Hardest Trivia Questions On Hospitality Law! Quiz
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Do you know about the Hardest Trivia questions on hospitality law? In the hospitality industry, a contract is an agreement between two or more parties that the courts will enforce. It is a set of rules which govern the relationship, substance, and validity of an agreement. See what you know about the trivia of hospitality law, take the quiz.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
It is easier to find someone guilty in a civil case rather than a criminal case because burden of proof in a criminal case is ____% (beyond a reasonable doubt), while burden of proof in a civil case is ____%.
Explanation
In a criminal case, the burden of proof is set at 98% "beyond a reasonable doubt." This means that the prosecution must prove the defendant's guilt to a very high degree of certainty. On the other hand, in a civil case, the burden of proof is set at a lower standard of 52%. This means that the plaintiff only needs to prove their case by a preponderance of the evidence, showing that it is more likely than not that the defendant is responsible for the harm or wrongdoing. Therefore, it is easier to find someone guilty in a civil case compared to a criminal case due to the difference in the burden of proof.Rate this question:
- 2.
You can prevent potential legal action against your business in the following ways: ______________________________ ______________________________ ______________________________ ______________________________ ______________________________ ______________________________ ______________________________ ______________________________
Explanation
To prevent potential legal action against your business, it is important to have standard operating procedures in place. These procedures outline the proper protocols and guidelines for employees to follow, reducing the risk of negligence or misconduct. Additionally, staff training is crucial to ensure that employees are knowledgeable about their responsibilities and the legal requirements of their roles. Regulatory adherence is also essential, as compliance with applicable laws and regulations helps to avoid legal issues. Record keeping is important for documentation purposes and can provide evidence in case of disputes. Waivers, disclaimers, and releases can help protect your business from liability by obtaining consent and limiting legal responsibility. Lastly, having insurance coverage can provide financial protection in the event of a lawsuit or other legal claims.Rate this question:
- 3.
______________ ___ __ means negligence in and of itself. If you are not conforming in some law or regulation you are guilty of negligence even though no injury has occurred (yet).
Explanation
Negligence per se refers to the concept that negligence is established by the violation of a law or regulation, regardless of whether any harm or injury has occurred. In other words, if someone fails to conform to a specific legal requirement, they are automatically considered negligent, even if there are no immediate consequences. This principle is based on the idea that certain laws or regulations exist to prevent harm, and by disregarding them, individuals are acting negligently.Rate this question:
- 4.
You were unfairly fired in your job. You worked for a local chain fast food restaurant. You decided to make up some stories regarding the restaurant’s sanitation practices. As a result the restaurant has lost quite a few patrons. The establishment can sue you for ____________ _____________.
Explanation
The establishment can sue you for injurious falsehood because you intentionally made up stories about the restaurant's sanitation practices, which caused the restaurant to lose patrons. Injurious falsehood refers to spreading false information about a business that results in harm to its reputation and financial losses.Rate this question:
- 5.
The “_____________ ______ ______” means that one needs to consider what a careful thoughtful person in the same circumstances would have done.
Explanation
The "reasonable person test" refers to a standard used in legal contexts to determine whether a person's actions were reasonable or not. It involves considering how a prudent and cautious individual, with similar knowledge and experience, would have behaved in the same situation. This test helps to establish whether someone's conduct meets the expected level of care and judgment that a reasonable person would exercise.Rate this question:
- 6.
The four elements of negligence are:________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Explanation
The four elements of negligence are: existence of a duty of care, breach of the duty, injury resulting from the breach, and proximate cause of the injury. These elements are necessary to establish a claim of negligence. The existence of a duty of care means that the defendant had a legal obligation to act in a certain way towards the plaintiff. Breach of the duty refers to the defendant's failure to fulfill that obligation. Injury resulting from the breach means that the plaintiff suffered harm as a direct result of the defendant's actions or inactions. Proximate cause of the injury refers to the link between the defendant's breach of duty and the plaintiff's injury, establishing that the harm was reasonably foreseeable.Rate this question:
- 7.
The word “tort” came from an old French word meaning “__________”.
Explanation
The word "tort" originated from an old French word that meant "wrongs". This suggests that the term "tort" is used to describe actions or behaviors that are considered to be wrongful or harmful.Rate this question:
- 8.
A ____________ in BC is someone who certifies documents, but does not draft documents.
Explanation
A notary in BC is an individual who is authorized to certify documents, such as verifying signatures or administering oaths, but their role does not involve drafting legal documents. They primarily serve as impartial witnesses to the signing of important documents to ensure their authenticity and legality.Rate this question:
- 9.
You owe duty of care to a ___________ because you cannot wilfully create a danger or wantonly injure the trespasser.
Explanation
A duty of care refers to the legal obligation to act in a way that prevents harm to others. In this context, the statement suggests that you owe a duty of care to a trespasser because you are not allowed to intentionally create a dangerous situation or intentionally harm them. This means that even though someone is trespassing on your property without permission, you still have a responsibility to not deliberately cause harm to them.Rate this question:
- 10.
The two types of negligence are: _________________ _________________
Explanation
The two types of negligence are intentional and unintentional. Intentional negligence refers to a deliberate act or omission where harm or injury is caused to another person. Unintentional negligence, on the other hand, occurs when harm or injury is caused due to a lack of reasonable care or negligence, even though there was no intention to cause harm. Therefore, intentional negligence involves a deliberate action, while unintentional negligence involves a lack of care or negligence.Rate this question:
- 11.
There are 5 things the defendant must establish to benefit from the doctrine of voluntarily assumed risk (a person who participates in an activity knowing that injury could result is said to have voluntarily assumed a risk). They are: _______________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Explanation
To benefit from the doctrine of voluntarily assumed risk, the defendant must establish five things. Firstly, the plaintiff must have known about the risk associated with the activity. Secondly, the plaintiff must have understood the risk, meaning they were aware of the potential harm that could result. Thirdly, the plaintiff must have had a choice to avoid the risk, indicating that they had the option to participate or not. Fourthly, the plaintiff must have voluntarily assumed the risk, meaning they willingly accepted the potential danger. Lastly, the defendant must not have breached any statutory duty that directly led to the injury suffered by the plaintiff.Rate this question:
- 12.
The “______ ________ __________” is when the plaintiff’s negligence causes him/her self danger; the defendant has the last clear chance of averting injury. If the defendant fails to exercise care he/she is negligent.
Explanation
The concept of "last clear chance" refers to a situation where the plaintiff's own negligence puts them in danger, but the defendant still has the opportunity to prevent the injury. If the defendant fails to exercise reasonable care and does not take advantage of this final opportunity to avert harm, they can be considered negligent.Rate this question:
- 13.
The two kinds of liability are:______________________________
Explanation
The correct answer is "conditional; strict". Liability can be classified into two types: conditional liability and strict liability. Conditional liability refers to the legal responsibility that arises only if certain conditions or requirements are met. On the other hand, strict liability holds individuals or entities responsible for their actions or products, regardless of fault or negligence. Therefore, the correct answer is "conditional; strict".Rate this question:
- 14.
“The thing speaks for itself” is another term for ___ ____ ________. When the injury results from something that could not have happened unless there was negligence, then it is not necessary to prove exactly how and in what way the negligence caused the injury.
Explanation
"Res ipsa loquitur" is a Latin term that translates to "the thing speaks for itself." It is a legal doctrine that allows a plaintiff to establish a presumption of negligence based on the circumstances of an injury. In cases where the injury could not have occurred without negligence, the plaintiff does not need to provide specific evidence of how the negligence caused the injury. The doctrine recognizes that certain accidents or injuries are so obviously the result of negligence that no further explanation is needed.Rate this question:
- 15.
____________ law defines the rights and remedies, whereas _________ law is the procedures through which substantive rights are protected.
Explanation
Substantive law refers to the set of laws that define individuals' rights and the legal remedies available to them. It focuses on the substance and content of the law. On the other hand, procedural law outlines the specific processes and methods used to enforce substantive rights and protect them. It establishes the rules and procedures that govern how legal proceedings are conducted, ensuring fairness and due process.Rate this question:
- 16.
When no contractual relationship exists between two parties, and one party relies upon advice provided by the other party, but the advice was provided in a negligent manner, the first party can sue for ________ _________________.
Explanation
When there is no contract between two parties and one party relies on advice given by the other party, but the advice is given negligently, the first party can sue for negligent misrepresentation. This means that the party providing the advice was negligent in their representation of the information, causing harm or loss to the relying party.Rate this question:
- 17.
The main premise of ________ law is to restore the injured party to the position he or she was in before the jury
Explanation
Tort law is a branch of civil law that aims to compensate the injured party for any harm or loss they have suffered due to the actions or negligence of another person. The main premise of tort law is to restore the injured party to the position they were in before the incident occurred. This means that the person who caused the harm or injury may be required to pay damages or provide other forms of compensation to make up for the harm caused.Rate this question:
- 18.
__________ defamations are spoken ones.
Explanation
Slander refers to defamatory statements that are spoken, as opposed to written. It is a form of defamation that involves making false spoken statements about someone that can harm their reputation. Slander is different from libel, which refers to defamatory statements that are written or published. In this case, the correct answer is "slander" because it specifically mentions that the defamations being referred to are spoken ones.Rate this question:
- 19.
The “____ _____ ____” states that a tortfeasor who can reasonable foresee some injury as a consequence of his or her conduct may be liable for more serious consequences than he or she anticipated.
Explanation
The "thin skull rule" states that a tortfeasor who can reasonably foresee some injury as a consequence of his or her conduct may be liable for more serious consequences than he or she anticipated. This means that even if the tortfeasor did not anticipate the extent of the injury, they are still responsible for it because they should have reasonably foreseen the possibility. The "thin skin rule" is not a recognized legal principle and does not have any relevance to this concept.Rate this question:
- 20.
The 8 intentional torts are: ______________________________ ______________________________ ______________________________ ______________________________ ______________________________ ______________________________ ______________________________ ______________________________
Explanation
The correct answer is assault; battery; trespass; conversion; false imprisonment; intentional infliction of mental suffering; deceit; intentional interference with a contract. This answer includes all eight intentional torts that are commonly recognized in legal systems. These torts involve intentional acts that result in harm or injury to another person, such as physically attacking someone (assault and battery), unlawfully entering someone's property (trespass), unlawfully taking someone's property (conversion), unlawfully restraining someone's freedom (false imprisonment), intentionally causing emotional distress (intentional infliction of mental suffering), deceiving someone (deceit), and interfering with someone's contractual relationships (intentional interference with a contract).Rate this question:
- 21.
__________ defamations are written ones.
Explanation
Libel refers to defamatory statements or accusations that are made in written form, such as in newspapers, magazines, or online publications. Unlike slander, which involves spoken defamatory statements, libel specifically pertains to written defamation. Therefore, the correct answer is libel.Rate this question:
- 22.
___________ _____________ is when a person is liable for negligence only if the consequences of the act were reasonably foreseeable.
Explanation
Conditional liability is a concept where a person can be held responsible for negligence only if the outcomes of their actions were reasonably foreseeable. This means that if the consequences of an act were not reasonably predictable or foreseeable, the person cannot be held liable for any negligence. In other words, the individual's liability is contingent upon the foreseeability of the consequences of their actions.Rate this question:
- 23.
Under this circumstance, you are not defaming someone’s character: _____________________.
Explanation
When a statement is true, it means that it accurately reflects the reality or facts about a person's character. Defamation involves making false statements that harm someone's reputation, so if the statement is true, it cannot be considered defamatory. In such circumstances, stating the truth about someone's character does not amount to defamation as it is based on factual information rather than false claims.Rate this question:
- 24.
The 6 primary purposes of tort law are: ______________________ ______________________ ______________________ ______________________ ______________________ ______________________
Explanation
The 6 primary purposes of tort law are regulation, deterrence, compensation, dispute resolution, education, and prevention. Tort law aims to regulate behavior by setting standards and guidelines for individuals and organizations to follow. It also serves as a deterrent, discouraging potential wrongdoers from engaging in harmful actions. Compensation is provided to victims of tortious acts to help them recover from their losses and damages. Dispute resolution is another purpose, as tort law provides a legal framework for resolving conflicts and disputes between parties. Education is important to ensure that individuals are aware of their rights and responsibilities under tort law. Lastly, prevention is a key purpose, as tort law seeks to prevent future harm by holding wrongdoers accountable and promoting safer practices.Rate this question:
- 25.
The "players" in the legal sytem are (there are 6 of them)____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Explanation
The "players" in the legal system are lawyers, legislators, judges, jurors, clients, and police. These individuals all have important roles within the legal system. Lawyers provide legal representation and advice to clients, legislators create and amend laws, judges preside over legal cases and make decisions, jurors participate in the trial process and determine guilt or innocence, clients seek legal assistance and have their rights protected, and police enforce laws and investigate crimes. Each of these players contributes to the functioning of the legal system and helps ensure justice is served.Rate this question:
- 26.
The 7 defences to intentional torts are: _________________________ _________________________ _________________________ _________________________ _________________________ _________________________ _________________________
Explanation
The correct answer is consent; defence of property; defense of a third person; self defence; necesity; legal authority; lack of intention. These are the 7 defences to intentional torts. Consent refers to the agreement given by the victim to the defendant's actions. Defence of property allows the defendant to use reasonable force to protect their property. Defense of a third person allows the defendant to use reasonable force to protect another person. Self defence allows the defendant to use reasonable force to protect themselves. Necessity refers to the defendant's actions being necessary to prevent a greater harm. Legal authority allows the defendant to perform actions within their legal authority. Lack of intention refers to the defendant not intending to cause harm.Rate this question:
- 27.
______________ ____________ is when a plaintiff is partly or solely the cause of his or her own injury.
Explanation
Contributory negligence refers to a situation in which the plaintiff is partially or completely responsible for their own injury. In legal terms, this means that the plaintiff's own actions or negligence contributed to the harm they suffered. This concept is important in determining liability and damages in personal injury cases. If contributory negligence is proven, it can reduce or even eliminate the plaintiff's ability to recover compensation from the defendant.Rate this question:
- 28.
The ___________ Court of Canada presides over jurisdiction to hear, for example, cases on patents, copyright, trademark, aeronautics, maritime law, inter provincial and federal-provincial disputes.
Explanation
The Federal Court of Canada is the correct answer because it has the authority to handle various types of cases such as patents, copyright, trademark, aeronautics, maritime law, and inter provincial and federal-provincial disputes. As a federal court, it has jurisdiction over matters that involve federal laws and regulations, making it the appropriate court for these specific types of cases.Rate this question:
- 29.
3______ __________ is when a defendant is automatically liable even though no injury has occurred – not following government codes and regulations will result in this type of liability.
Explanation
Strict liability is a legal concept where a defendant can be held liable for their actions or products, regardless of fault or intent, if they cause harm to another person or property. This means that even if no injury has occurred, if the defendant fails to follow government codes and regulations, they can still be held responsible under strict liability. In other words, strict liability imposes a high level of responsibility on individuals or companies to ensure compliance with safety standards and regulations, regardless of whether harm actually occurs.Rate this question:
- 30.
____________ laws are thoes that are just and justifable on __________, _________ or _________ grounds
Explanation
Natural laws are those that are based on the inherent principles of nature and the physical world. Moral laws are based on ethical principles and the distinction between right and wrong. Religious laws are based on the teachings and beliefs of a particular religion. Philosophical laws are based on logical reasoning and philosophical principles. These four types of laws can be considered just and justifiable based on their respective foundations in nature, ethics, religion, and philosophy.Rate this question:
- 31.
The ___________ Court of Canada presides over jurisdiction to hear all ____________, ____________ and ____________ cases of significant public interest.
Explanation
The Supreme Court of Canada has jurisdiction to hear all criminal, civil, and constitutional cases of significant public interest.Rate this question:
- 32.
__________ laws are laws enacted by a body having the authority to enact and enforce them.
Explanation
Positive laws are laws that are enacted and enforced by a governing body. These laws are created and implemented by a legal authority, such as a legislative body or government, to regulate and govern a society. Positive laws are binding and enforceable, and they establish the legal rights and obligations of individuals within a jurisdiction. They are distinguished from natural laws or moral laws, which are based on inherent principles or ethical beliefs. Positive laws are essential for maintaining order and providing a framework for the functioning of a legal system.Rate this question:
- 33.
When the public is mislead into believing that one company’s goods or services are those similar brand or product, this is known as “___________ ____"
Explanation
Passing off refers to the act of misleading the public into thinking that a company's goods or services are actually those of a similar brand or product. This can occur when a company intentionally creates confusion by imitating the branding, packaging, or overall appearance of another well-known brand. It is a form of unfair competition and can lead to reputational damage and financial loss for the genuine brand.Rate this question:
- 34.
Federal legislation cannot become law until it has been passed by both the ____________ and the _________ __ _________ and proclaimed into force by the government general.
Explanation
Federal legislation cannot become law until it has been passed by both the Senate and the House of Commons and proclaimed into force by the government general. This means that both houses of Parliament, the Senate and the House of Commons, need to approve the legislation before it can become law. The order in which they pass the legislation may vary, but ultimately both houses must give their approval. Once approved, the legislation is then proclaimed into force by the government general, which is the final step in the process of making it law.Rate this question:
- 35.
The theory that law is whatever the judges will enforce is known as__________ ___________.
Explanation
Legal realism is the theory that suggests that the law is not solely based on written rules and statutes, but is also influenced by the personal beliefs and values of judges. It emphasizes the idea that judges have the power to shape and interpret the law according to their own discretion and societal context. Legal realism challenges the notion that law is objective and fixed, instead highlighting its subjective and dynamic nature.Rate this question:
- 36.
Disclaimers and signed waivers do not guarantee a business from being sued. They may be due to the following reasons: _________________________ _________________________ _________________________
- 37.
___________ law is associated with government and the public interest
Explanation
Public law is associated with government and the public interest. It is a branch of law that deals with the relationship between individuals and the state, as well as the powers and duties of government. Public law encompasses constitutional law, administrative law, and criminal law, among others. It focuses on regulating the behavior of government entities and protecting the rights and interests of the public.Rate this question:
- 38.
____________ laws is enacted and enforced to protect the political security of the state and the personal security of citizens, while __________ law is all the other laws.
Explanation
Criminal laws are enacted and enforced to protect the political security of the state and the personal security of citizens. These laws deal with offenses that are considered harmful to society as a whole, such as murder, theft, and assault. Violations of criminal laws can result in penalties such as imprisonment or fines. On the other hand, civil law encompasses all other laws that do not fall under criminal law. Civil laws govern disputes between individuals or organizations, such as contracts, property rights, and family matters. Violations of civil laws typically result in compensatory measures, such as monetary damages or injunctions.Rate this question:
- 39.
Section 91 on the BNA Act define powers of the ____________ government, while Section 92 defines the powers of the ______________ government.
Explanation
Section 91 of the BNA Act defines the powers of the federal government, while Section 92 defines the powers of the provincial government. This means that Section 91 outlines the areas in which the federal government has authority, such as national defense and international relations, while Section 92 outlines the areas in which the provincial government has authority, such as education and healthcare. This division of powers ensures a clear delineation of responsibilities between the two levels of government in Canada.Rate this question:
- 40.
The ___________ government reigns supreme when the responsibility between federal and provincial governments overlap.
Explanation
When the responsibility between federal and provincial governments overlap, the federal government reigns supreme. This means that in situations where there is a conflict or confusion regarding which level of government should have authority, the federal government's power takes precedence. This is because the federal government is responsible for overseeing and maintaining the unity and integrity of the entire country, while provincial governments have more localized powers. Therefore, in cases of overlap, the federal government's authority is considered higher and final.Rate this question:
- 41.
The Supreme Court of Canada has ___ appointed justices.
Explanation
The Supreme Court of Canada is composed of nine appointed justices.Rate this question:
- 42.
_____________ law is the procedures through which substantive rights are protected
Explanation
Procedural law refers to the set of rules and processes that govern how legal proceedings are conducted. It outlines the steps and methods that must be followed in order to protect and enforce substantive rights. Procedural law ensures that individuals have a fair and orderly process in place to resolve disputes and seek justice. It includes elements such as court procedures, rules of evidence, and the right to a fair trial. By adhering to procedural law, the legal system ensures that the rights and interests of all parties involved are safeguarded.Rate this question:
- 43.
________ _______ is the term used when one level of government passes a law which is actually within the realm of responsibility covered by another level of government.
Explanation
Ultra vires is the term used when one level of government passes a law that falls outside of its legal authority or jurisdiction. In this context, it refers to a situation where a law is passed by a level of government that exceeds its powers and encroaches upon the responsibilities of another level of government. This can create conflicts and legal challenges as it goes beyond the scope of the governing body's authority.Rate this question:
- 44.
If all twelve jurors cannot agree, the jurors will be _____________, and a new trial will take place.
Explanation
If all twelve jurors cannot agree, it means that they are unable to reach a unanimous decision. In such a situation, the jurors will be discharged, which means they will be released from their duties and responsibilities as jurors. A new trial will then take place, allowing a new set of jurors to deliberate and reach a verdict.Rate this question:
- 45.
The prime minister who signed the Canadian Bill of Rights is _______ _____________.
Explanation
John Diefenbaker is the correct answer because he was the prime minister of Canada who signed the Canadian Bill of Rights. He served as the 13th prime minister of Canada from 1957 to 1963 and was known for his commitment to civil liberties and human rights. The Canadian Bill of Rights, enacted in 1960, was an important step in protecting individual rights and freedoms in Canada.Rate this question:
- 46.
Can employers ever test for drug and alcohol dependency? ____, once a written offer of employment has been submitted to the employee, providing the testing is related to the employee’s ability to perform the essential duties of the job.
Explanation
Employers can test for drug and alcohol dependency once a written offer of employment has been submitted to the employee, as long as the testing is directly related to the employee's ability to perform the essential duties of the job. This means that employers can conduct such tests to ensure that the employee is fit for the position and can safely and effectively carry out their responsibilities.Rate this question:
- 47.
If people felt they would be treated unfairly by the common law judges, they could appeal directly to the King. The King set up the Court of Chancery to disperse justice on a more equitable basis, without reference to common law precedent. _______________ law is the body of decisions made by the judges in this court.
Explanation
The correct answer is "equity." The passage explains that the Court of Chancery was established by the King to provide justice in a fair and equitable manner, without being bound by common law precedent. Therefore, the body of decisions made by the judges in this court is known as "equity."Rate this question:
- 48.
_____________ law is the accumulated body of decisions made by the judges appointed by ________ _________ II.
Explanation
Common law is the accumulated body of decisions made by judges appointed by King Henry II. Common law refers to the legal system where decisions made by judges in previous cases are used as precedents to determine the outcome of similar cases in the future. King Henry II played a significant role in the development of common law in England during the 12th century. He established a centralized system of justice and appointed judges to hear and decide cases, which led to the growth and standardization of common law.Rate this question:
- 49.
Benefits and obligations under a contract are usually confined to the parties within it; this is an example of ___________ ___ _____________.
Explanation
Privity of contract refers to the legal concept that the benefits and obligations of a contract are limited to the parties involved in the agreement. This means that only those who are directly involved in the contract have the rights and responsibilities outlined in it. Other third parties who are not part of the contract generally do not have any legal standing to enforce or be bound by its terms. Therefore, the given answer correctly identifies the concept of privity of contract as an explanation for the statement provided.Rate this question:
- 50.
_________ ___________is the legal principle by which judges are required to follow the precedents set by equivalent and higher courts. We want it rather than have each case decided individually because this makes law more ____________ and _____________.
Explanation
Stare Decisis is the legal principle by which judges are required to follow the precedents set by equivalent and higher courts. We want it rather than have each case decided individually because this makes law more predictable and constant. This means that previous decisions serve as a basis for future cases, providing consistency and stability in the legal system.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 08, 2010Quiz Created by
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