Immunology Study Questions

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    Antibodies are secreted by

    • Killer cells
    • Marrow stem cells
    • Mast cells
    • B cells
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  • 2. 

    Which of the following forms of exposure places a technologist at the highest risk for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

    • Aersol

    • Ingestion

    • Needlestick

    • Splash

    Correct Answer
    A. Needlestick
  • 3. 

    The immunoglobulin class associated with hypersensitivity or allergenic reactions:

    • IgA

    • IgM

    • IgD

    • IgE

    Correct Answer
    A. IgE
  • 4. 

    The serologic test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in cerebrospinal fluid is

    • Non-treponemal antibody

    • CSF-VDRL

    • FTA-ABS

    • MHA-TP

    Correct Answer
    A. CSF-VDRL
  • 5. 

    IgA is found in: 1. Saliva 2. Tears 3. Colostrum 4. Serum

    • 1, 2, & 3

    • 1 & 3

    • 4

    • All

    Correct Answer
    A. All
  • 6. 

    Cells involved in phagocytosis include: 1. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil 2. Monocytes 3. Histiocytes 4. Macrophages

    • 1, 2, & 3

    • 1 & 3

    • 4

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
  • 7. 

    When testing a patient for HIV antibody, which of the following is used to confirm a positive screening test?

    • Radioimmunoassay

    • Western blot

    • Immunofluorescence

    • ELISA

    Correct Answer
    A. Western blot
  • 8. 

    With which of the following immunoglobulin classes is secretory component or transport piece associated?

    • IgA

    • IgD

    • IgE

    • IgG

    Correct Answer
    A. IgA
  • 9. 

    Infectious mononucleosis is a disease caused by a

    • Virus

    • Bacterium

    • Fungus

    • Spirochete

    Correct Answer
    A. Virus
  • 10. 

    The immunoglobin isotype that is bound to mast cells or basophils is

    • IgG

    • IgE

    • IgM

    • IgD

    Correct Answer
    A. IgE
  • 11. 

    A serologic test for syphilis that depends upon the detection of cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol antigen is:

    • FTA-ABS

    • RPR

    • MHA-TP

    • TPI

    Correct Answer
    A. RPR
  • 12. 

    Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient agglutinator?

    • IgG

    • IgA

    • IgM

    • IgE

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM
  • 13. 

    While performing a test for febrile agglutinins, an analyst observes that the first 3 tubes have no reaction, the next 4 tubes have agglutination, and the last 3 tubes show no agglutination. Tubes #1, 2 and 3 indicate:

    • Prozone phenomenon

    • Antigen excess

    • Equivalence

    • Postzone phenomenon

    Correct Answer
    A. Prozone phenomenon
  • 14. 

    A 26 year old nurse developed fatigue, a low-grade fever, polyarthralgias and urticaria. Two months earlier she has cared for a patient with hepatitis. Which of the following findings are liely to be observed in this nurse?

    • A negative hepatitis B surface antigen test

    • Elevated AST and ALT activites

    • A positive rheumatoid factor

    • A positive Monospot test

    Correct Answer
    A. Elevated AST and ALT activites
  • 15. 

    Which one of the following disorders is associted with autoantibodies to phospholipid?

    • Rheumatoid Arthritis

    • Gravees Disease

    • Hashimoto's Disease

    • Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

    Correct Answer
    A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
  • 16. 

    Which of the following is an important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury?

    • Monocyte

    • Neutrophil

    • Basophil

    • Eosinophil

    Correct Answer
    A. Neutrophil
  • 17. 

    The more specific immunoassay procedure for serum HCG utilizes antisera against whivh subunit of HCG?

    • Alpha

    • Gamma

    • Chorionic

    • Beta

    Correct Answer
    A. Beta
  • 18. 

    The most prevalent job related disease hazard in clinical laboratories is:

    • Tuberculosis

    • Hepatitis

    • AIDs

    • Meningitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis
  • 19. 

    The Rheumatoid Factor:

    • Agglutinates inert substance

    • Precipitates inert substance

    • Hemolyzes red blood cells

    • Agglutinates gamma globulin coated inert substance

    Correct Answer
    A. Agglutinates gamma globulin coated inert substance
  • 20. 

    If 3 ml of a butter were added to a tube containing 1 ml of a standard reagent, the resulting dilution of the standard reagent would be:

    • 1:2

    • 1:3

    • 1:4

    • 3:1

    • 4:1

    Correct Answer
    A. 1:4
  • 21. 

    Which of the following diseases is associated with a high circulating concentration of T3 and T4, but a low concentration of TSH?

    • Rheumatoid Arthritis

    • Graves' Disease

    • Hashimoto's Disease

    • Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

    Correct Answer
    A. Graves' Disease
  • 22. 

    A substrate is first exposed to patient's serum, then exposed to a fluorescent antihuman immunoglobulin. The procedure described is:

    • Fluorescent quenching

    • Direct fluorescence

    • Indirect fluorescence

    • Fluorescence inhibition

    Correct Answer
    A. Indirect fluorescence
  • 23. 

    The causative agent for rheumatoid arthritis is:

    • An antigen

    • An antibody

    • A virus

    • Bacterial cells

    Correct Answer
    A. An antibody
  • 24. 

    The cold agglutinin test is used for the diagnosis of infection with

    • Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • Legionella pneumophilia

    • Mycoplasma pneumoniae

    • Klebsiella pneumoniae

    Correct Answer
    A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • 25. 

    A false-negative cold agglutinin test may result if:

    • The specimen is centrifuged at room temperature

    • The cold agglutinin demonstrates anti-I specificity

    • The specimen is refrigerated prior to serum separation

    • Adult human O red cells are used in the assay

    Correct Answer
    A. The specimen is refrigerated prior to serum separation
  • 26. 

    Which of the following causes 90% of post-transfusion hepatitis?

    • HAV

    • HBV

    • HCV

    • HDV

    Correct Answer
    A. HCV
  • 27. 

    Antibody class and antibody subclass is determined by major physiochemical differences and antigenic variation found primarily in the

    • Constant region of heavy chain

    • Constant region of light chain

    • Variable regions of heavy and light chains

    • Constant regions of heavy and light chains

    Correct Answer
    A. Constant region of heavy chain
  • 28. 

    The visible serologic reaction between soluble antigen and its specific antibody is

    • Sensitization

    • Precipitation

    • Agglutination

    • Opsonization

    Correct Answer
    A. Precipitation
  • 29. 

    Antigenic determinants for the RA factor are found on the patient's own:

    • IgG

    • IgA

    • IgE

    • IgM

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG
  • 30. 

    In direct fluorescent antibody screening for the diagnosis of primary syphilis, which of the following labels is used?

    • Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the chancre

    • Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the skin rash

    • Antigen for the presence of circulating antibodies

    • Antigen for the presence of antibodies in situ

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the chancre
  • 31. 

    All of the following events are mediated by both the alternative and classical pathways except:

    • Proteolysis of C4 to C4a and C4b

    • Proteolysis of C3 to C3a and C3b

    • Proteolysis of C5 to C5a and C5b

    • Release of anaphylatoxins

    Correct Answer
    A. Proteolysis of C4 to C4a and C4b
  • 32. 

    Which of the following describes the relationship between test data and analyte concentration in the classical competitive binding immunoassay:

    • Directly proportional

    • Indirectly proportional

    • Relative

    • Non-specific

    Correct Answer
    A. Indirectly proportional
  • 33. 

    The initial immune response following fetal infection with rubella is in the production of:

    • IgG antibody

    • IgA antibody

    • IgM antibody

    • Both IgG and IgA antibody

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM antibody
  • 34. 

    Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular cancer?

    • Alpha-fetoprotein

    • Carcinoembryonic antigen

    • Prolactin

    • Testosterone

    • 17-ketosteroids

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha-fetoprotein
  • 35. 

    An important use of non-terponemal antibody (NTA) testing is in:

    • Establishing the diagnosis of acute active syphilis

    • Establishing the diagnosis of chronic syphilis

    • Evaluating the success of therapy

    • Determining the prevalence of disease in the general population

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluating the success of therapy
  • 36. 

    A rubella enzyme immunoassay which utilizes patient serum, rubella antigen, and enzyme bound to antibuman gamma globulin describes a/an ________ assay.

    • Inhibition

    • Competitive

    • Double antibody

    • Indirect

    Correct Answer
    A. Indirect
  • 37. 

    The rapid rise, elevated level, and prolonged production of antibody following a repeat exposure to antigen is called:

    • Hypersensitivity

    • Arthus reaction

    • Anamestic response

    • Primary response

    Correct Answer
    A. Anamestic response
  • 38. 

    Which statement(s) is/are correct concerning the nephelometric determination of immunoglobulin levels? 1. Uses a beam of light to pass through a suspension in a cuvette. 2. Utilizes the precipitation of soluble antigen with its antibody. 3. Measures light that has been scattered as it passes through a suspension. 4. Most easily detects large particles formed by the reactants.

    • 1 2 and 3

    • 1 and 3

    • 4

    • All

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 2 and 3
  • 39. 

    The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infection is:

    • HBs

    • Hbe

    • HBc

    • HBV

    Correct Answer
    A. Hbe
  • 40. 

    Heterophile antibody of infectious mononucleosis is absorbed by:

    • Guinea pig kidney

    • Beef erythrocyte

    • Both

    • Neither

    Correct Answer
    A. Beef erythrocyte
  • 41. 

    The immunoglobulin isotype that is bound to mast cells or basophils is

    • IgA

    • IgE

    • IgG

    • IgM

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 1, 2013 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 01, 2013
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 01, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Amandaregal
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