Micro Exam 2 First Few Lectures

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1. The glycolysis pathway which converts glucose to pyruvate uses ___ high energy phosphates and ___ atp

Explanation

During the glycolysis pathway, glucose is converted to pyruvate. This process requires the input of two high-energy phosphates, which are derived from two molecules of ATP. Therefore, the correct answer is "2 phosphate ; 4 ATP." This means that two molecules of high-energy phosphate are used, and in return, four molecules of ATP are produced.

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About This Quiz
Micro Exam 2 First Few Lectures - Quiz

Micro Exam 2 First Few Lectures quiz covers key metabolic pathways, focusing on glycolysis and its energy use, fermentation, respiration, and gluconeogenesis. It assesses understanding of bacterial sugar... see moremetabolism and acid handling, crucial for students in microbiology and related fields. see less

2. Sigma dissociates directly after translation has started

Explanation

Transcription

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3. What molecule causes resistance to form from Penicillin?

Explanation

B-Lactamase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme produced by certain bacteria that can break down the structure of penicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics. This enzyme acts as a defense mechanism for the bacteria, allowing them to resist the effects of the antibiotic. By breaking down the beta-lactam ring present in penicillin, B-Lactamase renders the antibiotic ineffective, leading to antibiotic resistance.

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4. Which molecule causes resistance to form from Tetracycline?

Explanation

Efflux pump is the correct answer because it is a mechanism by which bacteria can develop resistance to tetracycline. Efflux pumps are proteins that are able to pump out tetracycline from inside the bacterial cell, preventing it from reaching its target and exerting its antimicrobial effect. This allows the bacteria to survive and continue to grow even in the presence of tetracycline. Other options like B-Lactamase, Methylase, and Altering Enzyme are not directly associated with resistance to tetracycline.

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5. The oxidation of NADH+H+ leading to its usage in an electron transport system is called

Explanation

Respiration is the correct answer because it involves the oxidation of NADH+H+ in the electron transport system. During respiration, NADH+H+ is oxidized to NAD+ as it donates its electrons to the electron transport chain. This process generates energy in the form of ATP. Fermentation, on the other hand, does not involve the electron transport system and instead uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor. Dimerization and alkylization are not related to the oxidation of NADH+H+ in the electron transport system.

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6. The sterne vaccine strain is an example of a plasmid which lacks

Explanation

The sterne vaccine strain is a strain of Bacillus anthracis that is used as a vaccine against anthrax. It is derived from a strain that lacks the pXO2 plasmid, which is responsible for the production of the protective antigen component of the anthrax toxin. This plasmid is essential for the virulence of the bacteria, so by lacking it, the sterne vaccine strain is avirulent and can be used safely as a vaccine.

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7. What molecule catalyzes the movement of the IS element from one place to the other?

Explanation

Transposase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that catalyzes the movement of transposable elements, such as IS elements, from one location to another within the genome. Transposase recognizes specific sequences at the ends of the transposable element and cuts the DNA, allowing the element to be inserted into a new site. This process, known as transposition, is important for genetic diversity and can have significant effects on the structure and function of genomes.

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8. Insertion Sequences have inverted repeat DNA sequences at their ends

Explanation

Insertion sequences are short segments of DNA that can move around within a genome. They typically contain inverted repeat DNA sequences at their ends. These inverted repeats serve as recognition sites for the enzymes that catalyze the insertion of the sequence into the genome. Therefore, the statement that insertion sequences have inverted repeat DNA sequences at their ends is true.

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9. Pentoses and citrate allows gluconeogenesis to produce glycitic intermediates needed for biosynthetic purposes

Explanation

Pentoses and citrate are both important in gluconeogenesis because they can be converted into glycitic intermediates. These intermediates are necessary for the production of glucose, which is used for various biosynthetic processes in the body. Therefore, it is true that pentoses and citrate allow gluconeogenesis to produce the glycitic intermediates needed for biosynthetic purposes.

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10. Which one of the following is NOT a major way which bacteria transfer genes?

Explanation

Elongation is not a major way in which bacteria transfer genes. Transformation, transduction, and conjugation are the three main mechanisms through which bacteria can transfer genetic material. Elongation, on the other hand, refers to the process of adding amino acids to a growing protein chain during protein synthesis, and is not involved in gene transfer.

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11. What is an example of a hospital acquired (nosocomial) infection?

Explanation

SCCmec Type IV is not an example of a hospital-acquired infection. SCCmec is a genetic element found in certain strains of Staphylococcus aureus, including MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus). MRSA, on the other hand, is a type of bacteria that causes hospital-acquired infections. Therefore, MRSA is the correct answer as an example of a hospital-acquired infection.

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12. Select a way in which bacteria deals with acid production

Explanation

To deal with acid production bacteria can:
neutral products (formed by the neutralization of acid end products)
stop growing
alternate acid and alchol production
be acid tolerant

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13. Sugar metabolism is an important diagnostic for the classification of pathogenic bacteria

Explanation

Sugar metabolism is an important diagnostic for the classification of pathogenic bacteria because different bacteria have different abilities to metabolize sugars. By studying how bacteria metabolize sugars, scientists can identify and classify different types of bacteria. This information is crucial for diagnosing and treating bacterial infections, as different bacteria may require different antibiotics or treatment approaches. Therefore, the statement "Sugar metabolism is an important diagnostic for the classification of pathogenic bacteria" is true.

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14. What blocks the P site on the ribosome?

Explanation

Streptogramins block the P site on the ribosome.

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15. Most pathogens are alkanaphiles or acidophiles

Explanation

Most are neutrophiles or acidophiles

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16. Slippage during replication is due to Opa genes

Explanation

Slippage during replication is a phenomenon that occurs when DNA strands misalign during the replication process, leading to the insertion or deletion of nucleotides. Opa genes, which are found in certain bacteria, have been shown to contribute to slippage during replication. Therefore, it is correct to say that slippage during replication is due to Opa genes.

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17. Only aerobic bacteria can respire

Explanation

Both aerobic and anaerobic can

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18. Which test determines if bacteria have cytochromes which can be used in respiration?

Explanation

The oxidase test is used to determine if bacteria have cytochromes that can be used in respiration. Cytochromes are proteins that contain heme groups and are involved in electron transport during respiration. The oxidase test detects the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, which is an enzyme involved in the electron transport chain. If the bacteria produce cytochrome c oxidase, then they will produce a positive result in the oxidase test. This test is commonly used to differentiate between different groups of bacteria, such as Gram-negative bacteria that are oxidase-positive and Gram-positive bacteria that are oxidase-negative.

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19. Which test dtermines if nitrate can be used as a final electron acceptor indicating respiration?

Explanation

The Nitrate Reductase Test is used to determine if nitrate can be used as a final electron acceptor in respiration. This test involves adding nitrate to a bacterial culture and observing for the presence of nitrite. If nitrite is present, it indicates that the bacteria have the enzyme nitrate reductase, which can convert nitrate to nitrite. This enzyme is necessary for bacteria to use nitrate as an electron acceptor in respiration. Therefore, the Nitrate Reductase Test is the appropriate test to determine if nitrate can be used as a final electron acceptor.

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20. Which of the following is DNAse resistant?

Explanation

Transduction is the correct answer because it is a process by which genetic material is transferred from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage (a virus that infects bacteria). During transduction, the bacteriophage injects its DNA into the bacterial cell, and this DNA is resistant to DNAse, an enzyme that breaks down DNA. Therefore, transduction is the only option that is DNAse resistant.

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21. Which test involves mixture of 3% H2O2 and bubble formation?

Explanation

The catalase test involves the use of a mixture of 3% H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) and the observation of bubble formation. This test is used to determine the presence of the enzyme catalase in bacteria. Catalase is responsible for breaking down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen gas, resulting in the formation of bubbles. Therefore, the correct answer is the Catalase Test.

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22. S. pneumonia strains that lack a capsule are virulent

Explanation

The statement is false because S. pneumonia strains that lack a capsule are actually avirulent, meaning they are not capable of causing disease. The capsule is a crucial virulence factor for S. pneumoniae as it helps the bacteria evade the host immune system and establish infection. Without a capsule, the bacteria are more susceptible to immune clearance and are unable to cause disease.

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23. The catalse test scores bacteria on the ability to produce bubbles of ____ in the presence of hydrogen peroxide?

Explanation

The catalase test is used to determine the presence of catalase enzyme in bacteria, which breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. When hydrogen peroxide is added to a bacterial culture, the presence of bubbles indicates the production of oxygen gas as a result of catalase activity. Therefore, the correct answer is Oxygen.

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24. Which of the following is not a source of NH3 used by bacteria?

Explanation

Alanine is not a source of NH3 used by bacteria. NH3 is typically produced by the breakdown of amino acids such as arginine, urea, and tryptophan. N2 fixation is also a process by which bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into NH3. However, alanine does not release NH3 when metabolized by bacteria.

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25. Which drug interacts with the 30s subunit of the ribosome, preventing binding of f-Met (which provides the 1st amino acid residue of most bacterial proteins)?

Explanation

Aminoglycosides, specifically streptomycin, interact with the 30s subunit of the ribosome. This interaction prevents the binding of f-Met, which is the first amino acid residue of most bacterial proteins. By inhibiting this binding, aminoglycosides disrupt protein synthesis in bacteria, leading to their death. Methotrexate, Rifampin, and Lipiarmycin do not have this specific mechanism of action and do not interact with the 30s subunit of the ribosome in the same way.

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26. Aminoglycosides work best on anerobic bacteria

Explanation

They dont because they need a strong motor force to be transported

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27. Aminoglycosides only work on Gram-positve bacteria

Explanation

Doesn't matter what type as long as they are aerobic

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28. A sensitive antibiotic resistance on a disk diffusion assay correlates with antibiotics being inhibited or killed by ____ of the achievable clinical dose

Explanation

In a disk diffusion assay, a sensitive antibiotic resistance indicates that the antibiotics are being inhibited or killed by 1/4 of the achievable clinical dose. This means that the concentration of the antibiotic required to inhibit or kill the bacteria is only 1/4th of what would normally be used in a clinical setting. This suggests that the bacteria are highly susceptible to the antibiotic and that a lower dose can be effective in treating the infection.

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29. If you needed a drug which specifically inhibited only the 50s unit, which would you pick?

Explanation

Interact with the 50S subunit and inhibit the formation of peptide bonds

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30. Which drug interacts with the 16s rRNA in the 30s subunit and block the transfer of tRNAs to the acceptor site?

Explanation

Tetracycline is the correct answer because it is known to interact with the 16s rRNA in the 30s subunit of the bacterial ribosome. This interaction blocks the transfer of tRNAs to the acceptor site, ultimately inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria. Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat various bacterial infections.

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31. Lysogenic phage give what type of plaques on a lawn of bacteria?

Explanation

Lysogenic phages are bacteriophages that can integrate their DNA into the host bacterium's genome and remain dormant for a period of time. When they are activated, they can enter the lytic cycle and cause the host cell to burst, releasing new phages. Turbid plaques are formed when lysogenic phages infect bacteria, as the host cells continue to grow and divide even after phage integration. This results in a cloudy appearance in the area where the phages have infected the bacteria.

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32. The type of antibiotic resistance mechanism which makes the bacteria more resistance is

Explanation

Natural antibiotic resistance mechanisms refer to the inherent ability of certain bacteria to resist the effects of antibiotics. This resistance is not acquired or developed over time but is a natural characteristic of the bacteria. It can be a result of various factors such as the presence of efflux pumps that can actively remove antibiotics from the bacterial cell, the impermeability of the bacterial cell wall to certain antibiotics, or the production of enzymes that can inactivate antibiotics. These natural resistance mechanisms make the bacteria inherently more resistant to antibiotics and can pose challenges in the treatment of bacterial infections.

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33. The Lambda Repressor gets activated in E. Coli. This does the following

Explanation

The activation of the Lambda Repressor in E. Coli keeps the phage quiescent. This means that it prevents the phage from becoming active or replicating within the host cell. By keeping the phage quiescent, the Lambda Repressor helps maintain a dormant state, preventing the phage from causing harm or lysing the host cell.

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34. The type of antibiotic resistance which is obtained on mobile genetic elements from other bacteria is

Explanation

Acquired antibiotic resistance refers to the type of resistance that is obtained from other bacteria through the transfer of mobile genetic elements. This means that bacteria can acquire resistance genes from other bacteria in their environment, allowing them to survive and proliferate in the presence of antibiotics. This transfer can occur through processes such as conjugation, transformation, or transduction. Acquired resistance is an important mechanism by which bacteria can develop resistance to antibiotics, leading to the emergence of multidrug-resistant strains.

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35. Fosfomycin inhibits the formation of what molecule?

Explanation

Fosfomycin inhibits the formation of NAM (N-acetylmuramic acid). NAM is an essential component of the bacterial cell wall, specifically in the peptidoglycan layer. By inhibiting the formation of NAM, fosfomycin disrupts the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell death. This makes fosfomycin an effective antibiotic against a wide range of bacteria.

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36. Efflux pump causes an influx of bacterial concentration in the cytoplasm

Explanation

The statement is incorrect. An efflux pump is a mechanism used by bacteria to remove toxic substances from their cytoplasm, not to cause an influx of bacterial concentration. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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37. Which drug interacts with the 23s rRNA in the 50s subunit and causes the release of the growing peptide chain?

Explanation

Macrolides and streptogramins Lincosamindes, such as Clindamycin, interact with the 23s rRNA in the 50s subunit of the bacterial ribosome. This interaction inhibits the translocation process, which is necessary for the movement of the ribosome along the mRNA strand during protein synthesis. As a result, the growing peptide chain is unable to be released from the ribosome, leading to the inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis.

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38. Conjugation can occur by cells in the same relative vacinity with no touch

Explanation

Conjugation is a process in which genetic material is transferred between bacterial cells through direct contact. It requires physical contact between cells, typically facilitated by a structure called a pilus. Therefore, the statement that conjugation can occur by cells in the same relative vicinity with no touch is false.

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39. At the end of conjugation, only the recipient has a copy of the F plasmid

Explanation

Donor and recipient

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40. Conjugation is sensitive to DNase

Explanation

Conjugation is a process by which genetic material is transferred between bacterial cells. DNase is an enzyme that breaks down DNA. The statement suggests that conjugation is affected by DNase, implying that DNase can inhibit or interfere with the process. However, this is not true. Conjugation is not sensitive to DNase, and the presence of DNase does not prevent or hinder the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells.

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41. Sulfonamides are PABA analogues which inhibit the _____ biosynthetic pathway

Explanation

Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that binds dihydrofolate reducatase thus inhibiting the THFA biosynthetic pathway

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42. The oxidation of NADH+ H+ by the reduction of pyruvate is called

Explanation

The oxidation of NADH+ H+ by the reduction of pyruvate is called fermentation. In this process, NADH+ H+ is oxidized, releasing energy, while pyruvate is reduced. Fermentation is an anaerobic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen. It is commonly observed in microorganisms and some types of cells, such as muscle cells, when oxygen is limited or unavailable. Fermentation is an important metabolic pathway that allows cells to continue producing ATP, the energy currency of the cell, in the absence of oxygen.

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43. What is erythromycins target?

Explanation

Erythromycin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria. The target of erythromycin is the ribosome, which is the cellular machinery responsible for protein synthesis. By binding to the ribosome, erythromycin prevents the formation of new proteins, ultimately leading to the inhibition of bacterial growth and the eradication of the infection.

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44. What is tetracyclines target?

Explanation

Tetracyclines target the ribosome. Ribosomes are cellular structures responsible for protein synthesis. Tetracyclines bind to the ribosomes, specifically to the 30S subunit, and inhibit the attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site, preventing the elongation of the protein chain. This ultimately leads to the inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis, making tetracyclines effective against certain bacterial infections.

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45. What molecule causes resistance to form from erythromycin?

Explanation

Methylase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that adds a methyl group to the 23S rRNA component of the bacterial ribosome. This modification prevents erythromycin from binding to the ribosome and inhibiting protein synthesis, thereby causing resistance to the antibiotic. Methylase alters the target site of erythromycin, making it ineffective in inhibiting bacterial growth.

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46. Which molecule causes resistance to form from streptomycin

Explanation

Altering enzymes are responsible for causing resistance to form from streptomycin. These enzymes modify the target site of the antibiotic, preventing it from binding effectively and inhibiting the growth of bacteria. This alteration allows the bacteria to continue growing and reproducing, leading to resistance against streptomycin.

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47. What is the complete holo enzyme?

Explanation

The complete holoenzyme consists of the aaBB' subunit and the sigma factor. The aaBB' subunit is responsible for the catalytic activity of the enzyme, while the sigma factor is involved in recognizing the promoter region of DNA and initiating transcription. Therefore, the combination of aaBB' and sigma is required for the full functionality of the holoenzyme in transcription.

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48. Plasmids can generally be considered a secondary source of antibiotic resistance

Explanation

They are the main source

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49. If you have a bacteria which is not halotolerant, which Agar would you use?

Explanation

MacConkey's agar is selective (contains bile salts and crystal violet) and differential (lactose fermenters form red colonies)

Mannitol Salt Agar is selective (7.5% NaCL = halotolerant) and differential (mannitol fermenters produce acd)

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50. S. Pneumonia undergoes which of the following steps?

Explanation

Transformation is the process by which S. Pneumonia takes up foreign genetic material from its surroundings and incorporates it into its own genome. This allows for the exchange of genetic information and can result in the acquisition of new traits or resistance to antibiotics. Transduction, conjugation, and elongation are not specific steps of S. Pneumonia's transformation process.

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51. Bacteria that respire transform pyrufvate into acetyl-CoA and further break it down to O2 via the TCA (krebs) cycle

Explanation

Break it down to CO2

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52. What does the Krebs cycle not provide bacteria with?

Explanation

The Krebs cycle does not provide bacteria with additional molecules of NAD+ which can be used in generating a proton motor force. The Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria of cells. It is an important part of cellular respiration, where glucose is broken down to produce energy in the form of ATP. During the Krebs cycle, NAD+ is reduced to NADH, which carries high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain to generate a proton motor force and ultimately produce ATP. However, the Krebs cycle does not generate additional molecules of NAD+ for this process.

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53. Which statemnt is false? Biofilms can be very resistant to antibiotics because of 

Explanation

Biofilms can be very resistant to antibiotics due to several factors, such as inhibition of antibiotic penetration, changes in the metabolism of the bacteria, and changes in membrane permeability. However, decreased expression of efflux pumps is not a factor that contributes to antibiotic resistance in biofilms. Efflux pumps are proteins that help bacteria pump out antibiotics from their cells, so decreased expression of these pumps would actually make the bacteria more susceptible to antibiotics.

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54. A patient has Clostridium difficle, what drug do you administer to fuck that shit up?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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55. Which of the following is DNAse sensitive?

Explanation

Transformation is the process by which foreign DNA is taken up and incorporated into a recipient cell. DNAse is an enzyme that degrades DNA. In the context of this question, "DNAse sensitive" means that the process is susceptible to degradation by DNAse. Transformation involves the uptake of naked DNA from the environment, which is vulnerable to degradation by DNAse. Therefore, transformation is DNAse sensitive.

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56. Which drug binds the RNA polymerase closed complex and prevents the initiation of transcription?

Explanation

Lipiarmycin targets a different region of the RNA polymerase

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57. The minimum inhibitor concentration of an antibiotic is the lowest concnetration at which baterial growth is inhibitied. Both bacteriostatic and bactericidal antibiotics have MICs

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that the minimum inhibitor concentration (MIC) of an antibiotic refers to the lowest concentration of the antibiotic at which bacterial growth is inhibited. This means that even bacteriostatic antibiotics, which stop bacterial growth temporarily, and bactericidal antibiotics, which kill bacteria, both have MICs. Therefore, the statement "Both bacteriostatic and bactericidal antibiotics have MICs" is true.

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58. Which test includes tetramethyl-p-phenylediamine?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Oxidase Test. The Oxidase Test is used to determine the presence of cytochrome oxidase, an enzyme involved in the electron transport chain of aerobic organisms. Tetramethyl-p-phenylediamine is a reagent used in this test to detect the presence of cytochrome oxidase. When the reagent is added to a sample, a color change occurs if cytochrome oxidase is present, indicating a positive result for the test.

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59. Which tests includes adding sulfanilic acid and alpha napthylamine?

Explanation

The Nitrate Reductase Test includes adding sulfanilic acid and alpha napthylamine. This test is used to determine if an organism can reduce nitrate to nitrite. When sulfanilic acid and alpha napthylamine are added to the test tube containing the nitrate broth, a positive result is indicated by the development of a red color due to the presence of nitrite. This test is commonly used to differentiate between different species of bacteria based on their ability to reduce nitrate.

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60. The minimal bactericidal concnetration is the lowest concnetration at which bacteria are killed. The MBC is deteremneind by removing a sample from the MIC assay, and determining if bacteria resume growth in the absensce of the antibiotic. 

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that the minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC) is indeed the lowest concentration at which bacteria are killed. To determine the MBC, a sample is taken from the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) assay, and it is checked if bacteria resume growth in the absence of the antibiotic. This method helps to identify the concentration of the antibiotic that is required to completely eliminate the bacteria. Therefore, the statement is true.

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61. Biofilm formation often occurs when the bacteria are in contact with an abiotic surface

Explanation

Biofilm formation occurs when bacteria come into contact with an abiotic surface. Abiotic surfaces are non-living surfaces such as medical implants, catheters, or pipes. When bacteria attach to these surfaces, they can form a protective layer called a biofilm. Biofilms are composed of bacteria and a matrix of extracellular substances, such as proteins and polysaccharides, that they produce. Biofilms provide bacteria with protection from the immune system and antibiotics, making them more resistant to treatment. Therefore, it is true that biofilm formation often occurs when bacteria are in contact with an abiotic surface.

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62. Out of the following aminoglycosides what one DOES NOT bind to both the 50s as well as the 30s on the ribosome?

Explanation

Stepmomycin does not bind to both the 50s and the 30s on the ribosome.

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63. Lysogenic mode for bacterial viruses is an incredibly virulent mode in which the host instantly lyses

Explanation

It is the quiescent state

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64. A intermeidate antibiotic resistance on a disk diffusion assay correlates with antibiotics inhibited or killed by ____ of the achievable dose

Explanation

In a disk diffusion assay, the intermediate antibiotic resistance indicates that the bacteria are partially susceptible to the antibiotic. The correlation with antibiotics inhibited or killed by 1/2 of the achievable dose suggests that the bacteria are only partially affected by the antibiotic and require a higher concentration to be completely inhibited or killed. Therefore, the correct answer is 1/2.

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65. Which drug interacts with the 50s subunit and inhibits the formation of peptide bonds?

Explanation

Chloramphenicol is the correct answer because it interacts with the 50s subunit of the bacterial ribosome and inhibits the formation of peptide bonds. This drug binds to the peptidyl transferase center of the ribosome, preventing the transfer of amino acids and the elongation of the growing peptide chain. This inhibition of peptide bond formation ultimately leads to the inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis and can be effective in treating bacterial infections.

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66. The type of antibiotic resistance which arises from a mutation of the chromosome is

Explanation

Mutational antibiotic resistance arises from a mutation of the chromosome. This means that there is a change in the genetic material of the bacteria, leading to a modification in the target site of the antibiotic or in the antibiotic itself. This type of resistance is not acquired from external sources but is a result of genetic changes within the bacteria population.

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67. Group A Strep (S. pyogenes) and Gropu B Strep (S. agalactiae) are B hemolytic

Explanation

Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes) and Group B Streptococcus (S. agalactiae) are both classified as B hemolytic. This means that they produce a complete lysis of red blood cells, resulting in a clear zone around the colonies on a blood agar plate. This classification is important in identifying and differentiating these bacteria from other streptococcal groups, as well as in understanding their pathogenicity and clinical implications. Therefore, the statement that Group A Streptococcus and Group B Streptococcus are B hemolytic is true.

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68. What is penicillins target?

Explanation

Penicillins target the cell wall. Penicillins are a class of antibiotics that work by inhibiting the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall. They do this by binding to and inhibiting an enzyme called transpeptidase, which is responsible for cross-linking the peptidoglycan chains in the cell wall. This weakens the cell wall, causing it to rupture and ultimately leading to the death of the bacteria. By targeting the cell wall, penicillins are effective against a wide range of bacteria and are commonly used to treat various bacterial infections.

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69. What is sulfonamide's target?

Explanation

Sulfonamide's target is an enzyme. This means that sulfonamide specifically interacts with and inhibits the activity of an enzyme in the body. The question does not provide specific details about which enzyme sulfonamide targets, but it is known that sulfonamide drugs are often used as antibiotics and work by interfering with bacterial enzymes involved in the synthesis of folic acid, which is essential for bacterial growth and survival.

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70. Which statement is false concerning the bacterial requirement for growth?

Explanation

It is a thermophile

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71. Lytic Phage make which of the following plauqes on a lawn of susceptible bacteria?

Explanation

Lytic phages make clear plaques on a lawn of susceptible bacteria. This is because lytic phages infect and kill the bacteria, causing them to lyse and release their contents. As a result, the area where the bacteria were lysed appears clear, indicating the absence of bacterial growth. Turbid plaques, on the other hand, are typically associated with lysogenic phages, which integrate their DNA into the bacterial genome without killing the host cells.

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72. Select the bacteria which correlates best with the salt concentration it grows on
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73. Select the term which goes with the corresponding definitino
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74. Select the appropriate hemolysis reaction with its appropriate description
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The glycolysis pathway which converts glucose to pyruvate uses ___...
Sigma dissociates directly after translation has started
What molecule causes resistance to form from Penicillin?
Which molecule causes resistance to form from Tetracycline?
The oxidation of NADH+H+ leading to its usage in an electron transport...
The sterne vaccine strain is an example of a plasmid which lacks
What molecule catalyzes the movement of the IS element from one place...
Insertion Sequences have inverted repeat DNA sequences at their ends
Pentoses and citrate allows gluconeogenesis to produce glycitic...
Which one of the following is NOT a major way which bacteria transfer...
What is an example of a hospital acquired (nosocomial) infection?
Select a way in which bacteria deals with acid production
Sugar metabolism is an important diagnostic for the classification of...
What blocks the P site on the ribosome?
Most pathogens are alkanaphiles or acidophiles
Slippage during replication is due to Opa genes
Only aerobic bacteria can respire
Which test determines if bacteria have cytochromes which can be used...
Which test dtermines if nitrate can be used as a final electron...
Which of the following is DNAse resistant?
Which test involves mixture of 3% H2O2 and bubble formation?
S. pneumonia strains that lack a capsule are virulent
The catalse test scores bacteria on the ability to produce bubbles of...
Which of the following is not a source of NH3 used by bacteria?
Which drug interacts with the 30s subunit of the ribosome, preventing...
Aminoglycosides work best on anerobic bacteria
Aminoglycosides only work on Gram-positve bacteria
A sensitive antibiotic resistance on a disk diffusion assay correlates...
If you needed a drug which specifically inhibited only the 50s unit,...
Which drug interacts with the 16s rRNA in the 30s subunit and block...
Lysogenic phage give what type of plaques on a lawn of bacteria?
The type of antibiotic resistance mechanism which makes the bacteria...
The Lambda Repressor gets activated in E. Coli. This does the...
The type of antibiotic resistance which is obtained on mobile genetic...
Fosfomycin inhibits the formation of what molecule?
Efflux pump causes an influx of bacterial concentration in the...
Which drug interacts with the 23s rRNA in the 50s subunit and causes...
Conjugation can occur by cells in the same relative vacinity with no...
At the end of conjugation, only the recipient has a copy of the F...
Conjugation is sensitive to DNase
Sulfonamides are PABA analogues which inhibit the _____ biosynthetic...
The oxidation of NADH+ H+ by the reduction of pyruvate is called
What is erythromycins target?
What is tetracyclines target?
What molecule causes resistance to form from erythromycin?
Which molecule causes resistance to form from streptomycin
What is the complete holo enzyme?
Plasmids can generally be considered a secondary source of antibiotic...
If you have a bacteria which is not halotolerant, which Agar would you...
S. Pneumonia undergoes which of the following steps?
Bacteria that respire transform pyrufvate into acetyl-CoA and further...
What does the Krebs cycle not provide bacteria with?
Which statemnt is false? ...
A patient has Clostridium difficle, what drug do you administer to...
Which of the following is DNAse sensitive?
Which drug binds the RNA polymerase closed complex and prevents the...
The minimum inhibitor concentration of an antibiotic is the lowest...
Which test includes tetramethyl-p-phenylediamine?
Which tests includes adding sulfanilic acid and alpha napthylamine?
The minimal bactericidal concnetration is the lowest concnetration at...
Biofilm formation often occurs when the bacteria are in contact with...
Out of the following aminoglycosides what one DOES NOT bind to both...
Lysogenic mode for bacterial viruses is an incredibly virulent mode in...
A intermeidate antibiotic resistance on a disk diffusion assay...
Which drug interacts with the 50s subunit and inhibits the formation...
The type of antibiotic resistance which arises from a mutation of the...
Group A Strep (S. pyogenes) and Gropu B Strep (S. agalactiae) are B...
What is penicillins target?
What is sulfonamide's target?
Which statement is false concerning the bacterial requirement for...
Lytic Phage make which of the following plauqes on a lawn of...
Select the bacteria which correlates best with the salt concentration...
Select the term which goes with the corresponding definitino
Select the appropriate hemolysis reaction with its appropriate...
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