Immunology Study Questions

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MLT Study Questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Antibodies are secreted by

    • A.

      Killer cells

    • B.

      Marrow stem cells

    • C.

      Mast cells

    • D.

      B cells

    Correct Answer
    D. B cells
  • 2. 

    Antibody class and antibody subclass is determined by major physiochemical differences and antigenic variation found primarily in the

    • A.

      Constant region of heavy chain

    • B.

      Constant region of light chain

    • C.

      Variable regions of heavy and light chains

    • D.

      Constant regions of heavy and light chains

    Correct Answer
    A. Constant region of heavy chain
  • 3. 

    With which of the following immunoglobulin classes is secretory component or transport piece associated?

    • A.

      IgA

    • B.

      IgD

    • C.

      IgE

    • D.

      IgG

    Correct Answer
    A. IgA
  • 4. 

    The immunoglobin isotype that is bound to mast cells or basophils is

    • A.

      IgG

    • B.

      IgE

    • C.

      IgM

    • D.

      IgD

    Correct Answer
    B. IgE
  • 5. 

    The immunoglobulin isotype that is bound to mast cells or basophils is

    • A.

      IgA

    • B.

      IgE

    • C.

      IgG

    • D.

      IgM

    Correct Answer
    C. IgG
  • 6. 

    Cells involved in phagocytosis include: 1. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil 2. Monocytes 3. Histiocytes 4. Macrophages

    • A.

      1, 2, & 3

    • B.

      1 & 3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
  • 7. 

    IgA is found in: 1. Saliva 2. Tears 3. Colostrum 4. Serum

    • A.

      1, 2, & 3

    • B.

      1 & 3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    D. All
  • 8. 

    The immunoglobulin class associated with hypersensitivity or allergenic reactions:

    • A.

      IgA

    • B.

      IgM

    • C.

      IgD

    • D.

      IgE

    Correct Answer
    D. IgE
  • 9. 

    Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient agglutinator?

    • A.

      IgG

    • B.

      IgA

    • C.

      IgM

    • D.

      IgE

    Correct Answer
    C. IgM
  • 10. 

    All of the following events are mediated by both the alternative and classical pathways except:

    • A.

      Proteolysis of C4 to C4a and C4b

    • B.

      Proteolysis of C3 to C3a and C3b

    • C.

      Proteolysis of C5 to C5a and C5b

    • D.

      Release of anaphylatoxins

    Correct Answer
    A. Proteolysis of C4 to C4a and C4b
  • 11. 

    Which of the following is an important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury?

    • A.

      Monocyte

    • B.

      Neutrophil

    • C.

      Basophil

    • D.

      Eosinophil

    Correct Answer
    B. Neutrophil
  • 12. 

    The visible serologic reaction between soluble antigen and its specific antibody is

    • A.

      Sensitization

    • B.

      Precipitation

    • C.

      Agglutination

    • D.

      Opsonization

    Correct Answer
    B. Precipitation
  • 13. 

    While performing a test for febrile agglutinins, an analyst observes that the first 3 tubes have no reaction, the next 4 tubes have agglutination, and the last 3 tubes show no agglutination. Tubes #1, 2 and 3 indicate:

    • A.

      Prozone phenomenon

    • B.

      Antigen excess

    • C.

      Equivalence

    • D.

      Postzone phenomenon

    Correct Answer
    A. Prozone phenomenon
  • 14. 

    A substrate is first exposed to patient's serum, then exposed to a fluorescent antihuman immunoglobulin. The procedure described is:

    • A.

      Fluorescent quenching

    • B.

      Direct fluorescence

    • C.

      Indirect fluorescence

    • D.

      Fluorescence inhibition

    Correct Answer
    C. Indirect fluorescence
  • 15. 

    Which statement(s) is/are correct concerning the nephelometric determination of immunoglobulin levels? 1. Uses a beam of light to pass through a suspension in a cuvette. 2. Utilizes the precipitation of soluble antigen with its antibody. 3. Measures light that has been scattered as it passes through a suspension. 4. Most easily detects large particles formed by the reactants.

    • A.

      1 2 and 3

    • B.

      1 and 3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 2 and 3
  • 16. 

    A rubella enzyme immunoassay which utilizes patient serum, rubella antigen, and enzyme bound to antibuman gamma globulin describes a/an ________ assay.

    • A.

      Inhibition

    • B.

      Competitive

    • C.

      Double antibody

    • D.

      Indirect

    Correct Answer
    D. Indirect
  • 17. 

    If 3 ml of a butter were added to a tube containing 1 ml of a standard reagent, the resulting dilution of the standard reagent would be:

    • A.

      1:2

    • B.

      1:3

    • C.

      1:4

    • D.

      3:1

    • E.

      4:1

    Correct Answer
    C. 1:4
  • 18. 

    The more specific immunoassay procedure for serum HCG utilizes antisera against whivh subunit of HCG?

    • A.

      Alpha

    • B.

      Gamma

    • C.

      Chorionic

    • D.

      Beta

    Correct Answer
    D. Beta
  • 19. 

    Which of the following describes the relationship between test data and analyte concentration in the classical competitive binding immunoassay:

    • A.

      Directly proportional

    • B.

      Indirectly proportional

    • C.

      Relative

    • D.

      Non-specific

    Correct Answer
    B. Indirectly proportional
  • 20. 

    A serologic test for syphilis that depends upon the detection of cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol antigen is:

    • A.

      FTA-ABS

    • B.

      RPR

    • C.

      MHA-TP

    • D.

      TPI

    Correct Answer
    B. RPR
  • 21. 

    An important use of non-terponemal antibody (NTA) testing is in:

    • A.

      Establishing the diagnosis of acute active syphilis

    • B.

      Establishing the diagnosis of chronic syphilis

    • C.

      Evaluating the success of therapy

    • D.

      Determining the prevalence of disease in the general population

    Correct Answer
    C. Evaluating the success of therapy
  • 22. 

    The serologic test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in cerebrospinal fluid is

    • A.

      Non-treponemal antibody

    • B.

      CSF-VDRL

    • C.

      FTA-ABS

    • D.

      MHA-TP

    Correct Answer
    B. CSF-VDRL
  • 23. 

    In direct fluorescent antibody screening for the diagnosis of primary syphilis, which of the following labels is used?

    • A.

      Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the chancre

    • B.

      Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the skin rash

    • C.

      Antigen for the presence of circulating antibodies

    • D.

      Antigen for the presence of antibodies in situ

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the chancre
  • 24. 

    The initial immune response following fetal infection with rubella is in the production of:

    • A.

      IgG antibody

    • B.

      IgA antibody

    • C.

      IgM antibody

    • D.

      Both IgG and IgA antibody

    Correct Answer
    C. IgM antibody
  • 25. 

    A 26 year old nurse developed fatigue, a low-grade fever, polyarthralgias and urticaria. Two months earlier she has cared for a patient with hepatitis. Which of the following findings are liely to be observed in this nurse?

    • A.

      A negative hepatitis B surface antigen test

    • B.

      Elevated AST and ALT activites

    • C.

      A positive rheumatoid factor

    • D.

      A positive Monospot test

    Correct Answer
    B. Elevated AST and ALT activites
  • 26. 

    The rapid rise, elevated level, and prolonged production of antibody following a repeat exposure to antigen is called:

    • A.

      Hypersensitivity

    • B.

      Arthus reaction

    • C.

      Anamestic response

    • D.

      Primary response

    Correct Answer
    C. Anamestic response
  • 27. 

    The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infection is:

    • A.

      HBs

    • B.

      Hbe

    • C.

      HBc

    • D.

      HBV

    Correct Answer
    B. Hbe
  • 28. 

    Which of the following causes 90% of post-transfusion hepatitis?

    • A.

      HAV

    • B.

      HBV

    • C.

      HCV

    • D.

      HDV

    Correct Answer
    C. HCV
  • 29. 

    Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular cancer?

    • A.

      Alpha-fetoprotein

    • B.

      Carcinoembryonic antigen

    • C.

      Prolactin

    • D.

      Testosterone

    • E.

      17-ketosteroids

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha-fetoprotein
  • 30. 

    When testing a patient for HIV antibody, which of the following is used to confirm a positive screening test?

    • A.

      Radioimmunoassay

    • B.

      Western blot

    • C.

      Immunofluorescence

    • D.

      ELISA

    Correct Answer
    B. Western blot
  • 31. 

    A false-negative cold agglutinin test may result if:

    • A.

      The specimen is centrifuged at room temperature

    • B.

      The cold agglutinin demonstrates anti-I specificity

    • C.

      The specimen is refrigerated prior to serum separation

    • D.

      Adult human O red cells are used in the assay

    Correct Answer
    C. The specimen is refrigerated prior to serum separation
  • 32. 

    The cold agglutinin test is used for the diagnosis of infection with

    • A.

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • B.

      Legionella pneumophilia

    • C.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae

    • D.

      Klebsiella pneumoniae

    Correct Answer
    C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • 33. 

    Antigenic determinants for the RA factor are found on the patient's own:

    • A.

      IgG

    • B.

      IgA

    • C.

      IgE

    • D.

      IgM

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG
  • 34. 

    The causative agent for rheumatoid arthritis is:

    • A.

      An antigen

    • B.

      An antibody

    • C.

      A virus

    • D.

      Bacterial cells

    Correct Answer
    B. An antibody
  • 35. 

    Which of the following diseases is associated with a high circulating concentration of T3 and T4, but a low concentration of TSH?

    • A.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis

    • B.

      Graves' Disease

    • C.

      Hashimoto's Disease

    • D.

      Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

    Correct Answer
    B. Graves' Disease
  • 36. 

    The Rheumatoid Factor:

    • A.

      Agglutinates inert substance

    • B.

      Precipitates inert substance

    • C.

      Hemolyzes red blood cells

    • D.

      Agglutinates gamma globulin coated inert substance

    Correct Answer
    D. Agglutinates gamma globulin coated inert substance
  • 37. 

    Infectious mononucleosis is a disease caused by a

    • A.

      Virus

    • B.

      Bacterium

    • C.

      Fungus

    • D.

      Spirochete

    Correct Answer
    A. Virus
  • 38. 

    Heterophile antibody of infectious mononucleosis is absorbed by:

    • A.

      Guinea pig kidney

    • B.

      Beef erythrocyte

    • C.

      Both

    • D.

      Neither

    Correct Answer
    B. Beef erythrocyte
  • 39. 

    Which one of the following disorders is associted with autoantibodies to phospholipid?

    • A.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis

    • B.

      Gravees Disease

    • C.

      Hashimoto's Disease

    • D.

      Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

    Correct Answer
    D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
  • 40. 

    Which of the following forms of exposure places a technologist at the highest risk for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

    • A.

      Aersol

    • B.

      Ingestion

    • C.

      Needlestick

    • D.

      Splash

    Correct Answer
    C. Needlestick
  • 41. 

    The most prevalent job related disease hazard in clinical laboratories is:

    • A.

      Tuberculosis

    • B.

      Hepatitis

    • C.

      AIDs

    • D.

      Meningitis

    Correct Answer
    B. Hepatitis

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 01, 2013
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 01, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Amandaregal

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