Cancer And Oncology | NCLEX Quiz 140

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Santepro
S
Santepro
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 468 | Total Attempts: 2,507,710
Questions: 10 | Attempts: 3,511

SettingsSettingsSettings
Cancer And Oncology | NCLEX Quiz 140 - Quiz

All questions are shown, but the results will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 10 minutes in this quiz.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

      Which of the following medications usually is given to a client with leukemia as prophylaxis against P. carinii pneumonia?

    • A.

      Bactrim

    • B.

      Oral nystatin suspension

    • C.

      Prednisone

    • D.

      Vincristine (Oncovin)

    Correct Answer
    A. Bactrim
    Explanation
    The most frequent cause of death from leukemia is overwhelming infection. P. carinii infection is lethal to a child with leukemia. As prophylaxis against P. carinii pneumonia. continuous low doses of co-trimoxazole (Bactrim) are frequently prescribed. Oral nystatin suspension would be indicated for the treatment of thrush. Prednisone isn’t an antibiotic and increases susceptibility to infection. Vincristine is an antineoplastic agent.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

      In which of the following diseases would bone marrow transplantation not be indicated in a newly diagnosed client?

    • A.

      Acute lymphocytic leukemia

    • B.

      Chronic myeloid leukemia

    • C.

      Severe aplastic anemia

    • D.

      Severe combined immunodeficiency

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
    Explanation
    For the first episode of acute lymphocytic anemia. conventional therapy is superior to bone marrow transplantation. In severe combined immunodeficiency and in severe aplastic anemia. bone marrow transplantation has been employed to replace abnormal stem cells with healthy cells from the donor’s marrow. In myeloid leukemia. bone marrow transplantation is done after chemotherapy to infuse healthy marrow and to replace marrow stem cells ablated during chemotherapy.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

      Which of the following treatment measures should be implemented for a child with leukemia who has been exposed to the chickenpox?

    • A.

      No treatment is indicated.

    • B.

      Acyclovir (Zovirax) should be started on exposure

    • C.

      Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) should be given with the evidence of disease

    • D.

      VZIG should be given within 72 hours of exposure.

    Correct Answer
    D. VZIG should be given within 72 hours of exposure.
    Explanation
    Varicella is a lethal organism to a child with leukemia. VZIG. given within 72 hours. may favorably alter the course of the disease. Giving the vaccine at the onset of symptoms wouldn’t likely decrease the severity of the illness. Acyclovir may be given if the child develops the disease but not if the child has been exposed.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

      Nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of radiation and chemotherapy. When should a nurse administer antiemetics?

    • A.

      30 minutes before the initiation of therapy.

    • B.

      With the administration of therapy.

    • C.

      Immediately after nausea begins.

    • D.

      When therapy is completed.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 minutes before the initiation of therapy.
    Explanation
    Antiemetics are most beneficial when given before the onset of nausea and vomiting. To calculate the optimum time for administration. the first dose is given 30 minutes to 1 hour before nausea is expected. and then every 2. 4. or 6 hours for approximately 24 hours after chemotherapy. If the antiemetic was given with the medication or after the medication. it could lose its maximum effectiveness when needed.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

      Parents of pediatric clients who undergo irradiation involving the central nervous system should be warned about postirradiation somnolence. When does this neurologic syndrome usually occur?

    • A.

      Immediately

    • B.

      Within 1 to 2 weeks

    • C.

      Within 5 to 8 weeks

    • D.

      Within 3 to 6 months

    Correct Answer
    C. Within 5 to 8 weeks
    Explanation
    Postirradiation somnolence may develop 5 to 8 weeks after CNS irradiation and may last 3 to 15 days. It’s characterized by somnolence with or without fever. anorexia. nausea. and vomiting. Although the syndrome isn’t thought to be clinically significant. parents should be prepared to expect such symptoms and encourage the child needed rest.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

      The nurse is instructing the client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:

    • A.

      To examine the testicles while lying down.

    • B.

      The best time for the examination is after a shower

    • C.

      To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth

    • D.

      That testicular examination should be done at least every 6 months.

    Correct Answer
    B. The best time for the examination is after a shower
    Explanation
    The testicular-self examination is recommended monthly after a warm shower or bath when the scrotal skin is relaxed. The client should stand to examine the testicles. Using both hands. with the fingers under the scrotum and the thumbs on top. the client should gently roll the testicles. feeling for any lumps.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

      The community nurse is conducting a health promotion program at a local school and is discussing the risk factors associated with cancer. Which of the following. if identified by the client as a risk factor. indicates a need for further instructions?

    • A.

      Viral factors

    • B.

      Stress

    • C.

      Low-fat and high-fiber diets

    • D.

      Exposure to radiation

    Correct Answer
    C. Low-fat and high-fiber diets
    Explanation
    Viruses may be one of multiple agents acting to initiate carcinogenesis and have been associated with several types of cancer. Increased stress has been associated with causing the growth and proliferation of cancer cells. Two forms of radiation. ultraviolet and ionizing. can lead to cancer. A diet high in fat may be a factor in the development of breast. colon. and prostate cancers. High-fiber diets may reduce the risk of colon cancer.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

      The client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. The nurse identifies which intervention as the highest priority in the nursing plan of care?

    • A.

      Ambulation three times a day

    • B.

      Monitoring temperature

    • C.

      Monitoring the platelet count

    • D.

      Monitoring for pathological factors

    Correct Answer
    C. Monitoring the platelet count
    Explanation
    Thrombocytopenia indicates a decrease in the number of platelets in the circulating blood. A major concern is monitoring for and preventing bleeding. Option 2 relates to monitoring for infection particularly if leukopenia is present. Options 1 and 4. although important in the plan of care are not related directly to thrombocytopenia.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

      A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The client asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse bases the response on which of the following descriptions of this disorder?

    • A.

      Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes.

    • B.

      Altered red blood cell production.

    • C.

      Altered production of lymph nodes

    • D.

      Malignant proliferation of plasma cells and tumors within the bone.

    Correct Answer
    D. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells and tumors within the bone.
    Explanation
    Multiple myeloma is a B cell neoplastic condition characterized by abnormal malignant proliferation of plasma cells and the accumulation of mature plasma cells in the bone marrow. Option 1 describes the leukemic process. Options 2 and 3 are not characteristics of multiple myeloma.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

      The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note specifically in this disorder?

    • A.

      Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow.

    • B.

      Increased WBC’s

    • C.

      Increased calcium levels

    • D.

      Decreased blood urea nitrogen

    Correct Answer
    C. Increased calcium levels
    Explanation
    Findings indicative of multiple myeloma are an increased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow. anemia. hypercalcemia caused by the release of calcium from the deteriorating bone tissue. and an elevated blood urea nitrogen level. An increased white blood cell count may or may not be present and is not related specifically to multiple myeloma.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 13, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Santepro
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.