Micro Exam 2 First Few Lectures

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  • 1/74 Questions

    The glycolysis pathway which converts glucose to pyruvate uses ___ high energy phosphates and ___ atp

    • 2 phosphate ; 4 atp
    • 1 phosphate ; 2 atp
    • 4 phosphate ; 2 atp
    • 2 atp ; 1 phosphate
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About This Quiz

Micro Exam 2 First Few Lectures quiz covers key metabolic pathways, focusing on glycolysis and its energy use, fermentation, respiration, and gluconeogenesis. It assesses understanding of bacterial sugar metabolism and acid handling, crucial for students in microbiology and related fields.

Micro Exam 2 First Few Lectures - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The oxidation of NADH+H+ leading to its usage in an electron transport system is called

    • Fermentation

    • Respiration

    • Dimerization

    • Alkylization

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiration
    Explanation
    Respiration is the correct answer because it involves the oxidation of NADH+H+ in the electron transport system. During respiration, NADH+H+ is oxidized to NAD+ as it donates its electrons to the electron transport chain. This process generates energy in the form of ATP. Fermentation, on the other hand, does not involve the electron transport system and instead uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor. Dimerization and alkylization are not related to the oxidation of NADH+H+ in the electron transport system.

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  • 3. 

    Pentoses and citrate allows gluconeogenesis to produce glycitic intermediates needed for biosynthetic purposes

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Pentoses and citrate are both important in gluconeogenesis because they can be converted into glycitic intermediates. These intermediates are necessary for the production of glucose, which is used for various biosynthetic processes in the body. Therefore, it is true that pentoses and citrate allow gluconeogenesis to produce the glycitic intermediates needed for biosynthetic purposes.

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  • 4. 

    Select a way in which bacteria deals with acid production

    • Utilizing acidic products

    • Continously growing

    • Alternate acid and alcohol production

    • Being tolerant towards alkaline materials

    Correct Answer
    A. Alternate acid and alcohol production
    Explanation
    To deal with acid production bacteria can:
    neutral products (formed by the neutralization of acid end products)
    stop growing
    alternate acid and alchol production
    be acid tolerant

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  • 5. 

    Sugar metabolism is an important diagnostic for the classification of pathogenic bacteria

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Sugar metabolism is an important diagnostic for the classification of pathogenic bacteria because different bacteria have different abilities to metabolize sugars. By studying how bacteria metabolize sugars, scientists can identify and classify different types of bacteria. This information is crucial for diagnosing and treating bacterial infections, as different bacteria may require different antibiotics or treatment approaches. Therefore, the statement "Sugar metabolism is an important diagnostic for the classification of pathogenic bacteria" is true.

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  • 6. 

    Only aerobic bacteria can respire

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Both aerobic and anaerobic can

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  • 7. 

    Which test determines if bacteria have cytochromes which can be used in respiration?

    • Oxidase

    • Nitrate Reductase

    • Catalase

    • Hemolysis on Blood Agar Plates

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxidase
    Explanation
    The oxidase test is used to determine if bacteria have cytochromes that can be used in respiration. Cytochromes are proteins that contain heme groups and are involved in electron transport during respiration. The oxidase test detects the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, which is an enzyme involved in the electron transport chain. If the bacteria produce cytochrome c oxidase, then they will produce a positive result in the oxidase test. This test is commonly used to differentiate between different groups of bacteria, such as Gram-negative bacteria that are oxidase-positive and Gram-positive bacteria that are oxidase-negative.

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  • 8. 

    Which test dtermines if nitrate can be used as a final electron acceptor indicating respiration?

    • Oxidase Test

    • Nitrate Reductase Test

    • Catalase Test

    • Hemolysis on Blood Agar Plates

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitrate Reductase Test
    Explanation
    The Nitrate Reductase Test is used to determine if nitrate can be used as a final electron acceptor in respiration. This test involves adding nitrate to a bacterial culture and observing for the presence of nitrite. If nitrite is present, it indicates that the bacteria have the enzyme nitrate reductase, which can convert nitrate to nitrite. This enzyme is necessary for bacteria to use nitrate as an electron acceptor in respiration. Therefore, the Nitrate Reductase Test is the appropriate test to determine if nitrate can be used as a final electron acceptor.

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  • 9. 

    Which test involves mixture of 3% H2O2 and bubble formation?

    • Oxidase Test

    • Nitrate Reductase Test

    • Catalase Test

    • Hemolysis on Blood Agar Plate Test

    Correct Answer
    A. Catalase Test
    Explanation
    The catalase test involves the use of a mixture of 3% H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) and the observation of bubble formation. This test is used to determine the presence of the enzyme catalase in bacteria. Catalase is responsible for breaking down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen gas, resulting in the formation of bubbles. Therefore, the correct answer is the Catalase Test.

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  • 10. 

    The catalse test scores bacteria on the ability to produce bubbles of ____ in the presence of hydrogen peroxide?

    • Oxygen

    • Hydrogen

    • Nitrogen

    • Hydroxyl Ion

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygen
    Explanation
    The catalase test is used to determine the presence of catalase enzyme in bacteria, which breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. When hydrogen peroxide is added to a bacterial culture, the presence of bubbles indicates the production of oxygen gas as a result of catalase activity. Therefore, the correct answer is Oxygen.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not a source of NH3 used by bacteria?

    • Arginine

    • Urea

    • Tryptophan

    • N2 Fixation

    • Alanine

    Correct Answer
    A. Alanine
    Explanation
    Alanine is not a source of NH3 used by bacteria. NH3 is typically produced by the breakdown of amino acids such as arginine, urea, and tryptophan. N2 fixation is also a process by which bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into NH3. However, alanine does not release NH3 when metabolized by bacteria.

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  • 12. 

    Sulfonamides are PABA analogues which inhibit the _____ biosynthetic pathway

    • THFA (tetrahydrofolic)

    • DNA repair

    • Apoptotic

    • Kreb Cycle

    Correct Answer
    A. THFA (tetrahydrofolic)
    Explanation
    Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that binds dihydrofolate reducatase thus inhibiting the THFA biosynthetic pathway

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  • 13. 

    Sigma dissociates directly after translation has started

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Transcription

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  • 14. 

    Which drug interacts with the 30s subunit of the ribosome, preventing binding of f-Met (which provides the 1st amino acid residue of most bacterial proteins)?

    • Aminoglycosides (streptomycin)

    • Methotrexate

    • Rifampin (rifampicin)

    • Lipiarmycin (fidaxomycin)

    Correct Answer
    A. Aminoglycosides (streptomycin)
    Explanation
    Aminoglycosides, specifically streptomycin, interact with the 30s subunit of the ribosome. This interaction prevents the binding of f-Met, which is the first amino acid residue of most bacterial proteins. By inhibiting this binding, aminoglycosides disrupt protein synthesis in bacteria, leading to their death. Methotrexate, Rifampin, and Lipiarmycin do not have this specific mechanism of action and do not interact with the 30s subunit of the ribosome in the same way.

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  • 15. 

    Aminoglycosides work best on anerobic bacteria

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    They dont because they need a strong motor force to be transported

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  • 16. 

    Aminoglycosides only work on Gram-positve bacteria

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Doesn't matter what type as long as they are aerobic

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  • 17. 

    If you needed a drug which specifically inhibited only the 50s unit, which would you pick?

    • Oxazolidinones (zyvox-linezolid)

    • Tetracycline

    • Aminoglycosides

    • Rifampins

    • Lipiarmycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxazolidinones (zyvox-linezolid)
    Explanation
    Interact with the 50S subunit and inhibit the formation of peptide bonds

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  • 18. 

    Which drug interacts with the 16s rRNA in the 30s subunit and block the transfer of tRNAs to the acceptor site?

    • Oxazolidinones (Zyvox-linezolid)

    • Tetracycline

    • Chloramphenicol

    • Rifampin

    • Clorstridium difficile

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetracycline
    Explanation
    Tetracycline is the correct answer because it is known to interact with the 16s rRNA in the 30s subunit of the bacterial ribosome. This interaction blocks the transfer of tRNAs to the acceptor site, ultimately inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria. Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat various bacterial infections.

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  • 19. 

    Which drug interacts with the 23s rRNA in the 50s subunit and causes the release of the growing peptide chain?

    • Macrolides and streptogramins Lincosamindes (eg Clindamycin)

    • Chloramphenicol

    • Tetracycline

    • Oxazolidinones (Zyvox) (linezolid)

    Correct Answer
    A. Macrolides and streptogramins Lincosamindes (eg Clindamycin)
    Explanation
    Macrolides and streptogramins Lincosamindes, such as Clindamycin, interact with the 23s rRNA in the 50s subunit of the bacterial ribosome. This interaction inhibits the translocation process, which is necessary for the movement of the ribosome along the mRNA strand during protein synthesis. As a result, the growing peptide chain is unable to be released from the ribosome, leading to the inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis.

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  • 20. 

    What blocks the P site on the ribosome?

    • Macrolides (erythromycin)

    • Lincosamides (clindamycin)

    • Streptogramins

    Correct Answer
    A. Streptogramins
    Explanation
    Streptogramins block the P site on the ribosome.

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  • 21. 

    Most pathogens are alkanaphiles or acidophiles

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Most are neutrophiles or acidophiles

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  • 22. 

    Which one of the following is NOT a major way which bacteria transfer genes?

    • Transformation

    • Transduction

    • Conjugation

    • Elongation

    Correct Answer
    A. Elongation
    Explanation
    Elongation is not a major way in which bacteria transfer genes. Transformation, transduction, and conjugation are the three main mechanisms through which bacteria can transfer genetic material. Elongation, on the other hand, refers to the process of adding amino acids to a growing protein chain during protein synthesis, and is not involved in gene transfer.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is DNAse resistant?

    • Transformation

    • Transduction

    • Elongation

    • Conjugation

    Correct Answer
    A. Transduction
    Explanation
    Transduction is the correct answer because it is a process by which genetic material is transferred from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage (a virus that infects bacteria). During transduction, the bacteriophage injects its DNA into the bacterial cell, and this DNA is resistant to DNAse, an enzyme that breaks down DNA. Therefore, transduction is the only option that is DNAse resistant.

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  • 24. 

    S. pneumonia strains that lack a capsule are virulent

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because S. pneumonia strains that lack a capsule are actually avirulent, meaning they are not capable of causing disease. The capsule is a crucial virulence factor for S. pneumoniae as it helps the bacteria evade the host immune system and establish infection. Without a capsule, the bacteria are more susceptible to immune clearance and are unable to cause disease.

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  • 25. 

    Lysogenic phage give what type of plaques on a lawn of bacteria?

    • Clear

    • Turbid

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. Turbid
    Explanation
    Lysogenic phages are bacteriophages that can integrate their DNA into the host bacterium's genome and remain dormant for a period of time. When they are activated, they can enter the lytic cycle and cause the host cell to burst, releasing new phages. Turbid plaques are formed when lysogenic phages infect bacteria, as the host cells continue to grow and divide even after phage integration. This results in a cloudy appearance in the area where the phages have infected the bacteria.

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  • 26. 

    The Lambda Repressor gets activated in E. Coli. This does the following

    • Keeps the phage quiescent

    • Makes the phage lyse

    • Stimulates more phage to enter the host

    • Does nothing

    Correct Answer
    A. Keeps the phage quiescent
    Explanation
    The activation of the Lambda Repressor in E. Coli keeps the phage quiescent. This means that it prevents the phage from becoming active or replicating within the host cell. By keeping the phage quiescent, the Lambda Repressor helps maintain a dormant state, preventing the phage from causing harm or lysing the host cell.

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  • 27. 

    Conjugation can occur by cells in the same relative vacinity with no touch

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Conjugation is a process in which genetic material is transferred between bacterial cells through direct contact. It requires physical contact between cells, typically facilitated by a structure called a pilus. Therefore, the statement that conjugation can occur by cells in the same relative vicinity with no touch is false.

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  • 28. 

    At the end of conjugation, only the recipient has a copy of the F plasmid

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Donor and recipient

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  • 29. 

    Conjugation is sensitive to DNase

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Conjugation is a process by which genetic material is transferred between bacterial cells. DNase is an enzyme that breaks down DNA. The statement suggests that conjugation is affected by DNase, implying that DNase can inhibit or interfere with the process. However, this is not true. Conjugation is not sensitive to DNase, and the presence of DNase does not prevent or hinder the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells.

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  • 30. 

    What molecule causes resistance to form from Penicillin?

    • B-Lactamase

    • Methylase

    • Efflux Pump

    • Altering Enzyme

    Correct Answer
    A. B-Lactamase
    Explanation
    B-Lactamase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme produced by certain bacteria that can break down the structure of penicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics. This enzyme acts as a defense mechanism for the bacteria, allowing them to resist the effects of the antibiotic. By breaking down the beta-lactam ring present in penicillin, B-Lactamase renders the antibiotic ineffective, leading to antibiotic resistance.

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  • 31. 

    Which molecule causes resistance to form from Tetracycline?

    • B-Lactamase

    • Methylase

    • Efflux Pump

    • Altering Enzyme

    Correct Answer
    A. Efflux Pump
    Explanation
    Efflux pump is the correct answer because it is a mechanism by which bacteria can develop resistance to tetracycline. Efflux pumps are proteins that are able to pump out tetracycline from inside the bacterial cell, preventing it from reaching its target and exerting its antimicrobial effect. This allows the bacteria to survive and continue to grow even in the presence of tetracycline. Other options like B-Lactamase, Methylase, and Altering Enzyme are not directly associated with resistance to tetracycline.

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  • 32. 

    The sterne vaccine strain is an example of a plasmid which lacks

    • PXO1

    • PxO2

    • PXO3

    • PXO4

    Correct Answer
    A. PxO2
    Explanation
    The sterne vaccine strain is a strain of Bacillus anthracis that is used as a vaccine against anthrax. It is derived from a strain that lacks the pXO2 plasmid, which is responsible for the production of the protective antigen component of the anthrax toxin. This plasmid is essential for the virulence of the bacteria, so by lacking it, the sterne vaccine strain is avirulent and can be used safely as a vaccine.

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  • 33. 

    What molecule catalyzes the movement of the IS element from one place to the other?

    • Recombinase

    • Transposase

    • Transcriptase

    • RNA Polymerase

    Correct Answer
    A. Transposase
    Explanation
    Transposase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that catalyzes the movement of transposable elements, such as IS elements, from one location to another within the genome. Transposase recognizes specific sequences at the ends of the transposable element and cuts the DNA, allowing the element to be inserted into a new site. This process, known as transposition, is important for genetic diversity and can have significant effects on the structure and function of genomes.

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  • 34. 

    Insertion Sequences have inverted repeat DNA sequences at their ends

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Insertion sequences are short segments of DNA that can move around within a genome. They typically contain inverted repeat DNA sequences at their ends. These inverted repeats serve as recognition sites for the enzymes that catalyze the insertion of the sequence into the genome. Therefore, the statement that insertion sequences have inverted repeat DNA sequences at their ends is true.

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  • 35. 

    What is an example of a hospital acquired (nosocomial) infection?

    • SCCmec Type IV

    • MRSA

    • SCCmec

    • MRSA Type IV

    Correct Answer
    A. SCCmec Type IV
    Explanation
    SCCmec Type IV is not an example of a hospital-acquired infection. SCCmec is a genetic element found in certain strains of Staphylococcus aureus, including MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus). MRSA, on the other hand, is a type of bacteria that causes hospital-acquired infections. Therefore, MRSA is the correct answer as an example of a hospital-acquired infection.

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  • 36. 

    Slippage during replication is due to Opa genes

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Slippage during replication is a phenomenon that occurs when DNA strands misalign during the replication process, leading to the insertion or deletion of nucleotides. Opa genes, which are found in certain bacteria, have been shown to contribute to slippage during replication. Therefore, it is correct to say that slippage during replication is due to Opa genes.

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  • 37. 

    A sensitive antibiotic resistance on a disk diffusion assay correlates with antibiotics being inhibited or killed by ____ of the achievable clinical dose

    • 1/2

    • 1/4

    • 1/8

    • 1/16

    Correct Answer
    A. 1/4
    Explanation
    In a disk diffusion assay, a sensitive antibiotic resistance indicates that the antibiotics are being inhibited or killed by 1/4 of the achievable clinical dose. This means that the concentration of the antibiotic required to inhibit or kill the bacteria is only 1/4th of what would normally be used in a clinical setting. This suggests that the bacteria are highly susceptible to the antibiotic and that a lower dose can be effective in treating the infection.

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  • 38. 

    The type of antibiotic resistance mechanism which makes the bacteria more resistance is

    • Natural

    • Acquired

    • Mutational

    Correct Answer
    A. Natural
    Explanation
    Natural antibiotic resistance mechanisms refer to the inherent ability of certain bacteria to resist the effects of antibiotics. This resistance is not acquired or developed over time but is a natural characteristic of the bacteria. It can be a result of various factors such as the presence of efflux pumps that can actively remove antibiotics from the bacterial cell, the impermeability of the bacterial cell wall to certain antibiotics, or the production of enzymes that can inactivate antibiotics. These natural resistance mechanisms make the bacteria inherently more resistant to antibiotics and can pose challenges in the treatment of bacterial infections.

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  • 39. 

    The type of antibiotic resistance which is obtained on mobile genetic elements from other bacteria is

    • Natural

    • Acquired

    • Mutational

    Correct Answer
    A. Acquired
    Explanation
    Acquired antibiotic resistance refers to the type of resistance that is obtained from other bacteria through the transfer of mobile genetic elements. This means that bacteria can acquire resistance genes from other bacteria in their environment, allowing them to survive and proliferate in the presence of antibiotics. This transfer can occur through processes such as conjugation, transformation, or transduction. Acquired resistance is an important mechanism by which bacteria can develop resistance to antibiotics, leading to the emergence of multidrug-resistant strains.

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  • 40. 

    Efflux pump causes an influx of bacterial concentration in the cytoplasm

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is incorrect. An efflux pump is a mechanism used by bacteria to remove toxic substances from their cytoplasm, not to cause an influx of bacterial concentration. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 41. 

    Fosfomycin inhibits the formation of what molecule?

    • NAM

    • B lactamase

    • Aminoglycosides

    • MRSA

    Correct Answer
    A. NAM
    Explanation
    Fosfomycin inhibits the formation of NAM (N-acetylmuramic acid). NAM is an essential component of the bacterial cell wall, specifically in the peptidoglycan layer. By inhibiting the formation of NAM, fosfomycin disrupts the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell death. This makes fosfomycin an effective antibiotic against a wide range of bacteria.

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  • 42. 

    The oxidation of NADH+ H+ by the reduction of pyruvate is called

    • Fermentation

    • Respiration

    • Alkylization

    • Dimerization

    Correct Answer
    A. Fermentation
    Explanation
    The oxidation of NADH+ H+ by the reduction of pyruvate is called fermentation. In this process, NADH+ H+ is oxidized, releasing energy, while pyruvate is reduced. Fermentation is an anaerobic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen. It is commonly observed in microorganisms and some types of cells, such as muscle cells, when oxygen is limited or unavailable. Fermentation is an important metabolic pathway that allows cells to continue producing ATP, the energy currency of the cell, in the absence of oxygen.

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  • 43. 

    Bacteria that respire transform pyrufvate into acetyl-CoA and further break it down to O2 via the TCA (krebs) cycle

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Break it down to CO2

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  • 44. 

    What does the Krebs cycle not provide bacteria with?

    • NADPH for biosynthesis

    • Aditional molecules of NAD+ which can be used in generating a proton motor force

    • FADH+H+ that can be used for generation of a proton motor force

    • ATP

    Correct Answer
    A. Aditional molecules of NAD+ which can be used in generating a proton motor force
    Explanation
    The Krebs cycle does not provide bacteria with additional molecules of NAD+ which can be used in generating a proton motor force. The Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria of cells. It is an important part of cellular respiration, where glucose is broken down to produce energy in the form of ATP. During the Krebs cycle, NAD+ is reduced to NADH, which carries high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain to generate a proton motor force and ultimately produce ATP. However, the Krebs cycle does not generate additional molecules of NAD+ for this process.

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  • 45. 

    Which test includes tetramethyl-p-phenylediamine?

    • Oxidase Test

    • Nitrate Reductase Test

    • Catalase Test

    • Hemolysis on Blood Agar Plates

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxidase Test
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Oxidase Test. The Oxidase Test is used to determine the presence of cytochrome oxidase, an enzyme involved in the electron transport chain of aerobic organisms. Tetramethyl-p-phenylediamine is a reagent used in this test to detect the presence of cytochrome oxidase. When the reagent is added to a sample, a color change occurs if cytochrome oxidase is present, indicating a positive result for the test.

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  • 46. 

    Which tests includes adding sulfanilic acid and alpha napthylamine?

    • Oxidase Test

    • Nitrate Reductase Test

    • Catalase Test

    • Hemolysis on Blood Agar Plates

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitrate Reductase Test
    Explanation
    The Nitrate Reductase Test includes adding sulfanilic acid and alpha napthylamine. This test is used to determine if an organism can reduce nitrate to nitrite. When sulfanilic acid and alpha napthylamine are added to the test tube containing the nitrate broth, a positive result is indicated by the development of a red color due to the presence of nitrite. This test is commonly used to differentiate between different species of bacteria based on their ability to reduce nitrate.

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  • 47. 

    Group A Strep (S. pyogenes) and Gropu B Strep (S. agalactiae) are B hemolytic

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes) and Group B Streptococcus (S. agalactiae) are both classified as B hemolytic. This means that they produce a complete lysis of red blood cells, resulting in a clear zone around the colonies on a blood agar plate. This classification is important in identifying and differentiating these bacteria from other streptococcal groups, as well as in understanding their pathogenicity and clinical implications. Therefore, the statement that Group A Streptococcus and Group B Streptococcus are B hemolytic is true.

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  • 48. 

    What is the complete holo enzyme?

    • AaBB'

    • AaBB'sigma

    • Sigma

    • AaBBsigma

    Correct Answer
    A. AaBB'sigma
    Explanation
    The complete holoenzyme consists of the aaBB' subunit and the sigma factor. The aaBB' subunit is responsible for the catalytic activity of the enzyme, while the sigma factor is involved in recognizing the promoter region of DNA and initiating transcription. Therefore, the combination of aaBB' and sigma is required for the full functionality of the holoenzyme in transcription.

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  • 49. 

    A patient has Clostridium difficle, what drug do you administer to fuck that shit up?

    • Rifampin

    • Lipiarmycin

    • Methotrexate

    • Streptomycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Lipiarmycin

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  • May 24, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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