Hardest Microbiology Quiz Trivia: Test!

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  • 1/42 Questions

    All of the following statements about fungi are true except:

    • Fungi are heterotrophic
    • Most fungi are aerobic
    • All fungi have eurocaryotic cells
    • All fungi are unicellular
    • Few fungi are pathogenic to humans
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About This Quiz

Do you like researching? Have you ever thought about how many microorganisms reside inside and outside your body? If you feel so, you are a microbiology student who loves to investigate everything around the environment. Microbiology is a broad area of science that includes bacteriology, parasitology, and many more. This quiz will test your knowledge and understanding of the different See moremicroorganism's roles and functions.  

Hardest Microbiology Quiz Trivia: Test! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Yeast infections are caused by:

    • Candida albicans

    • Histoplasma capsulatum

    • Saccharomyces cerevisiae

    • Penicillium

    • Aspergillus

    Correct Answer
    A. Candida albicans
    Explanation
    Yeast infections are commonly caused by Candida albicans, a type of fungus that is naturally present in the body. However, certain factors such as a weakened immune system, hormonal changes, and the use of antibiotics can disrupt the balance of microorganisms in the body, leading to an overgrowth of Candida albicans. This overgrowth can result in symptoms such as itching, burning, and discharge. Other organisms mentioned in the options, such as Histoplasma capsulatum, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Penicillium, and Aspergillus, are not typically associated with causing yeast infections.

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  • 3. 

    Fungi, more often than bacteria, are responsible for decomposition of plant material because:

    • They have fermentative metabolism

    • They are aerobic

    • They cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure

    • They can tolerate low-moisture conditions

    • They prefer a neutral environment (pH 7)

    Correct Answer
    A. They can tolerate low-moisture conditions
    Explanation
    Fungi are able to tolerate low-moisture conditions, which makes them more efficient in decomposing plant material compared to bacteria. This is because plant material can often become dry or lack sufficient moisture, and fungi have adapted to thrive in such conditions. Fungi have specialized structures, such as hyphae, which allow them to absorb moisture from their surroundings and continue their metabolic processes even in low-moisture environments. This ability gives fungi an advantage in decomposing plant material, as they can continue their activity even when moisture levels are not optimal.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following statements is false?

    • Fungal spores are resting spores to protect the fungus from adverse environmental conditions

    • Fungal spores are for reproduction

    • Fungi produce sexual spores

    • Fungi produce asexual spores

    • Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi

    Correct Answer
    A. Fungal spores are resting spores to protect the fungus from adverse environmental conditions
    Explanation
    Fungal spores are not specifically resting spores that protect the fungus from adverse environmental conditions. While fungal spores can have a protective function, their primary purpose is for reproduction. Fungal spores are used by fungi to disperse and colonize new areas, and they can be produced through both sexual and asexual processes. Additionally, fungal spores can be used in the identification of fungi, as they often have distinct characteristics that can help differentiate between different species.

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  • 5. 

    All of the following are true about protozoa except:

    • They have eucaryotic cells

    • All make cysts

    • They may reproduce sexually

    • They may have flagella or cilia

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All make cysts
    Explanation
    The given statement "all make cysts" is not true about protozoa. While some protozoa do have the ability to form cysts as a protective mechanism in unfavorable conditions, not all protozoa are capable of cyst formation. Therefore, the correct answer is that "all make cysts" is not true about protozoa.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is not associated with foodborne illness?

    • Shigella

    • Campylobacter

    • Erwinia

    • Staphylococcus aureus

    • Salmonella

    Correct Answer
    A. Erwinia
    Explanation
    Erwinia is not associated with foodborne illness. While Shigella, Campylobacter, Staphylococcus aureus, and Salmonella are all common bacteria that can cause foodborne illnesses, Erwinia is a genus of bacteria that primarily affects plants and is not typically associated with causing illness in humans through food consumption.

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  • 7. 

    In a healthy human, resident microorganisms would be found in all of the following areas except:

    • Lower urethra

    • Conjunctiva

    • Bloodstream

    • Tooth and gum surfaces

    • Nasal passages

    Correct Answer
    A. Bloodstream
    Explanation
    Resident microorganisms are typically found in various areas of the body, such as the lower urethra, conjunctiva, tooth and gum surfaces, and nasal passages. However, the bloodstream is typically considered a sterile environment in a healthy human. This is because the immune system works to prevent microorganisms from entering the bloodstream, as their presence can lead to infections and other health issues. Therefore, resident microorganisms would not be found in the bloodstream of a healthy individual.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following molecules or structures is not associated with innate immunity?

    • Mucous membranes

    • Phagocytes

    • Antibodies

    • Lysozyme

    • Skin

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibodies
    Explanation
    Antibodies are not associated with innate immunity. Innate immunity is the body's first line of defense against pathogens and does not involve the production of antibodies. Instead, innate immunity relies on physical barriers like mucous membranes and skin, as well as phagocytes and lysozyme, which help to destroy pathogens directly. Antibodies are part of the adaptive immune response, which is a more specific and targeted defense mechanism that develops over time after exposure to a pathogen.

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  • 9. 

    Both staphylococci and streptococci:

    • Are gram-positive cocci

    • Are arranged in chains

    • Are gram-negative cocci

    • Form endospores

    • Are strict anaerobes

    Correct Answer
    A. Are gram-positive cocci
    Explanation
    Both staphylococci and streptococci are gram-positive cocci. This means that they have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which retains the crystal violet stain during the Gram staining process. Gram-positive bacteria generally have a purple color when observed under a microscope. Staphylococci and streptococci are also arranged in chains, further supporting their classification as gram-positive cocci.

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  • 10. 

    Which would be the most unlikely location to find adhesin molecules on a newly discovered bacterium?

    • Fimbriae

    • Capsule

    • Glycocalyx

    • Ribosomes

    • Cell wall

    Correct Answer
    A. Ribosomes
    Explanation
    Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis in a cell and are found in all living cells, including bacteria. Adhesin molecules are typically found on the surface of bacterial cells and are involved in attaching the bacteria to surfaces or other cells. Since ribosomes are not located on the surface of the cell, it is unlikely to find adhesin molecules on them.

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  • 11. 

    Viruses that infect bacteria are called:

    • Virions

    • Hepadnaviridae

    • Bacteriophages

    • Bactericides

    • Polyhedral virus

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacteriophages
    Explanation
    Bacteriophages are viruses that specifically infect bacteria. They attach themselves to the surface of the bacterial cell and inject their genetic material into it, taking over the cell's machinery to produce more phages. Eventually, the bacterial cell bursts, releasing the newly formed phages to infect other bacteria. Bacteriophages play a crucial role in controlling bacterial populations and are being explored as potential alternatives to antibiotics in treating bacterial infections.

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  • 12. 

    Cell-mediated immunity in part protects against:

    • Normal cells of the host, producing the cell-mediated immunity

    • Viruses free in body fluids

    • Bacteria free in body fluids

    • Intracellular bacteria and viruses

    • Toxins

    Correct Answer
    A. Intracellular bacteria and viruses
    Explanation
    Cell-mediated immunity is a type of immune response that involves the activation of T-cells to target and destroy infected cells. This immune response is particularly effective against intracellular bacteria and viruses, as these pathogens reside inside host cells. By activating T-cells, cell-mediated immunity can recognize and eliminate these intracellular pathogens, preventing their spread and further infection. It does not protect against normal cells of the host, viruses free in body fluids, bacteria free in body fluids, or toxins, as these are not specifically targeted by cell-mediated immunity.

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  • 13. 

    Hyphae that lack cross-walls, and thus are long tubes with many nuclei, are called:

    • Coenocytic

    • Septate

    • Rhizoid

    • Plasmodial

    • Mycelial

    Correct Answer
    A. Coenocytic
    Explanation
    Coenocytic hyphae are long tubes that lack cross-walls, also known as septa, and contain multiple nuclei. This allows for efficient transport of nutrients and resources throughout the hyphae. The other options, such as septate, rhizoid, plasmodial, and mycelial, do not accurately describe hyphae without cross-walls.

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  • 14. 

    The respiratory system is protected against harmful microbes by all of the following except:

    • The ciliary escalator

    • Mucous-coated hairs

    • The lacrimal apparatus

    • The epiglottis

    • Ciliated cells

    Correct Answer
    A. The lacrimal apparatus
    Explanation
    The lacrimal apparatus is not involved in protecting the respiratory system against harmful microbes. The lacrimal apparatus is responsible for producing tears and draining them away from the eyes. Tears help to keep the eyes moist and clean, but they do not directly protect the respiratory system. The other options listed, such as the ciliary escalator, mucous-coated hairs, and ciliated cells, are all mechanisms that help to trap and remove harmful microbes from the respiratory system, preventing them from entering the lungs. The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that covers the opening of the trachea during swallowing, preventing food and drink from entering the respiratory system.

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  • 15. 

    Subunit vaccines tend to be safer than whole cell vaccines because:

    • They contain avirulent strains

    • They contain intact but dead microbes

    • They cannot reproduce in the host

    • They produce a stronger immune response

    • They are antigenic

    Correct Answer
    A. They cannot reproduce in the host
    Explanation
    Subunit vaccines tend to be safer than whole cell vaccines because they cannot reproduce in the host. Unlike whole cell vaccines, which contain intact but dead microbes that still have the potential to replicate in the host, subunit vaccines only contain specific antigens or parts of the microbe that cannot replicate. This reduces the risk of the vaccine causing an infection or adverse reactions in the host. Additionally, by focusing on specific antigens, subunit vaccines can elicit a targeted and stronger immune response against those specific antigens, enhancing their effectiveness.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is not an A-B exotoxin?

    • Tetanus toxin

    • Cholera toxin

    • Diphtheria toxin

    • Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin

    • Streptolysin O

    Correct Answer
    A. Streptolysin O
    Explanation
    Streptolysin O is not an A-B exotoxin because it does not follow the typical A-B toxin structure. A-B exotoxins are composed of two subunits, the A subunit which is responsible for the toxic activity, and the B subunit which helps the toxin bind to target cells. However, Streptolysin O is a pore-forming toxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes and does not have the A-B structure. It forms pores in the cell membrane, leading to cell lysis and tissue damage.

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  • 17. 

    Which is not a cell type involved in cell-mediated immunity?

    • Cytotoxic T cells

    • Plasma cells

    • TH1 cells

    • Helper T cells

    • Regulatory T cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasma cells
    Explanation
    Plasma cells are not a cell type involved in cell-mediated immunity. Cell-mediated immunity primarily involves T cells, such as cytotoxic T cells, TH1 cells, helper T cells, and regulatory T cells. Plasma cells, on the other hand, are responsible for producing antibodies and are involved in humoral immunity.

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  • 18. 

    All of the following are true of the fungi except:

    • They can grow in high concentrations of sugars and salts

    • Diseases caused by fungi are called mycoses

    • They are strict aerobes

    • They are capable of metabolising complex carbohydrates found in newspaper and wood

    • Identification of fungi usually involves examination of spore types

    Correct Answer
    A. They are strict aerobes
    Explanation
    Fungi are not strict aerobes, meaning they can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen. They are capable of metabolizing complex carbohydrates found in newspaper and wood, and diseases caused by fungi are called mycoses. Identification of fungi usually involves examination of spore types. However, the statement that fungi can grow in high concentrations of sugars and salts is true, as they are able to tolerate and thrive in such environments.

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  • 19. 

    The stage of phagocytosis in which the phagocyte's plasma membrane attaches to the surface of the microbe is called:

    • Adherence

    • Chemotaxis

    • Ingestion

    • Cytolysis

    • Fusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Adherence
    Explanation
    Adherence is the correct answer because it refers to the stage of phagocytosis where the phagocyte's plasma membrane attaches to the surface of the microbe. This attachment is crucial for the phagocyte to engulf and internalize the microbe for further processing and destruction. Chemotaxis refers to the movement of the phagocyte towards the microbe, ingestion is the actual engulfment of the microbe, cytolysis is the bursting of the phagocyte to release the destroyed microbe, and fusion refers to the merging of the phagosome (the vesicle containing the microbe) with lysosomes for degradation.

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  • 20. 

    Infectious diseases that are easily passed from host to host within a population are best described as:

    • Noncommunicable

    • Communicable

    • Contagious

    • Acute

    • Chronic

    Correct Answer
    A. Contagious
    Explanation
    Contagious diseases are easily passed from one individual to another within a population. This can occur through direct contact, such as touching or kissing, or through indirect contact, such as sharing contaminated objects or being exposed to airborne particles. Unlike noncommunicable diseases, which cannot be transmitted between individuals, contagious diseases can rapidly spread and cause outbreaks or epidemics. The term "contagious" specifically refers to the ability of a disease to be transmitted from person to person, making it the most accurate description for infectious diseases that easily spread within a population.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is true about conjugated vaccines:

    • The antigens are made using recombinant DNA technology

    • They are useful because young children respond poorly to polysaccharides

    • They contain only protein subunits

    • They contain attenuated pathogens

    • They contain only T-dependent antigens

    Correct Answer
    A. They are useful because young children respond poorly to polysaccharides
    Explanation
    Conjugated vaccines are useful because young children respond poorly to polysaccharides. Polysaccharides alone are not very effective in stimulating an immune response in young children, as their immune systems are not fully developed. Conjugated vaccines combine polysaccharides with a carrier protein, which enhances the immune response and improves the effectiveness of the vaccine in young children. This allows for a stronger immune response and better protection against the targeted disease.

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  • 22. 

    Which spore is in a sac and results from the fusion of two nuclei from different strains of the same fungi? 1-Arthrospore 2-Ascospore 3-Basidiospore 4-Blastospore 5-Chlamydospore 6-Conidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 8-Zygospore

    • 6

    • 1

    • 2

    • 4

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Ascospores are spores that are enclosed in a sac and are the result of the fusion of two nuclei from different strains of the same fungi.

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  • 23. 

    Which is a thick-walled spore formed as a segment within a hypha? 1-Arthrospore 2-Ascospore 3-Basidiospore 4-Blastospore 5-Chlamydospore 6-Conidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 8-Zygospore

    • None

    • 5

    • 7

    • 3

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    A chlamydospore is a thick-walled spore that is formed as a segment within a hypha. It is a type of asexual spore that is commonly found in certain fungi. Chlamydospores are typically larger and more resistant to adverse conditions compared to other types of spores. They are formed by the thickening and rounding of a hyphal segment, which then becomes surrounded by a thick protective wall. This allows the chlamydospore to survive in harsh environments and potentially germinate when conditions become favorable.

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  • 24. 

    Which of these spores are asexual spores? 1-Arthrospore 2-Ascospore 3-Basidiospore 4-Blastospore 5-Chlamydospore 6-Conidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 8-Zygospore

    • 1,3,5,8

    • All

    • 2,3,6,8

    • 1,4,5,6,7

    • 2,4,6,7,8

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,4,5,6,7
  • 25. 

    Which of the following pairs are mismatched? 1.Arthrospore--formed by fragmentation 2. Sporangiospore--formed within hyphae 3. Conidiospore--formed in a chain 4. Blastospore--formed from a bud 5. Chlamydospore--formed in a sac

    • 1 and 2

    • 3 and 4

    • 2 and 5

    • 4 and 5

    • 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 and 5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 and 5. This is because sporangiospores are formed within specialized structures called sporangia, not within hyphae. On the other hand, chlamydospores are formed within a thick-walled sac-like structure called a chlamydospore. Therefore, the pairing of sporangiospore with formed within hyphae and chlamydospore with formed in a sac is mismatched.

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  • 26. 

    If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the:

    • Definitive host

    • Infected host

    • Intermediate host

    • Reservoir

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Intermediate host
    Explanation
    If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, it means that humans are serving as an intermediate host. This means that the larva is developing and undergoing certain stages of its life cycle within the human body, but it is not able to reach sexual maturity or reproduce. The definitive host refers to the organism in which the adult parasite reaches sexual maturity and reproduces. The infected host could refer to any host that has been infected by the parasite, but it does not specify the specific role of the host in the parasite's life cycle. A reservoir refers to a population or group of organisms that serves as a source of infection for a particular disease. Therefore, none of the other options accurately describe the role of humans in this scenario.

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  • 27. 

    In the human intestinal tract, E.coli produces vitamins beneficial to the host and can inhibit pathogen growth. In turn, the bacterium is supplied with nutrients and an environment for growth. This relationship between E.coli and its host is an example of:

    • Antagonism

    • Parasitism

    • Opportunism

    • Commensalism

    • Mutualism

    Correct Answer
    A. Mutualism
    Explanation
    This relationship between E.coli and its host is an example of mutualism because both the bacterium and the host benefit from their association. E.coli produces vitamins that are beneficial to the host and also inhibits the growth of pathogens, providing a healthier environment for the host. In return, the bacterium is supplied with nutrients and a suitable environment for its growth. Both parties involved in this relationship benefit, making it a mutualistic interaction.

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  • 28. 

    Borrelia, the causative agent of Lyme disease, is a spirochete similar to the causative agent of syphilis, Treponema. Both bacteria:

    • Have flagella

    • Are gram-positive

    • Have endospores

    • Have axial filaments

    Correct Answer
    A. Have axial filaments
    Explanation
    Borrelia, the causative agent of Lyme disease, is a spirochete similar to the causative agent of syphilis, Treponema. Both bacteria have axial filaments. Axial filaments are unique structures found in spirochetes that are responsible for their characteristic corkscrew-like shape and motility. These filaments run along the length of the bacteria and allow them to move in a twisting or rotating motion. While both Borrelia and Treponema have axial filaments, they differ in other characteristics such as flagella (Borrelia has flagella while Treponema does not), gram stain reaction (Borrelia is gram-negative while Treponema is gram-negative), and the presence of endospores (neither bacteria form endospores).

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  • 29. 

    All of the following are true of inflammation except:

    • Many neutrophils can be found at the site of chronic inflammation

    • It can be triggered by microbial infection, burns, exposure to chemicals, or trauma

    • Vasodilation causes the redness of affected tissues

    • Granulocytes that have died are commonly engulfed by macrophages

    • Histamine released by damaged host cells can result in vasodilation

    Correct Answer
    A. Many neutrophils can be found at the site of chronic inflammation
    Explanation
    In chronic inflammation, the predominant cell type is macrophages rather than neutrophils. Neutrophils are typically found in acute inflammation, where they are the first responders to infection or injury. However, in chronic inflammation, the response is more prolonged and characterized by the infiltration of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages. Therefore, the statement that many neutrophils can be found at the site of chronic inflammation is not true.

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  • 30. 

    For IgG, the antigen binding site is found on the:

    • Variable region of a heavy and the variable region of a light chain

    • Variable regions of two heavy chains

    • Fc region

    • Variable regions of two light chains

    • Constant region of the heavy chain and the constant region of the light chain

    Correct Answer
    A. Variable region of a heavy and the variable region of a light chain
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the variable region of a heavy and the variable region of a light chain. IgG is a type of antibody, and antibodies are composed of two heavy chains and two light chains. The variable regions of both the heavy and light chains contain the antigen binding site, which allows the antibody to bind specifically to its target antigen. The constant regions of the heavy and light chains are responsible for other functions of the antibody, such as binding to immune cells or activating the immune response.

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  • 31. 

    Which is true of endotoxins?

    • They are proteins

    • They are released upon cell lysis

    • They are produced by gram-positive bacteria

    • They are disease-specific

    • They increase blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. They are released upon cell lysis
    Explanation
    Endotoxins are released upon cell lysis. Endotoxins are components of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. When these bacteria die or are destroyed, their cell walls break down, releasing endotoxins into the surrounding environment. These endotoxins can trigger an immune response in the host organism, leading to inflammation and other symptoms. Therefore, it is true that endotoxins are released upon cell lysis.

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  • 32. 

    Members of the adenoviridae cause:

    • Hepatitis

    • Old sores

    • The common cold

    • Warts

    • AIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. The common cold
    Explanation
    Adenoviridae is a family of viruses that is known to cause respiratory infections in humans. These infections are commonly referred to as the common cold. Therefore, the correct answer is "the common cold".

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  • 33. 

    Both agglutination and precipitation tests:

    • Involve soluble antigen

    • Involve IgG but not IgM

    • Cannot detect antibody

    • Result in changes that require microscopy to detect

    • Result in antibody cross-linking antigen

    Correct Answer
    A. Result in antibody cross-linking antigen
    Explanation
    Both agglutination and precipitation tests involve the process of antibody cross-linking antigen. In these tests, the antibodies bind to the antigens, causing them to clump together or form a visible precipitate. This cross-linking reaction is what allows for the detection of the antigen. The tests do not directly detect antibodies or require microscopy to detect the changes. Therefore, the correct answer is that both agglutination and precipitation tests result in antibody cross-linking antigen.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following has a J chain as part of its structure?

    • IgG

    • IgM

    • IgD

    • IgE

    • All Ig classes

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM
    Explanation
    IgM is the correct answer because it is the only immunoglobulin class that has a J chain as part of its structure. The J chain is a polypeptide that helps stabilize the IgM molecule and is involved in the polymerization of IgM molecules. The other Ig classes (IgG, IgD, and IgE) do not have a J chain in their structure.

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  • 35. 

    Complement can be activated by all of the following except:

    • Antigen-antibody binding.

    • Opsonization

    • Presence of host tissue

    • Mannose-binding lectins

    • Contact with a pathogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Presence of host tissue
    Explanation
    The complement system is a part of the immune system that helps in the recognition and elimination of pathogens. It can be activated by various mechanisms, including antigen-antibody binding, opsonization, mannose-binding lectins, and contact with a pathogen. However, the presence of host tissue does not activate the complement system. This is because the complement system is designed to specifically target foreign substances and pathogens, and it does not recognize or respond to host tissues.

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  • 36. 

    An example of an asexual fungal spore is a/an:

    • Ascus

    • Ascospore

    • Sporangiospore

    • Zygospore

    • Basidiospore

    Correct Answer
    A. Sporangiospore
    Explanation
    A sporangiospore is an example of an asexual fungal spore. A sporangiospore is produced in a structure called a sporangium, which is a sac-like structure that contains the spores. It is formed through a process called sporogenesis, where the spores are produced asexually through mitosis. Sporangiospores are commonly found in fungi such as bread molds and are released when the sporangium ruptures.

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  • 37. 

    Enterics are:

    • Anaerobic, gram-negative bacteria that cause disease

    • Gram-positive bacteria found in humans

    • Facultatively anaerobic, gram-negative rods found in the intestines of animals

    • Anaerobic bacteria

    Correct Answer
    A. Facultatively anaerobic, gram-negative rods found in the intestines of animals
    Explanation
    Enterics are facultatively anaerobic, gram-negative rods found in the intestines of animals. This means that they are bacteria that can survive with or without oxygen, they have a specific shape (rod-shaped), and they are found specifically in the intestines of animals. This is a characteristic feature of enteric bacteria, which distinguishes them from other types of bacteria.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following diseases does not have a human reservoir?

    • Diphtheria

    • Tetanus

    • AIDS

    • Strep infections

    • Gonorrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetanus
    Explanation
    Tetanus does not have a human reservoir because it is caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani, which is commonly found in soil, dust, and animal feces. The bacteria can enter the body through cuts or wounds, but it does not colonize or multiply in humans. Instead, it produces toxins that affect the nervous system and cause muscle stiffness and spasms. Therefore, tetanus is not transmitted directly from person to person, unlike diseases such as diphtheria, AIDS, Strep infections, and gonorrhea, which all have human reservoirs and can be transmitted through various means.

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  • 39. 

    Which is in the correct order of differentiation?

    • Stem cells to B cells to plasma cells

    • Stem cells to plasma cells to B cells

    • Plasma cells to B cells to stem cells

    • B cells to stem cells to plasma cells

    • B cells to plasma cells to stem cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Stem cells to B cells to plasma cells
    Explanation
    The correct order of differentiation is from stem cells to B cells to plasma cells. Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that have the potential to develop into various types of cells. B cells are a type of white blood cells that are derived from stem cells and play a crucial role in the immune response. Plasma cells are mature B cells that produce and secrete antibodies. Therefore, the correct order of differentiation is stem cells to B cells to plasma cells.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is not a cytopathic effect of viruses?

    • Loss of contact inhibition

    • Inclusion bodies

    • Cell fusion

    • Cell death

    • Leukocidins lysing WBCs

    Correct Answer
    A. Leukocidins lysing WBCs
    Explanation
    Leukocidins lysing WBCs is not a cytopathic effect of viruses. Cytopathic effects refer to the changes that occur in host cells as a result of viral infection. Loss of contact inhibition, inclusion bodies, cell fusion, and cell death are all examples of cytopathic effects commonly caused by viruses. However, leukocidins are toxins produced by certain bacteria that specifically target and destroy white blood cells (WBCs), not viruses.

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  • 41. 

    Interferons:

    • Are virus-specific but not host-specific

    • Can protect any host against any virus

    • Are host-specific but not virus-specific

    • Are both host-specific and virus-specific

    • Are only useful for treating viral infections

    Correct Answer
    A. Are host-specific but not virus-specific
    Explanation
    Interferons are host-specific but not virus-specific. This means that they are produced by a particular host in response to viral infection, but they can protect the host against a wide range of viruses. Interferons work by activating the immune system and inhibiting viral replication, making them effective in combating various viral infections. However, they are not specific to any particular virus, meaning they can be effective against different types of viruses that infect the same host.

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  • 42. 

    Cell lines that are derived from transformed (cancerous) cells are called:

    • Monolayers

    • Primary cell lines

    • Plaques

    • Continuous cell lines

    • Embryonated

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuous cell lines
    Explanation
    Continuous cell lines are derived from transformed (cancerous) cells. Unlike primary cell lines, which can only be cultured for a limited number of passages, continuous cell lines can be grown indefinitely in the laboratory. These cell lines are commonly used in research and drug development as they provide a consistent and reliable source of cells for experimentation.

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