CCNA Cyber Ops (210-250 Secfnd)

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  • 1/114 Questions

    What entity that issues and signs digital certificates is trusted by the browser?

    • Certificate Authority
    • Certificate Notary
    • Certificate Controller
    • Certificate Licensor
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About This Quiz

This CCNA Cyber Ops (210-250 SECFND) quiz assesses knowledge on cryptography, SSL\/TLS communications, cipher types, hash algorithms, and data integrity. It prepares learners for handling security protocols and understanding potential vulnerabilities in network security.

CCNA Cyber Ops (210-250 Secfnd) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    DNS listens on which well-known ports?

    • UDP port 67 and UDP port 68

    • TCP port 21 and TCP port 22

    • TCP port 53 and UDP port 53

    • TCP 161 and UDP 161

    Correct Answer
    A. TCP port 53 and UDP port 53
    Explanation
    DNS primarily uses UDP port 53 for DNS queries and responses. DNS queries consist of a UDP request from the client followed by a UDP response from the DNS server. TCP port 53 is used when the DNS response data size exceeds 512 bytes, or for tasks such as zone transfers. Zone transfer is a type of DNS transaction. Zone transfer is used by the DNS administrators to replicate the DNS databases across a set of DNS servers.

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  • 3. 

    What is the default port for HTTPS?

    • 443

    • 8080

    • 80

    • 22

    Correct Answer
    A. 443
    Explanation
    The default port for HTTPS is 443. This port is used for secure communication over the internet using the HTTPS protocol. When a user accesses a website using HTTPS, the data is encrypted and transmitted securely between the user's browser and the web server on port 443. This ensures that sensitive information such as login credentials or credit card details are protected from unauthorized access.

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  • 4. 

    Which type of encryption algorithm uses the different but related keys to encrypt and decrypt data?

    • Asymmetric encryption algorithm

    • Symmetric encryption algorithm

    • Dodecaphonic algorithm

    • Diffie-Hellman algorithm

    Correct Answer
    A. Asymmetric encryption algorithm
    Explanation
    Asymmetric encryption algorithm uses different but related keys to encrypt and decrypt data. Unlike symmetric encryption algorithm, where the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, asymmetric encryption algorithm uses a pair of keys - a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. This allows for secure communication between two parties without the need to share a common key. The most commonly used asymmetric encryption algorithm is RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman).

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  • 5. 

    Which one of the following options describes the concept of using a different key for encrypting and decrypting data?

    • Cipher text

    • Asymmetric encryption

    • Symmetric encryption

    • Avalanche effect

    Correct Answer
    A. Asymmetric encryption
    Explanation
    Asymmetric encryption refers to the concept of using different keys for encrypting and decrypting data. This technique involves a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The public key is freely available to anyone, while the private key is kept secret. This approach provides a higher level of security as it eliminates the need to share a single key between parties. It is widely used in secure communication protocols, such as HTTPS, to protect sensitive information during transmission.

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  • 6. 

    Which type of encryption algorithm uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data?

    • Asymmetric encryption algorithm

    • Dodecaphonic algorithm

    • Diffie-Hellman algorithm

    • Symmetric encryption algorithm

    Correct Answer
    A. Symmetric encryption algorithm
    Explanation
    A symmetric encryption algorithm uses the same key to both encrypt and decrypt data. This means that the sender and receiver must have the same key to communicate securely. This type of encryption is commonly used for secure communication and data storage, as it is fast and efficient. Unlike asymmetric encryption, which uses different keys for encryption and decryption, symmetric encryption is simpler and more straightforward.

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  • 7. 

    How many encryption key bits are needed to double the number of possible key values that are available with a 40-bit encryption key?

    • 80 bits

    • 41 bits

    • 120 bits

    • 160 bits

    Correct Answer
    A. 41 bits
    Explanation
    Modern symmetric algorithms use key lengths that range from 40 to 256 bits. This range gives symmetric algorithms key spaces that range from 240 (1,099,511,627,776 possible keys) to 2256 (1.5 x 1077) possible keys.

    Every additional bit in the key length doubles the number of possible key values.

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  • 8. 

    Risk is a function of which three factors? (Choose three.)

    • Cost of security solution

    • Threat

    • Deployment time

    • Impact

    • Support costs

    • Vulnerabilities

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Threat
    A. Impact
    A. Vulnerabilities
    Explanation
    Risk is a measure of the potential harm or negative impact that can result from a threat exploiting vulnerabilities. The three factors that contribute to risk are threat, impact, and vulnerabilities. The threat refers to the likelihood of a harmful event occurring, impact refers to the severity of the consequences if the event occurs, and vulnerabilities are weaknesses or flaws that can be exploited by the threat. These three factors together determine the level of risk associated with a particular situation or system.

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  • 9. 

    Which one of the following is the reason that asymmetric encryption is not used to perform bulk encryption?

    • Asymmetric algorithms are substantially slower than symmetric algorithms.

    • Asymmetric algorithms are easier to break than symmetric algorithms.

    • Symmetric algorithms can provide authentication and confidentiality.

    • Symmetric algorithms use a much larger key size.

    Correct Answer
    A. Asymmetric algorithms are substantially slower than symmetric algorithms.
    Explanation
    Asymmetric encryption is not used for bulk encryption because it is substantially slower than symmetric encryption. Asymmetric encryption involves the use of a pair of keys, a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. This process requires more computational power and time compared to symmetric encryption, where the same key is used for both encryption and decryption. Therefore, symmetric encryption is more efficient for bulk encryption where large amounts of data need to be encrypted or decrypted quickly.

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  • 10. 

    What best describes a brute-force attack?
    •  

    • An attacker's attempt to decode a cipher by attempting each possible key combination to find the correct one

    • Breaking and entering into a physical building or network closet

    • A rogue DHCP server that is posing as a legitimate DHCP server on a network segment

    • An attacker inserting itself between two devices in a communication session and then taking over the session.

    Correct Answer
    A. An attacker's attempt to decode a cipher by attempting each possible key combination to find the correct one
    Explanation
    A brute-force attack refers to an attacker's attempt to decode a cipher by systematically trying every possible key combination until the correct one is found. This method is time-consuming but effective, as it exhaustively checks all possible combinations. It is commonly used when the key length is short or weak, making it easier for the attacker to find the correct key. The other options mentioned in the question, such as breaking and entering, rogue DHCP servers, and session hijacking, are unrelated to brute-force attacks.

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  • 11. 

    What best describes domain shadowing?

    • Domain shadowing provides a backup web site to redirect the user to, in the event of a compromise.

    • Domain shadowing involves the attacker compromising a parent domain and creating multiple subdomains to be used during their attacks.

    • Domain shadowing is the OpenDns response to a web site redirect when the HTTP 404 error code is received.

    • Domain shadowing is a fault tolerant method that is used by developers when building and developing web-based services.

    Correct Answer
    A. Domain shadowing involves the attacker compromising a parent domain and creating multiple subdomains to be used during their attacks.
    Explanation
    Domain shadowing involves the attacker compromising a parent domain and creating multiple subdomains to be used during their attacks. This technique allows the attacker to hide their malicious activities by using legitimate subdomains within the compromised parent domain. By doing so, they can bypass security measures and make it more difficult for detection and mitigation.

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  • 12. 

    Malicious Windows operating system codes that share a single virtual address space, and can manage the system CPU and memory resources directly are running in which mode?

    • Safe

    • User

    • Kernel

    • Privileged

    Correct Answer
    A. Kernel
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "kernel". In the given question, it is stated that the malicious Windows operating system codes are running in a mode that allows them to share a single virtual address space and manage the system CPU and memory resources directly. This mode is known as the kernel mode. In the kernel mode, the operating system has complete control over the hardware and can execute privileged instructions.

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  • 13. 

    What are the three basic security requirements of network security? (Choose three.)

    • Accountability

    • Availability

    • Confidentiality

    • Visibility

    • Integrity

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Availability
    A. Confidentiality
    A. Integrity
    Explanation
    The three basic security requirements of network security are availability, confidentiality, and integrity. Availability refers to the accessibility and usability of network resources, ensuring that they are consistently available to authorized users. Confidentiality involves protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity ensures that data remains accurate and unaltered, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. Visibility, although mentioned in the options, is not considered a basic security requirement in network security.

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  • 14. 

    What are two main goals of SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.)

    • Data modification

    • Denial of service

    • Theft or extraction of data

    • Timed execution of malware

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Data modification
    A. Theft or extraction of data
    Explanation
    The two main goals of SQL injection attacks are data modification and theft or extraction of data. In a SQL injection attack, an attacker manipulates a web application's database by injecting malicious SQL code. Data modification refers to the ability to alter or change the data stored in the database, while theft or extraction of data involves stealing sensitive information from the database. These goals allow the attacker to manipulate or steal data for their own malicious purposes.

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  • 15. 

    Of the following, in which type of an attack does the attacker try every possible key with the decryption algorithm, knowing that eventually one of the keys will work?

    • Chosen-ciphertext attack

    • Birthday attack

    • Brute-force attack

    • Ciphertext-only attack

    Correct Answer
    A. Brute-force attack
    Explanation
    In a brute-force attack, an attacker tries every possible key with the decryption algorithm, knowing that eventually one of the keys will work. All encryption algorithms are vulnerable to this attack.

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  • 16. 

    Which one of the following options is the attack that can be used to find collisions in a cryptographic hash function?

    • Birthday attack

    • Chosen-plaintext attack

    • Ciphertext-only attack

    • Chosen-ciphertext attack

    Correct Answer
    A. Birthday attack
    Explanation
    A birthday attack is a type of attack that can be used to find collisions in a cryptographic hash function. In this attack, the attacker aims to find two different inputs that produce the same hash value. The attacker generates a large number of random inputs and computes their hash values. By comparing the hash values, the attacker can identify any collisions that occur. This attack takes advantage of the birthday paradox, which states that in a group of just 23 people, there is a 50% chance that two people share the same birthday. Similarly, in a hash function with a large number of possible inputs, the probability of finding a collision becomes surprisingly high.

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  • 17. 

    Which resource record type is used to display the mail servers for a domain?

    • MX

    • CNAME

    • AAAA

    • PTR

    Correct Answer
    A. MX
    Explanation
    MX stands for Mail Exchanger. It is a type of resource record used in the Domain Name System (DNS) to specify the mail servers responsible for accepting incoming emails for a particular domain. When someone sends an email to a domain, the MX record helps in routing the email to the correct mail server. Therefore, the correct answer is MX.

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  • 18. 

    After encryption has been applied to a message, what is the message identified as?

    • Hash result

    • Ciphertext

    • Fingerprint

    • Message digest

    Correct Answer
    A. Ciphertext
    Explanation
    With encryption, the plaintext readable message is converted to ciphertext, which is the unreadable, “disguised” message.

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  • 19. 

    Which one of the following parts of the Diffie-Hellman calculation is an arbitrary item that is agreed upon by both parties before any mathematical calculations?

    • Secret key (a)

    • Prime number (p)

    • Public key (g)

    • Public key (g)

    Correct Answer
    A. Prime number (p)
    Explanation
    In the Diffie-Hellman calculation, the prime number (p) is an arbitrary item that is agreed upon by both parties before any mathematical calculations. This prime number serves as the modulus in the calculation and ensures that the computation is performed within a finite field. By agreeing on a specific prime number, both parties can generate their own secret keys and public keys, which are then used to establish a shared secret key for secure communication.

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  • 20. 

    Which statement about the Diffie-Hellman Key Agreement is true?

    • The higher the Diffie-Hellman group number indicates a larger key size.

    • The higher the Diffie-Hellman group number indicates a smaller prime number (p).

    • The higher the Diffie-Hellman group number indicates a smaller key size.

    • The higher the Diffie-Hellman group number indicates no difference in processing requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. The higher the Diffie-Hellman group number indicates a larger key size.
    Explanation
    The Diffie-Hellman Key Agreement is a method used to securely exchange cryptographic keys over an insecure channel. In this method, a large prime number (p) and a generator (g) are chosen. The group number refers to the size of the prime number (p). The larger the group number, the larger the prime number, and consequently, the larger the key size. A larger key size provides stronger security and makes it more difficult for an attacker to break the encryption. Therefore, the statement that the higher the Diffie-Hellman group number indicates a larger key size is true.

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  • 21. 

    You suspect that a Windows host has been infected with malware, and the malware is creating many TCP connections. Which Windows command would you use to display all the active TCP connections on the host?

    • Net view

    • Systeminfo

    • Route print

    • Netstat

    Correct Answer
    A. Netstat
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "netstat." Netstat is a command-line tool used to display active TCP connections on a Windows host. By running the netstat command, you can view information such as the local and foreign addresses, state of the connection, and the process ID associated with each connection. This can help identify any suspicious or unwanted connections that may be a result of malware activity.

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  • 22. 

    Which one of the following options is used to determine the strength of a modern encryption algorithm?

    • Message digest (fingerprint) size

    • Cipher block size

    • Key size

    • Encryption operations OSI layer

    Correct Answer
    A. Key size
    Explanation
    The longer the encryption key is, the longer it takes an attacker to break it.

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  • 23. 

    What is the primary purpose for using an encryption algorithm on a message?

    • Availability

    • Integrity

    • Confidentiality

    • Authentication

    Correct Answer
    A. Confidentiality
    Explanation
    Encryption is the process of disguising a message in such a way as to hide its original contents. With encryption, the plaintext readable message is converted to ciphertext, which is the unreadable, “disguised” message. Decryption reverses this process. Encryption is used to guarantee confidentiality so that only authorized entities can read the original message.

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  • 24. 

    Which one of the following options describes the concept of small changes in data causing a large change in the hash algorithm output?

    • Butterfly effect

    • Keyed effect

    • Avalanche effect

    • Fibonacci effect

    Correct Answer
    A. Avalanche effect
    Explanation
    The concept of the avalanche effect refers to the phenomenon where even a small change in input data to a hash algorithm results in a significantly different output. This means that a slight modification in the original data will cause the hash algorithm to produce a completely different hash value. The avalanche effect is a desirable property in hash algorithms as it ensures that even a tiny alteration in the input will lead to a drastic change in the output, thereby enhancing security and preventing predictability.

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  • 25. 

    Which statement is correct?

    • The mail user agent is also called the SMTP daemon.

    • The DNS A record is used to locate the FQDN of the mail server for a domain.

    • POP is used by the groupware server to send emails to the MTA.

    • Microsoft Exchange is the groupware server and Microsoft Outlook is the mail user agent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Microsoft Exchange is the groupware server and Microsoft Outlook is the mail user agent.
  • 26. 

    Which Windows netstat command options can be used to link the open connection to the owning process ID?

    • -abno

    • -abe

    • -ars

    • -af

    Correct Answer
    A. -abno
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "-abno". This option displays the active TCP connections and includes the process ID (PID) and process name for each connection. By using this option, we can link the open connection to the owning process ID.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following protocols is typically used as the communication channel between the client and the DDNS provider?

    • ARP

    • DHCP

    • HTTP/HTTPS

    • ICMP

    Correct Answer
    A. HTTP/HTTPS
    Explanation
    The communication between the client and the DDNS (Dynamic DNS) provider typically occurs over HTTP/HTTPS protocols. These protocols are commonly used for transferring data between a client (such as a computer or a mobile device) and a server (such as the DDNS provider's server). ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses on a local network, DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used for assigning IP addresses to devices on a network, and ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for network diagnostics and troubleshooting.

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  • 28. 

    Which protocols use the well-known TCP port 110?

    • POP

    • IMAP

    • SMTP

    • DNS

    Correct Answer
    A. POP
    Explanation
    POP (Post Office Protocol) is a protocol that is used for retrieving email from a mail server. It uses TCP port 110 as the default port for communication. This means that when a client wants to retrieve email from a server using POP, it will connect to the server's TCP port 110. Therefore, the correct answer is POP.

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  • 29. 

    Which one of the following methods of cryptanalysis should you use if you only have access to the cipher text messages (all of which have been encrypted using the same encryption algorithm), and want to perform statistical analysis to attempt to determine the potentially weak keys?

    • Chosen-plaintext attack

    • Ciphertext-only attack

    • Birthday attack

    • Chosen-ciphertext attack

    Correct Answer
    A. Ciphertext-only attack
    Explanation
    A ciphertext-only attack is the correct method of cryptanalysis to use in this scenario. This attack involves analyzing the cipher text messages without any knowledge of the corresponding plaintext or the encryption algorithm. By performing statistical analysis on the cipher text, patterns and frequencies can be identified, which may help in determining potential weak keys used for encryption. This method is particularly useful when only the cipher text is available and no other information about the encryption process is known.

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  • 30. 

    Which one of the following statements describes the risk of not destroying a session key that is no longer used for completed communication of encrypted data?

    • Systems can only store a certain number of keys and could be unable to generate new keys for communication.

    • It increases the risk of duplicate keys existing for the key space of the algorithm.

    • The attacker could have captured the encrypted communication and stored it while waiting for an opportunity to acquire the key.

    • The risk of weaker keys being generated increases as the number of keys stored increases.

    Correct Answer
    A. The attacker could have captured the encrypted communication and stored it while waiting for an opportunity to acquire the key.
    Explanation
    Not destroying a session key that is no longer used for completed communication of encrypted data increases the risk that the attacker could have captured the encrypted communication and stored it while waiting for an opportunity to acquire the key. This means that if the key is compromised in the future, the attacker could decrypt the stored communication and gain access to sensitive information. Therefore, it is important to destroy session keys that are no longer needed to mitigate this risk.

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  • 31. 

    What are three examples of PII? (Choose three.)

    • Type and model of personal vehicle

    • Business email address

    • Passport number

    • Office location

    • Place and date of birth

    • Fingerprints

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Passport number
    A. Place and date of birth
    A. Fingerprints
    Explanation
    The three examples of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) are passport number, place and date of birth, and fingerprints. PII refers to any information that can be used to identify an individual, and these examples all contain unique identifiers that are directly linked to a specific person. The type and model of a personal vehicle, business email address, and office location may provide some information about an individual, but they are not considered PII as they do not directly identify a person.

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  • 32. 

    If an engineering server's risk of having a hard drive failure is assigned a risk level of $500, which assessment strategy is being used?

    • Quantitative

    • Non-discretionary

    • Impact

    • Qualitative

    • Mandatory

    • Discretionary

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantitative
    Explanation
    The given correct answer for this question is "quantitative." This is because the risk level of having a hard drive failure on the engineering server is assigned a specific monetary value of $500, indicating a quantitative assessment strategy. This strategy involves assigning numerical values to risks, which allows for easier comparison and analysis of the potential impact of each risk.

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  • 33. 

    What SQL command is used by attackers to exfiltrate sensitive data?

    • Alter

    • Drop

    • Select

    • Get

    • Post

    Correct Answer
    A. Select
    Explanation
    Attackers use the "select" SQL command to exfiltrate sensitive data. The "select" command allows them to retrieve specific data from a database, including sensitive information such as personal data, financial records, or login credentials. By crafting malicious SQL queries, attackers can exploit vulnerabilities in the system and extract the desired data without authorization. This command is commonly used in SQL injection attacks, where attackers manipulate input fields to inject malicious SQL code and perform unauthorized actions on the database.

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  • 34. 

    Which statement is correct?

    • The mail user agent is also called the SMTP daemon.

    • The DNS A record is used to locate the FQDN of the mail server for a domain.

    • POP is used by the groupware server to send emails to the MTA.

    • Microsoft Exchange is the groupware server and Microsoft Outlook is the mail user agent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Microsoft Exchange is the groupware server and Microsoft Outlook is the mail user agent.
    Explanation
    The statement "Microsoft Exchange is the groupware server and Microsoft Outlook is the mail user agent" is correct because Microsoft Exchange is a popular groupware server that provides email, calendar, and contact management functionality, while Microsoft Outlook is a mail user agent that allows users to access and manage their email accounts.

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  • 35. 

    Which one of the following encryption algorithms is the preferred symmetrical algorithm that is intended to replace 3DES?

    • DES

    • SHA256

    • MD5

    • AES

    • DSA

    • RSA

    Correct Answer
    A. AES
    Explanation
    For several years, it was recognized that DES would eventually reach the end of its usefulness. In 1997, the AES initiative was announced, and the public was invited to propose candidate encryption schemes, one of which could be chosen as the encryption standard to replace DES. The U.S. Secretary of Commerce approved the adoption of AES as an official U.S. government standard, effective May 26, 200

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  • 36. 

    What two are triggers for an organization to perform a vulnerability assessment? (Choose two.)

    • When software or hardware updates are released.

    • When new users are brought on-board

    • When a new technology or software is planned to be deployed

    • Only when the network is initially deployed

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. When software or hardware updates are released.
    A. When a new technology or software is planned to be deployed
    Explanation
    The two triggers for an organization to perform a vulnerability assessment are when software or hardware updates are released and when a new technology or software is planned to be deployed. Performing a vulnerability assessment after software or hardware updates are released ensures that any potential vulnerabilities introduced by the updates are identified and addressed. Similarly, conducting a vulnerability assessment before deploying a new technology or software helps identify any weaknesses or vulnerabilities that could be exploited. These triggers help ensure that the organization's systems and networks remain secure and protected.

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  • 37. 

    What are two examples of the impacts of cryptography on security investigations that an analyst must know? (Choose two)

    • Attackers can attack the cryptographic algorithms.

    • Cryptographic algorithms make it impossible for an attacker to carry out an attack.

    • Attackers can use cryptography to hide their attacks.

    • Cryptography does not offer any security against attacks.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Attackers can attack the cryptographic algorithms.
    A. Attackers can use cryptography to hide their attacks.
    Explanation
    Cryptography plays a crucial role in security investigations. Attackers can target the cryptographic algorithms themselves, attempting to exploit vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the algorithms to gain unauthorized access. Additionally, attackers can utilize cryptography to conceal their malicious activities, making it challenging for analysts to detect and investigate their attacks. Understanding these impacts is vital for analysts to effectively assess and mitigate security threats.

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  • 38. 

    Which one of the following algorithms is most susceptible to collision when hashing different data sets?

    • SHA-512

    • SHA-256

    • SHA-1

    • MD5

    Correct Answer
    A. MD5
    Explanation
    MD5 was originally thought to be collision-resistant, but has been shown to have collision vulnerabilities.

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  • 39. 

    To communicate that a document is using a digital signature, which one of the following is the next step in the process after a hash of the document is calculated by the sender?

    • The hash is signed using the public key of the receiver.

    • The hash is stored by the sender.

    • The hash is encrypted using the private key of the sender.

    • The hash is appended to the end of the document.

    Correct Answer
    A. The hash is encrypted using the private key of the sender.
    Explanation
    After calculating the hash of the document, the next step in the process is to encrypt the hash using the private key of the sender. This is done to create a digital signature for the document. By encrypting the hash with the sender's private key, it ensures that only the sender, who possesses the corresponding public key, can decrypt and verify the signature. This provides authentication and integrity to the document, as any modifications to the document would result in a different hash value and the signature would no longer be valid.

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  • 40. 

    Which one of the following statements best describes crypto analysis?

    • The practice of breaking codes to obtain the meaning of encrypted data.

    • The practice of creating one-way encryption cryptographic algorithms.

    • The practice of breaking codes to obtain the fingerprint of encrypted data.

    • The practice of creating codes to obscure the meaning of plaintext data.

    Correct Answer
    A. The practice of breaking codes to obtain the meaning of encrypted data.
    Explanation
    Crypto analysis refers to the practice of breaking codes in order to decipher or understand the meaning of encrypted data. This involves analyzing and deciphering cryptographic algorithms, keys, or codes used to encrypt the data. The purpose of crypto analysis is to reveal the original message or information that has been concealed through encryption.

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  • 41. 

    Referring to the sample URL below, what statement is correct?http://www.test.example.com/tags/html_form_submit.asp?text=Hello+C+C+N+A

    • The plus (+) signs are used to represent the space character.

    • The question mark (?) sign is used to represent the space character.

    • The top-level domain is test.example.com.

    • The top-level domain is example.com.

    Correct Answer
    A. The plus (+) signs are used to represent the space character.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the plus (+) signs are used to represent the space character. This is because in the given URL, the text parameter is "Hello+C+C+N+A" which includes plus signs (+) instead of spaces. In URLs, spaces are not allowed and are typically represented by plus signs or percent encoding.

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  • 42. 

    What protocol uses TCP port 143?

    • SMTP

    • POP

    • LDAP

    • IMAP

    Correct Answer
    A. IMAP
    Explanation
    IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is a protocol that is used for retrieving and accessing email messages from a mail server. It uses TCP port 143 for communication. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending email messages, POP (Post Office Protocol) is used for retrieving email messages from a mail server, and LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is used for accessing and maintaining directory information. Therefore, the correct answer is IMAP because it specifically uses TCP port 143.

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  • 43. 

    Select the ones you like

    • Option1

    • Option2

    • Option3

    • Option4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Option1 because it is the option that the person selecting the answer likes.

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  • 44. 

    Which two of the following statements are true regarding the CA in a PKI deployment? (Choose two.)

    • The CA is the trusted third party that signs the public keys of entities in a PKI-based system.

    • The CA becomes the center point of communications between two hosts using certificates that are issued by the CA.

    • The CA issues either a certificate revocation list (CRL) or uses an OCSP process to determine certificate validity.

    • A root CA is not necessary in a PKI.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The CA is the trusted third party that signs the public keys of entities in a PKI-based system.
    A. The CA issues either a certificate revocation list (CRL) or uses an OCSP process to determine certificate validity.
    Explanation
    In a PKI deployment, the CA plays a crucial role as the trusted third party that signs the public keys of entities. This ensures the authenticity and integrity of the certificates issued in the system. Additionally, the CA is responsible for determining the validity of certificates. This can be done through either issuing a certificate revocation list (CRL) or utilizing an Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) process. These mechanisms allow for the identification of compromised or revoked certificates, ensuring the security of the PKI infrastructure.

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  • 45. 

    Which one of the following options was used by Diffie-Hellman to determine the strength of the key that is used in the key agreement process?

    • DH group

    • DH prime number (p)

    • DH modulus

    • DH base generator (g)

    Correct Answer
    A. DH group
    Explanation
    Diffie-Hellman used different DH groups to determine the strength of the key that is used in the key agreement process. The higher group numbers are more secure, but require additional time to compute the key. Each DH group specifies the values of p and g. DH groups are supported by Cisco IOS Software and the associated size of the value of the prime p:

    DH Group 1: 768 bits

    DH Group 2: 1024 bits

    DH Group 5: 1536 bits

    DH Group 14: 2048 bits

    DH Group 15: 3072 bits

    DH Group 16: 4096 bits

    A DH key agreement can also be based on elliptic curve cryptography. Its use is included in the Suite B cryptographic suites. DH groups 19, 20, and 24, based on elliptic curve cryptography, are also supported by Cisco IOS Software.

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  • 46. 

    If a client connected to a server using SSHv1 previously, how should the client be able to authenticate the server?

    • The same encryption algorithm will be used each time and will be in the client cache.

    • The server will autofill the stored password for the client upon connection.

    • The client will receive the same public key that it had stored for the server.

    • The server will not use any asymmetric encryption, and jump right to symmetric encryption.

    Correct Answer
    A. The client will receive the same public key that it had stored for the server.
    Explanation
    SSHv1 uses a connection process as follows:

    The client connects to the server and the server presents the client with its public key.

    The client and server negotiate the security transforms. The two sides agree to a mutually supported symmetric encryption algorithm. This negotiation occurs in the clear. A party that intercepts the communication will be aware of the encryption algorithm that is agreed upon.

    The client constructs a session key of the appropriate length to support the agreed-upon encryption algorithm. The client encrypts the session key with the server’s public key. Only the server has the appropriate private key that can decrypt the session key.

    The client sends the encrypted session key to the server. The server decrypts the session key using its private key. At this point, both the client and the server have the shared session key. That key is not available to any other systems. From this point on, the session between the client and server is encrypted using a symmetric encryption algorithm.

    With privacy in place, user authentication ensues. The user’s credentials and all other data are protected.

    Not only does the use of asymmetric encryption facilitate symmetric key exchange, it also facilitates peer authentication. If the client is aware of the server’s public key, it would recognize if it connected to a nonauthentic system when the nonauthentic system provided a different public key.

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  • 47. 

    What is the security property that guarantees that sensitive information is changed only by an authorized party?

    • Integrity

    • Availability

    • Confidentiality

    • Accountability

    • Visibility

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrity
    Explanation
    Integrity is the security property that ensures that sensitive information is changed only by an authorized party. It involves maintaining the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. By implementing measures such as access controls, data validation, and audit trails, integrity ensures that unauthorized modifications or tampering with sensitive information are prevented. This helps to maintain the trustworthiness and reliability of the data, protecting it from unauthorized changes and ensuring that only authorized parties can make modifications.

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  • 48. 

    Which type of ciphers rearrange or permutate letters?

    • Substitution

    • Polyalphabetic

    • Transposition

    • One-time pad

    Correct Answer
    A. Transposition
    Explanation
    Transposition ciphers rearrange or permutate letters, instead of replacing them. Transposition is also known as permutation. An example of this type of cipher takes the message “THE PACKAGE IS DELIVERED” and transposes it to read “DEREVILEDSIEGAKCAPEHT.” In this example, the key is to reverse the letters.

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  • 49. 

    Which two of the following options must be included in the CSR that is to be signed by a CA? (Choose two.)

    • Subject’s public key information

    • Written invitation code to join the CA

    • Subject identity information

    • Certificate intended usage

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Subject’s public key information
    A. Subject identity information
    Explanation
    To obtain an identity certificate, a system administrator will enroll with the PKI. The first step is to obtain the CA’s identity certificate. The next step is to create a CSR (PKCS #10). The CSR contains the identity information that is associated with the enrolling system, which can include data such as the system name, the organization to which the system belongs, and location information. Most importantly, the enrolling system’s public key is included with the CSR.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 05, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Bill Johnson

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