LOM CHAP 6 SxS Chap 10 ESS. CHAP 15 PHARM CHAP 26
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Review mod 5 week 3
- 1.Spitting up blood from the respiratory tract and lungs
- A.
Hyperemesis
- B.
Hematemesis
- C.
Hemorrhage
- D.
Hemoptysis
- E.
Hemolysis
- 2.Suture
- A.
-rrhapy
- B.
-rrhagia
- C.
-ectasis
- D.
-stasis
- E.
-rrhaphy
- 3.New opening between two parts of the jejunum
- A.
Jejunojejunostomy
- B.
Duodenostomy
- C.
Dudenojejunostomy
- D.
Jejunostomy
- E.
Jejunocecal anastomosis
- 4.Dilation of a lymph vessel
- A.
Cholecystolithiasis
- B.
Lymphangiography
- C.
Lymphocytosis
- D.
Lymphangiectasis
- E.
Choledocholithiasis
- 5.Difficult digestion
- A.
Deglutition
- B.
Dysphagia
- C.
Aphagia
- D.
Polyphagia
- E.
Dyspepsia
- 6.Pyloric stenosis
- A.
Gastric ulcer
- B.
Narrowing of the opening between the stomach and intestine
- C.
Hiatal hernia
- D.
Cardiospasm
- E.
Achalasia
- 7.Which test would tell the presence of melena
- A.
Barium enema
- B.
Upper gi series
- C.
Stool culture
- D.
Stool guaiac
- E.
Abdominal ultrasonography
- 8.An ulcer would likely be detected by which of the following tests
- A.
Cholecystography
- B.
Serum hepatitis b surface antigen
- C.
Intravenous cholangiogram
- D.
Gastroscopy
- E.
Abdominal ct scan
- 9.Esophageal atresia
- A.
New opening of the esophagus into the stomach
- B.
Esophagus is dilated
- C.
Esophageal sphincter will not relax
- D.
Esophagus does not open to the stomach at birth
- E.
Twisted veins around the esophagus
- 10.Bursting forth of blood from the spleen
- A.
Spleenorrhagia
- B.
Splenorrhagia
- C.
Splenomegaly
- D.
Spleenomegaly
- E.
Spleenectasis
- 11.Lipase is
- A.
An enzyme that digests starch
- B.
An enzyme that digest protein
- C.
An enzyme that digests fat
- D.
A breakdown product of fat digestion
- E.
A hormone secreted by the pancreas
- 12.Palatoplasty
- A.
Surgical repair of the roof of the mouth
- B.
Over growth of gum tissue
- C.
Surgical repair of the tongue
- D.
Cleft palate
- E.
Prolapse of the palate
- 13.Which test is not a liver function test
- A.
Serum bilirubin
- B.
Alp
- C.
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography(ERCP)
- D.
Ast
- E.
Alt
- 14.Which test would demonstrate choledocholithiasis
- A.
Transhepatic cholangiography
- B.
Barium enema
- C.
Gastric intubation
- D.
Upper gi series
- E.
Gastric endoscopy
- 15.Opposite of -ectasis
- A.
-stenosis
- B.
-ptysis
- C.
-spasm
- D.
-stasis
- E.
-lysis
- 16.Flow, discharge
- A.
-ptysis
- B.
-emesis
- C.
-rrhaphy
- D.
-rrhea
- E.
-phagia
- 17.Anastomosis
- A.
Ileostomy
- B.
Duodenorrhaphy
- C.
Cholecystojejunostomy
- D.
Colostomy
- E.
Gingivectomy
- 18.Common bile duct
- A.
Cholecyst/o
- B.
Celi/o
- C.
Cholelith/o
- D.
Choledoch/o
- E.
Cheil/o
- 19.Forward protrusion of the eye
- A.
Oropharynx
- B.
Proptosis
- C.
Blepharoptosis
- D.
Rectocele
- E.
Herniorrhaphy
- 20.Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen
- A.
Cholestasis
- B.
Dyspepsia
- C.
Hemostasis
- D.
Ascites
- E.
Paracentesis
- 21.Twisting of part of the intestine upon itself
- A.
Proctosigmoidoscopy
- B.
Cecal volvulus
- C.
Pyloric stenosis
- D.
Biliary atresia
- E.
Rectal stenosis
- 22.Periodontal procedure
- A.
Glossotomy
- B.
Glycolysis
- C.
Gingivectomy
- D.
Biliary lithotripsy
- E.
Cheilostomatoplasty
- 23.Heavy mestrual discharge
- A.
Menorrhea
- B.
Hemorrhage
- C.
Dysmenorrhea
- D.
Menorrhagia
- E.
Hematemsis
- 24.Visual examination of the abdomen
- A.
Laparoscopy
- B.
Colonoscopy
- C.
Liver scan
- D.
Colectomy
- E.
Enterorrhaphy
- 25.Salivary stones
- A.
Lithotripsy
- B.
Cholecystolithiasis
- C.
Sialolithiasis
- D.
Renal calculi
- E.
Nephroptosis
- 26.Abnormal condition of the lip
- A.
Cheilosis
- B.
Chielosis
- C.
Cielosis
- 27.Pertaining to the cheek
- A.
Buckel
- B.
Buckal
- C.
Buccal
- 28.Drooping, sagging, prolapse
- A.
Tossis
- B.
Tosis
- C.
Ptosis
- 29.Record of bile vessels
- A.
Colangiogram
- B.
Cholangiogram
- C.
Choleangiogram
- 30.Not open
- A.
Treesia
- B.
Atresia
- C.
Atrezia
- 31.Spitting up blood
- A.
Hemmoptsyis
- B.
Hemotisis
- C.
Hemoptysis
- 32.Enlargement of the liver
- A.
Hepatomeagaly
- B.
Hapatomegaly
- C.
Hepatomegely
- 33.Difficult swallowing
- A.
Dysfagia
- B.
Disphagia
- C.
Dysphagia
- 34.Destruction of blood
- A.
Hemolysis
- B.
Hemmolysis
- C.
Hemolisis
- 35.Pertaining to the abdomen
- A.
Cieliac
- B.
Celiac
- C.
Sealiac
- 36.-pepsia
- 37.-ptysis
- 38.-emesis
- 39.-ptosis
- 40.-rrhagia
- 41.-phagia
- 42.-plasty
- 43.-ectasis
- 44.-stenosis
- 45.-lysis
- 46.-ptosis
- 47.-stasis
- 48.-rrhea
- 49.Difficult digestion: dys__________
- 50.Difficulty swallowing: dys_____
- 51.Vomiting blood hemat_______
- 52.Incision of the tongue gloss_________
- 53.Pertaining to the cheek ________al
- 54.Discharge of fat ________orrhea
- 55.Enlargement of the live hepato____________
- 56.Suture of the small intestine entero___________
- 57.No opening a_______
- 58.Inflammation of the mouth with small ulcers a_____stomatitis
- 59.-ase
- 60.-centesis
- 61.-chezia
- 62.-ectasia
- 63.-ectomy
- 64.-spams
- 65.-emia
- 66.-genesis
- 67.-graphy
- 68.-iasis
- 69.-lysis
- 70.-megaly
- 71.-orexia
- 72.-pathy
- 73.-pepsia
- 74.-phagia
- 75.-plasty
- 76.-prandial
- 77.-ptosis
- 78.-tresia
- 79.Difficult digestion
- A.
Choledochal
- B.
Dyspepsia
- 80.Vomiting blood
- A.
Dysphagia
- B.
Hematemesis
- 81.Forward protrusion of the eye
- A.
Proptosis
- B.
Buccal
- 82.Gingivitis
- A.
Gingivectomy
- B.
Periodontal disease
- 83.Dilation of a tube leading into the lung
- A.
Bronchiectasis
- B.
Dysmenorrhea
- 84.Food tube is not connected to the stomach from birth
- A.
Herniorrhaphy
- B.
Congenital esophageal atresia
- 85.Suture of an abdominal protrusion
- A.
Herniorrhaphy
- B.
Choledochal
- 86.Surgical repair of the lip and mouth
- A.
Cheilostomatoplasty
- B.
Dysplasty
- 87.Removal of the large bowel
- A.
Colectomy
- B.
Glossopharyngeal
- 88.Pertaining to the common bile duct
- A.
Buccal
- B.
Choledochal
- 89.Spitting up blood
- A.
Hemoptysis
- B.
Colectomy
- 90.Pertaining to the cheek
- A.
Buccal
- B.
Proptosis
- 91.An anastomosis
- A.
Buccal
- B.
Cholecystojejunostomy
- 92.Difficult swallowing
- A.
Dysphagia
- B.
Dyspepsia
- 93.Removal of gum tissue
- A.
Bronchiectasis
- B.
Gingivectomy
- 94.Removal of the gallbladder
- A.
Cholecystectomy
- B.
Glossopharyngeal
- 95.Painful menstruation
- A.
Dyspepsia
- B.
Dysmenorrhea
- 96.Narrowing of a ring of muscles
- A.
Aphthous stomatitis
- B.
Pyloric stenosis
- 97.Ulcers and inflammation of the mouth
- A.
Glossopharyngeal
- B.
Aphthous stomatitis
- 98.Pertaining to the tongue and throat
- A.
Glossopharyngeal
- B.
Aphthous stomatitis
- 99.These elements would be part of the ____ history: employment, education use of drugs
- A.
Past
- B.
Social
- C.
Family
- D.
Any of the above
- 100.Bruising would be an element of review of this organ
- A.
Integumentary
- B.
Neurologic
- C.
Hematologic
- D.
Immunologic
- 101.The level of e/m service is based on
- A.
Documentation
- B.
Key components
- C.
Contributing factors
- D.
All of the above
- 102.The hpi must be documented in the medical record by
- A.
The physician
- B.
Any office staff member
- C.
The patient
- D.
Any of the above
- 103.The examination is the ____ portion of the e/m service
- A.
Subjective
- B.
Objective
- C.
Assessment
- D.
Plan
- 104.Medical decision making (mdm) is based on the ____ the physician must consider about the management of a patients condition
- A.
Number of diagnoses
- B.
Risk of morbidity
- C.
Amount of data
- D.
All of the above
- 105.The hospital inpatient services subsection is used for patients admitted to
- A.
A skilled nursing facility
- B.
A temporary unit
- C.
An acute care facility
- D.
A hospital observation unit
- 106.The request for advice or opinion from one physician to another physician is this type of service
- A.
Counseling
- B.
Concurrent care
- C.
Coordination of care
- D.
Consultation
- 107.Critical care codes are reported based on
- A.
The three key components
- B.
Time
- C.
Amount of documentation
- D.
Procedures performed
- 108.Codes from the e/m subsection nursing facilities service are used to report services provided in nursing facilities that used to be known as
- A.
Skilled nursing facility
- B.
Intermediate care facility
- C.
Long term care facility
- D.
All of the above
- 109.When a physician performs a preventive care service the extent of the exam is determined by the
- A.
Age
- B.
Gender
- C.
Gender and age
- D.
Length of time elapsed since last exam
- 110.According to information in 99468 what is that age of a neonate
- A.
28 days or younger
- B.
Less than 7 days
- C.
Less than 20 days
- D.
None of the above
- 111.According to e/m guideline a ____ exam encompasses a complete single specialty exam or complete multisystem exam
- A.
Problem focused
- B.
Expanded problem focused
- C.
Detailed
- D.
Comprehensive
- 112.Mr smith presents to the emergency department at the local hospital for chest pain and is seen by the ed physician on duty the physician obtains an extended hpi an extended ros and a pertinent pfsh. what is the level of history
- A.
Problem focused
- B.
Expanded problem focused
- C.
Detailed
- D.
Comprehensive
- 113.The physician performs and extended exam of the affected body areas and related organ systems what is the level of the examination
- A.
Problem focused
- B.
Expanded problem focused
- C.
Detailed
- D.
Comprehensive
- 114.The physician must consider multiple diagnoses and management options there is a moderate amount of data to be reviewed and the risk of complications or death is moderate what is the level of mdm
- A.
Straightforward
- B.
Low
- C.
Moderate
- D.
High
- 115.What cpt code is assigned to an ed service that has a detailed history and exam with a moderate level of mdm
- A.
99284
- B.
99291
- C.
99283
- D.
99220
- 116.Complete the following blanks that refer to the three factors that the coder must consider in the assignment: _________ of service, _________of service, __________status
- 117.The code range for home services is
- 118.The four types of patient status are : ____,_________,_________,_____________.
- 119.The _________________ is a statement descriving the reason for the encounter and is a history element
- 120.Modifier ____ is used to indicate that a separately identifiable e/m service was performed by the physician on the same day as the preventive medicine service
- 121.The soft tissue injury that occurs when a body part becomes entangled or entrapped resulting in skin tissue and bone being pulled from the body is a(an)
- A.
Laceration
- B.
Avulsion
- C.
Incision
- D.
Abrasion
- 122.A soft tissue injury in which the outer layer of the skin has been scraped away is an
- A.
Avulsion
- B.
Abrasion
- C.
Amputation
- D.
Incision
- 123.Treatment of a puncture wound includes
- A.
Brisk scrubbing of the area with a brush
- B.
Copious irrigation of the wound
- C.
Approximation of the wound edges for suturing
- D.
All of the above
- 124.A burn that involves destruction of the skin and underlying tissue is termed
- A.
Superficial
- B.
Partial thickness
- C.
Full thickness
- D.
Radiation
- 125.In electrical shock the current
- A.
Follows the path of least resistance
- B.
Always enters the heart
- C.
Destroys the brain tissue
- D.
None of the above
- 126.The individual who has a body temp above 105 degrees F red hot and dry skin headache dizziness and shortness of breath is experiencing
- A.
Heat exhaustion
- B.
Heat stroke
- C.
Hypothermia
- D.
All of the above
- 127.The person suffering from hypothermia experiences
- A.
Shivering
- B.
Disorientation
- C.
Fatigue
- D.
All of the above
- 128.Tetanus toxoid prophylaxis is important in any person who has sustained open trauma because
- A.
Boosters are required throughout life
- B.
Tetanus toxoid is a broad spectrum antibiotic
- C.
Organisms that cause tetanus enter the body directly into the bloodstream through wounds
- D.
All of the above
- 129.Treatment of snakebite includes
- A.
Keeping the victim quiet and transporting to an emergency facility
- B.
Putting a tourniquet around the limb
- C.
Applying ice
- D.
All of the above
- 130.Cumulative trauma disorders include
- A.
Carpal tunnel syndrome
- B.
White finger
- C.
Synovitis
- D.
All of the above
- 131.The rule of nines is used to calculate
- A.
Cardiac or respiratory failure
- B.
The percentage of body surface affected by burns
- C.
The type of thermal trauma
- D.
All of the above
- 132.Compression of the brachial plexus nerves may also be called
- A.
Tendinitis
- B.
Thoracic outlet syndrome
- C.
Tennis elbow
- D.
Trigger finger
- 133.______ is a sever systemic infection transmitted by a tic and characterized by a maculopapular rash small hemorrhages under the skin and involvement of vital organs
- A.
Rocky mountain spotted fever
- B.
Rabies
- C.
Aids
- D.
None of the above
- 134.Physical patterns observed in child abuse include
- A.
Bruising and burns
- B.
Observable injuries such as teeth marks
- C.
Welts and fractures
- D.
All of the above
- 135.The legal responsibilities of the health care provider in battered spouse syndrome
- A.
Are not in the scope of concern
- B.
Vary from facility to facility
- C.
Vary by state but should be known
- D.
All of the above
- 136.Treatment of a laceration includes
- A.
Gentle cleansing and approximation and securing the edges
- B.
Debridement suturing and sterile dressing application
- C.
The use of tissue glue
- D.
All of the above
- 137.Complications of survivors of lightning strikes include
- A.
Cataracts
- B.
Cervical spine injuries
- C.
Ruptured tympanic membranes
- D.
All of the above
- 138.Foreign bodies in the ear may include
- A.
Bugs and insects
- B.
Cereal peas beans grapes and pebbles
- C.
Cotton
- D.
All of the above
- 139.Only women are victims of spousal abuse
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 140.Victims of elder abuse are eager to admit to being victims
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 141.Carpal tunnel syndrome involves entrapment of the median nerve
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 142.Dna parentage testing is conclusive in determining genetic profiles of the mother child and father
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 143.There are no specific tests or documentation procedures available for the rape victim
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 144.Rust rings on the cornea may be the result of foreign bodies in the eye
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 145.Treatment of frostbite includes vigorous massage of the affected area
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 146.A patient who is taking warfarin phenytoin and diazepam asks if he can geta prescription for cimetidine for his peptic ulcers. he said that he saw an ad on tv and thinks this might help him. which of the following would be the correct response
- A.
Tagament is only for occasional distress. if you have ongoing problems we should look into getting you a different medication
- B.
The medications you are already taking would interact with tagament in such a way that you might have higher blood levels than you doctor wants perhaps we can look into finding you a different medication for you distress
- C.
Tagamet is a good choice of drug for this problem because of its low incidence of interactions with other medications
- D.
It would be cheaper for you to take antacid agents
- 147.A patient with frequent gastric distress says that she would rather ontinue to self medicate with bicarb that take the antacid agent that her doctor has recommended. she states that she has needed to get relief more often lately and feels that she cannot afford to take a more expensive remedy. what should you say
- A.
You are just not taking enough of the baking soda. try increasing the dose and see if that doesnt help you
- B.
You may be experiencing acid rebound something that happens when the acid in your stomach is rapidly neutralized let me see if i can get some samples of the antacid agent for you to try
- C.
You can probably get a reduced price from the pharmaceutical company and then it wont cost you so much
- D.
You are better off taking a medication that costs a little more now than having to treat the ulcer youre going to develop with a more expensive one later
- 148.Which of the following would be the most appropriate medication for relief of severe nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy
- A.
Tigan
- B.
Antivert
- C.
Compazine
- D.
Zofran
- 149.An older adult patient who has been taking mineral oil for relief of constipation does not want to take the psyllium that her doctor has recommended for daily use she says that the oil works when she gets clogged up and its much cheaper than that powdered stuff what facts should be explained to the patient
- A.
The mineral oil can interfere with the absorption of fat soluble vitamins
- B.
The patients bowels should move at least once a day
- C.
Restricting fluid intake will help deal with constipation
- D.
Magnesium citrate is a better daily remedy for constipation
- 150.Which of the following acts on the nerve endings in the intestinal wall to effectively reduce diarrhea
- A.
Amphojel
- B.
Carafate
- C.
Prilosec
- D.
Imodium
- 151.In what location does digestion of food begin
- A.
Stomach
- B.
Large intestines
- C.
Small instestines
- D.
Mouth
- 152.Which of the following is a protective substance found in the stomach
- A.
Ptyalin
- B.
Pepsin
- C.
Mucin
- D.
Rennin
- 153.In addition to treating a gastric ph that allows pepsin to function hydrochloric acid also provides which of the following functions
- A.
Kills or inhibits microorganisms that find their way into the stomach
- B.
Coagulates milk producing whey and curd
- C.
Reduces complex carbohydrates to simpler forms
- D.
Acts as a solvent to lubricate food in the stomach
- 154.Which of the following may cause peptic ulcers
- A.
Excessive amounts of ptyalin
- B.
Helicobacter pylori
- C.
Clostridium difficile
- D.
Inadequate amounts of hydrochloric acid
- 155.Because of the occurrence of mental disturbances, tagamet is not recommended for use with which of the following
- A.
Patients with diabetes
- B.
Older adult patients
- C.
Women in menopause
- D.
Patients who are immunocompromised
- 156.Which of the following provides a mechanical barrier to gastric ulcers
- A.
Amphojel
- B.
Maalox
- C.
Carafate
- D.
Sucralose
- 157.Which of the following is used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis
- A.
Megace
- B.
Viokase
- C.
Lactaid
- D.
Xenical
- 158.Which of the following is an antiemetic agent used to control nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy
- A.
Dramamine
- B.
Kytril
- C.
Compazine
- D.
Antivert
- 159.As a deterrent to overdosing with lomotil which of the following is added to the medication
- A.
Ipecac
- B.
Atropine
- C.
Psyllium
- D.
Senna
- 160.Which of the following is commonly used to evacuate the bowels before surgery
- A.
Mineral oil
- B.
Methylcellulose
- C.
Magnesium hydroxide
- D.
Magnesium citrate
- 161.Which of the following statements is true with regard to fecal softeners
- A.
They increase the bulk of feces in the bowel
- B.
They reduce moisture in the feces and relieve diarrhea
- C.
They are not irritating to the gastric mucosa
- D.
They stimulate peristalsis
- E.
They may need to be taken on a regular daily basis
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