Could You Pass This Toughest Biology Exam? Quiz

  • 11th Grade,
  • 12th Grade
  • USMLE
  • MCAT
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Quizzes Created: 9 | Total Attempts: 1,311
| Attempts: 75 | Questions: 161 | Updated: Mar 14, 2025
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Question 1 / 162
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1. Spitting up blood

Explanation

Hemoptysis is the medical term used to describe the condition of spitting up blood. It refers specifically to the coughing up of blood that originates from the respiratory tract, such as the lungs or bronchial tubes. This can be caused by various factors, including lung infections, tuberculosis, lung cancer, or trauma to the chest. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing hemoptysis, as it can be a symptom of a serious underlying condition.

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About This Quiz
Could You Pass This Toughest Biology Exam? Quiz - Quiz

Challenge yourself with the 'Could you pass this toughest Biology Exam? ' Quiz, designed to test knowledge on medical terminology related to human anatomy and physiology. Assess your understanding of terms like hemoptysis, dyspepsia, and more, crucial for medical professionals and students.

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

You may optionally provide this to label your report, leaderboard, or certificate.

2. Complete the following blanks that refer to the three factors that the coder must consider in the assignment:   _________ of service, _________of service, __________status

Explanation

The coder must consider the place of service, type of service, and patient status in the assignment. These three factors are important for accurately coding and billing for healthcare services. The place of service refers to the location where the service was provided, such as a hospital or clinic. The type of service refers to the specific healthcare procedure or treatment that was performed. The patient status refers to the condition or classification of the patient, such as inpatient or outpatient. Considering these factors ensures that the coding is appropriate and reflects the specific circumstances of the healthcare service.

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3. The four types of patient status are : ____,_________,_________,_____________.

Explanation

The correct answer is "new, established, inpatient, outpatient". This answer accurately identifies the four types of patient status. "New" refers to patients who are visiting the healthcare facility for the first time. "Established" refers to patients who have previously visited the facility. "Inpatient" refers to patients who are admitted to the hospital for overnight care. "Outpatient" refers to patients who receive medical treatment without being admitted to the hospital.

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4. The _________________ is a statement descriving the reason for the encounter and is a history element

Explanation

The chief complaint is a statement provided by the patient describing the reason for seeking medical attention. It is considered a history element because it provides crucial information about the patient's symptoms and concerns, helping healthcare providers understand the nature of the encounter. By identifying the chief complaint, healthcare professionals can gather relevant medical history, perform appropriate examinations, and determine the most suitable course of action for the patient's care.

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5. Modifier ____ is used to indicate that a separately identifiable e/m service was performed by the physician on the same day as the preventive medicine service

Explanation

Modifier 25 is used to indicate that a separately identifiable E/M (Evaluation and Management) service was performed by the physician on the same day as the preventive medicine service. This modifier is used to distinguish between the preventive medicine service and the additional E/M service provided on the same day. It helps to ensure that the physician is appropriately reimbursed for both services rendered.

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6. -pepsia

Explanation

The given answer "digestion" is most likely the correct answer because it is related to the given terms "pepsia" and "digestion". Pepsia is a suffix that means "digestion" or "digestive process". Therefore, it can be inferred that "digestion" is the correct answer based on the given information.

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7. -ptysis

Explanation

Ptysis is a medical term referring to the act of coughing up or spitting out phlegm or mucus from the respiratory tract. Therefore, the word "spitting" accurately describes the action of ptysis.

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8. -emesis

Explanation

Vomiting is the correct answer because it is a term used to describe the act of expelling the contents of the stomach through the mouth. The term "emesis" is a medical term that is often used interchangeably with vomiting. Therefore, the answer "vomiting" accurately represents the meaning of "emesis".

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9. -ptosis

Explanation

Ptosis refers to the drooping or sagging of a body part, typically an eyelid. In this case, the term "forward drooping" accurately describes the condition of ptosis. The word "forward" emphasizes the direction of the drooping, indicating that the affected body part is hanging or sagging in a downward position. Therefore, "forward drooping" is an appropriate explanation for the term "ptosis."

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10. -rrhagia

Explanation

The term "rrhagia" is a medical suffix that refers to the bursting forth or excessive flow of a particular substance. In this case, the substance is blood. Therefore, the correct answer, "bursting forth of blood," accurately describes the meaning of "rrhagia."

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11. -phagia

Explanation

The term "phagia" is a suffix that refers to the act of eating or swallowing. Therefore, "swallowing" is the correct answer as it directly corresponds to the meaning of the term.

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12. -plasty

Explanation

The term "-plasty" is a suffix commonly used in medical terminology to indicate a surgical repair procedure. It is derived from the Greek word "plassein" which means "to mold" or "to form". Therefore, when "-plasty" is added to the end of a word, it signifies that a surgical procedure is being performed to repair or reshape a specific part of the body. This could involve procedures such as rhinoplasty (surgical repair of the nose) or mammoplasty (surgical repair of the breast).

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13. -ectasis

Explanation

The term "-ectasis" is a suffix that is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate the widening or dilation of a particular structure or organ. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is "widening," as it accurately describes the meaning of the term "-ectasis."

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14. -stenosis

Explanation

The term "stenosis" refers to a medical condition characterized by the abnormal narrowing of a passage or opening in the body. This narrowing can occur in various parts of the body, such as blood vessels, the spinal canal, or the digestive tract. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including inflammation, tumors, or the build-up of plaque. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is "narrowing," as it accurately describes the condition of stenosis.

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15. -lysis

Explanation

The suffix "-lysis" refers to the process of breaking down or decomposition. In this case, the word "breakdown" perfectly matches the meaning of the suffix. It signifies the act of something being broken down into smaller parts or being analyzed in detail. Therefore, "breakdown" is the correct answer that aligns with the meaning of "-lysis".

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16. -ptosis

Explanation

Ptosis refers to the drooping of an organ or body part. In this case, the term "forward drooping" accurately describes the condition of ptosis, where the affected organ or body part hangs or sags in a downward direction. The term "forward" further emphasizes the direction of the drooping, providing a clear and concise explanation for the given answer.

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17. -stasis

Explanation

The word "stasis" refers to a state of balance or equilibrium, while "stoppage" means the act of stopping or halting something. Given that the two words have similar meanings, it can be inferred that "stoppage" is the correct answer as it directly relates to the definition of "stasis" as a stoppage or cessation of movement or activity.

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18. -rrhea

Explanation

The term "-rrhea" is a suffix commonly used in medical terminology to indicate excessive or abnormal discharge. In this case, the word "discharge" is the correct answer because it accurately describes the meaning of the suffix "-rrhea." It refers to the act of releasing or letting go of something, which aligns with the concept of excessive or abnormal discharge.

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19. Difficult digestion: dys__________

Explanation

The term "dyspepsia" refers to a medical condition characterized by difficult or impaired digestion. The prefix "dys-" indicates abnormality or difficulty, while "pepsia" refers to digestion. Therefore, "dyspepsia" is the correct term to describe difficult digestion.

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20. Difficulty swallowing: dys_____

Explanation

The term "dysphagia" refers to difficulty swallowing. The prefix "dys-" indicates abnormal or difficult, and the root word "phagia" refers to swallowing. Therefore, "dysphagia" accurately describes the condition of having difficulty with swallowing.

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21. Vomiting blood hemat_______

Explanation

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22. Incision of the tongue gloss_________

Explanation

The term "otomy" refers to a surgical incision or cutting into a specific part of the body. In this case, the word "gloss" indicates the tongue, so "glossotomy" would mean the surgical incision of the tongue. This term is derived from the Greek word "glossa" which means tongue. Therefore, the correct answer is "otomy" as it accurately describes the procedure of incising the tongue.

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23. Pertaining to the cheek ________al

Explanation

The word "bucc" is a common abbreviation for "buccal," which means pertaining to the cheek. Therefore, the correct answer is "bucc" as it is the shortened form of the word that accurately describes something related to the cheek.

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24. Discharge of fat ________orrhea

Explanation

The term "steat" is a combining form that refers to fat. When it is combined with the suffix "-orrhea," which means excessive flow or discharge, it forms the medical term "steatorrhea." Steatorrhea is a condition characterized by the presence of excessive fat in the stool, which can be caused by various digestive disorders or malabsorption issues. Therefore, the correct answer is "steat."

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25. Enlargement of the live hepato____________

Explanation

The correct answer is "megaly" because the term "hepato" refers to the liver, and "megaly" means enlargement. Therefore, "hepato-megaly" refers to the enlargement of the liver.

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26. Suture of the small intestine entero___________

Explanation

The term "rrhaphy" refers to the surgical suturing or stitching of a specific organ or tissue. In this case, the word "entero" indicates that the small intestine is the organ being sutured. Therefore, "enterorrhaphy" would be the correct term to describe the suturing of the small intestine.

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27. No opening a_______

Explanation

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28. Inflammation of the mouth with small ulcers a_____stomatitis

Explanation

The term "phthuos" does not make sense in the context of the given question. It does not fit the pattern of being a word that describes inflammation of the mouth with small ulcers. Therefore, it is likely that the question is incomplete or not readable, and a proper explanation cannot be generated.

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29. -ase

Explanation

The suffix "-ase" is commonly used in the naming of enzymes. Enzymes are proteins that act as catalysts in chemical reactions, speeding up the rate of the reaction without being consumed in the process. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that the word "enzyme" fits the given suffix "-ase".

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30. -centesis

Explanation

The term "-centesis" is a suffix that refers to a surgical puncture or aspiration of a body cavity or organ to remove fluid. Therefore, the correct answer is "removal of fluid."

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31. -chezia

Explanation

Defecation refers to the act of eliminating waste from the body through the rectum and anus. It is the process of passing stool or feces out of the body. The term "chezia" is not a recognized medical term and does not have any specific meaning related to bodily functions. Therefore, the correct answer is defecation.

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32. -ectasia

Explanation

The term "-ectasia" refers to the condition of dilation or widening. This means that when a medical term contains "-ectasia," it indicates that there is an abnormal enlargement or expansion of a particular organ or blood vessel. Therefore, the correct answer is "dilation widening" as it accurately describes the meaning of "-ectasia."

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33. -ectomy

Explanation

The term "-ectomy" is a suffix used in medical terminology to indicate the surgical removal of a specific organ or tissue. In this context, the word "removal" accurately describes the meaning of "-ectomy." The word "incision" is not an appropriate explanation for "-ectomy" as it refers to the act of making a cut or opening in the body, which is a separate procedure from the removal itself. Therefore, the correct answer is "removal."

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34. -spams

Explanation

"Spasms" refers to involuntary muscle contractions. These contractions can occur in various muscles in the body, causing sudden and often painful movements or cramps. Spasms can be caused by several factors such as muscle fatigue, dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, or underlying medical conditions. Treatment options for spasms may include stretching exercises, heat or cold therapy, medication, or addressing the underlying cause.

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35. -emia

Explanation

The term "-emia" is a suffix that is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate a condition or presence of a substance in the blood. In this case, the suffix "-emia" is combined with the word "blood" to form the term "blood condition". Therefore, the correct answer is "blood condition".

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36. -genesis

Explanation

The word "genesis" refers to the beginning or origin of something. "Formation" also means the act of creating or establishing something. Both words are synonymous and can be used interchangeably to describe the process of something coming into existence or being formed. Therefore, "formation" is the correct answer as it accurately represents the meaning of "genesis".

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37. -graphy

Explanation

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38. -iasis

Explanation

The term "iasis" is a medical suffix that means "abnormal condition." Suffixes are added to the end of a word to modify its meaning or create a new word. In this case, "iasis" is added to a word to indicate that there is an abnormal condition present. Therefore, "abnormal condition" is the correct answer as it accurately describes the meaning of the suffix "iasis."

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39. -lysis

Explanation

The suffix "-lysis" is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate a process of breakdown or destruction. For example, hemolysis refers to the breakdown of red blood cells, while cytolytic refers to a substance that causes the destruction of cells. Therefore, "breakdown destruction" accurately describes the meaning of the suffix "-lysis".

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40. -megaly

Explanation

Megaly refers to the condition of enlargement. Therefore, the correct answer is "enlargement".

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41. -orexia

Explanation

The word ending "-orexia" is commonly used to refer to a medical condition characterized by an abnormal appetite or eating behavior. In this case, the word "appetite" is the correct answer as it directly relates to the meaning of "-orexia" as a suffix. It signifies a desire or need for food, which aligns with the concept of abnormal appetite.

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42. -pathy

Explanation

The suffix "-pathy" is commonly used in medical terminology to refer to a disease or disorder. It is derived from the Greek word "pathos" meaning suffering or disease. Therefore, when "-pathy" is added as a suffix to a word, it indicates the presence of a disease or abnormal condition related to that word. In this case, the word "disease" is the correct answer as it best represents the meaning of the suffix "-pathy".

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43. -pepsia

Explanation

The given answer "digestion" is likely the correct answer because it is the only word that is related to the previous words "pepsia" and "digestion". Pepsia is a suffix that refers to the process of digestion, making "digestion" the most logical and fitting choice.

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44. -phagia

Explanation

The term "-phagia" is a suffix used in medical terminology to refer to the act of swallowing. It is derived from the Greek word "phagein" meaning "to eat." Therefore, when "-phagia" is added to a word, it indicates a condition or disorder related to swallowing. In this case, "swallowing" is the correct answer as it directly corresponds to the meaning of "-phagia."

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45. -plasty

Explanation

The term "-plasty" is a suffix commonly used in medical terminology to indicate a surgical repair procedure. It is derived from the Greek word "plassein" which means "to shape" or "to mold." When added to the end of a word, "-plasty" signifies a surgical intervention that aims to reshape or reconstruct a specific body part or tissue. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is "surgical repair."

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46. -prandial

Explanation

The word "prandial" is an adjective that refers to something related to a meal, especially the time or period of eating. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is "meal," which is a noun that directly relates to the concept of eating.

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47. -ptosis

Explanation

Ptosis refers to the drooping or sagging of an organ or body part. It can occur in various parts of the body, such as the eyelid (eyelid ptosis) or the breast (breast ptosis). In this context, "ptosis" is used as a medical term to describe the drooping or sagging of a body part. Therefore, the correct answer is "droop sag prolapse," as these terms are synonymous with ptosis.

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48. -tresia

Explanation

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49. Dilation of a tube leading into the lung

Explanation

Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the irreversible dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles, which are the tubes leading into the lungs. This abnormal dilation is caused by chronic inflammation and damage to the airways, leading to the accumulation of mucus and bacteria. Symptoms of bronchiectasis include chronic cough, excessive mucus production, recurrent respiratory infections, and shortness of breath. Dysmenorrhea, on the other hand, refers to painful menstrual cramps, and dilation of a tube leading into the lung is not a recognized medical condition. Therefore, the correct answer is bronchiectasis.

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50. An anastomosis

Explanation

An anastomosis is a surgical procedure that involves connecting two parts of the body, such as blood vessels or intestines. In this case, the correct answer, cholecystojejunostomy, refers to a specific type of anastomosis. It involves creating a connection between the gallbladder and the jejunum, which is part of the small intestine. This procedure is typically performed to bypass a blockage or obstruction in the bile ducts, allowing bile to flow from the gallbladder to the small intestine.

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51. Difficult digestion

Explanation

Dyspepsia is a medical term used to describe a condition characterized by difficult digestion or indigestion. It is a common problem that can cause discomfort and pain in the upper abdomen, bloating, and a feeling of fullness after eating. The symptoms of dyspepsia can be caused by various factors, such as overeating, eating too quickly, or consuming fatty or spicy foods. It can also be a symptom of an underlying medical condition, such as gastritis or peptic ulcers. Therefore, dyspepsia is the correct answer as it directly relates to the given symptom of difficult digestion.

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52. Suture of an abdominal protrusion

Explanation

Herniorrhaphy is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical repair of a hernia, which is an abdominal protrusion. This procedure involves closing the defect or weakness in the abdominal wall and reinforcing it with stitches or a mesh. The term "choledochal" is unrelated to the given question and does not provide an explanation for the correct answer.

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53. Only women are victims of spousal abuse

Explanation

The statement "only women are victims of spousal abuse" is false. Spousal abuse can affect individuals of any gender. While it is true that women are more commonly reported as victims, men can also experience abuse from their partners. It is important to recognize that abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of their gender, and support systems should be inclusive and available to all victims.

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54. Pertaining to the common bile duct

Explanation

The term "choledochal" is used to describe something that is related to or pertaining to the common bile duct. This term is commonly used in medical contexts to describe conditions or procedures involving the common bile duct.

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55. Dna parentage testing is conclusive in determining genetic profiles of the mother child and father

Explanation

DNA parentage testing is a highly accurate and reliable method for determining the genetic profiles of the mother, child, and father. This type of testing analyzes specific regions of DNA to establish biological relationships. By comparing the DNA samples of the individuals in question, scientists can identify shared genetic markers that confirm or exclude parentage. The conclusive nature of DNA parentage testing makes it a valuable tool in legal cases, immigration proceedings, and personal curiosity about biological relationships.

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56. Vomiting blood

Explanation

Hematemesis refers to the medical condition of vomiting blood. It occurs when there is bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, usually in the upper part such as the esophagus, stomach, or upper small intestine. The blood can appear bright red or have a dark, coffee ground-like appearance. Hematemesis can be caused by various conditions such as peptic ulcers, esophageal varices, gastritis, or stomach cancer. It is important to seek immediate medical attention if someone is experiencing hematemesis as it can be a sign of a serious underlying condition that requires treatment.

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57. Surgical repair of the lip and mouth

Explanation

Cheilostomatoplasty refers to the surgical repair of the lip and mouth. It is a combination of the Greek words "cheilos" meaning lip, "stoma" meaning mouth, and "plasty" meaning surgical repair. This procedure is used to correct any abnormalities or defects in the lip and mouth region, such as cleft lip and palate. Therefore, cheilostomatoplasty is the correct term for the surgical repair of the lip and mouth.

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58. Removal of the large bowel

Explanation

Colectomy is the surgical removal of the large bowel, also known as the colon. This procedure is typically performed to treat conditions such as colon cancer, diverticulitis, or inflammatory bowel disease. During a colectomy, the affected portion of the colon is removed, and the remaining healthy segments are reconnected. This helps to alleviate symptoms and improve the patient's overall health.

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59. Pertaining to the tongue and throat

Explanation

The term "glossopharyngeal" refers to something related to the tongue and throat. In this context, it could be referring to the glossopharyngeal nerve, which is responsible for providing sensory information from the tongue and throat to the brain. It could also be referring to any condition or disease that affects the tongue and throat, such as glossopharyngeal neuralgia. Without further context, it is difficult to determine the exact meaning of "glossopharyngeal" in relation to the tongue and throat.

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60. Rust rings on the cornea may be the result of foreign bodies in the eye

Explanation

Rust rings on the cornea can indeed be the result of foreign bodies in the eye. When a foreign object, such as a metal particle, enters the eye, it can cause a rust ring to form on the cornea. This occurs because the iron in the object reacts with the tears in the eye, leading to the formation of rust. Therefore, it is true that rust rings on the cornea may be the result of foreign bodies in the eye.

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61. Carpal tunnel syndrome involves entrapment of the median nerve

Explanation

Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve, which runs from the forearm to the hand, becomes compressed or squeezed at the wrist. This compression can cause symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and fingers. Therefore, the statement that carpal tunnel syndrome involves entrapment of the median nerve is true.

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62. Difficult swallowing

Explanation

Dysphagia refers to the difficulty or discomfort experienced while swallowing. It can be caused by various factors such as muscle weakness, nerve damage, or structural abnormalities. Dysphagia can result in choking, coughing, or a feeling of food getting stuck in the throat. On the other hand, dyspepsia refers to indigestion or discomfort in the upper abdomen, often accompanied by symptoms like bloating, nausea, or heartburn. Therefore, dysphagia is the correct answer as it specifically relates to difficulties in swallowing, while dyspepsia is more associated with general digestive discomfort.

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63. A patient who is taking warfarin phenytoin and diazepam asks if he can geta prescription for cimetidine for his peptic ulcers. he said that he saw an ad on tv and thinks this might help him. which of the following would be the correct response

Explanation

The correct response explains that the patient's current medications, warfarin, phenytoin, and diazepam, could interact with cimetidine (Tagamet) and potentially result in higher blood levels than desired by the doctor. Therefore, it suggests exploring alternative medications for the patient's distress. This response considers the potential drug interactions and prioritizes the patient's safety and well-being.

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64. Forward protrusion of the eye

Explanation

Proptosis refers to the forward protrusion of the eye, often caused by conditions such as thyroid eye disease, orbital tumors, or trauma. It is characterized by the displacement of the eye from its normal position within the eye socket, leading to a bulging appearance. This condition can cause various symptoms, including eye pain, redness, double vision, and limited eye movement. Prompt medical attention is necessary to diagnose and treat the underlying cause of proptosis to prevent any potential complications and preserve vision.

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65. Removal of gum tissue

Explanation

A gingivectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of gum tissue. This procedure is commonly performed to treat certain gum diseases or to reshape the gums for cosmetic purposes. Bronchiectasis, on the other hand, is a lung condition characterized by the widening and inflammation of the bronchial tubes. There is no direct connection between bronchiectasis and gingivectomy, making it an incorrect answer.

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66. There are no specific tests or documentation procedures available for the rape victim

Explanation

The statement is false because there are indeed specific tests and documentation procedures available for rape victims. These procedures include a forensic medical examination to collect evidence, such as DNA samples, photographs, and documentation of injuries. Additionally, victims may undergo tests for sexually transmitted infections and pregnancy. These procedures are crucial for the investigation and prosecution of rape cases, as well as for the well-being and support of the victims.

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67. Not open

Explanation

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68. Destruction of blood

Explanation

Hemolysis refers to the destruction of red blood cells, leading to the release of hemoglobin into the surrounding fluid. This can occur due to various factors such as infections, autoimmune disorders, or certain medications. The correct answer, "hemolysis," accurately describes this process of blood destruction.

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69. Food tube is not connected to the stomach from birth

Explanation

Congenital esophageal atresia is the most suitable explanation for the given correct answer because it refers to a birth defect where the esophagus, the food tube, is not properly connected to the stomach. This condition requires surgical intervention, known as herniorrhaphy, to repair the defect and establish a connection between the esophagus and stomach. Therefore, congenital esophageal atresia is the correct answer that aligns with the information provided.

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70. Pertaining to the cheek

Explanation

The word "buccal" refers to something that is related to the cheek. In this context, it is the correct answer because it matches the description provided in the question. "Proptosis" means the displacement or protrusion of an organ or part, which is unrelated to the cheek. Therefore, "buccal" is the appropriate choice.

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71. Removal of the gallbladder

Explanation

Cholecystectomy refers to the surgical removal of the gallbladder. This procedure is typically performed to treat gallbladder diseases such as gallstones or inflammation. The term "cholecystectomy" is derived from "chole-" meaning bile, "-cyst-" meaning bladder, and "-ectomy" meaning removal. Therefore, cholecystectomy accurately describes the removal of the gallbladder.

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72. Narrowing of a ring of muscles

Explanation

Pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the pylorus, which is the ring of muscles that separates the stomach from the small intestine. This narrowing can lead to symptoms such as projectile vomiting, weight loss, and dehydration. Aphthous stomatitis, on the other hand, refers to painful ulcers in the mouth and does not involve the narrowing of any muscles. Therefore, the correct answer is pyloric stenosis.

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73. The hpi must be documented in the medical record by

Explanation

The correct answer is "the physician" because the HPI (History of Present Illness) is an important component of the medical record that provides crucial information about the patient's symptoms, their duration, severity, and any associated factors. Since the HPI requires medical expertise to accurately document and interpret, it is the responsibility of the physician to record this information in the medical record. Office staff members and patients may provide additional information, but the physician is ultimately responsible for documenting the HPI.

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74. Ulcers and inflammation of the mouth

Explanation

Aphthous stomatitis refers to ulcers and inflammation of the mouth. This condition is characterized by the formation of small, painful sores or ulcers on the inside of the mouth, including the tongue, gums, and inner cheeks. It is believed to be caused by a combination of factors, including immune system dysfunction, stress, and certain foods. The ulcers can be quite painful and can interfere with eating and speaking. Treatment usually involves managing symptoms and promoting healing, such as using topical medications or mouthwashes to relieve pain and reduce inflammation.

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75. ______ is a sever systemic infection transmitted by a tic and characterized by a maculopapular rash small hemorrhages under the skin and involvement of vital organs

Explanation

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is a severe systemic infection transmitted by a tick. It is characterized by a maculopapular rash, small hemorrhages under the skin, and involvement of vital organs. This infectious disease is caused by the bacterium Rickettsia rickettsii and is most commonly found in North and South America. It is important to diagnose and treat Rocky Mountain spotted fever promptly, as it can be fatal if left untreated.

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76. Abnormal condition of the lip

Explanation

Cheilosis is the correct answer. Cheilosis refers to an abnormal condition of the lips, characterized by dryness, cracking, and inflammation. It is often caused by a deficiency of certain vitamins, such as riboflavin (vitamin B2) or iron. The other options, chielosis and cielosis, are incorrect spellings and do not exist as medical terms.

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77. Victims of elder abuse are eager to admit to being victims

Explanation

Elder abuse is a sensitive and often stigmatized issue, making many victims reluctant to admit or disclose their experiences. This could be due to fear of retaliation, shame, or dependence on the abuser. Therefore, it is not accurate to say that victims of elder abuse are eager to admit to being victims.

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78. Treatment of frostbite includes vigorous massage of the affected area

Explanation

The statement is false. The treatment of frostbite does not include vigorous massage of the affected area. Vigorous massage can actually cause further damage to the tissues and worsen the condition. The correct treatment for frostbite includes gradually rewarming the affected area, keeping it elevated, and protecting it from further exposure to cold.

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79. Palatoplasty

Explanation

Palatoplasty refers to the surgical repair of the roof of the mouth, specifically the palate. This procedure is commonly performed to correct a cleft palate, a birth defect where there is a gap or split in the roof of the mouth. By surgically repairing the palate, the goal is to improve speech, swallowing, and overall oral function. It is important to note that palatoplasty is not related to overgrowth of gum tissue or the surgical repair of the tongue.

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80. Gingivitis

Explanation

Periodontal disease refers to a group of inflammatory conditions that affect the tissues surrounding the teeth, including the gums, bone, and ligaments. It is caused by bacteria in plaque, which leads to inflammation and infection. Gingivitis, on the other hand, is the earliest stage of periodontal disease and refers specifically to inflammation of the gums. Gingivectomy is a surgical procedure to remove excess gum tissue. Therefore, the correct answer, periodontal disease, encompasses both gingivitis and other more advanced stages of the condition.

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81. Painful menstruation

Explanation

Dysmenorrhea is the correct answer because it refers to painful menstruation. Dyspepsia, on the other hand, is a medical term for indigestion and is not related to menstruation. Therefore, dysmenorrhea is the most appropriate term to describe the condition of painful menstrual periods.

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82. A patient with frequent gastric distress says that she would rather ontinue to self medicate with bicarb that take the antacid agent that her doctor has recommended. she states that she has needed to get relief more often lately and feels that she cannot afford to take a more expensive remedy. what should you say

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the patient may be experiencing acid rebound, which is a phenomenon that occurs when the acid in the stomach is quickly neutralized. The answer also shows empathy towards the patient's financial concerns by offering to provide samples of the recommended antacid agent. This response addresses the patient's concerns and offers a potential solution without dismissing or encouraging the continued use of baking soda.

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83. Pertaining to the cheek

Explanation

The correct answer is "buccal." Buccal refers to something that is related to or pertaining to the cheek. In this context, it is the correct spelling for describing something that is specifically related to the cheek area.

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84. Foreign bodies in the ear may include

Explanation

Foreign bodies in the ear can include bugs and insects, cereal, peas, beans, grapes, pebbles, and cotton. This means that all of the options listed (bugs and insects, cereal, peas, beans, grapes, pebbles, and cotton) can be considered as foreign bodies that may be found in the ear.

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85. The level of e/m service is based on

Explanation

The level of E/M service is based on all of the above factors. Documentation, key components, and contributing factors all play a role in determining the appropriate level of E/M service. Documentation refers to the medical records and notes that support the level of service provided. Key components are specific elements of the service, such as history, examination, and medical decision making. Contributing factors can include the complexity of the patient's condition, the amount of time spent with the patient, and any additional resources required.

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86. According to information in 99468 what is that age of a neonate

Explanation

The correct answer is 28 days or younger. This means that a neonate is defined as a baby who is less than or equal to 28 days old. This information is supported by the given answer choice.

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87. The physician must consider multiple diagnoses and management options there is a moderate amount of data to be reviewed and the risk of complications or death is moderate what is the level of mdm

Explanation

The level of MDM is moderate because the physician needs to consider multiple diagnoses and management options. Additionally, there is a moderate amount of data to be reviewed and the risk of complications or death is also moderate. This indicates that the decision-making process is not simple or straightforward, but it is also not highly complex or high-risk. Therefore, the appropriate level of MDM in this scenario is moderate.

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88. Difficult swallowing

Explanation

Dysphagia is the correct answer because it is a medical term that refers to the difficulty or discomfort experienced while swallowing. It can be caused by various factors such as muscle weakness, nerve damage, or structural abnormalities in the throat or esophagus. The other options, "dysfagia" and "disphagia," are misspellings of the term "dysphagia."

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89. Pertaining to the abdomen

Explanation

The correct answer is "celiac." This term refers to something that is related to or associated with the abdomen. It can be used to describe conditions, organs, or structures that are located in or pertain to the abdominal region of the body.

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90. The rule of nines is used to calculate

Explanation

The rule of nines is a method used to estimate the percentage of body surface area affected by burns. This method divides the body into regions, each representing 9% or a multiple of 9% of the total body surface area. By assessing the extent of burns in each region, healthcare professionals can calculate the total percentage of body surface affected by burns. This information is crucial for determining the severity of the burns, planning treatment, and estimating fluid resuscitation requirements.

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91. An older adult patient who has been taking mineral oil for relief of constipation does not want to take the psyllium that her doctor has recommended for daily use she says that the oil works when she gets clogged up and its much cheaper than that powdered stuff what facts should be explained to the patient

Explanation

Mineral oil can interfere with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. This means that the patient may not be getting enough essential vitamins like A, D, E, and K, which are important for overall health. While mineral oil may provide temporary relief for constipation, it is not a suitable long-term solution. Additionally, it is important for the patient's bowels to move at least once a day for proper digestive health. Restricting fluid intake can actually worsen constipation, so it is important to stay hydrated. Magnesium citrate is a better daily remedy for constipation as it helps to stimulate bowel movements.

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92. In what location does digestion of food begin

Explanation

Digestion of food begins in the mouth. The process starts with the mechanical breakdown of food through chewing, which increases the surface area for enzymes to act upon. Saliva, secreted by the salivary glands, contains enzymes such as amylase that initiate the chemical digestion of carbohydrates. This enzyme breaks down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars. Therefore, the mouth plays a crucial role in the initial stages of digestion before the partially digested food moves down the esophagus into the stomach.

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93. In electrical shock the current

Explanation

In electrical shock, the current follows the path of least resistance. This means that the electricity will flow through the path that offers the least opposition or impedance. This is because materials with lower resistance allow the current to flow more easily. Therefore, when a person experiences an electrical shock, the current will typically follow the path of least resistance through their body, which can cause harm and injury.

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94. Complications of survivors of lightning strikes include

Explanation

Survivors of lightning strikes can experience various complications, including cataracts, cervical spine injuries, and ruptured tympanic membranes. Cataracts refer to the clouding of the lens in the eye, which can cause blurred vision or blindness. Cervical spine injuries involve damage to the neck region, which can result in paralysis or other neurological deficits. Ruptured tympanic membranes indicate damage to the eardrums, leading to hearing loss or ear infections. Therefore, all of the mentioned complications can occur in survivors of lightning strikes.

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95. Medical decision making (mdm) is based on the ____ the physician must consider about the management of a patients condition

Explanation

Medical decision making (MDM) is a complex process that involves considering various factors related to the management of a patient's condition. The number of diagnoses is important as it helps the physician understand the complexity of the patient's condition and determine appropriate treatment options. The risk of morbidity is crucial in assessing the potential harm or complications that may arise from different management approaches. Additionally, the amount of data available, such as medical history, test results, and patient preferences, plays a significant role in making informed decisions. Therefore, all of these factors are essential considerations in medical decision making.

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96. Anastomosis

Explanation

Cholecystojejunostomy is a surgical procedure that involves creating a connection between the gallbladder and the jejunum (part of the small intestine). It is typically performed to bypass a blockage in the common bile duct or to treat conditions such as gallstones or tumors. By creating this connection, bile from the gallbladder can flow directly into the small intestine, bypassing the blocked or damaged bile ducts. This helps to restore the normal flow of bile and aids in digestion.

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97. Visual examination of the abdomen

Explanation

Laparoscopy is a procedure that involves the visual examination of the abdomen using a laparoscope, a thin tube with a camera attached to it. This minimally invasive technique allows doctors to view the internal organs and structures of the abdomen, such as the liver, colon, and intestines. It is commonly used for diagnostic purposes, to identify and evaluate conditions such as abdominal pain, tumors, and inflammation. Laparoscopy can also be used for surgical interventions, such as colectomy (removal of part or all of the colon) or enterorrhaphy (repair of an intestinal injury or defect).

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98. Bruising would be an element of review of this organ

Explanation

Bruising is typically associated with the hematologic system, which includes blood and blood-forming organs. The presence of bruising suggests that there may be an issue with clotting or bleeding disorders, indicating a hematologic problem. The integumentary system refers to the skin, hair, and nails, and does not directly relate to bruising. The neurologic and immunologic systems are also not directly related to bruising. Therefore, hematologic is the most appropriate choice as it aligns with the symptom mentioned in the question.

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99. Codes from the e/m subsection nursing facilities service are used to report services provided in nursing facilities that used to be known as

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above" because codes from the E/M subsection nursing facilities service can be used to report services provided in nursing facilities that were previously known as skilled nursing facilities, intermediate care facilities, or long-term care facilities.

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100. The person suffering from hypothermia experiences

Explanation

When a person is suffering from hypothermia, their body temperature drops significantly, leading to various symptoms. Shivering is a common response of the body to generate heat and increase the core temperature. Disorientation is another symptom as the brain function is impaired due to the low body temperature. Fatigue is also experienced as the body's energy levels decrease. Therefore, all of the above options are correct as they are commonly observed symptoms in a person suffering from hypothermia.

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101. Physical patterns observed in child abuse include

Explanation

The physical patterns observed in child abuse include bruising and burns, observable injuries such as teeth marks, welts, and fractures. This means that all of the mentioned options are correct and can be observed in cases of child abuse.

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102. Which of the following acts on the nerve endings in the intestinal wall to effectively reduce diarrhea

Explanation

Imodium acts on the nerve endings in the intestinal wall to effectively reduce diarrhea. It is an antidiarrheal medication that works by slowing down the movement of the intestines, which helps to decrease the frequency and urgency of bowel movements. By acting on the nerve endings, Imodium helps to regulate and control the excessive motility of the intestines that leads to diarrhea. This medication is commonly used to treat acute and chronic diarrhea caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or gastrointestinal disorders.

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103. An ulcer would likely be detected by which of the following tests

Explanation

Gastroscopy is the most appropriate test for detecting an ulcer. It involves inserting a thin, flexible tube with a camera into the stomach to examine the lining and identify any ulcers. Cholecystography is used to examine the gallbladder, serum hepatitis B surface antigen is a blood test for hepatitis B, intravenous cholangiogram is used to visualize the bile ducts, and an abdominal CT scan is a diagnostic imaging test that provides detailed images of the abdomen. However, none of these tests are specifically designed to detect ulcers like gastroscopy.

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104. Opposite of -ectasis

Explanation

The term "ectasis" refers to the dilation or expansion of a tubular structure in the body. Therefore, the opposite of ectasis would be the narrowing or constriction of a tubular structure. The term "stenosis" fits this description as it refers to the abnormal narrowing of a passage or opening in the body.

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105. Enlargement of the liver

Explanation

The correct answer is "hepatomegaly." Hepatomegaly refers to the enlargement of the liver. It is a medical term used to describe a condition where the liver becomes larger than its normal size. This can be caused by various factors such as liver disease, alcohol abuse, infections, or certain medications. Hepatomegaly can be detected through physical examination or imaging tests, and its treatment depends on the underlying cause.

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106. As a deterrent to overdosing with lomotil which of the following is added to the medication

Explanation

Atropine is added to lomotil as a deterrent to overdosing because it acts as an antagonist to the effects of lomotil. Lomotil is an antidiarrheal medication that contains diphenoxylate, which can be abused due to its opioid-like effects. Atropine, when combined with diphenoxylate, discourages excessive consumption by causing unpleasant side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention. This combination helps prevent abuse and misuse of lomotil, promoting its safe and appropriate use.

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107. Difficult digestion

Explanation

Dyspepsia refers to a condition characterized by difficult digestion or indigestion. It is a common term used to describe a range of symptoms such as bloating, discomfort, and pain in the upper abdomen. This condition can be caused by various factors including overeating, eating too quickly, consuming fatty or spicy foods, or having a stomach infection. Dyspepsia is not a specific medical condition but rather a collection of symptoms related to digestion.

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108. Bursting forth of blood from the spleen

Explanation

Splenorrhagia refers to the bursting forth of blood from the spleen. This condition can occur due to trauma or a ruptured blood vessel in the spleen. It is characterized by severe bleeding and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Splenomegaly, on the other hand, refers to an enlarged spleen, while spleenectasis refers to the dilation or stretching of the spleen. Neither of these conditions specifically involves the bursting forth of blood from the spleen. Therefore, the correct answer is splenorrhagia.

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109. Spitting up blood

Explanation

Hemoptysis is the medical term used to describe the condition of spitting up blood. It occurs when there is bleeding from the respiratory tract, usually from the lungs or airways. This can be caused by various factors such as infections, lung diseases, or even certain types of cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing hemoptysis, as it can be a sign of a serious underlying condition that needs to be diagnosed and treated.

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110. Suture

Explanation

The correct answer is "-rrhaphy." This suffix is commonly used in medical terminology to refer to the surgical procedure of suturing or stitching a wound or incision. It is derived from the Greek word "rháphē" which means "to sew." Therefore, "-rrhaphy" is the most appropriate choice as it directly relates to the term "suture."

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111. Pyloric stenosis

Explanation

The correct answer is "narrowing of the opening between the stomach and intestine." Pyloric stenosis refers to the narrowing of the pylorus, which is the opening between the stomach and the small intestine. This condition can cause symptoms like vomiting, poor feeding, and weight loss, especially in infants. Gastric ulcer, hiatal hernia, cardiospasm, and achalasia are not related to the narrowing of the opening between the stomach and intestine.

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112. The hospital inpatient services subsection is used for patients admitted to

Explanation

The hospital inpatient services subsection is used for patients admitted to an acute care facility. This means that it is specifically designed for patients who require specialized medical care and treatment in a hospital setting. Skilled nursing facilities and temporary units are not considered acute care facilities, and a hospital observation unit is typically used for short-term monitoring rather than full inpatient care. Therefore, the correct answer is an acute care facility.

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113. When a physician performs a preventive care service the extent of the exam is determined by the

Explanation

The extent of the exam when a physician performs a preventive care service is determined by the age of the patient. This means that the type and depth of the examination will vary depending on the age group the patient belongs to. Different age groups have different health risks and requirements, so tailoring the preventive care service based on age is essential to address specific health concerns and provide appropriate recommendations or interventions.

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114. Which of the following may cause peptic ulcers

Explanation

Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium that can cause peptic ulcers. It infects the lining of the stomach and small intestine, leading to inflammation and the formation of ulcers. This bacterium is commonly transmitted through contaminated food and water, and it can survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. The presence of H. pylori can disrupt the balance of protective mechanisms in the stomach, allowing acid and other digestive juices to damage the lining and form ulcers. Treatment usually involves antibiotics to eradicate the infection and reduce the risk of recurrent ulcers.

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115. Forward protrusion of the eye

Explanation

Proptosis refers to the abnormal forward protrusion of the eye from the eye socket. This condition can be caused by various factors such as trauma, infection, inflammation, or tumors. It is often associated with conditions like Graves' disease or orbital cellulitis. Proptosis can cause symptoms like eye pain, double vision, and difficulty closing the eyelids. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, surgery, or radiation therapy.

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116. Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen

Explanation

Ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, often caused by liver disease. Paracentesis is a surgical procedure where a needle is inserted into the abdomen to remove the accumulated fluid. Therefore, the correct answer for the given question is ascites, as it is the condition that requires surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen.

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117. A soft tissue injury in which the outer layer of the skin has been scraped away is an

Explanation

An abrasion is a type of soft tissue injury where the outer layer of the skin has been scraped away. This can occur due to friction or rubbing against a rough surface, causing the skin to become scraped and damaged. Unlike an avulsion or amputation where there is a more severe loss of tissue, an abrasion typically involves only the superficial layers of the skin. An incision, on the other hand, refers to a deliberate cut made with a sharp object, which is not applicable in this case. Therefore, the correct answer is abrasion.

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118. The legal responsibilities of the health care provider in battered spouse syndrome

Explanation

The legal responsibilities of healthcare providers in cases of battered spouse syndrome vary by state but should be known. This means that the specific legal obligations and duties that healthcare providers have when dealing with patients who are victims of domestic violence may differ depending on the state in which they practice. However, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these legal responsibilities in order to provide appropriate care and support to individuals affected by battered spouse syndrome.

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119. Which of the following would be the most appropriate medication for relief of severe nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy

Explanation

Zofran would be the most appropriate medication for relief of severe nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy. Zofran, also known as ondansetron, is a powerful antiemetic medication that works by blocking the action of serotonin in the body. It is commonly used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Zofran is well-tolerated, effective, and has minimal side effects, making it a preferred choice for managing severe nausea and vomiting in cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy.

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120. Which of the following is commonly used to evacuate the bowels before surgery

Explanation

Magnesium citrate is commonly used to evacuate the bowels before surgery. It is a laxative that works by drawing water into the intestines, resulting in increased bowel movements. This helps to clear the bowels and remove any waste or stool before a surgical procedure. Mineral oil and methylcellulose are also laxatives, but they are not commonly used for bowel evacuation before surgery. Magnesium hydroxide, also known as milk of magnesia, is another laxative but it is typically used for relieving constipation rather than bowel evacuation before surgery.

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121. Critical care codes are reported based on

Explanation

Critical care codes are reported based on the three key components: time, amount of documentation, and procedures performed. Time is an important factor in determining the level of critical care provided. The more time spent by the healthcare provider in direct face-to-face contact with the patient, the higher the level of critical care reported. This is because critical care requires intense monitoring and management of a patient's condition. The amount of documentation and the procedures performed also play a role in determining the appropriate code for reporting critical care services.

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122. Treatment of snakebite includes

Explanation

The correct answer is keeping the victim quiet and transporting to an emergency facility. This is because snakebites can be life-threatening, and it is important to keep the victim calm and still to slow down the spread of venom. Transporting them to an emergency facility allows for proper medical treatment, such as the administration of antivenom, if necessary. Applying a tourniquet or ice is not recommended as it can potentially worsen the situation by restricting blood flow or causing tissue damage.

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123. Which of the following provides a mechanical barrier to gastric ulcers

Explanation

Carafate provides a mechanical barrier to gastric ulcers. It forms a protective coating over the ulcer site, acting as a physical barrier that prevents further damage from stomach acid and other irritants. This barrier allows the ulcer to heal by providing a protective environment for the damaged tissue.

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124. The soft tissue injury that occurs when a body part becomes entangled or entrapped resulting in skin tissue and bone being pulled from the body is a(an)

Explanation

Avulsion refers to a soft tissue injury where a body part gets entangled or entrapped, causing the skin tissue and bone to be pulled away from the body. This type of injury involves the tearing or separation of a body structure, such as a muscle or tendon, from its normal attachment site. It is different from laceration, which is a cut or tear in the skin or flesh, incision, which is a deliberate cut made during surgery, and abrasion, which is a superficial injury to the skin caused by rubbing or scraping.

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125. Record of bile vessels

Explanation

A cholangiogram is a medical imaging procedure that is used to visualize the bile vessels. It involves injecting a contrast dye into the bile ducts and then taking X-ray images to examine the flow of the dye. This procedure is commonly performed to diagnose and evaluate conditions such as gallstones, bile duct obstructions, and tumors. The term "colangiogram" is a misspelling of cholangiogram, and "choleangiogram" is a term that is not commonly used in medical practice. Therefore, the correct answer is cholangiogram.

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126. A burn that involves destruction of the skin and underlying tissue is termed

Explanation

A burn that involves destruction of the skin and underlying tissue is termed "full thickness." This type of burn penetrates through all layers of the skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue. Full thickness burns are typically characterized by a dry, leathery appearance and may require surgical intervention, such as skin grafting, for proper healing.

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127. Spitting up blood from the respiratory tract and lungs

Explanation

Hemoptysis refers to the act of spitting up blood from the respiratory tract and lungs. It is different from hematemesis, which is the vomiting of blood, and hemorrhage, which is the excessive bleeding from blood vessels. Hyperemesis refers to severe vomiting, while hemolysis is the breakdown of red blood cells. Therefore, hemoptysis is the most appropriate term to describe the given scenario.

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128. New opening between two parts of the jejunum

Explanation

Jejunojejunostomy is the correct answer because it refers to a surgical procedure where a new opening is created between two parts of the jejunum. This procedure is often performed to treat certain conditions such as intestinal obstruction or to bypass a diseased segment of the jejunum. The other options, duodenostomy, dudenojejunostomy, jejunostomy, and jejunocecal anastomosis, do not accurately describe the specific procedure of creating a new opening between two parts of the jejunum.

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129. Which test is not a liver function test

Explanation

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic procedure used to examine the bile ducts and pancreatic ducts. It is not a liver function test, but rather a procedure that allows visualization of the structures in the liver and pancreas. On the other hand, serum bilirubin, ALP (alkaline phosphatase), AST (aspartate aminotransferase), and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are all commonly used liver function tests that measure specific enzymes or substances in the blood to assess liver health and function.

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130. Salivary stones

Explanation

Sialolithiasis refers to the formation of stones, also known as calculi, within the salivary glands. These stones can obstruct the flow of saliva and cause symptoms such as pain, swelling, and difficulty in eating or speaking. Treatment for sialolithiasis may involve techniques like lithotripsy, which uses shock waves to break down the stones, or surgical removal if the stones are large or causing severe symptoms. Cholecystolithiasis refers to the presence of stones in the gallbladder, renal calculi refers to kidney stones, and nephroptosis refers to the downward displacement of the kidney.

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131. These elements would be part of the ____ history: employment, education use of drugs

Explanation

The given elements of employment, education, and drug use are all related to social aspects of an individual's life. Social history refers to the study of an individual's background, experiences, and interactions within society. It encompasses various aspects such as employment, education, and even substance abuse. Therefore, the elements mentioned in the question would be part of an individual's social history.

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132. The examination is the ____ portion of the e/m service

Explanation

The correct answer is "objective" because in the context of an e/m service, the examination refers to the objective evaluation of the patient's physical condition. This typically involves the healthcare provider gathering information through observation, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. The subjective portion of the e/m service pertains to the patient's symptoms, history, and any subjective information provided by the patient. The assessment and plan refer to the healthcare provider's diagnosis and proposed treatment for the patient.

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133. In addition to treating a gastric ph that allows pepsin to function hydrochloric acid also provides which of the following functions

Explanation

Hydrochloric acid in the stomach not only helps to maintain the optimal pH for pepsin to function, but it also serves the function of killing or inhibiting microorganisms that may enter the stomach. This is important for preventing the growth of harmful bacteria or pathogens that can cause infections or illnesses. By creating an acidic environment, hydrochloric acid acts as a defense mechanism against these microorganisms, helping to protect the body from potential infections.

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134. Drooping, sagging, prolapse

Explanation

Ptosis is the correct answer because it refers to the medical condition of drooping or sagging of an organ or tissue. It can occur in various parts of the body, but is commonly associated with the eyelid drooping. The terms "drooping," "sagging," and "prolapse" all describe similar conditions, but "ptosis" specifically refers to the drooping of an organ or tissue.

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135. What cpt code is assigned to an ed service that has a detailed history and exam with a moderate level of mdm

Explanation

The correct answer is 99284. This code is assigned to an ED service that involves a detailed history and exam with a moderate level of medical decision making (MDM). MDM refers to the complexity of establishing a diagnosis and determining a treatment plan. In this case, the service provided in the ED includes a thorough evaluation of the patient's condition, a comprehensive examination, and a moderate level of complexity in determining the appropriate course of action.

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136. Tetanus toxoid prophylaxis is important in any person who has sustained open trauma because

Explanation

The correct answer is "organisms that cause tetanus enter the body directly into the bloodstream through wounds." Tetanus is caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani, which can enter the body through open wounds. It produces a toxin that affects the nervous system and can lead to severe muscle stiffness and spasms. Therefore, tetanus toxoid prophylaxis is important to prevent infection and the associated complications. The other options, boosters required throughout life and tetanus toxoid being a broad spectrum antibiotic, are not accurate explanations for why tetanus toxoid prophylaxis is important.

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137. Because of the occurrence of mental disturbances, tagamet is not recommended for use with which of the following

Explanation

Tagamet is not recommended for use with older adult patients because it can cause mental disturbances. Older adults are more susceptible to the side effects of medications, including cognitive impairments and confusion. Therefore, it is important to avoid using Tagamet in this population to prevent exacerbation of mental disturbances.

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138. Flow, discharge

Explanation

The correct answer is "-rrhea". This is because "-rrhea" is a suffix that means "flow" or "discharge". It is commonly used in medical terms to indicate an abnormal or excessive flow or discharge of a substance, such as diarrhea (excessive flow of stool) or rhinorrhea (excessive flow of nasal mucus). The other options listed (-ptysis, -emesis, -rrhaphy, -phagia) do not have the same meaning as "-rrhea" and are not related to flow or discharge.

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139. The request for advice or opinion from one physician to another physician is this type of service

Explanation

A consultation refers to the request for advice or opinion from one physician to another physician. It involves seeking guidance or expertise from another healthcare professional to help with the diagnosis, treatment, or management of a patient's condition. This type of service allows physicians to collaborate and exchange information in order to provide the best possible care for the patient.

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140. Cumulative trauma disorders include

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above" because cumulative trauma disorders refer to a group of conditions that result from repetitive or prolonged use of certain body parts. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common cumulative trauma disorder that affects the wrist and hand, causing numbness and tingling. White finger, also known as Raynaud's phenomenon, is another cumulative trauma disorder that affects the blood vessels in the fingers, causing them to turn white or blue. Synovitis is inflammation of the synovial membrane, which can occur due to repetitive motion. Therefore, all three conditions mentioned in the options are examples of cumulative trauma disorders.

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141. Which of the following is used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis

Explanation

Viokase is used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs, pancreas, and other organs. Viokase is a pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy that helps improve digestion in individuals with cystic fibrosis by replacing the enzymes that are not produced properly due to the disease. This medication helps in the breakdown and absorption of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates in the body, aiding in better nutrient absorption and overall health management for individuals with cystic fibrosis.

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142. Dilation of a lymph vessel

Explanation

Lymphangiectasis refers to the dilation or enlargement of a lymph vessel. This condition can occur due to various factors such as infection, inflammation, or obstruction of the lymphatic system. It is characterized by the abnormal expansion of lymphatic vessels, leading to impaired lymphatic drainage and fluid accumulation. This can result in symptoms such as swelling, pain, and discomfort in the affected area. Treatment options for lymphangiectasis may include compression therapy, surgical intervention, or management of the underlying cause.

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143. Esophageal atresia

Explanation

Esophageal atresia is a congenital condition where the esophagus does not properly connect to the stomach, resulting in the esophagus not opening to the stomach at birth. This means that there is a blockage or obstruction preventing food and fluids from passing through the esophagus into the stomach. The other options mentioned, such as a new opening of the esophagus into the stomach, dilated esophagus, and twisted veins around the esophagus, are not characteristic of esophageal atresia.

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144. Lipase is

Explanation

Lipase is an enzyme that specifically digests fat. It breaks down dietary fats into smaller molecules, such as fatty acids and glycerol, which can be easily absorbed and utilized by the body. Lipase is produced primarily in the pancreas and is essential for the digestion and absorption of dietary fats in the small intestine. Therefore, the correct answer is "an enzyme that digests fat".

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145. Heavy mestrual discharge

Explanation

Menorrhagia refers to abnormally heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding. It is characterized by excessive menstrual flow, lasting longer than the usual duration, and requiring frequent pad or tampon changes. This condition can be caused by hormonal imbalances, uterine fibroids, polyps, or certain medical conditions. Unlike dysmenorrhea, which refers to painful menstruation, menorrhagia focuses specifically on the heavy flow. Hemorrhage, on the other hand, is a more general term for excessive bleeding, which can occur in different parts of the body. Hematemesis refers specifically to vomiting blood and is unrelated to menstrual bleeding.

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146. Twisting of part of the intestine upon itself

Explanation

Cecal volvulus refers to the twisting of the cecum, a part of the intestine, upon itself. This condition can lead to a blockage in the intestine, causing symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. Proctosigmoidoscopy is a procedure used to examine the rectum and sigmoid colon. Pyloric stenosis is a narrowing of the opening between the stomach and small intestine. Biliary atresia is a condition where the bile ducts inside or outside the liver are blocked or absent. Rectal stenosis is a narrowing of the rectum.

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147. Periodontal procedure

Explanation

A gingivectomy is a periodontal procedure that involves the surgical removal of gum tissue to treat gum disease or to improve the appearance of the gums. It is commonly performed to remove excess gum tissue that may be covering the teeth or to remove infected gum tissue that cannot be treated with non-surgical methods. This procedure helps to reduce pocket depths, improve oral hygiene, and restore gum health.

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148. The physician performs and extended exam of the affected body areas and related organ systems what is the level of the examination

Explanation

The level of examination is "detailed" because the physician is performing an extended exam of the affected body areas and related organ systems. This suggests that the examination is thorough and comprehensive, involving a detailed analysis of the patient's condition.

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149. Which of the following is an antiemetic agent used to control nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy

Explanation

Kytril is an antiemetic agent used to control nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. It belongs to a class of drugs called serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonists, which work by blocking the action of serotonin in the body. This helps to prevent nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy. Dramamine, Compazine, and Antivert are also used to treat motion sickness and vertigo, but they are not specifically indicated for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

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150. Which test would tell the presence of melena

Explanation

Stool guaiac is a test used to detect the presence of blood in the stool, including occult blood that is not visible to the naked eye. Melena refers to the passage of black, tarry stools, which is often indicative of upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, stool guaiac would be the appropriate test to determine the presence of melena by detecting the presence of blood in the stool.

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151. Which test would demonstrate choledocholithiasis

Explanation

Transhepatic cholangiography is a test used to demonstrate choledocholithiasis, which is the presence of gallstones in the common bile duct. This procedure involves injecting contrast dye into the liver, which then flows into the bile ducts and helps visualize any blockages or stones. It is a direct and effective method for diagnosing choledocholithiasis. Barium enema, gastric intubation, upper GI series, and gastric endoscopy are not typically used to diagnose or demonstrate choledocholithiasis.

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152. Treatment of a puncture wound includes

Explanation

The correct answer is copious irrigation of the wound. When treating a puncture wound, it is important to thoroughly clean the wound by irrigating it with a large amount of fluid. This helps to remove any debris or bacteria that may be present in the wound, reducing the risk of infection. Scrubbing the wound with a brush and approximating the wound edges for suturing are not recommended as they can further damage the tissues and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the most appropriate and effective method for treating a puncture wound is copious irrigation.

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153. The individual who has a body temp above 105 degrees F red hot and dry skin headache dizziness and shortness of breath is experiencing

Explanation

The individual described in the question is experiencing heat stroke. Heat stroke occurs when the body's temperature rises above 105 degrees F, leading to symptoms such as red hot and dry skin, headache, dizziness, and shortness of breath. Heat exhaustion, on the other hand, is characterized by heavy sweating, weakness, and fainting. Hypothermia refers to a dangerously low body temperature. Therefore, the correct answer is heat stroke.

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154. Treatment of a laceration includes

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above". This means that the treatment of a laceration includes all of the mentioned options: gentle cleansing and approximation and securing the edges, debridement suturing and sterile dressing application, and the use of tissue glue. These are common methods used to treat lacerations, with the goal of cleaning the wound, bringing the edges together, removing any dead or contaminated tissue, and providing a sterile environment for healing.

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155. Mr smith presents to the emergency department at the local hospital for chest pain and is seen by the ed physician on duty the physician obtains an extended hpi an extended ros and a pertinent pfsh. what is the level of history

Explanation

The level of history is "detailed" because the physician obtained an extended history of present illness (HPI), an extended review of systems (ROS), and a pertinent past, family, and social history (PFSH). These components go beyond just focusing on the patient's chief complaint and provide a more comprehensive understanding of the patient's medical background and current condition.

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156. Common bile duct

Explanation

The term "choledoch/o" refers to the common bile duct. The other terms listed, such as "cholecyst/o" (gallbladder), "celi/o" (abdomen), "cholelith/o" (gallstone), and "cheil/o" (lip), do not specifically relate to the common bile duct. Therefore, "choledoch/o" is the correct answer in this context.

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157. Which of the following is a protective substance found in the stomach

Explanation

Mucin is a protective substance found in the stomach. It is a glycoprotein that forms a layer of mucus on the stomach lining, acting as a protective barrier against the acidic environment and preventing damage to the stomach tissues. This mucus layer also helps in lubricating the food, aiding in its movement through the digestive system. Pepsin is an enzyme responsible for protein digestion, ptyalin is an enzyme found in saliva that helps break down carbohydrates, and rennin is an enzyme involved in the digestion of milk proteins.

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158. Compression of the brachial plexus nerves may also be called

Explanation

Compression of the brachial plexus nerves refers to a condition known as thoracic outlet syndrome. This occurs when the nerves in the brachial plexus, a network of nerves that control movement and sensation in the arm, shoulder, and hand, become compressed or irritated. This compression can result in symptoms such as pain, numbness, and weakness in the affected arm. Thoracic outlet syndrome can be caused by various factors, including poor posture, trauma, or anatomical abnormalities, and it is typically treated with physical therapy, pain management, and in some cases, surgery.

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159. Which of the following statements is true with regard to fecal softeners

Explanation

Fecal softeners are not irritating to the gastric mucosa, which means they do not cause irritation or inflammation in the stomach lining. Additionally, they may need to be taken on a regular daily basis to maintain their effectiveness.

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160. According to e/m guideline a ____ exam encompasses a complete single specialty exam or complete multisystem exam

Explanation

According to the e/m guidelines, a detailed exam encompasses a comprehensive evaluation of a patient's specific problem(s) or a thorough examination of multiple organ systems. This level of exam goes beyond just focusing on a single problem or a limited number of body areas, and involves a more extensive assessment of the patient's medical condition.

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161. The code range for home services is

Explanation

The given code range, 99341-99350, represents the range of codes for home services. This range allows for a total of 10 different codes, starting from 99341 and ending at 99350. These codes are likely used to categorize and identify specific types of home services provided.

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Spitting up blood
Complete the following blanks that refer to the three factors that the...
The four types of patient status are :...
The _________________ is a statement descriving the reason for the...
Modifier ____ is used to indicate that a separately identifiable e/m...
-pepsia
-ptysis
-emesis
-ptosis
-rrhagia
-phagia
-plasty
-ectasis
-stenosis
-lysis
-ptosis
-stasis
-rrhea
Difficult digestion: dys__________
Difficulty swallowing: dys_____
Vomiting blood hemat_______
Incision of the tongue gloss_________
Pertaining to the cheek ________al
Discharge of fat ________orrhea
Enlargement of the live hepato____________
Suture of the small intestine entero___________
No opening a_______
Inflammation of the mouth with small ulcers a_____stomatitis
-ase
-centesis
-chezia
-ectasia
-ectomy
-spams
-emia
-genesis
-graphy
-iasis
-lysis
-megaly
-orexia
-pathy
-pepsia
-phagia
-plasty
-prandial
-ptosis
-tresia
Dilation of a tube leading into the lung
An anastomosis
Difficult digestion
Suture of an abdominal protrusion
Only women are victims of spousal abuse
Pertaining to the common bile duct
Dna parentage testing is conclusive in determining genetic profiles of...
Vomiting blood
Surgical repair of the lip and mouth
Removal of the large bowel
Pertaining to the tongue and throat
Rust rings on the cornea may be the result of foreign bodies in the...
Carpal tunnel syndrome involves entrapment of the median nerve
Difficult swallowing
A patient who is taking warfarin phenytoin and diazepam asks if he can...
Forward protrusion of the eye
Removal of gum tissue
There are no specific tests or documentation procedures available for...
Not open
Destruction of blood
Food tube is not connected to the stomach from birth
Pertaining to the cheek
Removal of the gallbladder
Narrowing of a ring of muscles
The hpi must be documented in the medical record by
Ulcers and inflammation of the mouth
______ is a sever systemic infection transmitted by a tic and...
Abnormal condition of the lip
Victims of elder abuse are eager to admit to being victims
Treatment of frostbite includes vigorous massage of the affected area
Palatoplasty
Gingivitis
Painful menstruation
A patient with frequent gastric distress says that she would rather...
Pertaining to the cheek
Foreign bodies in the ear may include
The level of e/m service is based on
According to information in 99468 what is that age of a neonate
The physician must consider multiple diagnoses and management options...
Difficult swallowing
Pertaining to the abdomen
The rule of nines is used to calculate
An older adult patient who has been taking mineral oil for relief of...
In what location does digestion of food begin
In electrical shock the current
Complications of survivors of lightning strikes include
Medical decision making (mdm) is based on the ____ the physician must...
Anastomosis
Visual examination of the abdomen
Bruising would be an element of review of this organ
Codes from the e/m subsection nursing facilities service are used to...
The person suffering from hypothermia experiences
Physical patterns observed in child abuse include
Which of the following acts on the nerve endings in the intestinal...
An ulcer would likely be detected by which of the following tests
Opposite of -ectasis
Enlargement of the liver
As a deterrent to overdosing with lomotil which of the following is...
Difficult digestion
Bursting forth of blood from the spleen
Spitting up blood
Suture
Pyloric stenosis
The hospital inpatient services subsection is used for patients...
When a physician performs a preventive care service the extent of the...
Which of the following may cause peptic ulcers
Forward protrusion of the eye
Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen
A soft tissue injury in which the outer layer of the skin has been...
The legal responsibilities of the health care provider in battered...
Which of the following would be the most appropriate medication for...
Which of the following is commonly used to evacuate the bowels before...
Critical care codes are reported based on
Treatment of snakebite includes
Which of the following provides a mechanical barrier to gastric ulcers
The soft tissue injury that occurs when a body part becomes entangled...
Record of bile vessels
A burn that involves destruction of the skin and underlying tissue is...
Spitting up blood from the respiratory tract and lungs
New opening between two parts of the jejunum
Which test is not a liver function test
Salivary stones
These elements would be part of the ____ history: employment,...
The examination is the ____ portion of the e/m service
In addition to treating a gastric ph that allows pepsin to function...
Drooping, sagging, prolapse
What cpt code is assigned to an ed service that has a detailed history...
Tetanus toxoid prophylaxis is important in any person who has...
Because of the occurrence of mental disturbances, tagamet is not...
Flow, discharge
The request for advice or opinion from one physician to another...
Cumulative trauma disorders include
Which of the following is used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis
Dilation of a lymph vessel
Esophageal atresia
Lipase is
Heavy mestrual discharge
Twisting of part of the intestine upon itself
Periodontal procedure
The physician performs and extended exam of the affected body areas...
Which of the following is an antiemetic agent used to control nausea...
Which test would tell the presence of melena
Which test would demonstrate choledocholithiasis
Treatment of a puncture wound includes
The individual who has a body temp above 105 degrees F red hot and dry...
Treatment of a laceration includes
Mr smith presents to the emergency department at the local hospital...
Common bile duct
Which of the following is a protective substance found in the stomach
Compression of the brachial plexus nerves may also be called
Which of the following statements is true with regard to fecal...
According to e/m guideline a ____ exam encompasses a complete single...
The code range for home services is
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