BCBA Exam Questions

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BCBA Exam Questions - Quiz

Board Certified Behavior Analyst (BCBA) is a certification of graduate-level in behavior analysis. The BCBA certified professionals are the practitioners who work independently towards providing behavior-analytic services. But before reaching that level, you must clear the compulsory exam first. Here, this practice test has more than 150 questions of the same. So, you can practice hard with this BCBA exam test.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

     _______________________ involves collecting baselines on the same behavior of several persons, preferably in different settings.

    • A.

      Multiple-baseline across individuals design

    • B.

      Multiple-baseline across behaviors design

    • C.

      Alternating treatments design

    • D.

      Reversal design

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple-baseline across individuals design
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Multiple-baseline across individuals design. This design involves collecting baselines on the same behavior of several persons, preferably in different settings. By doing so, it allows researchers to establish a cause-and-effect relationship between the independent variable and the behavior being studied. This design is particularly useful when it is not possible or ethical to use a control group or when the behavior being studied is rare or occurs infrequently.

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  • 2. 

    When using behavioral momentum, behaviors selected for a high-p request sequence should:  

    • A.

      Be part of the learner's current repertoire

    • B.

      Be new behavior(s) the learner has to acquire

    • C.

      Have a very long duration of occurrence

    • D.

      Be those behaviors with which the learner is not complaint

    Correct Answer
    A. Be part of the learner's current repertoire
    Explanation
    When using behavioral momentum, behaviors selected for a high-p request sequence should be part of the learner's current repertoire. This means that the learner should already be familiar with and capable of performing these behaviors. By selecting behaviors that the learner is already proficient in, it increases the likelihood of success and reinforces the learner's confidence and motivation. Introducing new behaviors or behaviors that the learner is not familiar with may lead to frustration and decrease the effectiveness of the high-p request sequence.

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  • 3. 

    Which statement best describes recovery from punishment?  

    • A.

      After punishment is discontinued, sometimes the behavior that experienced the punishment contingency will recover.

    • B.

      When the punishment contingency is implemented, the behavior of interest may initially increase in rate, followed by a rapid decline in frequency.

    • C.

      After punishment is discontinued, the behavior of interest may gradually reappear, only to disappear on its own, regardless of existing environmental contingencies.

    • D.

      The period of time the implementer of the punishment contingency requires to "recover" from the emotional side effects of using punishment.

    Correct Answer
    A. After punishment is discontinued, sometimes the behavior that experienced the punishment contingency will recover.
    Explanation
    After punishment is discontinued, sometimes the behavior that experienced the punishment contingency will recover. This means that the behavior that was punished may start to occur again after the punishment has stopped.

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  • 4. 

    Extinction may involve which of the following

    • A.

      Increase in rate of target behavior

    • B.

      Increase in intensity of target behavior

    • C.

      Increase in a variety of behaviors

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Extinction refers to the process of reducing or eliminating a target behavior by withholding reinforcement. In this context, "all of the above" is the correct answer because extinction can result in an increase in the rate of the target behavior, an increase in the intensity of the target behavior, or an increase in a variety of other behaviors. This occurs because when reinforcement is no longer provided for the target behavior, individuals may engage in the behavior more frequently, with greater intensity, or they may try out different behaviors in an attempt to obtain the previously reinforced outcome.

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  • 5. 

    Noncontingent reinforcement involves the presentation of:

    • A.

      Stimuli with unknown reinforcing properties that are delivered on a fixed-time or variable time schedule independent of the learner's behavior

    • B.

      Stimuli with known reinforcing properties that are delivered on a fixed-time or variable-time schedule independent of the learner's behavior

    • C.

      Stimuli with known reinforcing properties that are not delivered on a fixed-ratio or variable-ratio schedule independent of the learner's behavior

    • D.

      Stimuli with known reinforcing properties that are delivered on a fixed-time or variable-time schedule dependent on the learner's behavior

    Correct Answer
    B. Stimuli with known reinforcing properties that are delivered on a fixed-time or variable-time schedule independent of the learner's behavior
    Explanation
    Noncontingent reinforcement involves delivering stimuli with known reinforcing properties on a fixed-time or variable-time schedule, regardless of the learner's behavior. This means that the reinforcement is not contingent upon any specific behavior or response from the learner. Instead, the reinforcement is provided at predetermined intervals, regardless of what the learner is doing. This can be useful in certain situations, such as when trying to maintain a behavior or when the learner is unable to engage in the desired behavior.

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  • 6. 

    The principle of ________ determines the degree to which a person's behavior repertoire maximizes short and long term reinforcers for that individual and for others and minimizes short and long term punishers.

    • A.

      Normalization

    • B.

      Habilitation

    • C.

      Functionality

    • D.

      Justification

    Correct Answer
    B. Habilitation
    Explanation
    Habilitation refers to the process of helping individuals with disabilities or impairments develop skills and abilities to function effectively in their environment. The principle of habilitation focuses on maximizing positive reinforcement and minimizing punishment to promote positive behaviors and outcomes for both the individual and others. It involves identifying and implementing strategies that enhance the individual's behavior repertoire and promote their overall well-being and success in the short and long term.

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  • 7. 

    A stimulus change that does not elicit respondent behavior is ____________.

    • A.

      Discriminative stimulus

    • B.

      S-delta

    • C.

      Neutral stimulus

    • D.

      Punishing stimulus

    Correct Answer
    C. Neutral stimulus
    Explanation
    A neutral stimulus refers to a stimulus change that does not elicit any respondent behavior. It does not have any inherent significance or influence on the individual's behavior. In classical conditioning, a neutral stimulus becomes associated with an unconditioned stimulus to eventually elicit a conditioned response. Until this association is formed, the neutral stimulus does not elicit any response on its own.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is not a factor that influences the effectiveness of punishment?  

    • A.

      Immediacy

    • B.

      Intensity

    • C.

      Variation

    • D.

      Schedule

    Correct Answer
    C. Variation
    Explanation
    Variation is not a factor that influences the effectiveness of punishment. Immediacy refers to how quickly the punishment is administered after the behavior, intensity refers to the severity of the punishment, and schedule refers to the consistency of the punishment. However, variation refers to the different types or forms of punishment used, and it does not directly impact the effectiveness of punishment.

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  • 9. 

    Which form of verbal behavior is evoked by a verbal discriminative stimulus and has point-to-point correspondence and formal similarity with the response?

    • A.

      Mand

    • B.

      Tact

    • C.

      Echoic

    • D.

      Intraverbal

    Correct Answer
    C. Echoic
    Explanation
    Echoic behavior refers to the form of verbal behavior that is evoked by a verbal discriminative stimulus and has point-to-point correspondence and formal similarity with the response. In other words, when someone repeats or echoes the words or sounds they hear, it is considered echoic behavior. This type of verbal behavior is important for language development and learning, as it helps individuals acquire new words and sounds by imitating what they hear.

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  • 10. 

    Which form of verbal behavior is evoked by a verbal discriminative stimulus and does not have point-to-point correspondence with that verbal stimulus?

    • A.

      Mand

    • B.

      Tact

    • C.

      Echoic

    • D.

      Intraverbal

    Correct Answer
    D. Intraverbal
    Explanation
    Intraverbal behavior refers to a form of verbal behavior that is evoked by a verbal discriminative stimulus but does not have a point-to-point correspondence with that stimulus. This means that the response is not a direct repetition or imitation of the stimulus, but rather a related or associated verbal response. It involves generating language based on the context or meaning of the stimulus, such as answering questions, having conversations, or providing descriptions.

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  • 11. 

    Little Peter was walking along the fence of his uncle's dairy farm. Peter reached up and grabbed the wire along the fence, not realizing it was electrified. After recovering from the pain caused by the shock, Peter never again touched the fence wires. Which statement best describes the shock stimulus felt by Peter?

    • A.

      Negative reinforcement

    • B.

      Negative punishment

    • C.

      Bad judgement

    • D.

      Positive punishment

    Correct Answer
    D. Positive punishment
    Explanation
    The shock stimulus felt by Peter can be described as positive punishment because it involved the application of an aversive stimulus (electric shock) to decrease the likelihood of a behavior (touching the fence wires) in the future.

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  • 12. 

    Carr and Lovaas (1983) recommended that practitioners experience any punisher personally before the treatment begins for what reason?

    • A.

      It reminds the practitioner that it is a sadistic procedure

    • B.

      It reminds the practitioner that the technique produces physical discomfort

    • C.

      It reminds the practitioner that the technique is designed to increase the appropriate behavior of the student

    • D.

      It allows the practitioner to determine a baseline of discomfort which he/she then increases rapidly as it is administered to the student

    Correct Answer
    B. It reminds the practitioner that the technique produces physical discomfort
    Explanation
    The reason Carr and Lovaas (1983) recommended that practitioners experience any punisher personally before the treatment begins is to remind them that the technique produces physical discomfort. By experiencing it themselves, practitioners can better understand the potential impact on the student and ensure that they are using the technique appropriately and ethically. This firsthand experience serves as a reminder of the potential consequences and helps practitioners make informed decisions about its use.

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  • 13. 

    Sean was responsible for designing an intervention for a fifth grade student who engaged in severe problem behavior consisting of throwing chairs at the teacher when an assignment was given. Sean decided to utilize a contingent physical restraint every time the child threw a chair. Sean is violating the ethical consideration of:  

    • A.

      Right to safe and humane treatment

    • B.

      Least restrictive alternative

    • C.

      Right to effective treatment

    • D.

      Sean is not violating any ethical consideratoin

    Correct Answer
    B. Least restrictive alternative
    Explanation
    Sean is violating the ethical consideration of the least restrictive alternative. The least restrictive alternative principle states that when designing interventions, professionals should choose the intervention that is the least intrusive and restrictive while still effectively addressing the problem behavior. In this case, Sean's decision to use a contingent physical restraint as the intervention is not the least restrictive alternative. There may be other interventions or strategies that could be tried before resorting to physical restraint, such as functional behavior assessment, positive behavior support, or teaching alternative coping skills.

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  • 14. 

    Which experimental design is most appropriate for evaluating the effect of video modeling on the acquisition of the skills for preparing a meal by adults with developmental disabilities?  

    • A.

      Multiple baseline across behaviors

    • B.

      Changing criterion

    • C.

      Multiple probe

    • D.

      Delayed multiple baseline

    Correct Answer
    C. Multiple probe
    Explanation
    A multiple probe experimental design would be the most appropriate for evaluating the effect of video modeling on the acquisition of skills for preparing a meal by adults with developmental disabilities. This design involves introducing the intervention (video modeling) at different times for different behaviors or participants, allowing for a staggered implementation. This design is useful when it is not feasible or ethical to withdraw the intervention once it has been effective for one behavior or participant. By using a multiple probe design, researchers can assess the effectiveness of video modeling on the acquisition of meal preparation skills in a systematic and controlled manner.

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  • 15. 

    A contingency contract:

    • A.

      Is a verbal agreement among two individuals

    • B.

      Specifies how two people will behave toward each other

    • C.

      Often causes scapegoating among learners and peers

    • D.

      Depends largely on the use of punishment for its effectiveness

    Correct Answer
    B. Specifies how two people will behave toward each other
    Explanation
    A contingency contract is a formal agreement that outlines the expected behavior and responsibilities of two individuals towards each other. It sets clear expectations and consequences for both parties involved, ensuring that they understand their roles and obligations. This contract helps establish a structured and predictable environment, promoting accountability and cooperation between the individuals.

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  • 16. 

    All of the following are limitations of the multiple baseline design except:  

    • A.

      It may not reveal the functional relationship, even if one exists

    • B.

      Verification of predicted behavior change must be inferred from other behaviors

    • C.

      The behavior under study must be within the subject's repertoire already

    • D.

      It is weaker than the reversal design

    Correct Answer
    C. The behavior under study must be within the subject's repertoire already
    Explanation
    The multiple baseline design is a research method that involves observing the same behavior across multiple subjects, settings, or behaviors. It is used to determine if changes in the behavior occur after the implementation of an intervention. One of the limitations of this design is that it may not reveal the functional relationship between the intervention and the behavior change, even if one exists. This means that even if the behavior changes after the intervention, it may not be clear if the intervention caused the change or if other factors were involved. Another limitation is that the verification of predicted behavior change must be inferred from other behaviors, as direct observation may not be possible or practical. Additionally, the design is weaker than the reversal design, which allows for more conclusive evidence of causality. However, the design does not require that the behavior under study be within the subject's repertoire already, so this is not a limitation.

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  • 17. 

    The primary reason one might consider using a level system with a token system is that:

    • A.

      Doing so can foster self management

    • B.

      Doing so makes it easier to withdraw the token economy

    • C.

      Level systems are more preferred for all learners

    • D.

      Level systems are easier to manage

    Correct Answer
    A. Doing so can foster self management
    Explanation
    Using a level system with a token system can foster self-management because it allows individuals to earn tokens based on their behavior and progress. As they accumulate tokens and move up levels, they are motivated to continue exhibiting positive behaviors and making progress. This system promotes autonomy and responsibility as individuals learn to manage their own behavior and strive to reach higher levels. It provides a sense of achievement and control, ultimately leading to self-management skills.

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  • 18. 

    Dr. G was a very well-known behavior analyst with a great radio voice.  He was occasionally asked to handle questions about behavior problems on a local radio call-in show.  To make the show lively and interesting, Dr. G  took great pains to remind listeners that what he suggested was backed up by empirical research.  The show's producer prompted Dr. G. to use the caller's name when giving a reply and a warm tone.  He wanted Dr. G to say something like, "I know exactly what you are talking about, and I can understand how you feel".  Dr. G preferred a matter-of-fact approach.  What should Dr. G. do?

    • A.

      Try to be "warmer" while maintaining his ethics and not making statements that suggest he knows more about the caller than he does

    • B.

      Do whatever the producer says so he doesn't get fired

    • C.

      Continue what he is doing regardless of the outcome

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Try to be "warmer" while maintaining his ethics and not making statements that suggest he knows more about the caller than he does
    Explanation
    Dr. G should try to be "warmer" while maintaining his ethics and not making statements that suggest he knows more about the caller than he does. This means that he should follow the producer's suggestion of using the caller's name and a warm tone, but he should not make false statements or pretend to understand the caller's feelings more than he actually does. By doing this, Dr. G can maintain a friendly and engaging demeanor on the radio show without compromising his professional integrity.

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  • 19. 

    Motivating operations and discriminative stimuli:

    • A.

      Have similar evocative effects on behavior

    • B.

      Are considered synonymous

    • C.

      Occur after the behavior of interest

    • D.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Have similar evocative effects on behavior
    Explanation
    Motivating operations and discriminative stimuli have similar evocative effects on behavior. This means that both of these factors can influence and elicit certain behaviors. Motivating operations refer to events or conditions that alter the value of a reinforcer and therefore affect the likelihood of a behavior occurring. Discriminative stimuli, on the other hand, are cues or signals in the environment that indicate the availability of reinforcement for a particular behavior. Both motivating operations and discriminative stimuli can evoke or prompt specific behaviors in individuals.

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  • 20. 

    _____________________is an experimental design in which two or more conditions are presented in rapidly alternating succession independent of the level of responding.

    • A.

      Multiple baseline across settings

    • B.

      Reversal design

    • C.

      Withdrawal design

    • D.

      Alternating treatments design

    Correct Answer
    D. Alternating treatments design
    Explanation
    The alternating treatments design is an experimental design where two or more conditions are presented in rapidly alternating succession, regardless of the level of responding. This design allows for the comparison of the effects of different conditions on the same individual or group, by quickly switching between the conditions. It is useful in situations where it is not feasible or ethical to withdraw the treatment, and provides a more efficient way to evaluate the effectiveness of different interventions or treatments.

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  • 21. 

    Behavior that exposes an individual to new contingencies, reinforcers, and stimulus controls is called:  

    • A.

      Pivotal behavior

    • B.

      Access behavior

    • C.

      Behavior cusp

    • D.

      Contingent behavior

    Correct Answer
    C. Behavior cusp
    Explanation
    A behavior cusp refers to a behavior that has a significant impact on an individual's life by exposing them to new contingencies, reinforcers, and stimulus controls. It is a behavior that acts as a catalyst for further learning and development, opening up new opportunities and possibilities. This term is used to highlight the importance and potential of certain behaviors in shaping an individual's behavior repertoire.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following illustrates an example of stimulus control?  

    • A.

      Joanne occasionally runs the stop sign near her house because there are rarely any cars at the intersection

    • B.

      Frank flaps his hands almost constantly all day long.

    • C.

      Joe hits his teacher every time and only when she asks him to wash his hands.

    • D.

      Molly uses a Kleenex to wipe her nose when it is running and often when it is not running. It is a bad habit she has.

    Correct Answer
    C. Joe hits his teacher every time and only when she asks him to wash his hands.
    Explanation
    The correct answer illustrates an example of stimulus control because Joe hits his teacher specifically when she asks him to wash his hands. The teacher's request serves as the stimulus that triggers Joe's hitting behavior, indicating that his behavior is under the control of the specific stimulus of the teacher's request.

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  • 23. 

    When a problem behavior has been targeted for reduction or elimination, the behavior analyst must always include a(n) ________ in the intervention plan.     

    • A.

      Replacement behavior

    • B.

      Appropriate response

    • C.

      Pivotal behavior

    • D.

      Performance criterion

    Correct Answer
    A. Replacement behavior
    Explanation
    When a problem behavior is targeted for reduction or elimination, it is important for the behavior analyst to include a replacement behavior in the intervention plan. This means identifying and teaching a more appropriate behavior to replace the problem behavior. The replacement behavior should serve the same function as the problem behavior, but in a more socially acceptable way. By including a replacement behavior in the intervention plan, the behavior analyst can help the individual learn and engage in a more desirable behavior instead of the problem behavior.

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  • 24. 

    The ____________ design consists of an initial baseline phase followed by an intervention phase followed by a return to baseline.

    • A.

      A-B-A

    • B.

      Reversal design

    • C.

      Withdrawal design

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." This is because all three terms - A-B-A design, Reversal design, and Withdrawal design - refer to the same research design that involves an initial baseline phase, followed by an intervention phase, and then a return to baseline. These terms are used interchangeably to describe this type of experimental design.

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  • 25. 

    Several years ago, some research was conducted on teaching safety skills to elementary school children.  In this research, the children were taught to cross the street safely after school.  As one can imagine, during the baseline phase in a study like this, observers might be watching children who crossed the street without looking both ways or who engaged in other unsafe behaviors.  Which ethical guideline is applicable here.

    • A.

      If behavior analysts learn of misuse or misrepresentation of their individual work products, they take reasonable and feasible steps to correct or minimize the misuse or misrepresentation

    • B.

      The behavior analyst reviews and appraises the restrictiveness of alternative interventions and always recommends the least restrictive procedures likely to be effective in dealing with a behavior problem.

    • C.

      Behavior analysts are responsible for the ethical conduct of research conducted by them or others under their supervision.

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Behavior analysts are responsible for the ethical conduct of research conducted by them or others under their supervision.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Behavior analysts are responsible for the ethical conduct of research conducted by them or others under their supervision." In this scenario, the research being conducted on teaching safety skills to elementary school children involves the observation of their behavior. It is important for behavior analysts to ensure that the research is conducted ethically, which includes protecting the welfare and rights of the participants, maintaining confidentiality, and adhering to ethical guidelines. Therefore, behavior analysts are responsible for the ethical conduct of the research they are involved in or supervise.

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  • 26. 

    In determining the likelihood of success in changing a behavior, all of the following should be considered except:

    • A.

      Research on changing this behavior

    • B.

      Experience of the behavior analyst

    • C.

      Social validity of the behavior

    • D.

      Available resources

    Correct Answer
    B. Experience of the behavior analyst
    Explanation
    While the experience of the behavior analyst can provide insight and potentially aid in the process, it is not a direct determinant of the likelihood of success in changing a particular behavior. The other options, such as research on changing this behavior, social validity of the behavior, and available resources, are directly relevant to determining the success rate.

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  • 27. 

    Steven J. is a BCBA who works with clients who live in a group home.  He also works with clients in the sheltered workshop they attend during the day.  Steven takes data on vocational skills as well as any inappropriate behaviors occurring in the work setting.  He is responsible for the behavioral component of the annual Habilitation Plan, and he updates annual assessments.  Steven does not have an office in his home so, he has been given some file drawers in the special education teacher's classroom at the sheltered workshop.  He keeps all of his assessment results and raw data there.  The teacher locks her classroom door when she leaves for the day so that the file drawers are safe. Does Steven's system of keeping records meet ethical guidelines?

    • A.

      Yes, confidentiality is protected because the teacher locks the door

    • B.

      Yes, but only if Steven has the only key to the file drawers

    • C.

      No, files may only be kept in the BCBAs office

    • D.

      No, Steven should keep his files at home

    Correct Answer
    B. Yes, but only if Steven has the only key to the file drawers
    Explanation
    Steven's system of keeping records meets ethical guidelines because confidentiality is protected by the teacher locking the door. However, it is important that Steven is the only one with the key to the file drawers to ensure further security and confidentiality of the records.

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  • 28. 

    Explicit behavior definitions are important in research of applied behavior analysis for all of the following except:  

    • A.

      Replication by other scientists

    • B.

      Accurate and reliable measurement of behavior

    • C.

      Comparison of data across studies

    • D.

      Agreement between assessment and intervention data

    Correct Answer
    D. Agreement between assessment and intervention data
    Explanation
    Explicit behavior definitions are important in research of applied behavior analysis for all of the following reasons except for agreement between assessment and intervention data. Explicit behavior definitions are necessary for replication by other scientists, accurate and reliable measurement of behavior, and comparison of data across studies. However, agreement between assessment and intervention data does not necessarily require explicit behavior definitions, as it focuses more on the consistency and alignment between the assessment and intervention methods and techniques rather than the specific definition of the behavior itself.

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  • 29. 

    Noncontingent reinforcement may effectively decrease problem behavior because:  

    • A.

      Reinforcers that maintain the problem behavior are available freely and frequently.

    • B.

      Reinforcers that maintain the problem behavior are withheld and made contingent upon the occurrence of alternative behaviors.

    • C.

      Reinforcers that maintain the problem behavior are presented only when the problem behavior occurs.

    • D.

      Reinforcers do not maintain the problem behavior presented regardless of the behaviors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reinforcers that maintain the problem behavior are available freely and frequently.
    Explanation
    Noncontingent reinforcement refers to the delivery of reinforcers independent of the occurrence of the problem behavior. In this case, the correct answer suggests that the problem behavior is being reinforced frequently and without any requirements, which can decrease the motivation to engage in the problem behavior. By freely and frequently providing the reinforcers that maintain the problem behavior, there is less need for the individual to engage in the problem behavior to access reinforcement, leading to a decrease in the problem behavior over time.

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  • 30. 

    Functional communication training:

    • A.

      Develops alternative behaviors that are sensitive to abolishing operations

    • B.

      Develops alternative behaviors that create changes in motivating operations

    • C.

      Develops alternative behaviors that are sensitive to establishing operations

    • D.

      Develops alternative behaviors that produce punishing effects

    Correct Answer
    C. Develops alternative behaviors that are sensitive to establishing operations
    Explanation
    Functional communication training is a behavioral intervention that aims to develop alternative behaviors that are sensitive to establishing operations. Establishing operations refer to the environmental conditions that increase the reinforcing value of a specific consequence. By teaching individuals alternative behaviors that are sensitive to these establishing operations, they are more likely to engage in those behaviors instead of problem behaviors. This helps to reduce problem behaviors and promote more appropriate communication skills.

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  • 31. 

    Stimulus discrimination is acquired by:

    • A.

      Reinforcing responses in the presence of a stimulus delta and withholding reinforcement in the presence of the discriminative stimulus.

    • B.

      Reinforcing responses in the presence of both discriminative stimuli and stimulus deltas.

    • C.

      Reinforcing responses in the presence of the discriminative stimulus and withholding reinforcement in the presence of the stimulus deltas.

    • D.

      Thinning reinforcement so that no reinforcement is required for any antecedent stimuli.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reinforcing responses in the presence of the discriminative stimulus and withholding reinforcement in the presence of the stimulus deltas.
    Explanation
    Stimulus discrimination is acquired by reinforcing responses in the presence of the discriminative stimulus and withholding reinforcement in the presence of the stimulus deltas. This means that when a specific stimulus is present, the individual is reinforced for responding, while when a different stimulus is present, reinforcement is withheld. This helps the individual learn to differentiate between different stimuli and respond appropriately to each one.

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  • 32. 

    Behaviors have ________ if they affect a person's life in a positive and meaningful manner.  

    • A.

      Social validity

    • B.

      Functional application

    • C.

      Observable benefit

    • D.

      Normalized outcomes

    Correct Answer
    A. Social validity
    Explanation
    Social validity refers to the extent to which a behavior change program produces socially significant improvements in a person's life. It involves assessing whether the changes in behavior have a positive and meaningful impact on the individual's daily functioning, social interactions, and overall quality of life. In other words, social validity measures whether the behavior change is relevant and beneficial in the real world, beyond just the immediate context of the intervention.

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  • 33. 

    ______________ is an experimental design in which an initial baseline phase is followed by a series of treatment phases consisting of successive and gradually changing criteria for reinforcement or punishment.

    • A.

      Alternating treatments design

    • B.

      Reversal Design

    • C.

      Changing Criterion design

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Changing Criterion design
    Explanation
    Changing Criterion design is an experimental design where an initial baseline phase is followed by a series of treatment phases with gradually changing criteria for reinforcement or punishment. This design allows researchers to assess the effects of different levels of criteria on behavior and determine the most effective criteria for reinforcement or punishment. It is often used to study learning and behavior change in individuals.

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  • 34. 

    Most-to-least prompt fading involves:

    • A.

      Gradually decreasing the time between the presence of the antecedent cue to the prompt from most time to least time.

    • B.

      Gradually changing the form or intensity of the prompt from most intense to least intense.

    • C.

      Gradually decreasing exaggerated dimensions of the stimulus prompt.

    • D.

      Gradually changing the shape of the prompt to look more like the natural antecedent cue.

    Correct Answer
    B. Gradually changing the form or intensity of the prompt from most intense to least intense.
    Explanation
    Most-to-least prompt fading involves gradually changing the form or intensity of the prompt from most intense to least intense. This means that initially, the prompt is given in its most intense form or with the highest level of support, and then over time, the intensity or form of the prompt is gradually reduced. This fading technique helps individuals gradually become more independent in their responses by gradually reducing the level of support provided.

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  • 35. 

    Outcome criteria should be established before intervention commences for all of the following reasons except:

    • A.

      To establish the target performance level

    • B.

      To know when to terminate intervention

    • C.

      To ensure accurate data collection

    • D.

      To ensure agreement on outcomes among stakeholders

    Correct Answer
    D. To ensure agreement on outcomes among stakeholders
    Explanation
    Establishing agreement among stakeholders is an important aspect of planning and implementing interventions, but it may not be the primary reason for setting outcome criteria. Instead, it focuses on aligning the goals and expectations of all parties involved in the intervention. 

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  • 36. 

    Dr. Stuart W., a BCBA-D, has been working on Tom's behavioral issues for two years.  Tom lives in a supported living apartment in the community, and he works at a job with supervision from vocational rehabilitation.  Dr. W.'s data shows that Tom frequently arrives late or completely misses work.  Tom would rather stay home and sleep; a variety of incentive programs have been ineffective.  Dr. W. is wondering if Tom would benefit from counseling.  He has a friend and colleague who is a counselor; he plans is to invite his colleague to lunch and tell him about Tom.  Can Dr. W. ethically talk to another professional about Tom to determine if the person would consider taking Tom as a client?

    • A.

      Yes, as long as he has written consent from Tom or his guardian.

    • B.

      Yes, because he is doing this to help Tom.

    • C.

      No, if Tom needs a counselor he should call one himself.

    • D.

      Yes, but only if he has his colleague sign a confidentiality agreement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes, as long as he has written consent from Tom or his guardian.
    Explanation
    Dr. W. is considering discussing Tom's case with his colleague, a counselor, in order to explore the possibility of counseling as a beneficial intervention for Tom. In order to ethically discuss Tom's case with another professional, Dr. W. needs to obtain written consent from Tom or his guardian. This is important to ensure that Tom's privacy and confidentiality are respected, and that his personal information is not shared without his consent. By obtaining written consent, Dr. W. is demonstrating his commitment to ethical practice and protecting Tom's rights.

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  • 37. 

    This type of graph is also known as a histogram and is useful in summarizing behavioral data allowing for a quick comparison of performance across participants and/or conditions.

    • A.

      Line graph

    • B.

      Scatterplot

    • C.

      Cumulative record

    • D.

      Bar graph

    Correct Answer
    D. Bar graph
    Explanation
    A bar graph is a type of graph that is useful in summarizing behavioral data and allows for a quick comparison of performance across participants and/or conditions. It is also known as a histogram. Unlike a line graph or scatterplot, which show the relationship between variables, a bar graph displays discrete categories on one axis and the corresponding values on the other axis, using bars of different heights to represent the data. This makes it easy to visually compare the performance of different participants or conditions. A cumulative record, on the other hand, is a different type of graph used to display cumulative data over time.

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  • 38. 

    A behavior analyst attempts to determine the most effective amount of attention to use as a reinforcer for a school child. After a baseline with no praise contingent on completing a math problem, treatment is implemented, involving 10 seconds of praise, 20 seconds of praise, or 5 seconds of praise.  This type of analysis is called a __________________.

    • A.

      Component analysis

    • B.

      Parametric analysis

    • C.

      Changing criterion

    • D.

      Non-parametric analysis

    Correct Answer
    B. Parametric analysis
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the behavior analyst is attempting to determine the most effective amount of attention as a reinforcer for a school child. They implement different durations of praise (10 seconds, 20 seconds, or 5 seconds) to observe the effect on the child's behavior. This type of analysis, where the researcher systematically varies a parameter (in this case, the duration of praise) to determine its effect on the behavior, is called parametric analysis. It allows the analyst to identify the optimal level of the parameter for producing the desired behavior change.

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  • 39. 

    You have been interested in the total number of sight words accurately read since your data collection began last week. Which graphing convention allows you to most efficiently answer your inquiry?

    • A.

      Line graph

    • B.

      Scatterplot

    • C.

      Cumulative record

    • D.

      Bar graph

    Correct Answer
    C. Cumulative record
    Explanation
    A cumulative record is the most efficient graphing convention to answer the inquiry about the total number of sight words accurately read since data collection began. A cumulative record shows the cumulative total over time, allowing for easy tracking and comparison of progress. It provides a clear visual representation of the overall trend and growth in sight word reading.

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  • 40. 

    Transitivity is demonstrated when:

    • A.

      In the absence of training and reinforcement a learner will select a stimulus that is matched to itself.

    • B.

      The sample stimulus and comparison stimulus can be reversed.

    • C.

      An untrained stimulus-stimulus relation emerges as a product of training two other stimulus-stimulus relations.

    • D.

      An individual can match to sample.

    Correct Answer
    C. An untrained stimulus-stimulus relation emerges as a product of training two other stimulus-stimulus relations.
    Explanation
    Transitivity is demonstrated when an untrained stimulus-stimulus relation emerges as a product of training two other stimulus-stimulus relations. This means that if a learner is trained to match stimulus A with stimulus B, and stimulus B with stimulus C, the learner will also be able to match stimulus A with stimulus C, even though they were not directly trained on this specific relation. This shows that the learner is able to generalize and apply their learned knowledge to new situations, indicating the presence of transitivity.

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  • 41. 

    A ________ chart is a type of semilogarithmic chart useful for charting accelerating and decelerating performances over time.

    • A.

      Cumulative time

    • B.

      Standard celeration

    • C.

      Scatter plot

    • D.

      Bar graph

    Correct Answer
    B. Standard celeration
    Explanation
    A standard celeration chart is a type of semilogarithmic chart that is commonly used to track and analyze accelerating and decelerating performances over time. This chart allows for a visual representation of data that shows the rate of change in performance over time. It is particularly useful in areas such as behavior analysis and performance management, where the focus is on understanding and improving performance trends.

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  • 42. 

    Stimulus equivalence:

    • A.

      Is a theoretical construct and not studied much in behavior analysis.

    • B.

      Provides a methodology for efficient teaching-expanding learners' skills far beyond what is directly taught.

    • C.

      Describes the emergence of accurate responding to stimulus-response relations that have not been trained.

    • D.

      Establishes feature stimulus classes.

    Correct Answer
    C. Describes the emergence of accurate responding to stimulus-response relations that have not been trained.
    Explanation
    Stimulus equivalence is a theoretical construct that describes the emergence of accurate responding to stimulus-response relations that have not been trained. It provides a methodology for efficient teaching, expanding learners' skills far beyond what is directly taught. This means that through stimulus equivalence, learners are able to generalize their knowledge and skills to new situations and stimuli that have not been explicitly taught to them. This concept is important in behavior analysis as it allows for more efficient and effective teaching methods.

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  • 43. 

    The _______ of each data path on a cumulative record represents the different rates of acquisition.

    • A.

      Position

    • B.

      Slope

    • C.

      Scatter

    • D.

      Slant

    Correct Answer
    B. Slope
    Explanation
    The slope of each data path on a cumulative record represents the different rates of acquisition. This means that the slope indicates how quickly or slowly the data is being acquired. A steeper slope would indicate a faster rate of acquisition, while a flatter slope would indicate a slower rate of acquisition. Therefore, the slope is a measure of the rate at which the data is being collected.

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  • 44. 

    This is the extent to which a learner exits the target behavior in a setting or stimulus situation that is different from the instructional setting.

    • A.

      Setting/situation maintenance

    • B.

      Response generalization

    • C.

      Setting/situation generalization

    • D.

      Response maintenance

    Correct Answer
    C. Setting/situation generalization
    Explanation
    Setting/situation generalization refers to the extent to which a learner is able to apply the target behavior in a different setting or stimulus situation than the one in which it was initially taught. This means that the learner can transfer the learned behavior to new and similar settings or situations. This is different from response generalization, which refers to the learner's ability to apply the target behavior to different but related responses. Response maintenance, on the other hand, refers to the learner's ability to continue demonstrating the target behavior over time. Therefore, the correct answer is setting/situation generalization.

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  • 45. 

    A scatterplot shows the _________ distribution of individual measures in a data set with respect to the variables depicted by both the x- and y-axes.

    • A.

      Exact

    • B.

      Scattered

    • C.

      Relative

    • D.

      Standard

    Correct Answer
    C. Relative
    Explanation
    A scatterplot shows the relative distribution of individual measures in a data set with respect to the variables depicted by both the x- and y-axes. This means that the scatterplot displays the relationship or pattern between the variables, allowing us to see how one variable changes in relation to the other. It helps us understand the overall distribution and spread of the data points, providing insights into any potential correlations or trends.

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  • 46. 

    This is the extent to which a learner emits untrained responses that are functionally equivalent to the trained target behavior

    • A.

      Setting/situation maintenance

    • B.

      Response generalization

    • C.

      Setting/situation generalization

    • D.

      Response maintenance

    Correct Answer
    B. Response generalization
    Explanation
    Response generalization refers to the extent to which a learner emits untrained responses that are functionally equivalent to the trained target behavior. In other words, it is the ability of the learner to generalize the learned behavior to different situations or settings. This means that the learner is able to apply the learned behavior in a variety of contexts, not just the specific setting in which it was initially taught.

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  • 47. 

    Choosing only those behaviors to change that will produce reinforcers in the post-intervention environment is referred to as:

    • A.

      Teaching loosely

    • B.

      Contrived contingency planning

    • C.

      Programming common stimuli

    • D.

      Relevance of behavior rule

    Correct Answer
    D. Relevance of behavior rule
    Explanation
    The relevance of behavior rule refers to the practice of selecting behaviors to change in a way that will result in positive reinforcement in the future. This means identifying and targeting behaviors that are most likely to lead to desired outcomes or reinforcers in the post-intervention environment. By focusing on behaviors that are relevant and meaningful to the individual, it increases the chances of success and motivation to continue those behaviors. This approach ensures that interventions are tailored to the specific needs and goals of the individual, maximizing the effectiveness of the intervention.

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  • 48. 

    You are interested in beginning a self-management program to help you save money for a new car. Which type of graph would provide the most appropriate feedback and display your progress toward your goal?

    • A.

      Cumulative record

    • B.

      Line graph

    • C.

      Bar graph

    • D.

      Scatterplot

    Correct Answer
    A. Cumulative record
    Explanation
    A cumulative record would provide the most appropriate feedback and display the progress towards the goal of saving money for a new car. A cumulative record is a graph that shows the total progress over time, allowing you to see the cumulative amount of money saved. This type of graph would be helpful in tracking your overall progress towards your savings goal and would give you a clear visual representation of how close you are to reaching your target.

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  • 49. 

    You are interested in comparing the effects of two different interventions on single target behavior. You have decided to present each of the interventions in an alternating fashion and measure the changes in the value of your dependent variable. You would like to plot the results of both interventions on one graph. Which would be the best format to display your results?

    • A.

      Cumulative record

    • B.

      Line graph

    • C.

      Bar graph

    • D.

      Scatterplot

    Correct Answer
    B. Line graph
    Explanation
    A line graph would be the best format to display the results of both interventions. A line graph is commonly used to show the change in a dependent variable over time or in response to different conditions. In this case, the interventions are presented in an alternating fashion, and measuring the changes in the value of the dependent variable. A line graph would allow for a clear visualization of the changes in the dependent variable for each intervention, making it easier to compare the effects of the two interventions.

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  • 50. 

    Given the data below, calculate the total duration IOA.     R1 R2 R3 R4 R5 Observer 1 35 sec 15 sec 9 sec 14 sec 17 sec Observer 2 29 sec 21 sec 7 sec 14 sec 14 sec

    • A.

      20%

    • B.

      94.4%

    • C.

      Cannot determine

    • D.

      53.75%

    Correct Answer
    B. 94.4%
    Explanation
    The total duration of IOA (Interobserver Agreement) can be calculated by adding the durations recorded by each observer for each round.
    For Observer 1, the total duration is: 35 sec + 15 sec + 9 sec + 14 sec + 17 sec = 90 seconds
    For Observer 2, the total duration is: 29 sec + 21 sec + 7 sec + 14 sec + 14 sec = 85 seconds

     

    Interobserver Agreement (IOA) is typically calculated as the ratio of the smaller observation to the larger observation for each interval, then averaged across intervals. However, in this case, we have only total durations from each observer, not interval-by-interval data.
    If we calculate IOA based on total durations, we would divide the smaller total duration by the larger total duration. Here, Observer 2 has the smaller total duration (85 seconds), and Observer 1 has the larger total duration (90 seconds).
    So, the IOA would be calculated as follows:
    IOA= smaller total duration/ larger total duration​= 85/90 ​≈0.944
    So, the IOA based on total durations is approximately 0.944 or 94.4%.

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  • Current Version
  • Apr 19, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 01, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Doctormel

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