Cancer And Oncology | NCLEX Quiz 142

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Cancer And Oncology | NCLEX Quiz 142 - Quiz

All questions are shown, but the results will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 10 minutes in this quiz.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A 32-year-old woman meets with the nurse on her first office visit since undergoing a left mastectomy. When asked how she is doing. the woman states her appetite is still not good. she is not getting much sleep because she doesn’t go to bed until her husband is asleep. and she is really anxious to get back to work. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse explore to support the client’s current needs?

    • A.

      Call the physician to discuss allowing the client to return to work earlier.

    • B.

      Suggest that the client learn relaxation techniques to help with her insomnia

    • C.

      Perform a nutritional assessment to assess for anorexia

    • D.

      Ask open-ended questions about sexuality issues related to her mastectomy

    Correct Answer
    D. Ask open-ended questions about sexuality issues related to her mastectomy
    Explanation
    The content of the client’s comments suggests that she is avoiding intimacy with her husband by waiting until he is asleep before going to bed. Addressing sexuality issues is appropriate for a client who has undergone a mastectomy. Rushing her return to work may debilitate her and add to her exhaustion. Suggesting that she learn relaxation techniques to help her with her insomnia is appropriate; however. the nurse must first address the psychosocial and sexual issues that are contributing to her sleeping difficulties. A nutritional assessment may be useful. but there is no indication that she has anorexia.

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  • 2. 

    One of the most serious blood coagulation complications for individuals with cancer and for those undergoing cancer treatments is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The most common cause of this bleeding disorder is:

    • A.

      Underlying liver disease

    • B.

      Brain metastasis

    • C.

      Intravenous heparin therapy

    • D.

      Sepsis

    Correct Answer
    D. Sepsis
    Explanation
    Bacterial endotoxins released from gram-negative bacteria activate the Hageman factor or coagulation factor XII. This factor inhibits coagulation via the intrinsic pathway of homeostasis. as well as stimulating fibrinolysis. Liver disease can cause multiple bleeding abnormalities resulting in chronic. subclinical DIC; however. sepsis is the most common cause.

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  • 3. 

    A pneumonectomy is a surgical procedure sometimes indicated for treatment of non-small-cell lung cancer. A pneumonectomy involves removal of:

    • A.

      An entire lung field

    • B.

      A small. wedge-shaped lung surface

    • C.

      One lobe of a lung

    • D.

      One or more segments of a lung lobe

    Correct Answer
    A. An entire lung field
    Explanation
    A pneumonectomy is the removal of an entire lung field. A wedge resection refers to removal of a wedge-shaped section of lung tissue. A lobectomy is the removal of one lobe. Removal of one or more segments of a lung lobe is called a partial lobectomy.

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  • 4. 

    A 36-year-old man with lymphoma presents with signs of impending septic shock 9 days after chemotherapy. The nurse could expect which of the following to be present?

    • A.

      Flushing. decreased oxygen saturation. mild hypotension

    • B.

      Low-grade fever. chills. tachycardia

    • C.

      Elevated temperature. oliguria. hypotension

    • D.

      High-grade fever. normal blood pressure. increased respirations

    Correct Answer
    B. Low-grade fever. chills. tachycardia
    Explanation
    Nine days after chemotherapy. one would expect the client to be immunocompromised. The clinical signs of shock reflect changes in cardiac function. vascular resistance. cellular metabolism. and capillary permeability. Low-grade fever. tachycardia. and flushing may be early signs of shock. The client with impending signs of septic shock may not have decreased oxygen saturation levels. Oliguria and hypotension are late signs of shock. Urine output can be initially normal or increased.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following represents the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with pruritis caused by cancer or the treatments?

    • A.

      Administration of antihistamines

    • B.

      Steroids

    • C.

      Silk sheets

    • D.

      Medicated cool baths

    Correct Answer
    D. Medicated cool baths
    Explanation
    Nursing interventions to decrease the discomfort of pruitus include those that prevent vasodilation. decrease anxiety. and maintain skin integrity and hydration. Medicated baths with salicyclic acid or colloidal oatmeal can be soothing as a temporary relief. The use of antihistamines or topical steroids depends on the cause of pruritus. and these agents should be used with caution. Using silk sheets is not a practical intervention for the hospitalized client with pruritus.

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  • 6. 

    A 56-year-old woman is currently receiving radiation therapy to the chest wall for recurrent breast cancer. She calls her health care provider to report that she has pain while swallowing and burning and tightness in her chest. Which of the following complications of radiation therapy is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

    • A.

      Hiatal hernia

    • B.

      Stomatitis

    • C.

      Radiation enteritis

    • D.

      Esophagitis

    Correct Answer
    D. EsopHagitis
    Explanation
    Difficulty in swallowing. pain. and tightness in the chest are signs of esophagitis. which is a common complication of radiation therapy of the chest wall.

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  • 7. 

    A male client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting. he read his chart while the nurse was out of the room. the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?

    • A.

      Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of their origin

    • B.

      Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ

    • C.

      Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type normally isn’t found

    • D.

      Alteration in the size. shape. and organization of differentiated cells

    Correct Answer
    D. Alteration in the size. shape. and organization of differentiated cells
    Explanation
    Dysplasia refers to an alteration in the size. shape. and organization of differentiated cells. The presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of their origin is called anaplasia. An increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ is called hyperplasia. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type normally isn’t found is called metaplasia.

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  • 8. 

    For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer. the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this client?

    • A.

      “Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety.”

    • B.

      “Client doesn’t guess at prognosis.”

    • C.

      “Client uses any effective method to reduce tension.”

    • D.

      “Client stops seeking information.”

    Correct Answer
    A. “Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety.”
    Explanation
    Verbalizing feelings is the client’s first step in coping with the situational crisis. It also helps the health care team gain insight into the client’s feelings. helping guide psychosocial care. Option B is inappropriate because suppressing speculation may prevent the client from coming to terms with the crisis and planning accordingly. Option C is undesirable because some methods of reducing tension. such as illicit drug or alcohol use. may prevent the client from coming to terms with the threat of death as well as cause physiologic harm. Option D isn’t appropriate because seeking information can help a client with cancer gain a sense of control over the crisis.

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  • 9. 

    A male client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?

    • A.

      Related to visual field deficits

    • B.

      Related to difficulty swallowing

    • C.

      Related to impaired balance

    • D.

      Related to psychomotor seizures

    Correct Answer
    C. Related to impaired balance
    Explanation
    A client with a cerebellar brain tumor may suffer injury from impaired balance as well as disturbed gait and incoordination. Visual field deficits. difficulty swallowing. and psychomotor seizures may result from dysfunction of the pituitary gland. pons. occipital lobe. parietal lobe. or temporal lobe — not from a cerebellar brain tumor. Difficulty swallowing suggests medullary dysfunction. Psychomotor seizures suggest temporal lobe dysfunction.

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  • 10. 

    A female client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore. the nurse should prepare the client to expect:

    • A.

      Hair loss.

    • B.

      Stomatitis.

    • C.

      Fatigue.

    • D.

      Vomiting.

    Correct Answer
    C. Fatigue.
    Explanation
    Radiation therapy may cause fatigue. skin toxicities. and anorexia regardless of the treatment site. Hair loss. stomatitis. and vomiting are site-specific. not generalized. adverse effects of radiation therapy.

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  • Current Version
  • Jun 19, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 13, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Santepro
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