has a wide temperature range over which it remains a gas, allowing it to exhibit Boyle's law behavior over a broader range compared to the other gases listed.

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  • 26. 

    A planet moves slowest in its orbit

    • When it is in opposition

    • When it is closest to the Sun

    • When it is at centre

    • When it is farthest from the Sun

    Correct Answer
    A. When it is farthest from the Sun
    Explanation
    When a planet is farthest from the Sun, it is at its aphelion, which is the point in its orbit where it is the farthest distance from the Sun. At this point, the gravitational pull from the Sun is weaker, causing the planet to move slower in its orbit. This is because the planet is farther away from the source of gravitational force, resulting in a decrease in its orbital speed.

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  • 27. 

    The temperature in the center of the Sun is closest to

    • One billion K.

    • Ten million K.

    • 6000 K.

    • 3000 K.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ten million K.
    Explanation
    The temperature in the center of the Sun is closest to ten million K because the Sun's core is a hot and dense region where nuclear fusion reactions occur. These reactions release a tremendous amount of energy and heat, resulting in extremely high temperatures. While the surface of the Sun is around 6000 K, the core is much hotter, reaching temperatures of about ten million K.

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  • 28. 

    Which of these statements is one of Kepler's Laws of Planetary Motion?

    • An object in motion remains in motion

    • Inner planets orbit in a different direction than outer ones.

    • Planets move in elliptical orbits with the sun at one focus

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Planets move in elliptical orbits with the sun at one focus
    Explanation
    Kepler's First Law of Planetary Motion states that planets move in elliptical orbits with the sun at one focus. This means that the path of a planet around the sun is not a perfect circle, but rather an ellipse, with the sun located at one of the two foci of the ellipse. This law helps explain why the distance between a planet and the sun varies throughout its orbit, as well as why planets move at different speeds at different points in their orbit.

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  • 29. 

    Newton’s law of gravitation applies to

    • Small bodies only

    • Plants only

    • All bodies irrespective of their size

    • For solar system

    Correct Answer
    A. All bodies irrespective of their size
    Explanation
    Newton's law of gravitation states that every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. This means that the law applies to all bodies, regardless of their size. The force of gravity exists between any two objects in the universe, from the smallest particles to the largest celestial bodies. Therefore, the correct answer is "All bodies irrespective of their size."

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  • 30. 

    What is the unit of the magnitude of the weight?

    • Distance (meter)

    • Mass (grams)

    • Force (Newton)

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Force (Newton)
    Explanation
    The unit of the magnitude of weight is force, specifically measured in Newtons. Weight is the force exerted on an object due to gravity, and it is a measure of the object's mass multiplied by the acceleration due to gravity. Therefore, the correct unit for weight is Newtons, which is a unit of force.

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  • 31. 

    Gravitational force of attraction between satellite and Earth provides necessary

    • Centrifugal force

    • Centripetal force

    • Dynamic force

    • Translatory force

    Correct Answer
    A. Centripetal force
    Explanation
    The gravitational force of attraction between a satellite and the Earth provides the necessary centripetal force. Centripetal force is the force that keeps an object moving in a curved path and is directed towards the center of the curve. In the case of a satellite orbiting the Earth, the gravitational force acts as the centripetal force, constantly pulling the satellite towards the Earth's center and keeping it in orbit. Without this centripetal force, the satellite would move in a straight line and not remain in orbit.

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  • 32. 

    Gravitational potential is always

    • Infinite

    • Zero

    • Positive

    • Negative

    Correct Answer
    A. Negative
    Explanation
    Gravitational potential is always negative because it represents the work done to bring an object from infinity to a specific point in a gravitational field. As the object moves closer to the source of the gravitational field, the potential energy decreases, resulting in a negative value. This is because the object would have gained kinetic energy as it moved closer to the source, and energy is conserved in the system. Therefore, the correct answer is negative.

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  • 33. 

    The following planet is nearest to the Sun.

    • Mars

    • Mercury

    • Venus

    • Saturn

    Correct Answer
    A. Mercury
    Explanation
    Mercury is the correct answer because it is the planet closest to the Sun. It orbits the Sun at an average distance of about 36 million miles, which is much closer than any other planet in our solar system. This proximity to the Sun also means that Mercury has a shorter orbital period, completing one orbit in just 88 Earth days. Its close proximity to the Sun also makes it one of the hottest planets in our solar system, with surface temperatures reaching up to 800 degrees Fahrenheit.

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  • 34. 

    The majority of asteroids are found between the orbits of

    • Mars and Jupiter

    • Earth and Mars

    • Jupiter and Saturn

    • Saturn and Uranus

    Correct Answer
    A. Mars and Jupiter
    Explanation
    The majority of asteroids are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. This region is known as the asteroid belt, which is located approximately 2.2 to 3.2 astronomical units (AU) from the Sun. The gravitational forces exerted by Jupiter's strong gravity prevented the formation of a planet in this region, causing the leftover rocky debris to accumulate and form asteroids instead. This is why the majority of asteroids can be found in this specific region of our solar system.

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  • 35. 

    Parallax method is suitable for the measurement of distance of :

    • Stars

    • Planet

    • Vehicle

    • Distance between cities

    Correct Answer
    A. Planet
    Explanation
    The parallax method is suitable for measuring the distance of planets. This is because planets are relatively closer to Earth compared to stars, making their parallax angles more measurable. The parallax method involves observing an object from two different positions and measuring the apparent shift in its position. By knowing the baseline distance between the two observation points and the parallax angle, the distance to the planet can be calculated using trigonometry. This method is not commonly used for measuring the distance between cities or for vehicles, as they are typically much closer and can be measured using other methods such as GPS.

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  • 36. 

    The central part of sun is regarded as

    • Core

    • Crust

    • Mantle

    • Corona

    Correct Answer
    A. Core
    Explanation
    The central part of the sun is referred to as the core. The core is the innermost layer of the sun and is where nuclear fusion occurs. It is incredibly hot and dense, with temperatures reaching millions of degrees Celsius. The energy produced in the core is what powers the sun and allows it to emit light and heat.

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  • 37. 

    The ‘Big Bang Theory’ is related to which of the following?

    • Continental Drift

    • Origin of Universe

    • Origin of Himalayas

    • Eruption of Volcanoes

    Correct Answer
    A. Origin of Universe
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Origin of Universe. The Big Bang Theory is a scientific explanation for the origin of the universe. It suggests that the universe began as a singularity, a point of infinite density and temperature, and has been expanding ever since. This theory is supported by various pieces of evidence, such as the observed redshift of distant galaxies and the cosmic microwave background radiation. The Big Bang Theory is a fundamental concept in cosmology and helps to explain the formation and evolution of the universe.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following concept related to the limit beyond stars suffer internal collapse?

    • Chandrasekhar limit

    • Eddington limit

    • Hoyle limit

    • Fowler limit

    Correct Answer
    A. Chandrasekhar limit
    Explanation
    The Chandrasekhar limit refers to the maximum mass that a white dwarf star can have before it undergoes internal collapse and explodes in a supernova. This limit was proposed by Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar in 1931 and is approximately 1.4 times the mass of the Sun. When a white dwarf exceeds this limit, the electron degeneracy pressure that supports it against gravity is no longer sufficient, leading to the collapse and subsequent explosion. This concept is important in understanding the fate of massive stars and the formation of various astronomical phenomena.

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  • 39. 

    Basic source of magnetism ______________.

    • Charged particles alone

    • Movement of charged particles

    • Magnetic dipoles

    • Magnetic domains

    Correct Answer
    A. Movement of charged particles
    Explanation
    Magnetism is primarily caused by the movement of charged particles. When charged particles, such as electrons, move, they create a magnetic field around them. This magnetic field can interact with other magnetic fields, resulting in the phenomenon of magnetism. While magnetic dipoles and magnetic domains are also related to magnetism, they are ultimately caused by the movement of charged particles.

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  • 40. 

    The magnetic materials follow which law?

    • Faraday’s law

    • Ampere law

    • Lenz law

    • Curie Weiss law

    Correct Answer
    A. Curie Weiss law
    Explanation
    The Curie Weiss law describes the behavior of magnetic materials above their Curie temperature, where they lose their permanent magnetic properties and become paramagnetic. This law states that the magnetization of a material is directly proportional to the applied magnetic field and inversely proportional to the temperature. It helps in understanding the magnetic properties of materials and their response to external magnetic fields.

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  • 41. 

    In superconductivity, the electrical resistance of material becomes

    • Zero

    • Infinite

    • Finite

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Zero
    Explanation
    In superconductivity, the electrical resistance of a material becomes zero. This means that when the material is cooled below a certain critical temperature, it can conduct electric current without any loss of energy due to resistance. This phenomenon is due to the formation of Cooper pairs, which are pairs of electrons that can move through the material without colliding with impurities or lattice vibrations. As a result, superconductors have the ability to carry current indefinitely without any loss, making them extremely useful in various applications such as MRI machines and power transmission lines.

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  • 42. 

    The magnetic lines of force cannot penetrate the body of a superconductor, a phenomenon is known as

    • Isotopic effect

    • BCS theory

    • Meissner effect

    • London theory

    Correct Answer
    A. Meissner effect
    Explanation
    The Meissner effect is a phenomenon in which the magnetic lines of force are unable to penetrate the body of a superconductor. This occurs when a superconductor is cooled below its critical temperature and it expels all magnetic fields from its interior. As a result, the superconductor becomes perfectly diamagnetic, meaning it repels any external magnetic field. This effect is a key characteristic of superconductivity and is used in various applications, such as levitating magnets above superconductors.

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  • 43. 

    The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called

    • Peak temperature

    • Critical temperature

    • Neel temperature

    • Weiss temperature

    Correct Answer
    A. Neel temperature
    Explanation
    The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called the Neel temperature. This temperature is named after Louis Neel, a French physicist who made significant contributions to the understanding of magnetism. At the Neel temperature, the ordered magnetic moments in an anti-ferromagnetic material start to become disordered, resulting in a transition from anti-ferromagnetism to paramagnetism. This transition is characterized by a sudden change in the material's magnetic properties, making the Neel temperature an important parameter in the study of magnetic materials.

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  • 44. 

    When currents are moving in the same direction in two conductors, then the force will be

    • Attractive

    • Repulsive

    • Retracting

    • Opposing

    Correct Answer
    A. Attractive
    Explanation
    When currents are moving in the same direction in two conductors, the magnetic fields produced by the currents will interact with each other. According to the right-hand rule, the magnetic field lines will be parallel and in the same direction. This interaction between the magnetic fields will result in an attractive force between the conductors. Therefore, the correct answer is "Attractive."

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  • 45. 

    Law which governs the interaction of the electromagnetic field with charged matter.

    • Gauss's Law

    • Faraday's Law

    • Ampere's Law

    • Lorentz force Law

    Correct Answer
    A. Lorentz force Law
    Explanation
    The Lorentz force law describes the interaction between the electromagnetic field and charged matter. It states that a charged particle experiences a force when it moves through a magnetic field or an electric field. This force is perpendicular to both the velocity of the particle and the magnetic or electric field. The Lorentz force law is a fundamental principle in electromagnetism and is used to explain various phenomena, such as the motion of charged particles in electric and magnetic fields.

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  • 46. 

    The dipole magnetic moment (µ) is directly proportional to nuclear spin (I), connected by a constant called the

    • Gyromagnetic ratio

    • Planck's constant

    • Nuclear susceptibility

    • Chemical shift

    Correct Answer
    A. Gyromagnetic ratio
    Explanation
    The dipole magnetic moment (µ) is directly proportional to nuclear spin (I), connected by a constant called the gyromagnetic ratio. The gyromagnetic ratio is a fundamental property of a nucleus and determines how strongly the nucleus interacts with a magnetic field. It is a constant specific to each nucleus and is used to calculate the magnetic moment of the nucleus. Planck's constant is not directly related to the dipole magnetic moment or nuclear spin. Nuclear susceptibility and chemical shift are also not directly related to the dipole magnetic moment or nuclear spin.

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  • 47. 

    Biot-Savart Law gives

    • The magnetic field created by a current-carrying wire.

    • The electric field created by a current-carrying wire.

    • The magnetic field created by a point charge.

    • The electric field created by a point charge.

    Correct Answer
    A. The magnetic field created by a current-carrying wire.
    Explanation
    The Biot-Savart Law is a fundamental principle in electromagnetism that describes the magnetic field created by a current-carrying wire. It states that the magnetic field at a point in space is directly proportional to the current flowing through the wire, the length of the wire segment, and the sine of the angle between the wire segment and the line connecting the point to the wire. Therefore, the correct answer is "The magnetic field created by a current-carrying wire."

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  • 48. 

    “The magnetic field created by an electric current is equal to µ0 times the electric current”, This is the statement of

    • Ampere's Law

    • Coulomb’s Law

    • Gauss’s Law

    • Biot-Savart Law.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ampere's Law
    Explanation
    Ampere's Law states that the magnetic field created by an electric current is equal to µ0 times the electric current. This law relates the magnetic field around a closed loop to the electric current passing through the loop. It is named after the French physicist André-Marie Ampère, who formulated this law in the early 19th century. Ampere's Law is an important principle in electromagnetism and is used to calculate magnetic fields produced by current-carrying conductors and solenoids.

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  • 49. 

    Magnetic field inside a solenoid is___

    • Zero

    • Weak

    • Uniform

    • Infinite

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform
    Explanation
    The magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform because a solenoid is a tightly wound coil of wire, which creates a magnetic field that is evenly distributed along its length. The magnetic field lines inside the solenoid are parallel and closely spaced, resulting in a consistent and uniform magnetic field throughout the solenoid.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 25, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Ashishpurushotta

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