Micro Exam 2 First Few Lectures
(27).webp "Micro Exam 2 First Few Lectures - Quiz")
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The glycolysis pathway which converts glucose to pyruvate uses ___ high energy phosphates and ___ atp
- A.
2 phosphate ; 4 atp
- B.
1 phosphate ; 2 atp
- C.
4 phosphate ; 2 atp
- D.
2 atp ; 1 phosphate
Correct Answer
A. 2 pHospHate ; 4 atpExplanation
During the glycolysis pathway, glucose is converted to pyruvate. This process requires the input of two high-energy phosphates, which are derived from two molecules of ATP. Therefore, the correct answer is "2 phosphate ; 4 ATP." This means that two molecules of high-energy phosphate are used, and in return, four molecules of ATP are produced.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
The oxidation of NADH+ H+ by the reduction of pyruvate is called
- A.
Fermentation
- B.
Respiration
- C.
Alkylization
- D.
Dimerization
Correct Answer
A. FermentationExplanation
The oxidation of NADH+ H+ by the reduction of pyruvate is called fermentation. In this process, NADH+ H+ is oxidized, releasing energy, while pyruvate is reduced. Fermentation is an anaerobic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen. It is commonly observed in microorganisms and some types of cells, such as muscle cells, when oxygen is limited or unavailable. Fermentation is an important metabolic pathway that allows cells to continue producing ATP, the energy currency of the cell, in the absence of oxygen.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
The oxidation of NADH+H+ leading to its usage in an electron transport system is called
- A.
Fermentation
- B.
Respiration
- C.
Dimerization
- D.
Alkylization
Correct Answer
B. RespirationExplanation
Respiration is the correct answer because it involves the oxidation of NADH+H+ in the electron transport system. During respiration, NADH+H+ is oxidized to NAD+ as it donates its electrons to the electron transport chain. This process generates energy in the form of ATP. Fermentation, on the other hand, does not involve the electron transport system and instead uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor. Dimerization and alkylization are not related to the oxidation of NADH+H+ in the electron transport system.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Pentoses and citrate allows gluconeogenesis to produce glycitic intermediates needed for biosynthetic purposes
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Pentoses and citrate are both important in gluconeogenesis because they can be converted into glycitic intermediates. These intermediates are necessary for the production of glucose, which is used for various biosynthetic processes in the body. Therefore, it is true that pentoses and citrate allow gluconeogenesis to produce the glycitic intermediates needed for biosynthetic purposes.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Select a way in which bacteria deals with acid production
- A.
Utilizing acidic products
- B.
Continously growing
- C.
Alternate acid and alcohol production
- D.
Being tolerant towards alkaline materials
Correct Answer
C. Alternate acid and alcohol productionExplanation
To deal with acid production bacteria can:
neutral products (formed by the neutralization of acid end products)
stop growing
alternate acid and alchol production
be acid tolerantRate this question:
-
- 6.
Sugar metabolism is an important diagnostic for the classification of pathogenic bacteria
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Sugar metabolism is an important diagnostic for the classification of pathogenic bacteria because different bacteria have different abilities to metabolize sugars. By studying how bacteria metabolize sugars, scientists can identify and classify different types of bacteria. This information is crucial for diagnosing and treating bacterial infections, as different bacteria may require different antibiotics or treatment approaches. Therefore, the statement "Sugar metabolism is an important diagnostic for the classification of pathogenic bacteria" is true.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Bacteria that respire transform pyrufvate into acetyl-CoA and further break it down to O2 via the TCA (krebs) cycle
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Break it down to CO2Rate this question:
-
- 8.
What does the Krebs cycle not provide bacteria with?
- A.
NADPH for biosynthesis
- B.
Aditional molecules of NAD+ which can be used in generating a proton motor force
- C.
FADH+H+ that can be used for generation of a proton motor force
- D.
ATP
Correct Answer
B. Aditional molecules of NAD+ which can be used in generating a proton motor forceExplanation
The Krebs cycle does not provide bacteria with additional molecules of NAD+ which can be used in generating a proton motor force. The Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria of cells. It is an important part of cellular respiration, where glucose is broken down to produce energy in the form of ATP. During the Krebs cycle, NAD+ is reduced to NADH, which carries high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain to generate a proton motor force and ultimately produce ATP. However, the Krebs cycle does not generate additional molecules of NAD+ for this process.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Only aerobic bacteria can respire
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Both aerobic and anaerobic canRate this question:
-
- 10.
Which test determines if bacteria have cytochromes which can be used in respiration?
- A.
Oxidase
- B.
Nitrate Reductase
- C.
Catalase
- D.
Hemolysis on Blood Agar Plates
Correct Answer
A. OxidaseExplanation
The oxidase test is used to determine if bacteria have cytochromes that can be used in respiration. Cytochromes are proteins that contain heme groups and are involved in electron transport during respiration. The oxidase test detects the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, which is an enzyme involved in the electron transport chain. If the bacteria produce cytochrome c oxidase, then they will produce a positive result in the oxidase test. This test is commonly used to differentiate between different groups of bacteria, such as Gram-negative bacteria that are oxidase-positive and Gram-positive bacteria that are oxidase-negative.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Which test dtermines if nitrate can be used as a final electron acceptor indicating respiration?
- A.
Oxidase Test
- B.
Nitrate Reductase Test
- C.
Catalase Test
- D.
Hemolysis on Blood Agar Plates
Correct Answer
B. Nitrate Reductase TestExplanation
The Nitrate Reductase Test is used to determine if nitrate can be used as a final electron acceptor in respiration. This test involves adding nitrate to a bacterial culture and observing for the presence of nitrite. If nitrite is present, it indicates that the bacteria have the enzyme nitrate reductase, which can convert nitrate to nitrite. This enzyme is necessary for bacteria to use nitrate as an electron acceptor in respiration. Therefore, the Nitrate Reductase Test is the appropriate test to determine if nitrate can be used as a final electron acceptor.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Which test includes tetramethyl-p-phenylediamine?
- A.
Oxidase Test
- B.
Nitrate Reductase Test
- C.
Catalase Test
- D.
Hemolysis on Blood Agar Plates
Correct Answer
A. Oxidase TestExplanation
The correct answer is the Oxidase Test. The Oxidase Test is used to determine the presence of cytochrome oxidase, an enzyme involved in the electron transport chain of aerobic organisms. Tetramethyl-p-phenylediamine is a reagent used in this test to detect the presence of cytochrome oxidase. When the reagent is added to a sample, a color change occurs if cytochrome oxidase is present, indicating a positive result for the test.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Which tests includes adding sulfanilic acid and alpha napthylamine?
- A.
Oxidase Test
- B.
Nitrate Reductase Test
- C.
Catalase Test
- D.
Hemolysis on Blood Agar Plates
Correct Answer
B. Nitrate Reductase TestExplanation
The Nitrate Reductase Test includes adding sulfanilic acid and alpha napthylamine. This test is used to determine if an organism can reduce nitrate to nitrite. When sulfanilic acid and alpha napthylamine are added to the test tube containing the nitrate broth, a positive result is indicated by the development of a red color due to the presence of nitrite. This test is commonly used to differentiate between different species of bacteria based on their ability to reduce nitrate.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Which test involves mixture of 3% H2O2 and bubble formation?
- A.
Oxidase Test
- B.
Nitrate Reductase Test
- C.
Catalase Test
- D.
Hemolysis on Blood Agar Plate Test
Correct Answer
C. Catalase TestExplanation
The catalase test involves the use of a mixture of 3% H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) and the observation of bubble formation. This test is used to determine the presence of the enzyme catalase in bacteria. Catalase is responsible for breaking down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen gas, resulting in the formation of bubbles. Therefore, the correct answer is the Catalase Test.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
The catalse test scores bacteria on the ability to produce bubbles of ____ in the presence of hydrogen peroxide?
- A.
Oxygen
- B.
Hydrogen
- C.
Nitrogen
- D.
Hydroxyl Ion
Correct Answer
A. OxygenExplanation
The catalase test is used to determine the presence of catalase enzyme in bacteria, which breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. When hydrogen peroxide is added to a bacterial culture, the presence of bubbles indicates the production of oxygen gas as a result of catalase activity. Therefore, the correct answer is Oxygen.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Which of the following is not a source of NH3 used by bacteria?
- A.
Arginine
- B.
Urea
- C.
Tryptophan
- D.
N2 Fixation
- E.
Alanine
Correct Answer
E. AlanineExplanation
Alanine is not a source of NH3 used by bacteria. NH3 is typically produced by the breakdown of amino acids such as arginine, urea, and tryptophan. N2 fixation is also a process by which bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into NH3. However, alanine does not release NH3 when metabolized by bacteria.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Group A Strep (S. pyogenes) and Gropu B Strep (S. agalactiae) are B hemolytic
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes) and Group B Streptococcus (S. agalactiae) are both classified as B hemolytic. This means that they produce a complete lysis of red blood cells, resulting in a clear zone around the colonies on a blood agar plate. This classification is important in identifying and differentiating these bacteria from other streptococcal groups, as well as in understanding their pathogenicity and clinical implications. Therefore, the statement that Group A Streptococcus and Group B Streptococcus are B hemolytic is true.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Sulfonamides are PABA analogues which inhibit the _____ biosynthetic pathway
- A.
THFA (tetrahydrofolic)
- B.
DNA repair
- C.
Apoptotic
- D.
Kreb Cycle
Correct Answer
A. THFA (tetrahydrofolic)Explanation
Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that binds dihydrofolate reducatase thus inhibiting the THFA biosynthetic pathwayRate this question:
-
- 19.
Sigma dissociates directly after translation has started
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
TranscriptionRate this question:
-
- 20.
What is the complete holo enzyme?
- A.
AaBB'
- B.
AaBB'sigma
- C.
Sigma
- D.
AaBBsigma
Correct Answer
B. AaBB'sigmaExplanation
The complete holoenzyme consists of the aaBB' subunit and the sigma factor. The aaBB' subunit is responsible for the catalytic activity of the enzyme, while the sigma factor is involved in recognizing the promoter region of DNA and initiating transcription. Therefore, the combination of aaBB' and sigma is required for the full functionality of the holoenzyme in transcription.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
A patient has Clostridium difficle, what drug do you administer to fuck that shit up?
- A.
Rifampin
- B.
Lipiarmycin
- C.
Methotrexate
- D.
Streptomycin
Correct Answer
B. Lipiarmycin -
- 22.
Which drug binds the RNA polymerase closed complex and prevents the initiation of transcription?
- A.
Rifampin
- B.
Lipiarmycin
- C.
Aminoglycosides
- D.
Methotrexate
Correct Answer
A. RifampinExplanation
Lipiarmycin targets a different region of the RNA polymeraseRate this question:
-
- 23.
Which drug interacts with the 30s subunit of the ribosome, preventing binding of f-Met (which provides the 1st amino acid residue of most bacterial proteins)?
- A.
Aminoglycosides (streptomycin)
- B.
Methotrexate
- C.
Rifampin (rifampicin)
- D.
Lipiarmycin (fidaxomycin)
Correct Answer
A. Aminoglycosides (streptomycin)Explanation
Aminoglycosides, specifically streptomycin, interact with the 30s subunit of the ribosome. This interaction prevents the binding of f-Met, which is the first amino acid residue of most bacterial proteins. By inhibiting this binding, aminoglycosides disrupt protein synthesis in bacteria, leading to their death. Methotrexate, Rifampin, and Lipiarmycin do not have this specific mechanism of action and do not interact with the 30s subunit of the ribosome in the same way.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
Out of the following aminoglycosides what one DOES NOT bind to both the 50s as well as the 30s on the ribosome?
- A.
Steptomycin
- B.
Gentamycin
- C.
Tobramycin
Correct Answer
A. SteptomycinExplanation
Stepmomycin does not bind to both the 50s and the 30s on the ribosome.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Aminoglycosides work best on anerobic bacteria
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
They dont because they need a strong motor force to be transportedRate this question:
-
- 26.
Aminoglycosides only work on Gram-positve bacteria
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Doesn't matter what type as long as they are aerobicRate this question:
-
- 27.
If you needed a drug which specifically inhibited only the 50s unit, which would you pick?
- A.
Oxazolidinones (zyvox-linezolid)
- B.
Tetracycline
- C.
Aminoglycosides
- D.
Rifampins
- E.
Lipiarmycin
Correct Answer
A. Oxazolidinones (zyvox-linezolid)Explanation
Interact with the 50S subunit and inhibit the formation of peptide bondsRate this question:
-
- 28.
Which drug interacts with the 16s rRNA in the 30s subunit and block the transfer of tRNAs to the acceptor site?
- A.
Oxazolidinones (Zyvox-linezolid)
- B.
Tetracycline
- C.
Chloramphenicol
- D.
Rifampin
- E.
Clorstridium difficile
Correct Answer
B. TetracyclineExplanation
Tetracycline is the correct answer because it is known to interact with the 16s rRNA in the 30s subunit of the bacterial ribosome. This interaction blocks the transfer of tRNAs to the acceptor site, ultimately inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria. Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat various bacterial infections.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Which drug interacts with the 50s subunit and inhibits the formation of peptide bonds?
- A.
Chloramphenicol
- B.
Tetracycline
- C.
Oxazolidinones (zyvox-linezolid)
- D.
Rifampin
Correct Answer
A. ChlorampHenicolExplanation
Chloramphenicol is the correct answer because it interacts with the 50s subunit of the bacterial ribosome and inhibits the formation of peptide bonds. This drug binds to the peptidyl transferase center of the ribosome, preventing the transfer of amino acids and the elongation of the growing peptide chain. This inhibition of peptide bond formation ultimately leads to the inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis and can be effective in treating bacterial infections.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Which drug interacts with the 23s rRNA in the 50s subunit and causes the release of the growing peptide chain?
- A.
Macrolides and streptogramins Lincosamindes (eg Clindamycin)
- B.
Chloramphenicol
- C.
Tetracycline
- D.
Oxazolidinones (Zyvox) (linezolid)
Correct Answer
A. Macrolides and streptogramins Lincosamindes (eg Clindamycin)Explanation
Macrolides and streptogramins Lincosamindes, such as Clindamycin, interact with the 23s rRNA in the 50s subunit of the bacterial ribosome. This interaction inhibits the translocation process, which is necessary for the movement of the ribosome along the mRNA strand during protein synthesis. As a result, the growing peptide chain is unable to be released from the ribosome, leading to the inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
What blocks the P site on the ribosome?
- A.
Macrolides (erythromycin)
- B.
Lincosamides (clindamycin)
- C.
Streptogramins
Correct Answer
C. StreptograminsExplanation
Streptogramins block the P site on the ribosome.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
Most pathogens are alkanaphiles or acidophiles
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Most are neutrophiles or acidophilesRate this question:
-
- 33.
Which statement is false concerning the bacterial requirement for growth?
- A.
Most pathogens are neutrophiles or acidophiles
- B.
Most pathogens are non-hlophillic or halotolerant
- C.
Most pathogens are mesophil
- D.
Legionella is the model mesophil
Explanation
It is a thermophileRate this question:
-
- 34.
If you have a bacteria which is not halotolerant, which Agar would you use?
- A.
MacConkeys
- B.
Mannitol
Correct Answer
A. MacConkeysExplanation
MacConkey's agar is selective (contains bile salts and crystal violet) and differential (lactose fermenters form red colonies)
Mannitol Salt Agar is selective (7.5% NaCL = halotolerant) and differential (mannitol fermenters produce acd)Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Biofilm formation often occurs when the bacteria are in contact with an abiotic surface
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Biofilm formation occurs when bacteria come into contact with an abiotic surface. Abiotic surfaces are non-living surfaces such as medical implants, catheters, or pipes. When bacteria attach to these surfaces, they can form a protective layer called a biofilm. Biofilms are composed of bacteria and a matrix of extracellular substances, such as proteins and polysaccharides, that they produce. Biofilms provide bacteria with protection from the immune system and antibiotics, making them more resistant to treatment. Therefore, it is true that biofilm formation often occurs when bacteria are in contact with an abiotic surface.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Which statemnt is false? Biofilms can be very resistant to antibiotics because of
- A.
Inhbition of antibiotic penetration
- B.
Changes in the metabolism of the bacteria
- C.
Changes in membrane permeability
- D.
Decreased expression of efflux pumps
Correct Answer
D. Decreased expression of efflux pumpsExplanation
Biofilms can be very resistant to antibiotics due to several factors, such as inhibition of antibiotic penetration, changes in the metabolism of the bacteria, and changes in membrane permeability. However, decreased expression of efflux pumps is not a factor that contributes to antibiotic resistance in biofilms. Efflux pumps are proteins that help bacteria pump out antibiotics from their cells, so decreased expression of these pumps would actually make the bacteria more susceptible to antibiotics.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Which one of the following is NOT a major way which bacteria transfer genes?
- A.
Transformation
- B.
Transduction
- C.
Conjugation
- D.
Elongation
Correct Answer
D. ElongationExplanation
Elongation is not a major way in which bacteria transfer genes. Transformation, transduction, and conjugation are the three main mechanisms through which bacteria can transfer genetic material. Elongation, on the other hand, refers to the process of adding amino acids to a growing protein chain during protein synthesis, and is not involved in gene transfer.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
S. Pneumonia undergoes which of the following steps?
- A.
Transformation
- B.
Transduction
- C.
Conjugation
- D.
Elongation
Correct Answer
A. TransformationExplanation
Transformation is the process by which S. Pneumonia takes up foreign genetic material from its surroundings and incorporates it into its own genome. This allows for the exchange of genetic information and can result in the acquisition of new traits or resistance to antibiotics. Transduction, conjugation, and elongation are not specific steps of S. Pneumonia's transformation process.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Which of the following is DNAse sensitive?
- A.
Transformation
- B.
Transduction
- C.
Conjugation
- D.
Elongation
Correct Answer
A. TransformationExplanation
Transformation is the process by which foreign DNA is taken up and incorporated into a recipient cell. DNAse is an enzyme that degrades DNA. In the context of this question, "DNAse sensitive" means that the process is susceptible to degradation by DNAse. Transformation involves the uptake of naked DNA from the environment, which is vulnerable to degradation by DNAse. Therefore, transformation is DNAse sensitive.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
Which of the following is DNAse resistant?
- A.
Transformation
- B.
Transduction
- C.
Elongation
- D.
Conjugation
Correct Answer
B. TransductionExplanation
Transduction is the correct answer because it is a process by which genetic material is transferred from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage (a virus that infects bacteria). During transduction, the bacteriophage injects its DNA into the bacterial cell, and this DNA is resistant to DNAse, an enzyme that breaks down DNA. Therefore, transduction is the only option that is DNAse resistant.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
S. pneumonia strains that lack a capsule are virulent
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because S. pneumonia strains that lack a capsule are actually avirulent, meaning they are not capable of causing disease. The capsule is a crucial virulence factor for S. pneumoniae as it helps the bacteria evade the host immune system and establish infection. Without a capsule, the bacteria are more susceptible to immune clearance and are unable to cause disease.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
Lysogenic mode for bacterial viruses is an incredibly virulent mode in which the host instantly lyses
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
It is the quiescent stateRate this question:
-
- 43.
Lytic Phage make which of the following plauqes on a lawn of susceptible bacteria?
- A.
Clear
- B.
Turbid
- C.
None
Correct Answer
A. ClearExplanation
Lytic phages make clear plaques on a lawn of susceptible bacteria. This is because lytic phages infect and kill the bacteria, causing them to lyse and release their contents. As a result, the area where the bacteria were lysed appears clear, indicating the absence of bacterial growth. Turbid plaques, on the other hand, are typically associated with lysogenic phages, which integrate their DNA into the bacterial genome without killing the host cells.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Lysogenic phage give what type of plaques on a lawn of bacteria?
- A.
Clear
- B.
Turbid
- C.
None
Correct Answer
B. TurbidExplanation
Lysogenic phages are bacteriophages that can integrate their DNA into the host bacterium's genome and remain dormant for a period of time. When they are activated, they can enter the lytic cycle and cause the host cell to burst, releasing new phages. Turbid plaques are formed when lysogenic phages infect bacteria, as the host cells continue to grow and divide even after phage integration. This results in a cloudy appearance in the area where the phages have infected the bacteria.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
The Lambda Repressor gets activated in E. Coli. This does the following
- A.
Keeps the phage quiescent
- B.
Makes the phage lyse
- C.
Stimulates more phage to enter the host
- D.
Does nothing
Correct Answer
A. Keeps the pHage quiescentExplanation
The activation of the Lambda Repressor in E. Coli keeps the phage quiescent. This means that it prevents the phage from becoming active or replicating within the host cell. By keeping the phage quiescent, the Lambda Repressor helps maintain a dormant state, preventing the phage from causing harm or lysing the host cell.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Conjugation can occur by cells in the same relative vacinity with no touch
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Conjugation is a process in which genetic material is transferred between bacterial cells through direct contact. It requires physical contact between cells, typically facilitated by a structure called a pilus. Therefore, the statement that conjugation can occur by cells in the same relative vicinity with no touch is false.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
At the end of conjugation, only the recipient has a copy of the F plasmid
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Donor and recipientRate this question:
-
- 48.
Conjugation is sensitive to DNase
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Conjugation is a process by which genetic material is transferred between bacterial cells. DNase is an enzyme that breaks down DNA. The statement suggests that conjugation is affected by DNase, implying that DNase can inhibit or interfere with the process. However, this is not true. Conjugation is not sensitive to DNase, and the presence of DNase does not prevent or hinder the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
What is penicillins target?
- A.
Cell Wall
- B.
Ribosome
- C.
Enzyme
- D.
Cytoplasm
Correct Answer
A. Cell WallExplanation
Penicillins target the cell wall. Penicillins are a class of antibiotics that work by inhibiting the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall. They do this by binding to and inhibiting an enzyme called transpeptidase, which is responsible for cross-linking the peptidoglycan chains in the cell wall. This weakens the cell wall, causing it to rupture and ultimately leading to the death of the bacteria. By targeting the cell wall, penicillins are effective against a wide range of bacteria and are commonly used to treat various bacterial infections.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
What is erythromycins target?
- A.
Cell Wall
- B.
Ribosome
- C.
Enzyme
- D.
Cytoplasm
Correct Answer
B. RibosomeExplanation
Erythromycin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria. The target of erythromycin is the ribosome, which is the cellular machinery responsible for protein synthesis. By binding to the ribosome, erythromycin prevents the formation of new proteins, ultimately leading to the inhibition of bacterial growth and the eradication of the infection.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
May 24, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Oct 05, 2012Quiz Created by
Rickythegreat
Back to top