Microbiology Toughest Exam: Quiz!

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  • 1/50 Questions

    Bacteria most likely to cause sepsis.

    • E. Coli
    • Staph Aureus
    • Strep Pyogenes
    • Clostridium Difficle
    • A and B
    • None of the above
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About This Quiz

The 'Microbiology Toughest Exam: Quiz!' assesses advanced knowledge in microbiology, focusing on areas crucial for healthcare professionals like sepsis bacteria, disinfectant effectiveness, and bloodborne infections. It's designed for learners aiming to deepen their understanding in microbial science and healthcare safety.

Microbiology Toughest Exam: Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Disinfectant effectiveness is determined by killing effectiveness of:

    • Mycobactrium Tuberculosis

    • Helicobacter Pylori

    • Clostridium Difficle

    • Bacillus sterothermophillus

    Correct Answer
    A. Mycobactrium Tuberculosis
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a bacterium that causes tuberculosis, a highly contagious and potentially deadly disease. Disinfectant effectiveness is determined by its ability to kill or inactivate this bacterium. Since Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a particularly resilient and hardy bacterium, if a disinfectant is effective against it, it is likely to be effective against other less resistant bacteria as well. Therefore, the effectiveness of a disinfectant against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a good indicator of its overall effectiveness as a disinfectant.

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  • 3. 

    The greatest risk of bloodborne infections among healthcare workers:

    • Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

    • HBV

    • HIV

    • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

    Correct Answer
    A. HBV
    Explanation
    The greatest risk of bloodborne infections among healthcare workers is HBV, which stands for Hepatitis B Virus. HBV is a highly contagious virus that is transmitted through contact with infected blood or bodily fluids. Healthcare workers are at an increased risk of exposure to HBV due to their close contact with patients and potential exposure to contaminated needles or other sharp objects. It is important for healthcare workers to follow strict infection control measures and get vaccinated against HBV to protect themselves and prevent the spread of the virus.

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  • 4. 

    Peptidoglycan is a cross-linked polysaccharide of:

    • N acetylmuramic and N acetylgalatose residues

    • N acetylgalactose and N acetylglucosamine residues

    • N acetylmuramic and N acetylglucosamine residues

    Correct Answer
    A. N acetylmuramic and N acetylglucosamine residues
    Explanation
    Peptidoglycan is a cross-linked polysaccharide found in the cell walls of bacteria. It is composed of alternating N-acetylmuramic acid and N-acetylglucosamine residues. These two sugars are linked together by glycosidic bonds, forming a rigid structure that provides strength and protection to the bacterial cell wall. The cross-linking of peptidoglycan is essential for maintaining the integrity of the cell wall and preventing the bacteria from bursting due to osmotic pressure.

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  • 5. 

    DNA transfer via virus/bacteriophage:

    • Translation

    • Transduction

    • Transposon

    • Conjugation

    • Transformation

    • Transfection

    Correct Answer
    A. Transduction
    Explanation
    Conjugation - bacteria sex Transformation- uptake of random DNA, Transfection is a type of transformation. Transposon - transfer of DNA within the cell via moving DNA segments

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  • 6. 

    What does Tetanus toxin do?

    • Inhibits glycine release

    • Inhibits protein synthesis

    • Inhibit acetylchonine release

    • Promotes cytokine release from t cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhibits glycine release
    Explanation
    Tetanus toxin inhibits glycine release. This means that it prevents the release of glycine, an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. By inhibiting glycine release, the toxin disrupts the balance between excitatory and inhibitory signals in the nervous system, leading to increased muscle stiffness and spasms characteristic of tetanus infection.

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  • 7. 

    Which toxin promotes cytokine release from t cells?

    • Alpha toxin

    • Diptheria toxin

    • Botulinium toxin

    • TSST

    Correct Answer
    A. TSST
    Explanation
    Diptheria - inhibits protein synthesis
    Alpha toxin - lechinase (hydrolyzes lechin destroying plasma membrane)
    Botulinum toxin - inhibit acetylcholine release

    TSST stands for Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin

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  • 8. 

    What does erythrogenic toxin cause?

    • Degrades IgA

    • Inhibits complement

    • Destroys PMN

    • Causes Scarlet Fever

    • Causes Scalded Skin Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Causes Scarlet Fever
    Explanation
    IgA protease - degrades iga
    Leukocidins - destroy PMNs
    Protein A - inhibits complement

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  • 9. 

    What type of hemolysis do Streptolysin O, Streptolysin S, and Pneumolysin cause?

    • Alpha- hemolysis (partial)

    • Beta - hemolysis (complete)

    • Gama - hemolysis (none)

    Correct Answer
    A. Beta - hemolysis (complete)
    Explanation
    Streptolysin O, Streptolysin S, and Pneumolysin are all toxins produced by certain bacteria. These toxins cause the complete destruction of red blood cells, resulting in the release of hemoglobin and a clear zone around the bacterial colonies on blood agar plates. This type of hemolysis is known as beta-hemolysis.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is true of endotoxin?

    • Located within the bacterial cell membrane

    • It is lippopolysaccaride

    • Lipid A is the toxic component

    • Found only in Gram negative bactria

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. It is lippopolysaccaride
    A. Lipid A is the toxic component
    A. Found only in Gram negative bactria
    Explanation
    Cell wall not cell membrane

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following are obligate intracellular bacteria?

    • Spirocettes

    • Neissera gonorehea

    • Rickettisa

    • Chlamydia sp.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Rickettisa
    A. Chlamydia sp.
    Explanation
    Rickettsia and Chlamydia are obligate intracellular bacteria because they are unable to replicate outside of a host cell. They rely on the host cell's machinery and nutrients to survive and reproduce. This characteristic allows them to evade the immune system and cause persistent infections. Spirochetes, such as Treponema pallidum, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are not obligate intracellular bacteria as they can survive and replicate outside of host cells.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following bacteria do not have a rigid and thick cell wall?

    • Actinomyces isreales

    • Mycoplasma

    • Spirocettes

    • Salmonella

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Mycoplasma
    A. Spirocettes
    Explanation
    Spirocettes have a flexible, thin cell wall
    Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following are distinguishing features of Mycobacteria species?

    • They stain via acid fast staining

    • They lack a cell wall

    • Has mycolic acid in its cell wall instead of peptidglycan

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. They stain via acid fast staining
    A. Has mycolic acid in its cell wall instead of peptidglycan
    Explanation
    Mycobacteria species have distinguishing features such as staining via acid fast staining and having mycolic acid in their cell wall instead of peptidoglycan. Acid fast staining is a special staining technique used to identify bacteria that have a waxy lipid layer in their cell wall, which makes them resistant to regular staining methods. Mycobacteria also have a unique cell wall composition with mycolic acid, a type of fatty acid, instead of peptidoglycan, which is found in the cell walls of most bacteria. These features help differentiate Mycobacteria from other bacterial species.

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  • 14. 

    What do obligate anaerobes lack which is responsible for they need to live in oxygen-free environments?

    • A cell wall

    • Factor IX (Christmas factor)

    • Glyceraldegyde 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

    • Superoxide dismutase and catalase

    Correct Answer
    A. Superoxide dismutase and catalase
    Explanation
    They cant process O2 radicals and H2O2

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  • 15. 

    All Streptococci species are catalase-negative and gram-positive.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Streptococci species are known to be catalase-negative, meaning they do not produce the enzyme catalase. Additionally, they are gram-positive, which refers to their ability to retain the crystal violet dye during the Gram staining process. Therefore, the statement that all Streptococci species are catalase-negative and gram-positive is true.

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  • 16. 

    Group A Beta Hemolytic Streptococci are distinguished by which of the following:

    • M protein on outer surface of cell

    • C Carbohydrate composition of cell wall

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. M protein on outer surface of cell
    Explanation
    Group A Beta Hemolytic Streptococci are distinguished by the presence of M protein on the outer surface of the cell. This protein is a major virulence factor and helps the bacteria evade the host immune response by inhibiting phagocytosis. The M protein also plays a role in the adherence of the bacteria to host cells and tissues. The presence of M protein is a characteristic feature of Group A Beta Hemolytic Streptococci and helps differentiate them from other types of streptococci.

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  • 17. 

    Which is true of Beta Hemolytic Streptococci:

    • All have C Carbohydrate composition of cell wall

    • They are also called the Lancefield group

    • They undergo beta hemolysis

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. All have C Carbohydrate composition of cell wall
    A. They are also called the Lancefield group
    A. They undergo beta hemolysis
    Explanation
    Beta Hemolytic Streptococci refers to a group of bacteria that are characterized by their ability to cause beta hemolysis, which is the complete lysis of red blood cells. Additionally, these bacteria have a specific carbohydrate composition in their cell wall known as C Carbohydrate. The Lancefield group is another name for Beta Hemolytic Streptococci, named after its discoverer, Rebecca Lancefield. Therefore, all of the given statements are true about Beta Hemolytic Streptococci.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following Strep species undergo beta hemolysis?

    • Step viridans

    • Strep pyogenes

    • Strep agalactae

    • Strep bovis

    • Enterococci

    • Strep pnemonae

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Strep pyogenes
    A. Strep agalactae
    A. Strep bovis
    A. Enterococci
    Explanation
    All are classified as Beta which means the undergo beta hemolysis.
    Viridans and strep pneumaniae are classified as Alpha.

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  • 19. 

    All Clostridium species are obligate anaerobic.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    All Clostridium species are obligate anaerobic because they are unable to survive or grow in the presence of oxygen. These bacteria are adapted to environments with low oxygen levels and can only carry out their metabolic processes in the absence of oxygen. This characteristic is a defining feature of the Clostridium genus, making the statement true.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following are major virulence factors for Streptococcus pyogenes:

    • Protein A

    • Hyauronidase

    • Streptokinase

    • Erythrogenic toxin

    • Streptolysin O and S

    • Exotoxin O and S

    • Beta lactamase

    • TSST

    • Exfoliatin

    • Entrotoxin

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Hyauronidase
    A. Streptokinase
    A. Erythrogenic toxin
    A. Streptolysin O and S
    A. Exotoxin O and S
    Explanation
    Mnemonic
    SHESE

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following are major virulence factors for Staphylococcus aureus:

    • Protein A

    • Hyauronidase

    • Staphylokinase

    • Beta lactamase

    • TSST

    • Exfoliatin

    • Enterotoxin

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Protein A
    A. Hyauronidase
    A. Staphylokinase
    A. Beta lactamase
    A. TSST
    A. Exfoliatin
    A. Enterotoxin
    Explanation
    Possible mnemonic
    STPH BEE

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  • 22. 

    Streptococcus pyogenes causes:

    • Scarlet Fever

    • Toxic Shock Syndrome

    • Scalded skin syndrome

    • Rheumatic fever

    • A and D

    • B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. A and D
    Explanation
    Streptococcus pyogenes causes scarlet and rheumatic fever. Pyo, Red, Scarlet, Rheumatic
    May also cause Toxic Shock Like Syndrome TSLS is people with preexisting infections.

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  • 23. 

    Stapylococcus aureus causes:

    • Scarlet Fever

    • Toxic Shock Syndrome

    • Scalded skin syndrome

    • Rheumatic fever

    • A and D

    • B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. B and C
    Explanation
    Staphylococcus aureus causes Scalded skin syndrome and Toxic Shock Syndrome. Scarlet Fever is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, not Staphylococcus aureus. Rheumatic fever is also caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, not Staphylococcus aureus. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C.

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  • 24. 

    Bacterial that causes caries:

    • Strep viridans

    • Strep pyogenes

    • Strep agalactae

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Strep viridans
    Explanation
    Strep viridans is the correct answer because it is a type of bacteria that is commonly associated with dental caries, or tooth decay. It is often found in the oral cavity and can contribute to the formation of dental plaque, which leads to the demineralization of tooth enamel and the development of cavities. Strep pyogenes and Strep agalactae are not typically associated with dental caries, so they are not the correct answers.

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  • 25. 

    Bacteria that have IgA protease:

    • Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • Haemophilus influenzae

    • Neisseria (N. gonorrhoeae, N. meningitidis)

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The major pathogens which can produce IgA proteases (extracellular enzymes capable of degrading IgA1) are Neisseria gonorrhoeae, N. meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae and bacteria associated with periodontal disease and dental plaque formation.

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  • 26. 

    Bacteria transmitted via ingestion of reheated fried rice:

    • Bacillus anthracis

    • Bacillus cereus

    • Cornybacterium diptheriae

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacillus cereus
    Explanation
    It is the cause of "Fried Rice Syndrome". B. cereus bacteria are aerobes, and like other members of the genus Bacillus can produce protective endospores.

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  • 27. 

    What does exfoilitoxin do?

    • Nothing

    • Cause scarlet fever

    • Causes scalded skin syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Causes scalded skin syndrome
    Explanation
    Exfoliatin is a toxin produced by certain strains of bacteria, such as Staphylococcus aureus. This toxin causes scalded skin syndrome, a condition characterized by widespread redness, blistering, and peeling of the skin. Exfoliatin works by breaking down the proteins that hold skin cells together, leading to the detachment and shedding of the outer layers of the skin. This results in the characteristic symptoms of scalded skin syndrome.

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  • 28. 

    Bacteria that causes gas gangrene:

    • Bacillus Cerus

    • Clostridium difficle

    • Clostridium perfringens

    Correct Answer
    A. Clostridium perfringens
    Explanation
    Gas gangrene (also known as "Clostridial myonecrosis"[1]:269, and "Myonecrosis"[2]) is a bacterial infection that produces gas tissues in gangrene. It is a deadly form of gangrene usually caused by Clostridium perfringens bacteria. It is a medical emergency.

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  • 29. 

    Bacteria that have D glutamate capsule:

    • Bacillus anthrasis

    • Clostridium perfringens

    • Clostridium difficle

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacillus anthrasis
    Explanation
    Bacillus anthrasis is the correct answer because it is the only bacterium listed that has a D glutamate capsule. Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium difficle do not have this specific capsule.

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  • 30. 

    Bacteria that have Alpha toxin:

    • Bacillus anthrasis

    • Clostridium perfringens

    • Clostridium difficle

    Correct Answer
    A. Clostridium perfringens
    Explanation
    Clostridium perfringens is the correct answer because it is known to produce Alpha toxin. Alpha toxin is a potent cytotoxin that can cause tissue damage and cell death. Clostridium perfringens is a common cause of food poisoning and gas gangrene, both of which are associated with the production of Alpha toxin. Bacillus anthrasis is the causative agent of anthrax and produces different toxins, while Clostridium difficile is associated with causing antibiotic-associated diarrhea but does not produce Alpha toxin.

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  • 31. 

    Bacillus and Clostridium are gram-positive bacilli that form spores.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Bacillus and Clostridium are both types of bacteria that belong to the gram-positive group. They are characterized by their rod-shaped (bacilli) structure and have the ability to form spores. This means that they can enter a dormant state, allowing them to survive in harsh conditions such as extreme temperatures or lack of nutrients. Therefore, the statement "Bacillus and Clostridium are gram-positive bacilli that form spores" is true.

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  • 32. 

    Causes firm, gray tonsillar pseudomembranes.

    • Mycobaterium Tuberculosis

    • Haemophilus Influenzae

    • Corybacterium diptheriae

    Correct Answer
    A. Corybacterium diptheriae
    Explanation
    Diphtheria (Greek διφθέρα (diphthera) "pair of leather scrolls") is an upper respiratory tract illness caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, a facultative anaerobic Gram-positive bacterium.[1][2] It is characterized by sore throat, low fever, and an adherent membrane (a pseudomembrane) on the tonsils, pharynx, and/or nasal cavityc

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  • 33. 

    Causes antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis:

    • Clostridium difficle

    • Clostridium tetani

    • Listeria monocytogenes

    Correct Answer
    A. Clostridium difficle
    Explanation
    Clostridium difficile is a bacterium that can cause antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis. This condition occurs when the normal balance of bacteria in the colon is disrupted by antibiotic use, allowing Clostridium difficile to overgrow and release toxins that damage the lining of the colon. This can lead to symptoms such as severe diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Clostridium tetani is the bacterium that causes tetanus, while Listeria monocytogenes is associated with foodborne illnesses. Therefore, the correct answer is Clostridium difficile.

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  • 34. 

    Bacteria that have characteristic sulfur granules:

    • Listeria monocytogenes

    • Nesseria meningitidis

    • Actinoyces isreali

    • Clostridium difficle

    Correct Answer
    A. Actinoyces isreali
    Explanation
    This lesion is often characterized as "wooden." "Sulfur" granules form in a central purulence surrounded by neutrophils. This conglomeration of organisms is virtually diagnostic of Actinomyces israelii.

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  • 35. 

    Bacteria associated with Water House Friderichsen Syndrome:

    • Neisseria gonorrhoae

    • Streptococcus pyogenes

    • Streptococcus mutans

    Correct Answer
    A. Neisseria gonorrhoae
    Explanation
    SIDE NOTE: Conjunctivitis is common in neonates (newborns), and silver nitrate or antibiotics are often applied to their eyes as a preventive measure against gonorrhoea.

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  • 36. 

    Infection from this bacteria often occurs in hospitalized patients following burns or cystic fibrosis:

    • Staph Aureus

    • Pseudomonas aerugenosus

    • Legionella pnenumona

    Correct Answer
    A. Pseudomonas aerugenosus
    Explanation
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common bacterial pathogen that often infects hospitalized patients, particularly those with burns or cystic fibrosis. This bacterium is known for its ability to colonize and infect damaged tissues, making it a frequent cause of infections in these patient populations. It is resistant to many antibiotics, making it difficult to treat, and can cause severe infections such as pneumonia, urinary tract infections, and bloodstream infections. Therefore, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most likely explanation for the given answer.

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  • 37. 

    How does Pseudomonas aeruginosa stain in culture?

    • Red white and blue

    • Orange

    • Black and yellow black and yellow

    • Blue green

    Correct Answer
    A. Blue green
    Explanation
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa stains blue green in culture. This is because it produces a pigment called pyocyanin, which gives it a characteristic blue-green color. This staining pattern is useful in identifying the bacteria in laboratory settings.

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  • 38. 

    Also known as Koch-Weeks bacillus, this bacteria causes acute conjunctivitis (pink eye) and is transmitted via hand to hand contact:

    • Neisseria gonorrhoae

    • Haemophilus Influenzae

    • Listeria monocytogenes

    • Haemophilus aegyptius

    Correct Answer
    A. Haemophilus aegyptius
    Explanation
    Haemophilus aegyptius, also known as Koch-Weeks bacillus, is the correct answer because it is a bacteria that causes acute conjunctivitis (pink eye). It is transmitted through hand to hand contact, making it highly contagious. Neisseria gonorrhoae is a bacteria that causes gonorrhea, not conjunctivitis. Haemophilus Influenzae is a bacteria that can cause various infections, but not specifically conjunctivitis. Listeria monocytogenes is a bacteria that causes foodborne illness, not conjunctivitis. Therefore, the correct answer is Haemophilus aegyptius.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following are zoonotoc bacteria?

    • Brucella ap

    • Francsella tularenis

    • Yesternia pestis

    • Pasturella multocida

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Brucella ap
    A. Francsella tularenis
    A. Yesternia pestis
    A. Pasturella multocida
    Explanation
    Brucella ap- Brucellosis (undulant fever)
    Francsella tularenis - Tularemia vie rabbits
    Yesternia pestis - Plague via fleas, rats and dogs
    Pasturella multocida - Cellulitis

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  • 40. 

    This bacteria most commonly causes dysentery:

    • Salmonellla

    • Vibrio

    • Shigella

    • Camplobacter jejuni

    • E. coli

    Correct Answer
    A. Shigella
    Explanation
    NOTE: These plus Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, and Bacteroidies are classified as gram negative enteric bacteria. All of them are faculative with the exception of Pseudomonas and Baceroidies which are aerobic

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  • 41. 

    Bacteroides are associated with periodontitis.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Bacteroides are a type of bacteria commonly found in the oral cavity. They are known to be associated with periodontitis, which is an inflammatory disease that affects the gums and surrounding tissues. Bacteroides can contribute to the development and progression of periodontitis by producing harmful toxins and enzymes that damage the gums and bone supporting the teeth. Therefore, the statement that Bacteroides are associated with periodontitis is true.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following are characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis:

    • Major virulence factors are cord factor and tuberuloproteins

    • PPD skin test elicits type IV delayed hypersensitivity

    • May be primary or secondary

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the given statements are characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The major virulence factors of this bacterium are cord factor and tuberuloproteins, which contribute to its ability to cause disease. The PPD skin test, which stands for purified protein derivative, is used to detect exposure to tuberculosis. It elicits a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction in individuals who have been previously exposed to the bacterium. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause both primary and secondary infections, depending on the individual's immune status and previous exposure to the bacterium.

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  • 43. 

    Which type of Tuberculosis is associated with a Ghon Complex?

    • Primary TB

    • Secondary TB

    • Neither

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary TB
    Explanation
    Secondary TB has caseus granulomas

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following are charcateristics of Mycobacterium leprae

    • Tuberculoid type w/cell mediated immune response and granulomas in nerves

    • Lepromatus type w/foam cells containing bacteria in skin

    • Major virulence factor is lepromin

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above". This is because all three statements mentioned in the options are characteristics of Mycobacterium leprae. The tuberculoid type of leprosy is characterized by a cell-mediated immune response and the formation of granulomas in nerves. The lepromatous type of leprosy is characterized by the presence of foam cells containing bacteria in the skin. The major virulence factor of Mycobacterium leprae is lepromin. Therefore, all three statements are true and describe characteristics of Mycobacterium leprae.

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  • 45. 

    Mycobacteria are aerobic.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Mycobacteria are known to be aerobic organisms, meaning they require oxygen to survive and grow. This is supported by their ability to utilize oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor in their metabolic processes. As such, they are able to thrive in environments with sufficient oxygen levels, such as in the lungs where they cause diseases like tuberculosis. Therefore, the statement "Mycobacteria are aerobic" is true.

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  • 46. 

    What is the most common cause of preventable blindness?

    • Mycoplasma pneumoniae

    • Rickettsia rickettsii

    • Trepomona pallidum

    • Chlamydia trachomatis

    Correct Answer
    A. Chlamydia trachomatis
    Explanation
    Also is the most common STD
    Forms cytoplasmic inclusions
    Can be cotracted via swimming pool
    Causes Trachoma and iinclusion conjuctivitis

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  • 47. 

    What causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

    • Mycoplasma pneumoniae

    • Rickettsia rickettsii

    • Trepomona pallidum

    • Chlamydia trachomatis

    Correct Answer
    A. Rickettsia rickettsii
    Explanation
    Rickettsia rickettsii (abbreviated as R. rickettsii) is a unicellular, gram-negative coccobacillus (plural coccobacilli) that is native to the New World. It belongs to the spotted fever group (SFG) of Rickettsia and is most commonly known as the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF). By nature, R. rickettsii is an obligate intracellular parasite that survive by an endosymbiotic relationship with other cells.
    R. rickettsii is a non-motile, non-spore forming aerobic organism. Cells are typically 0.3-0.5 X 0.8-2.0 um in size. They lack a distinct nucleus and membrane bound organelles. Their outer membrane is composed mostly lipopolysaccharides.
    RMSF is transmitted by the bite of an infected tick while feeding on warm-blooded animals, including humans. Humans are considered to be accidental hosts in the rickettsia–tick life cycle and are not required to maintain the rickettsiae in nature.

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  • 48. 

    What causes epidemic typhus?

    • Rickettsia rickettsii

    • Trepomona pallidum

    • Camplobacter jejuni

    • Rickettsia prowazekii

    Correct Answer
    A. Rickettsia prowazekii
    Explanation
    Rickettsia prowazekii is a species of gram negative, Alpha Proteobacteria, obligate intracellular parasitic, aerobic bacteria that is the etiologic agent of epidemic typhus, transmitted in the feces of lice. In North America, the main reservoir for R. prowazekii is the flying squirrel. R. prowazekii is often surrounded by a protein microcapsular layer and slime layer; the natural life cycle of the bacterium generally involves a vertebrate and an invertebrate host, usually an arthropod, typically the human body louse. A form of R.. prowazekii that exists in the feces of arthropods remains stably infective for months. R. prowazekii also appears to be the closest free-living relative of mitochondria, based on genome sequencing.

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  • 49. 

    What is use to treat Syphillis?

    • Gentamycin

    • Penicillin

    • Doxycycline

    • Amoxicillin

    • Both C and D

    Correct Answer
    A. Penicillin
    Explanation
    Stages of syphillis:
    Primary - chancre at site of contact
    Secondary - maculopapular rash and condyloma latum
    Tertiary - Guma (granuloma) formation on tongue or palate

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