Microbiology Exam IV - Summer 2011
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- 1.Which type of infection can be caused by septicemia?
- A.
Systemic infection
- B.
Focal infection
- C.
Local infection
- D.
Bacteremia
- E.
Septicemia
- 2.Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota
- A.
Are present for a relatively short time
- B.
Cause diseases
- C.
Are found in a certain location on the host
- D.
Are acquired by direct contact
- E.
None of the above
- 3.Which of the following definitions is incorrect?
- A.
Pandemic - a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time
- B.
Endemic - a disease that is constantly present in a population
- C.
Epidemic - a fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time
- D.
Sporadic - a disease that affects a population occasionally
- E.
None of the above
- 4.Which of the following is a fomite?
- A.
Insects
- B.
Droplets from a sneeze
- C.
Water
- D.
A hypodermic needle
- E.
Pus
- 5.A commensal bacterium
- A.
Does not receive any benefit from its host
- B.
Is beneficial to its host
- C.
May be an opportunistic pathogen
- D.
Does not infect its host
- E.
B and d only
- 6.A nosocomial infection is
- A.
Only a result of surgery
- B.
Acquired during the course of hospitalization
- C.
always present but inapparent at the time of hospitalization
- D.
Always caused by medical personnel
- E.
Always caused by pathogenic bacteria
- 7.The major significance of Koch's work was that
- A.
Microorganisms are present in a diseased animal.
- B.
Diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another
- C.
Microorganisms can be cultured
- D.
Microorganisms are the result of disease.
- E.
Microorganisms cause disease.
- 8.The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called
- A.
Ecology
- B.
Epidemiology
- C.
Communicable disease
- D.
Morbidity and mortality
- E.
Public health
- 9.Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms
- A.
Always occur as part of a syndrome
- B.
Are changes felt by the patient
- C.
Are changes observed by the physician
- D.
Are specific for a particular disease
- E.
None of the above
- 10.All of the following are communicable diseases except
- A.
Tyhphoid fever
- B.
Tuberculosis
- C.
Tetanus
- D.
Malaria
- E.
AIDS
- 11.Which of the following does NOT contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness?
- A.
Cell wall
- B.
Capsule
- C.
Toxins
- D.
Ligands
- E.
Hyaluronidase
- 12.A needlestick is an example of which portal of entry?
- A.
Skin
- B.
Paranaternal route
- C.
Mucous membranes
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
- 13.All of the following are types of exotoxins EXCEPT
- A.
Lipid A
- B.
Membrane disrupting toxins
- C.
AB toxins
- D.
Superantigens
- E.
All of the above are types of exotoxins
- 14.Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally NOT true?
- A.
They are composed of proteins
- B.
They are not required in high concentrations to be effective
- C.
They are not destroyed by heat
- D.
They have specific methods of action
- E.
They are more potent than endotoxins
- 15.Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to
- A.
Viral infections
- B.
Protozoan and helminthic infections
- C.
Bacterial infections
- D.
Fungal infections
- E.
All of the above
- 16.All of the following are methods of penetrating and/or avoiding the host EXCEPT
- A.
Antigenic changes
- B.
Membrane-disrupting toxins
- C.
Hyaluronidase
- D.
IgA proteases
- E.
Invasins
- 17.Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with animal
- A.
White blood cells
- B.
Transferrins
- C.
Antibodies
- D.
Red blood cells
- E.
Ferrodoxins
- 18.Endotoxins are
- A.
Required only in minute amounts
- B.
Excreted from the cell
- C.
Associated with Gram-positive bacteria
- D.
Specific in their mode of action
- E.
Part of the Gram-negative cell wall
- 19.The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
- A.
Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract
- B.
Mucous membranes of the genitourinary tract.
- C.
Skin
- D.
Parenteral route
- E.
All of the above
- 20.Botulism is caused by an exotoxin, therefore it could be easily prevented by
- A.
Administering antibiotics to patients.
- B.
Boiling food prior to consumption
- C.
Including antibiotics in the canning process
- D.
Preventing fecal contamination of food
- E.
Just not eating canned food
- 21.Which of the following is involved in specific resistance (immunity)?
- A.
Monocyte
- B.
Basophil
- C.
Neutrophil
- D.
Lymphocyte
- E.
Eosinophil
- 22.All of the following are associated with complement fixation EXCEPT
- A.
Inflammation
- B.
Cell lysis
- C.
Membrane attack complex
- D.
Increased phagocytic activity
- E.
Fever
- 23.Which of the following is involved in fighting parasitic infections?
- A.
Eosinophil
- B.
Basophil
- C.
Lymphocyte
- D.
Neutrophil
- E.
Monocyte
- 24.All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step?
- A.
Vasodilation
- B.
Diapedesis
- C.
Repair
- D.
Phagocyte migration
- E.
Margination
- 25.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of inflammation?
- A.
Fever
- B.
Local heat
- C.
Pain
- D.
Swelling
- E.
Redness
- 26.Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?
- A.
Erythrocytes
- B.
Eosinophils
- C.
Lymphocytes
- D.
Neutrophils
- E.
Basophils
- 27.Which of the following is NOT a chemical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection?
- A.
Gastric juices
- B.
Ciliary escalator
- C.
Lysozyme
- D.
Mucus
- E.
Sebum
- 28.Macrophages arise from which of the following?
- A.
Neutrophil
- B.
Lymphocyte
- C.
Monocyte
- D.
Eosinophil
- E.
Basophil
- 29.Nonspecific resistance is
- A.
The body's ability to ward off diseases.
- B.
The body's defenses against any kind of pathogen
- C.
The body's defenses against a specific pathogen
- D.
The lack of resistance
- E.
None of the above
- 30.Bacteria have siderophores to capture iron; humans counter this by
- A.
Producing iron
- B.
Producing sulfur dioxide
- C.
Transferrins
- D.
Iron-degrading enzymes
- E.
Toxin production
- 31.In which organism were phagocytes first reported?
- A.
Bacteria
- B.
Amoeba
- C.
Red blood cells
- D.
Starfish larvae
- 32.Which is not a component of innate immunity?
- A.
Skin
- B.
Inflammation
- C.
Fever
- D.
Antibody
- 33.Which of the following is a phagocytic cell found in the human body?
- A.
Erythrocyte
- B.
Neutrophil
- C.
B cell
- D.
T cell
- 34.The leukocyte described as having a small amount of cytpolasm surrounding a round nucleus is the
- A.
Lymphocyte
- B.
Monocyte
- C.
Basophil
- D.
Neutrophil
- 35.Skin and mucous membranes
- A.
Are the first line of innate immunity
- B.
Are the first line of adaptive immunity
- C.
Act as physical barriers to infection
- D.
Contain antimicrobial secretions
- E.
A, c and d
- 36.A group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism is
- A.
Complement
- B.
Interferon
- C.
Glycoprotein
- D.
Lysozome
- 37.The first host response to a nonspecific tissue injury is described as
- A.
Inflammation
- B.
Reaction
- C.
Antibodies
- D.
Trauma
- 38.Following digestion of a microorganism by phagocytes, the debris is excreted by
- A.
Ingestion
- B.
Exocytosis
- C.
Extrusion
- D.
Budding
- 39.Which of the following cytokines is most antiviral in its action?
- A.
Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
- B.
Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
- C.
Interferon
- D.
Lysozyme
- 40.Pyrogens are
- A.
Fever-inducing substances
- B.
Fever-inhibiting substances
- C.
Phagocytosis-enhancing substances
- D.
Complement activators
- 41.The hypersensitivity treatment that stimulates an increase of IgG and T suppressor cells, and a decrease in IgE is known as
- A.
Desensitization
- B.
Immunity
- C.
Sensitization
- D.
Exposure
- E.
Anaphylaxis
- 42.A transfusion reaction primarily involves
- A.
Leukocytes
- B.
Phagocytes
- C.
Platelets
- D.
Erythrocytes
- 43.Regarding a mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen both
- A.
Result in destruction of red blood cells
- B.
Utilize complement to destroy red blood cells
- C.
Utilize antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity to destroy the red blood cells
- D.
Result in destruction of only leukocytes
- 44.Antibodies that have arisen in the blood plasma without any obvious or deliberate stimulus are called
- A.
Natural
- B.
Acquired
- C.
Injurious
- D.
Active
- 45.The cell type responsible for Type II hypersensitivity is the
- A.
Mast cell
- B.
B cell
- C.
Macrophage
- D.
Platelet
- E.
Neutrophils
- 46.Delayed type hypersensitivity primarily involves
- A.
Erythrocytes
- B.
B cells
- C.
T cells
- D.
Mast cells
- 47.Type IV hypersensitivity reactions typically peak within
- A.
Minutes
- B.
Hours
- C.
12 hours
- D.
2-3 days
- 48.Which of the following is associated with contact dermatitis?
- A.
Poison ivy
- B.
Latex
- C.
Tuberculin skin test
- D.
Hay fever
- E.
A, b and c
- 49.Allografts
- A.
Are normally rejected within hours
- B.
Are normally rejected within 10-14 days
- C.
Are grafts between non-identical members of the same species
- D.
Would include the fetus
- E.
B, c and d
- 50.If the thymus fails to develop,
- A.
Functional T cells are absent
- B.
Functional B cells are absent
- C.
Di George's syndrome exists
- D.
Complement deficiencies exist
- E.
A and c
- 51.Which of the following is not a granulocyte?
- A.
Eosinophil
- B.
Macrophage
- C.
Basophil
- D.
Neutrophil
- 52.The leukocyte that contains histamine is the
- A.
Lymphocyte
- B.
Monocyte
- C.
Macrophage
- D.
Basophil
- 53.In humans, the stem cells from which all blood cells arise are found in the
- A.
Peripheral circulation
- B.
Lymphatic vessels
- C.
Lymph nodes
- D.
Bone marrow
- 54.Allergic reactions mainly involve
- A.
Macrophages
- B.
Monocytes
- C.
Neutrophils
- D.
Mast cells
- 55.Which of the following is a phagocytic cell found in the human body?
- A.
Erythrocyte
- B.
Neutrophil
- C.
B cell
- D.
T cell
- 56.Which of the following are referred to as mononuclear phagocytes?
- A.
Lymphocytes and basophils
- B.
Mast cells and eosinophils
- C.
Basophils and eosinophils
- D.
Monocytes and macrophages
- 57.Which of the following are antigen-presenting cells?
- A.
Dendritic cells
- B.
T cells
- C.
Erythrocytes
- D.
Basophils
- 58.The leukocyte responsible for adaptive immunity is the
- A.
Lymphocyte
- B.
Monocyte
- C.
Eosinophil
- D.
Neutrophil
- 59.The "voices" of a cell are
- A.
Surface receptors
- B.
Platelets
- C.
Cytokines
- D.
Antigens
- 60.Normal flora
- A.
Are the organisms that typically reside on your body
- B.
Protect against infection by pathogens
- C.
Enhance infection by pathogens
- D.
Play no role in affecting pathogen growth
- E.
A and b
- 61.The first step in the establishment of infection is that the organism must
- A.
Invade host tissues
- B.
Attach to host cells
- C.
Evade phaogcytes
- D.
Produce toxins
- 62.The complex resulting from complement activity that leads to cell lysis is the
- A.
Prostaglandin complex
- B.
Leukotriene activating complex
- C.
Membrane attack complex
- D.
Histamine complex
- 63.Diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another are termed
- A.
Symptomatic
- B.
Clinical
- C.
Acute
- D.
Latent
- E.
Communicable
- 64.Opportunists or opportunistic pathogens
- A.
Are usually saprophytes
- B.
Take advantage of special circumstances
- C.
Are usually mutalistic
- D.
Always cause disease
- 65.A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is termed
- A.
Commensalism
- B.
Parasitism
- C.
Independence
- D.
Mutualism
- 66.All of the following are involved in Type II hypersensitivity except
- A.
IgM
- B.
IgG
- C.
IgE
- D.
Complement
- E.
Foreign cells
- 67.The humoral immune response involves the manufacture and use of
- A.
Antibodies
- B.
T cells
- C.
Lymphokines
- D.
Antigens
- 68.A person with O type blood
- A.
Lacks all the alleles for ABO blood type
- B.
Lacks A and B antigens
- C.
Could not have the Rh factor
- D.
Is called a universal recipient
- E.
All of the choices are correct
- 69.The complement pathway that requires antibodies to be activated is the
- A.
Alternate pathway
- B.
Classical pathway
- C.
Properdin pathway
- D.
Inflammatory pathway
- 70.The microorganisms that are regularly found in or on the body, yet do no apparent harm are called
- A.
Abnormal flora
- B.
Transient flora
- C.
Variant flora
- D.
Normal flora
- 71.The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when
- A.
Maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus
- B.
Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother
- C.
Maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus
- D.
Fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother
- E.
Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother
- 72.T cells and B cells are manufactured in the
- A.
Bone marrow
- B.
Thymus
- C.
Peyer's Patches
- D.
Nervous tissue
- 73.Which of the following is a phagocytic cell found in the human body?
- A.
Erythrocyte
- B.
Neutrophil
- C.
B cell
- D.
T cell
- 74.An epidemic that spreads worldwide is called a(n)
- A.
Epidemical
- B.
Endemic
- C.
Pandemic
- D.
Syndemic
- 75.Allergic reactions mainly involve
- A.
Macrophages
- B.
Monocytes
- C.
Neutrophils
- D.
Mast cells
- 76.Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
- A.
Neutralization
- B.
Opsonization
- C.
Complement fixation
- D.
Agllutination
- E.
Anamnestic response
- 77.MHC molecules are found on each of the following cells except
- A.
Leukocytes
- B.
Eosinophils
- C.
Epithelial cells
- D.
Red blood cells
- E.
Islet of langerhans cells
- 78.Delayed type hypersensitivity primarily involves
- A.
Erythrocytes
- B.
B Cells
- C.
T cells
- D.
Mast cells
- 79.Organisms that are found together and interact on a more or less permanent basis are in a relationship termed
- A.
Mutualism
- B.
Parasitism
- C.
Symbiosis
- D.
Commensalism
- 80.Interferons function to make cells
- A.
Resistant to viral replication
- B.
Lyse when exposed to virus
- C.
Non-motile when infected with virus
- D.
Resistant to phagocytosis
- 81.The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are
- A.
Type I only
- B.
Type I and Type IV
- C.
Type IV only
- D.
Type I, Type II, Type III
- E.
Type I, Type II, Type III, and Type IV
- 82.T cells primarily are responsible for
- A.
Humoral immunity
- B.
Cell-mediated immunity
- C.
Anamnestic immunity
- D.
Producing haptens
- 83.The series of steps used to connect an organism to a disease are known as
- A.
Pasteur's postulates
- B.
Lister's aseptics
- C.
Linnaeus taxonomics
- D.
Koch's postulates
- 84.Macrophages and dendritic cells are
- A.
T cells
- B.
B cells
- C.
Antigen-presenting cells
- D.
Antibody-presenting cells
- 85.A disease-causing microorganism or virus is referred to as a(n)
- A.
Avirulent infection
- B.
Colony
- C.
Commensal
- D.
Pathogen
- 86.Which is not a component of innate immunity?
- A.
Skin
- B.
Inflammation
- C.
Fever
- D.
Antibody
- 87.Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity?
- A.
Neutralization
- B.
Opsonization
- C.
Complement fixation
- D.
Agglutination
- E.
Anamnestic response
- 88.An infection acquired during hospitalization is reffered to as
- A.
Antibiotic-induced
- B.
Therapeutic
- C.
Medication-stimulated
- D.
Nosocomial
- 89.Inanimate objects capable of transferring infectious disease agents are
- A.
Vectors
- B.
Fomites
- C.
Vehicles
- D.
Reservoirs
- 90.The leukocyte responsible for adaptive immunity is the
- A.
Lymphocyte
- B.
Monocyte
- C.
Eosinophil
- D.
Neutrophil
- 91.Diseases that cause long-term or permanent damage leave
- A.
Latent
- B.
Sequelae
- C.
Directly
- D.
Indirectly
- E.
Chronically
- 92.A __________ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans
- A.
Secondary infection
- B.
Sequelae
- C.
Nosocomial infection
- D.
Zoonosis
- E.
None of the choices are correct
- 93.The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the
- A.
Skin
- B.
Respiratory tract
- C.
Digestive tract
- D.
Urinary tract
- E.
Eyes
- 94.Which is mismatched?
- A.
Fibriae - adherence to substrate
- B.
Capsultes - antiphagocytic factor
- C.
Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
- D.
Leukocidins - damage white blood cells
- E.
Hemolysins - damage red blood cells
- 95.A symptom is a(n)
- A.
Objective indication of disease
- B.
Subjective indication of disease
- C.
Measurable by health care personnel
- D.
Temperature
- E.
None of the choices are correct
- 96.Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
- A.
Degranulation
- B.
Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
- C.
Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
- D.
Histamine acts on smooth muscle
- E.
Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
- 97.Nosocomial infections involve all the following except:
- A.
Are only transmitted by medical personnel
- B.
Often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions
- C.
The patient's resident biota can be the infectious agent
- D.
Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents
- E.
Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence
- 98.Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called
- A.
Opportunistic pathogens
- B.
Normal biota
- C.
Indigenous biota
- D.
True pathogens
- E.
Micropathogens
- 99.When an individual's immune system comes into contact with an appropriate antigenic stimulus during the course of daily activities, this is called
- A.
Naturally acquired passive immunity
- B.
Naturally acquired active immunity
- C.
Artificially acquired active immunity
- D.
Artificially acquired passive immunity
- 100.Under normal circumstances, the microbiota of the skin is kept in check by
- A.
A high pH (>8)
- B.
A slightly acidic pH
- C.
Phagocytic activity
- D.
Excessive moisture
- 101.All blood cells originate from the
- A.
Erythrocyte
- B.
Leukocytic stem cell
- C.
Eosinophilic stem cell
- D.
Hematopoietic stem cell
- 102.The initial encounter with an allergen is called the
- A.
Sensitizing dose
- B.
Provocative dose
- C.
Allergic dose
- D.
Hypersensitivity dose
- E.
Densensitizing dose
- 103.__________ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen while they are recovering from an infectious disease.
- A.
Asymptomatic
- B.
Passive
- C.
Incubation
- D.
Chronic
- E.
Convalescent
- 104.Each of the following are physical barriers to pathogens except
- A.
Unbroken skin
- B.
Mucous
- C.
Hairs
- D.
Tears
- E.
T Cells
- 105.Which of the following is the endotoxin?
- A.
Hemolysin
- B.
Hyaluronidase
- C.
Toxinosis
- D.
Collagenase
- E.
Lipopolysaccharide
- 106.The transfer of antibodies in colostrum is a good example of
- A.
Naturally acquired passive immunity
- B.
Naturally acquired active immunity
- C.
Artificially acquired active immunity
- D.
Artificially acquired passive immunity
- 107.In multiple sclerosis, autoantibodies attack
- A.
Myelin sheath cells of the nervous system
- B.
Acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle
- C.
Acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle
- D.
Sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane
- E.
Cells in thyroid follicles
- 108.Substances that are recognized as foriegn and provoke immune responses are called
- A.
Antibodies
- B.
Antigens
- C.
Infective agents
- D.
Inducers
- 109.Exotoxins
- A.
Are secreted by pathogenic organisms
- B.
Are bound to the membrane of pathogenic organisms
- C.
Are bound to the cell wall of pathogenic organisms
- D.
Cause more damage than endotoxins
- E.
Are host specific
- 110.The complement pathway that is activated by mannan binding lectins is the
- A.
Classical pathway
- B.
Alternate pathway
- C.
C3 pathway
- D.
Lectin pathway
- 111.A properly functioning immune system is responsible for
- A.
Surveillance of the body
- B.
Recognition of foreign material
- C.
Destruction of foreign material
- D.
B and C
- E.
A, B, and C
- 112.Each of the following are inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except
- A.
The birth process through the birth canal
- B.
Bottle feeding
- C.
Breast feeding
- D.
Contact with hospital staff
- E.
All of the choices are correct
- 113.Which type of hypersensitivity is IgE?
- A.
Type IV
- B.
Type III
- C.
Type II
- D.
Type I
- 114.All the following are events of early inflammation except
- A.
Macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis
- B.
Chemical mediators and cytokines are released
- C.
Brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation
- D.
Exudate and pus can accumulate
- E.
Capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema
- 115.Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis?
- A.
Diapedesis
- B.
Chemotaxis
- C.
Phagolysosome formation
- D.
Destruction
- E.
Ingestion
- 116.Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases except
- A.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- B.
Myasthenia gravis
- C.
Graves' disease
- D.
Tuberculin reaction
- E.
Multiple Sclerosis
- 117.A systemic, sometimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is
- A.
Delayed
- B.
T cell mediated
- C.
Atopic
- D.
Antibody-mediated
- E.
Anaphylaxis
- 118.Each of the following can result in acquired immune deficiencies except
- A.
Malnutrition
- B.
Stress
- C.
Pregnancy
- D.
Bacterial infection
- E.
Radiation treatment
- 119.Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
- A.
Helper T cells
- B.
Suppressor T cells
- C.
Cytotoxic T cells
- D.
Delayed hypersensitivity T cells
- E.
Natural Killer (NK) cells
- 120.Fever
- A.
Enhances bacterial growth
- B.
Inhibits bacterial growth
- C.
Speeds up the body's reactions
- D.
Triggers complement
- E.
Inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions
- 121.The response of the immune system the second time an invader is encountered is called
- A.
The anamnestic response
- B.
The effector response
- C.
The enhanced response
- D.
None of the choices
- 122.The virulence factors of a pathogen are established by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 123.During phagocytosis, intracellular digestion begins as soon as the phagosome is formed
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 124.Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 125.The production of interferon will protect the host cell from a viral infection.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 126.After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 127.A person who is Rh- will have anti-Rh antibodies in their serum from early infancy.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 128.When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 129.Eczema is an autoimmune disorder.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 130.The secondary response to an antigen is faster and bigger than the primary response.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 131.Inflammation responses are orchestrated by the immune system and are part of the body's third line of defense.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 132.Which class of antibody accounts for the bulk of the circulating antibody?
- A.
IgA
- B.
IgD
- C.
IgG
- D.
IgE
- 133.The beauty of specific immunity is the production of __________ that provides long-lasting protection.
- A.
Antibodies
- B.
Plasma cells
- C.
T helper cells
- D.
Memory cells
- E.
Phagocytotic cells
- 134.The cytokine produced by animal cells in response to viral infections
- A.
Complement
- B.
Lysozyme
- C.
Histamine
- D.
Interferon
- 135.Which is the first antibody class made during the primary response to an antigen?
- A.
IgA
- B.
IgM
- C.
IgG
- D.
IgE
- 136.When an infectious disease cannot spread in a population because it lacks a significant number of susceptible hosts, the phenomenon is referred to as
- A.
Protected population
- B.
Active immunity
- C.
Passive immunity
- D.
Herd immunity
- 137.Diseases constantly present in a population are
- A.
Epidemic
- B.
Chronic
- C.
Latent
- D.
Endemic
- 138.The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except
- A.
Redness
- B.
Warmth
- C.
Swelling
- D.
Pain
- E.
Chills
- 139.The only class of antibody that can cross the placenta is
- A.
IgA
- B.
IgD
- C.
IgG
- D.
IgE
- 140.Diapedesis is the
- A.
Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging
- B.
Production of only red blood cells
- C.
Production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets
- D.
Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding
- E.
Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
- 141.Which white blood cells comprise 3-7% of circulating WBC's, are phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages?
- A.
Basophils
- B.
Eosinophils
- C.
Neutrophils
- D.
Monocytes
- E.
Lymphocytes
- 142.Which of the following is not a method of adhesion?
- A.
Fibriae
- B.
Surface proteins
- C.
Specialized receptors
- D.
Adhesive slime or capsules
- E.
Cilia
- 143.The immunoglobulin that is important in hypersensitivity reactions is
- A.
IgA
- B.
IgD
- C.
IgD
- D.
IgE
- 144.How long after initiation of a primary response do signifiant amounts of antibody appear in the blood?
- A.
One day
- B.
10-14 days
- C.
4 weeks
- D.
6 weeks
- 145.The chemical nature of exotoxins is that of a
- A.
Protein
- B.
Carbohydrate
- C.
Lipid
- D.
Lipopolysaccharide
- 146.The chemical nature of endotoxins is that of a
- A.
Protein
- B.
Nucleic acid
- C.
Lipid
- D.
Lipopolysaccharide
- 147.Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?
- A.
IgM only
- B.
IgG only
- C.
IgD only
- D.
IgM and IgG
- E.
IgE and IgA
- 148.The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are
- A.
IgM only
- B.
IgG only
- C.
IgD only
- D.
IgM and IgD
- E.
IgD and IgE
- 149.Which of the following statements is true?
- A.
Evolution selects for the most virulent pathogens
- B.
A successful pathogen never kills its host
- C.
The primary goal of a pathogen is to kill its host
- D.
A successful pathogen does not kill its host before it is transmitted
- 150.A vaccination is a good example of
- A.
Naturally acquired passive immunity
- B.
Naturally acquired active immunity
- C.
Artificially acquired active immunity
- D.
Artificially acquired passive immunity
- 151.The affect of "good" microbes against invading microbes is called
- A.
Microbial antagonism
- B.
Endogenous infection
- C.
Infectious disease
- D.
Axenic
- E.
Gnotobiotism
- 152.The most numerous WBC's that have multilobed nuclei and are very phatocytic are
- A.
Basophils
- B.
Eosinophils
- C.
Neutrophils
- D.
Monocytes
- E.
Lymphocytes
- 153.A person who has anti A and anti B serum antibodies will have blood type
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
AB
- D.
O
- E.
Rh
- 154.Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?
- A.
Neutralization
- B.
Opsonization
- C.
Complement fixation
- D.
Agglutination
- E.
Amnamnestic response
- 155.Which of the following antibodies is a pentamer?
- A.
IgA
- B.
IgD
- C.
IgM
- D.
IgE
- 156.Tears protect the eyes by
- A.
Flushing and lysozyme
- B.
Inflammation
- C.
Vasodilation
- D.
Stimulating opsonization
- E.
Flushing and lysozyme and vasodilation
- 157.The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is the
- A.
Prodromal period
- B.
Period of convalescent
- C.
Incubation period
- D.
Period of illness
- E.
Period of decline
- 158.Which of the following is one of the body's first lines of defense against infection?
- A.
Increased production of certain hormones and changes in the blood circulation
- B.
Several nonspecific amino acid toxins
- C.
Several nonspecific antibodies
- D.
Several nonspecific obstacles such as skin and mucous membranes
- E.
None of the above
- 159.A substance that can elicit an immune response is called a(n)
- A.
Complement
- B.
Antibody
- C.
Histamine
- D.
Antigen
- E.
Interferon
- 160.Which of the following cell types is specifically responsible for cell-mediated immunity?
- A.
B Cells
- B.
Macrophages
- C.
T cells
- D.
Neutrophils
- E.
Natural killer (NK) cells
- 161.Antibodies are __________.
- A.
Proteins
- B.
Nucleic acids
- C.
Amino acids
- D.
Lipids
- E.
Carbohydrates
- 162.Which of the following statements about antibodies is NOT true?
- A.
Antibodies recognize and bind to particular antigens
- B.
Antibodies assist in destroying particular antigenic particles
- C.
The body can produce only a very limited number of different antibodies
- D.
All of the polypeptide chains of an antibody molecule have both a V region and a C region
- E.
Antibody molecules are constructed from four molecular chains
- 163.The basic function of T cells is to identify and destroy invaders in our __________.
- A.
Immune system
- B.
Blood or lymph
- C.
Brain
- D.
Interstitial fluid
- E.
Cells
- 164.Which of the following cell types is specifically responsible for humoral immunity?
- A.
B Cells
- B.
Macrophages
- C.
T cells
- D.
Neutrophils
- E.
Natural killer (NK) cells
- 165.Which type of immune response is always disadvantageous to a person?
- A.
Inflammatory
- B.
Autoimmune
- C.
Cell-mediated
- D.
Humoral-mediated
- E.
All immune responses are advantageous
- 166.A researcher detects interferon in a laboratory rat and concludes that __________.
- A.
Cancerous cells are present in the rat
- B.
The rat's diet is deficient in calcium
- C.
The complement system is activated by exposure to an antigen
- D.
The rat has, or recently had, a viral infection
- E.
None of the above
- 167.Which of the following triggers our nonspecific defense system?
- A.
Inflammation
- B.
Passive immunity
- C.
Cell-mediated immunity
- D.
Movement of erythrocytes to the affected site
- E.
Active immunity
- 168.The transfer of antibodies from breast milk to an infant is an example of __________ immunity.
- A.
Passive
- B.
Humoral
- C.
Cell-mediated
- D.
Active
- E.
Nonspecific
- 169.Anaphylactic shock is an example of an __________.
- A.
Immunodeficiency disease
- B.
Acquired autoimmune disease
- C.
Acquired immunodeficiency disease
- D.
Allergic response
- E.
Autoimmune disease
- 170.Complement proteins assist the immune response by __________.
- A.
Coating the surface of microbes, thus making it easier for macrophages to phagocytize them
- B.
Reducing inflammation
- C.
Enhancing the effects of antibiotics
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
- 171.Which of the following substances does a cytotoxic T cell secrete to destroy a target cell?
- A.
Pyrogen
- B.
Perforin
- C.
Complement
- D.
Interferon
- E.
Antibodies
- 172.Which of the following is a major function of natural killer (NK) cells?
- A.
To attack virus-infected cells in a nonspecific way
- B.
To phagocytize microorganisms that have been tagged with antibodies
- C.
To tag pathogenic microorganisms with antibodies
- D.
To attack virus-infected cells in an antigen-specific way
- E.
To attack and kill pathogenic microorganisms in a nonspecific way
- 173.What kinds of cells wander the interstitial fluid eating whatever bacteria and virus-infected cells they encounter and recognize?
- A.
Leukocytes
- B.
Macrophages
- C.
Monocytes
- D.
Natural killer (NK) cells
- E.
Interferons
- 174.Which of the following kinds of protein circulates in the blood and coats the surfaces of microbes to make them more susceptible to engulfment by macrophages?
- A.
Antigen
- B.
Complement
- C.
Pyrogen
- D.
Interferon
- E.
Prostaglandin
- 175.Which of the following types of cells does HIV preferentially infect?
- A.
Cytotoic T cells
- B.
Memory cells
- C.
Helper T cells
- D.
Macrophages
- E.
Natural killer (NK) cells
- 176.Which of the following diseases is NOT thought to be an autoimmune disease?
- A.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
- B.
Cancer of the bone marrow
- C.
Multiple sclerosis
- D.
Insulin-dependent diabetes
- E.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- 177.Why do diseases involving widespread infection usually result in a fever?
- A.
The microorganisms trick the brain's temperature control center (hypothalamus) into creating a hot environment that favors their growth.
- B.
The inflammatory and immune responses result in extra heat production
- C.
The rapid multiplication of the invading microorganisms results in extra heat production
- D.
The brain's temperature control center responds to inflammation by creating a hot environment unfavorable to microorganisms
- E.
None of the choices are correct
- 178.What is a primary immune response?
- A.
The immune response elicited by the primary antigen of a disease-causing microorganism
- B.
The immune response elicited by the first exposure of memory cells to a particular antigen
- C.
The immune response elicited by the first exposure of lymphocytes to a particular antigen
- D.
The immune response elicited by the primary antibody of a disease-causing microorganism
- E.
The production of primary-type antibody in the first day of exposure to a microorganism
- 179.Which of the following is NOT an activity of antibodies?
- A.
Neutralization of the invader
- B.
Physically blocking antigens
- C.
Phagocytosis of invaders
- D.
Clumping of invader cells
- E.
Activation of complement proteins
- 180.Which of the following compounds are mast cells specialized to secrete?
- A.
Interferon
- B.
Perforin
- C.
Histamine
- D.
Complement
- E.
Allergens
- 181.When you cut yourself, the damaged cells immediately release which of the following chemical alarm signals?
- A.
Anti-interferon
- B.
Histamine
- C.
Pyrogens
- D.
Complement
- E.
Interferon
- 182.Which of the following cell types initiates a secondary immune response?
- A.
Immature leukocytes
- B.
Memory cells
- C.
Plasma cells
- D.
Natural killer (NK) cells
- E.
Effector cells
- 183.The symbiotic relationship wherein both partners benefit is termed
- A.
Commensalism
- B.
Parasitism
- C.
Independence
- D.
Mutualism
- 184.The idea that communicable diseases were caused by the passage of living things from one person to another was first put forth by
- A.
Fracastorius
- B.
Pasteur
- C.
Thucydides
- D.
Leeuwenhoek
- 185.The interaction of all organisms within a biological community is called a(n)
- A.
Dialogue
- B.
Chat room
- C.
Ecosystem
- D.
Relationship
- 186.A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is harmed is termed
- A.
Commensalism
- B.
Parasitism
- C.
Independence
- D.
Mutualism
- 187.The resident microbial population of the human fetus is
- A.
Zero
- B.
Sparse
- C.
Complex
- D.
Symbiotic
- 188.Which of the following is true about the role normal flora play in maintaining host health?
- A.
They provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader
- B.
They establish a competition for nutrients and vitamins
- C.
They produce antimicrobial substances
- D.
They stimulate the immune system
- E.
All of the above are true
- 189.Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibits the growth of Corynebacterium diphtheriae by producing hydrogen peroxide?
- A.
E. coli
- B.
Streptococcus species
- C.
Staphylococci species
- D.
Propionibacterium species
- 190.Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibits the growth of bacteria by production of fatty acids from lipids?
- A.
E. coli
- B.
Streptococcus pyogenes
- C.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
- D.
Propionibacterium species
- E.
C and d
- 191.Which of the following may inhibit the activity of normal flora and allow pathogens to become established?
- A.
Peroxides
- B.
Acids
- C.
Fatty acids
- D.
Antibiotics
- 192.A diet high in meat leads to a population of normal flora with an increased number of
- A.
E. coli
- B.
Streptococci pyogenes
- C.
Staphylococci epidemidis
- D.
Bacteroides species
- E.
C and D
- 193.Growth of a parasitic organism in or on the host is referred to as
- A.
Colonization
- B.
Infection
- C.
Pathogenism
- D.
Mutualism
- 194.A member of the normal flora that becomes an opportunist if it invades the urinary bladder is
- A.
P. vulgaris
- B.
C. diptheria
- C.
S. typhimurium
- D.
E. coli
- 195.An obligate intracellular pathogen may
- A.
Only survive outside the cell
- B.
Survive inside or outside the cell
- C.
Survive in the interstitial tissue
- D.
May only survive and grow inside a cell
- 196.Attributes of an organism that promote pathogenicity are called
- A.
Disease factors
- B.
Colonization factors
- C.
Mutualistic
- D.
Virulence factors
- 197.Avirulent organisms are
- A.
More likely to cause disease
- B.
More likely to cause severe disease
- C.
Unable to cause disease
- D.
Pathogenic
- 198.Which of the following may be considered virulence factors?
- A.
Adhesins
- B.
Capsules
- C.
Endotoxins
- D.
Proteases
- E.
All of the above
- 199.Which of the following does S. pneumoniae use to survive in the host?
- A.
Plasmids
- B.
Pili
- C.
Flagella
- D.
Capsules
- 200.Which of the following would be considered a sign of a disease?
- A.
Headache
- B.
Pain
- C.
Nausea
- D.
Fever of 39°C
- 201.People who carry and may spread pathogenic organisms without any overt symptoms of illness are called
- A.
Primary infections
- B.
Secondary infections
- C.
Mutualists
- D.
Carriers
- 202.The spread of toxin via the circulation is called
- A.
Septicemia
- B.
Bacteremia
- C.
Sepsis
- D.
Toxemia
- 203.If a disease affects only a human and not an animal, then it would be difficult to fulfill Koch's postulate number ___.
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 204.Transmission of an infectious disease by touching, handshaking, or kissing is considered
- A.
Direct contact
- B.
Indirect contact
- C.
Infectious connection
- D.
Communicable actions
- 205.Which of the following is considered an indirect mode of transmission?
- A.
Sexual intercourse
- B.
Touching
- C.
Handshaking
- D.
Insect bites
- 206.Fomites are involved in
- A.
Direct contacts
- B.
Indirect contacts
- C.
Direct infectious connections
- D.
Communicable actions
- 207.The number of organisms necessary to insure infection is termed the
- A.
Infectious dose
- B.
Fatal number
- C.
Minimum lethal dose
- D.
Pathogenic number
- 208.The portal of entry
- A.
Has no effect on the establishment of an infection
- B.
Plays a role in whether an infection will be established
- C.
May be the skin or respiratory tract
- D.
May be the same as the portal of exit
- E.
B, c and d
- 209.Typically, adhesins
- A.
Are found on the pili
- B.
Help bacteria attach to host cells
- C.
Are proteins
- D.
Are found on host cells
- E.
A, b and c
- 210.Density-dependent expression of virulence factors is called
- A.
Pathogenicity
- B.
Size dependency
- C.
Key number
- D.
Quorum sensing
- 211.C5a peptidase
- A.
Is a virulence factor
- B.
Synthesizes C5a
- C.
Is produced by the host cell in response to infection
- D.
Is a molecule promoting chemotaxis
- E.
A and d
- 212.Which of the following is/are true about endotoxins?
- A.
Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule
- B.
The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came
- C.
The lipid A is immunogenic
- D.
The O antigens are the same for all bacteria
- E.
B and d
- 213.The lack of susceptibility to diseases of other species in humans may be due to the
- A.
Secretion of exotoxins
- B.
Presence of endotoxins
- C.
Action of IL-2
- D.
Lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factors
- 214.Bacteria may survive phagocytosis by
- A.
Preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome
- B.
Preventing acidification of the phagolysosome
- C.
Producing comet tails
- D.
Preventing fusion of two phagosomes
- E.
A and b
- 215.Which is true about superantigens?
- A.
They are a type of exotoxin
- B.
They bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells
- C.
They enhance specific antibody production
- D.
They are processed intracellularly
- E.
A and b
- 216.Which is/are true about viruses?
- A.
They may suppress the production of MHC Class I protein
- B.
They may produce an MHC Class I mimic protein
- C.
They may prevent cell suicide
- D.
They may bind to MHC class II antigens
- E.
A, b and c
- 217.An example of genetic variation used in pathogen survival may be
- A.
Production of a comet's tail
- B.
Protease production
- C.
Inhibition of MHC Class I antigen production
- D.
Changing the pilus type
- E.
A and b
- 218.Which is true about botox?
- A.
It is an endotoxin
- B.
It is produced by S. aureus
- C.
It may cause botulism
- D.
It is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions
- E.
C and d
- 219.In Gram-negative bacteria, many of the genes required for pathogenicity are
- A.
Located far from one another on the chromosome
- B.
Individually transferred between bacteria
- C.
Located close together on chromosomes in regions called pathogenicity islands
- D.
Located on separate chromosomes
- E.
B and c
- 220.Microbes may evade host defensive responses by
- A.
Inhibiting genetic variation
- B.
Mimicking host materials
- C.
Taking over the cell's myosin
- D.
Encouraging fusion of the phagosome with the lysosome
- E.
A and c
- 221.Infection always leads to disease.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 222.A disease is an infection that impairs the normal state of health.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 223.During incubation and convalescence a person may still spread infectious organisms.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 224.The infectious dose of most pathogens is about equal.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 225.A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 226.High concentrations of some bacteria are necessary for successful invasion because only at high density are their virulence genes expressed.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 227.Only Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 228.The two main functions of the lymphatic system are
- A.
Returning tissue fluid to the circulatory system and coagulating blood
- B.
Coagulating blood and fighting infections
- C.
Returning tissue fluid to the circulatory system and fighting infections
- D.
Producing hormones that regulate the immune system and coagulating blood
- E.
Producing hormones that regulate the immune system and fighting infections
- 229.Antibodies
- A.
Consist of three polypeptide chains
- B.
Assist in destroying particular antigens
- C.
Are generalists in that any antibody can bind to any antigen
- D.
Are shaped like the letter B
- E.
All of the above
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