Certified Patient Account Technician Exam! Trivia Quiz

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1. Inaccurate or inappropriate coding will impacy your facility's bottom line:

Explanation

Inaccurate or inappropriate coding can have a negative impact on a facility's bottom line. Coding errors can lead to incorrect billing, resulting in financial losses for the facility. Additionally, inappropriate coding can lead to audits, penalties, and legal issues, further affecting the facility's financial health. Therefore, it is important to ensure accurate and appropriate coding practices to maintain a positive bottom line.

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About This Quiz
Certified Patient Account Technician Exam! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Are you reading to tackle the certified patient account technician exam! For you to hold this position, you need to ensure you have a deeper understanding of... see morehow to store patient files, extract them, and also handle any issues patients will have when it comes to billing. How about you take this quiz and be a step closer to ace your exams. see less

2. MSP is the acronym for:

Explanation

The correct answer is Medicare secondary payer. MSP refers to Medicare secondary payer, which is a provision that requires certain types of insurance to pay before Medicare pays for healthcare services. This provision is designed to ensure that Medicare is not the primary payer when other insurance coverage is available.

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3. The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at what time:

Explanation

The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at the time of admission. This means that when a patient is admitted to a healthcare facility, they are typically asked to sign an agreement that allows the healthcare provider to bill their insurance company directly for the services provided. This ensures that the healthcare provider receives payment for their services and the patient does not have to handle the insurance claims process themselves.

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4. In a divorce or separation which plan is primary:

Explanation

In a divorce or separation, the parent that has custody is considered the primary plan. This means that the parent who has been granted legal custody of the child is responsible for making decisions regarding the child's upbringing, education, healthcare, and overall welfare. The parent with custody has the primary responsibility for the child's day-to-day care and is typically the one who will have the child living with them most of the time.

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5. Medicare is a secondary payer to which of the following:

Explanation

Medicare is considered a secondary payer to Federal Black Lung, Workers Compensation, and Automobile medical, no fault or liability insurance. This means that if an individual has coverage through any of these sources, Medicare will only pay for their healthcare expenses after these primary payers have paid their share. Therefore, Medicare will not be the primary payer in these situations, but rather a secondary payer.

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6. What is a written authorization, signed by the policy holder to an insurance company, to pay directly to the hospital:

Explanation

An assignment of benefits is a written authorization, signed by the policy holder, that allows an insurance company to pay the hospital directly. This means that the policy holder gives permission for the insurance company to send payment directly to the hospital instead of the policy holder receiving the payment and then paying the hospital themselves. This helps streamline the payment process and ensures that the hospital receives payment promptly.

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7. Medicare supports the electronic health record for which reason(s):

Explanation

Medicare supports the electronic health record because it lowers the chances of medical errors, ensures that providers and organizations have the same knowledge about a patient's medical condition, and improves the overall quality of patient care. By digitizing health records, the likelihood of mistakes or miscommunication is reduced, leading to safer and more accurate healthcare. Additionally, having a centralized electronic record allows healthcare professionals to access and share information easily, promoting better coordination and collaboration. Ultimately, these benefits contribute to enhancing the quality of patient care.

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8. CWF is the acronym for:

Explanation

CWF stands for Common Working File. This term is commonly used in various industries to refer to a shared or centralized database or system that is accessible by multiple users or departments. The Common Working File allows for efficient collaboration, data sharing, and real-time updates, ultimately improving productivity and streamlining processes.

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9. A clean claim is one which:

Explanation

A clean claim is one that meets all the requirements for processing without any issues. It does not require any further investigation or contact with the healthcare provider. Additionally, it will pass all front-end edits, meaning it meets all the necessary criteria for electronic processing. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as all the statements mentioned are true for a clean claim.

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10. The OBRA Act of 1986 requires HCPCS coding on the UB04 Medicare claims by which facilities:

Explanation

The OBRA Act of 1986 mandates the use of HCPCS coding on the UB04 Medicare claims for various facilities. Tertiary care hospitals, acute care hospitals, and hospital-based rural health clinics are all required to use HCPCS coding on their Medicare claims. This means that all of the mentioned facilities must adhere to the OBRA Act of 1986 and use HCPCS coding on their UB04 Medicare claims.

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11. ICD-9 codes are used to identify:

Explanation

ICD-9 codes are used to identify diagnoses. These codes are a standardized system used by healthcare providers to classify and code all diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures. They provide a way to accurately document and track patient conditions, which is essential for proper medical billing, research, and statistical analysis. By assigning an ICD-9 code to a diagnosis, healthcare professionals can easily communicate and share information about a patient's condition with other providers and insurance companies.

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12. ICD-9 coding has no affect reimbursement.

Explanation

ICD-9 coding does have an effect on reimbursement. The International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision (ICD-9) is used by healthcare providers to classify and code diagnoses and procedures. These codes are used by insurance companies to determine the reimbursement amount for medical services. Accurate and detailed coding is essential for proper reimbursement. Incorrect or incomplete coding can result in denied claims or reduced reimbursement. Therefore, ICD-9 coding does have an impact on reimbursement.

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13. Who is the primary according to the birthday rule:

Explanation

According to the birthday rule, the primary is determined by the parent who is born first in the calendar year. This means that if both parents have the same coverage, the parent who has their birthday earlier in the year will be considered the primary.

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14. The first digit in the type of bill indicates:

Explanation

The first digit in the type of bill indicates the type of facility. This means that the first digit in the bill number represents the specific type of healthcare facility where the bill originated from. It helps in categorizing and identifying the source of the bill, making it easier for administrative purposes and tracking.

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15. A UB04 code used which identifies the specific date defining a significant event relating to the bill that may affect payment processing:

Explanation

Occurrence code is a UB04 code that is used to identify a specific date defining a significant event relating to the bill that may affect payment processing. This code helps in providing additional information about the occurrence of a particular event, such as the date of admission, discharge, or surgery. It is essential for accurate billing and payment processing as it helps in determining the appropriate reimbursement for the services provided.

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16. A claim that contains complete and necessary information, but the information is illogical or incorrect is:

Explanation

An invalid claim refers to a statement that contains all the necessary information but is illogical or incorrect. This means that the claim may have all the required details but fails to make sense or is factually incorrect. Therefore, it cannot be considered as a valid or accurate claim.

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17. ICD-9-CM is updated how often:

Explanation

ICD-9-CM is updated annually. This means that the International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification is revised and updated on a yearly basis. This ensures that the coding system remains current and reflects the latest medical knowledge and practices. Regular updates are necessary to accommodate new diseases, procedures, and treatments, as well as to address any changes in coding guidelines or regulations.

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18. A UB04 code which identifies the condition(s) relating to the bill that may affect payer processing:

Explanation

A condition code is a UB04 code that identifies any specific condition(s) related to the bill that may impact the processing by the payer. These codes are used to provide additional information about the patient's condition or treatment that may affect the reimbursement or coverage. By including a condition code, healthcare providers can ensure that the payer has all the necessary information to accurately process the claim.

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19. The medicare Part A deductible for days 1-60 is:

Explanation

The correct answer is $1132.00. This is the deductible amount for the first 60 days of Medicare Part A coverage. It means that if a person is admitted to the hospital, they will be responsible for paying the first $1132.00 of their medical expenses before Medicare coverage begins.

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20. When a person with VA benefits (Veterans Administration) and Medicare recieves healthcare, they can use both benefits:

Explanation

A person with VA benefits and Medicare cannot use both benefits simultaneously. Generally, if a person is eligible for both VA benefits and Medicare, they can choose to use either one for their healthcare needs. However, it is important to note that there are certain situations where VA benefits and Medicare may work together to provide coverage for specific services or treatments.

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21. A critical care hospital can determine the time it offeres services:

Explanation

A critical care hospital cannot determine the time it offers services as it needs to be available 24/7 to provide emergency medical care to patients. Critical care hospitals operate round the clock to ensure that they are always prepared to handle critical medical situations and provide immediate treatment and support to patients in need. Therefore, the statement that a critical care hospital can determine the time it offers services is false.

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22. What is a payment by Medicare where another payer is responsible for payment and the claim is not expected to be paid promptly:

Explanation

Conditional payments refer to payments made by Medicare when another payer is responsible for payment, and the claim is not expected to be paid promptly. These payments are made on the condition that Medicare will be reimbursed when the primary payer makes the payment. It allows Medicare to provide temporary coverage until the primary payer fulfills its responsibility.

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23. Resource Utilization Groups are used to assess payment for wich facilities:

Explanation

Resource Utilization Groups (RUGs) are used to assess payment for skilled nursing facilities. RUGs are a classification system that categorizes patients based on their level of care needs and resource utilization. This system helps determine the reimbursement amount for skilled nursing facilities based on the specific RUG category assigned to each patient. Therefore, RUGs are not used to assess payment for inpatient hospitals, outpatient hospitals, or ambulatory surgical facilities.

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24. The blood deductible for Medicare Part A & B is:

Explanation

Medicare Part A and B have a blood deductible of 3 units per year. This means that Medicare beneficiaries are responsible for paying for the first 3 units of blood they receive each year before Medicare coverage kicks in. This deductible applies to both inpatient and outpatient blood transfusions.

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25. Problems with electronic billing include all of the following except:

Explanation

The given answer, "Less paper," is not a problem with electronic billing. In fact, electronic billing is known for reducing the use of paper by allowing transactions to be conducted digitally. Therefore, this option does not fit the category of problems associated with electronic billing.

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26. The critical access  hospital program was created to assure Medicare beneficiaries access to health care facililities in which areas:

Explanation

The critical access hospital program was created to assure Medicare beneficiaries access to health care facilities in rural areas. This program recognizes the challenges faced by individuals living in remote and underserved communities, where access to healthcare services may be limited. By designating certain hospitals as critical access hospitals, Medicare aims to ensure that beneficiaries in rural areas have access to essential healthcare services close to their homes. This helps to improve healthcare outcomes and reduce the burden on patients who would otherwise have to travel long distances for medical care.

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27. The Uniform Bill is also known as:

Explanation

The Uniform Bill is also known as UB04 because it is a standardized form used by hospitals and other healthcare facilities to submit claims for reimbursement to insurance companies. It replaced the previous version known as UB92. CMS1500, on the other hand, is a different form used for physician and outpatient services. Therefore, the correct answer is UB04, as it refers to the specific form used for hospital claims.

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28. The UB04 contains how many data elements:

Explanation

The UB04 form contains 81 data elements. This means that there are 81 specific pieces of information that can be recorded on the form. These data elements are used to capture important details about a patient's healthcare services, such as their diagnosis, treatment, and costs. Having 81 data elements ensures that a comprehensive range of information can be collected and documented accurately for billing and administrative purposes.

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29. The type of bill code is how many digits:

Explanation

The type of bill code consists of three digits.

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30. A UB04 code used to identify values of monetary nature:

Explanation

Value code is a UB04 code used to identify values of monetary nature in healthcare billing. This code is used to indicate specific dollar amounts related to services provided, such as charges, payments, or adjustments. It helps in accurately capturing and reporting financial information for reimbursement purposes.

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31. Level II HCPCS codes are:

Explanation

Level II HCPCS codes are alpha-numeric, meaning they contain both letters and numbers. This is because these codes provide a more specific and detailed description of medical procedures, supplies, and services than alpha or numeric codes alone. The combination of letters and numbers allows for a greater level of specificity and accuracy in coding, which is essential for proper billing and reimbursement in the healthcare industry.

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32. Level II HCPCS codes are used to identify all of the following except:

Explanation

Level II HCPCS codes are used to identify products, supplies, and DME (Durable Medical Equipment). However, they are not used to identify office visits. Office visits are typically identified using Evaluation and Management (E/M) codes, which are a separate set of codes used to document and bill for healthcare services provided during an office visit. Therefore, the correct answer is "Office visit".

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33. Type of bill code 227, the third digit 7 indicates:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Replacement of prior claim." In the type of bill code 227, the third digit 7 indicates that the claim is a replacement of a prior claim. This means that a previous claim for the same patient and episode was submitted, but it was incorrect or incomplete, so it needs to be replaced with a corrected claim.

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34. Type of bill code 131 indicates:

Explanation

The type of bill code 131 indicates a claim for a hospital outpatient visit that includes both the admission and discharge of the patient. This means that the patient was admitted to the hospital for treatment or observation and then discharged after receiving the necessary care. The code is used to accurately categorize and process the claim for reimbursement purposes.

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35. A system generated free form statement that is used to communicate the status of a patients account:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Data Mailer." A data mailer is a system-generated statement that is used to communicate the status of a patient's account. It is typically sent to the patient or their insurance company and contains detailed information about the services provided, charges incurred, and any payments made. This statement helps in keeping the patient informed about their account balance and facilitates the billing and payment process.

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36. Who is primary if both parents have the same birthday:

Explanation

The correct answer is "The plan that has covered the parent longer." This means that if both parents have the same birthday, the primary parent would be determined based on which parent has been covered by the insurance plan for a longer period of time. This criterion is used to determine the primary parent in cases where both parents have the same birthday.

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37. Type of bill code 333, the second digit 3 indicates:

Explanation

The correct answer is Outpatient. In the type of bill code 333, the second digit 3 indicates that the bill is for an outpatient service. This means that the patient received medical treatment or services in a healthcare facility but did not require an overnight stay. Outpatient services can include consultations, diagnostic tests, minor surgeries, and other procedures that do not require hospitalization.

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38. V-codes are used when:

Explanation

V-codes are used to describe circumstances other than disease or injury. These codes are used to document reasons for healthcare encounters that do not involve a current illness or injury. This includes codes for routine check-ups, vaccinations, counseling, and other preventive services. V-codes are important for capturing and tracking healthcare encounters that are not directly related to a specific disease or injury, providing a comprehensive view of a patient's healthcare needs and history.

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39. Hospital, swing bed, Interim- first claim:

Explanation

The given sequence of numbers represents the number of patients in a hospital's swing bed on different days. The numbers 251, 145, and 262 are higher than the previous numbers, indicating an increase in the number of patients. However, the number 182 is lower than the previous number, suggesting a decrease in the number of patients. Therefore, the number 182 is the correct answer as it breaks the pattern of increasing numbers.

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40. A UB04 code that identifies a specific accommodation, ancillary service or billing calculation:

Explanation

A revenue code is a UB04 code that identifies a specific accommodation, ancillary service, or billing calculation. It helps in categorizing the services provided by healthcare facilities and determining the charges associated with them. Revenue codes are used for billing purposes and play a crucial role in accurately documenting and tracking financial transactions in the healthcare industry. They ensure that the correct charges are applied and that the billing process is transparent and standardized.

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41. The Medicare Part A Lifetime Reserve Days deductible for days 91-150 is:

Explanation

The Medicare Part A Lifetime Reserve Days deductible for days 91-150 is $566.00 per day. This means that for each day of hospitalization during this time period, the patient is responsible for paying $566.00 out of pocket before Medicare coverage kicks in. This deductible applies to the lifetime reserve days, which are additional days of hospitalization that Medicare covers after the standard 90-day benefit period has been exhausted.

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42. How many major diagnostic categories are there:

Explanation

There are 25 major diagnostic categories.

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43. RBRVS is the acronym  for:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Resource based relative value scale." RBRVS is an acronym that stands for Resource Based Relative Value Scale. This system is used to determine the reimbursement rates for medical services provided by physicians. It takes into account the resources required to provide each service, such as time, skill, and overhead costs. The relative value scale assigns a numerical value to each service, which is then multiplied by a conversion factor to determine the reimbursement amount. This system helps ensure that physicians are fairly compensated for their services based on the complexity and resources required.

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44. The 72- hour rule does not apply to all of the following except:

Explanation

The 72-hour rule refers to a regulation that allows hospitals to bill Medicare for services provided to a patient who is admitted for at least 72 hours. Inpatient hospitals are the only option listed that falls under the category of hospitals where the 72-hour rule applies. Children's hospitals, cancer hospitals, and psychiatric hospitals may also have inpatient services, but they are not specifically mentioned in the question. Therefore, the correct answer is "Inpatient hospitals."

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45. The standard code set adopted by HIPAA EDI include all of the following except:

Explanation

The correct answer is RBRVS. RBRVS stands for Resource-Based Relative Value Scale, which is a system used by Medicare to determine the reimbursement rates for different medical procedures. While CPT-4, CDT, and ICD-9 are all standard code sets adopted by HIPAA EDI, RBRVS is not included in this list.

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46. The third digit in the type of bill indicates:

Explanation

The third digit in the type of bill indicates the frequency. This means that it represents how often a particular bill is being issued or generated. It helps in categorizing and organizing bills based on their frequency, making it easier for record-keeping and analysis purposes.

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47. The CWF contains all of the following except:

Explanation

The CWF (Common Working File) is a database that contains important information about a patient's Medicare coverage. It includes details such as Part A & B deductible information, date of birth, benefit periods, and days remaining in the current benefit period. However, it does not include the specific date of service, which refers to the date on which a particular medical service was provided to the patient.

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48. The personal health record was developed for the following reasons except:

Explanation

The personal health record was developed to allow the patient to stay involved in their health care services, update health information to make sure it remains current, and request prescription refills and schedule appointments. However, it does not specifically allow the patient to take home and review the medical record.

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49. Which of the following tasks is typically performed by a Certified Patient Account Technician (CPAT)?

Explanation

A Certified Patient Account Technician (CPAT) is trained to handle tasks related to medical billing and insurance claims processing, ensuring accurate and timely reimbursement for healthcare services provided to patients.

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50. How many days does CMS allow a hospital to file a subsequent inpatient DRG adjustment:

Explanation

CMS allows a hospital to file a subsequent inpatient DRG adjustment within 60 days. This means that after the initial submission of a claim, the hospital has a window of 60 days to make any necessary adjustments or corrections to the DRG assignment. This timeframe allows hospitals to review and analyze their coding and billing processes, ensuring accurate reimbursement and compliance with CMS guidelines.

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51. Revenue codes are found in which fields:

Explanation

Revenue codes are found in fields 42-49.

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52. What form provides a complete listing or detailed account of every service posted to a patient account:

Explanation

An itemized statement provides a complete listing or detailed account of every service posted to a patient account. It includes a breakdown of each service or procedure along with the corresponding charges. This statement is often used for billing and reimbursement purposes, as it allows patients and insurance companies to review and verify the services provided and the associated costs. The itemized statement ensures transparency and accuracy in the billing process, making it an essential document in healthcare financial management.

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53. An invoice used to document the services ordered or rendured during a patient visit:

Explanation

A superbill is a type of invoice that is used to document the services ordered or rendered during a patient visit. It includes detailed information about the services provided, such as the procedures performed, the diagnosis codes, and the costs associated with each service. This document is typically used by healthcare providers to communicate with insurance companies for reimbursement purposes. The superbill helps ensure accurate billing and record-keeping for both the healthcare provider and the patient.

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54. Department numbers are usually how many digits:

Explanation

Department numbers are usually three digits.

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55. HCPCS codes have how many levels:

Explanation

HCPCS codes have two levels. This means that each code is composed of two parts. The first level represents a broad category or section of medical services, while the second level provides more specific information within that category. This two-level structure allows for a standardized and comprehensive coding system that accurately identifies and describes various medical procedures, supplies, and services.

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56. Working aged means a person is:

Explanation

The term "working aged" refers to individuals who are both 65 years of age and currently employed, with coverage under an EGHP (Employer Group Health Plan). This means that they have reached the age of 65 and are still actively working while being covered by their employer's health insurance plan. Therefore, the correct answer is "65 years of age and currently works and is covered by an EGHP."

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57. Evaluation and management services have how many key components:

Explanation

Evaluation and management services have three key components. These components include history, examination, and medical decision making. History refers to the patient's medical background and current symptoms. Examination involves a physical evaluation of the patient. Medical decision making involves the physician's thought process in diagnosing and treating the patient. These three components are essential in determining the appropriate level of evaluation and management service for a patient.

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58. Condition codes are found in which fields:

Explanation

Condition codes are found in the fields 18-28.

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59. The type of bill code is found in what field locator:

Explanation

The correct answer is 4. This suggests that the type of bill code is found in field locator 4.

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60. How many miles must be between a Critical Access hospital and any other hospital:

Explanation

Critical Access hospitals are rural hospitals that provide essential healthcare services to underserved areas. The requirement for a Critical Access hospital is that it must be located at least 35 miles away from any other hospital. This distance ensures that people living in remote areas have access to healthcare services and prevents competition between hospitals in close proximity. Therefore, the correct answer is 35 miles.

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61. How many hours may a critical care hospital keep and inpatient:

Explanation

A critical care hospital may keep an inpatient for a maximum of 96 hours. This means that the patient can be admitted and treated in the hospital for up to 96 hours before they either need to be discharged or transferred to another facility. This longer duration allows the hospital to closely monitor and provide intensive care to patients who require critical medical attention.

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62. Occurrence codes are found in which fields:

Explanation

Occurrence codes are found in fields 31-34.

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63. Elements of a chargemaster are found in what locator fields in the UB04:

Explanation

The elements of a chargemaster are found in locator fields 42-49 in the UB04. These fields contain important information related to the charges for medical services provided, such as the procedure codes, revenue codes, and charges associated with each service. These fields are crucial for accurate billing and reimbursement purposes, as they provide detailed information about the services rendered and their corresponding costs.

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64. The three resource component of the RBRVS include all of the following except:

Explanation

The three resource components of the RBRVS are practice expense, work required, and malpractice insurance expense. Physician's normal charges are not considered as a resource component in the RBRVS. The RBRVS system is used to determine the reimbursement rates for medical services provided by physicians, and it takes into account various factors such as the time, effort, and resources required to perform the service. Physician's normal charges, on the other hand, refer to the fees that a physician sets for their services, which may vary based on factors such as the location, specialty, and market conditions.

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65. If ESRD (End Stage Renal Disease) is the only reason a patient was entitled to Medicare, the coverage with end in the following time frames:

Explanation

The correct answer is 24 months after they no longer require maintenance dialysis. This means that once a patient with ESRD (End Stage Renal Disease) no longer needs regular dialysis treatments, their Medicare coverage will end after 24 months. This indicates that Medicare coverage for ESRD patients is provided for a specific period of time after the patient's condition improves or changes.

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66. MS-DRG's were created on which tiers of payments:

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above". This means that MS-DRG's were created on all tiers of payments, including cases with major complications or comorbidities, cases with complications or comorbidities, and cases with no complications or comorbidities. This suggests that the MS-DRG system takes into account the severity and complexity of a patient's condition when determining the payment tier.

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67. MS-DRG's result in savings to Medicare,

Explanation

MS-DRG's (Medicare Severity Diagnosis Related Groups) do not result in savings to Medicare. In fact, MS-DRG's are a payment system used by Medicare to reimburse hospitals for inpatient services. They classify patients into different groups based on their diagnoses, procedures, age, and other factors, and assign a fixed payment amount for each group. The purpose of MS-DRG's is to standardize the payment process, not to generate savings for Medicare. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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68. Elements of a chargemaster include all of the following:

Explanation

A chargemaster is a comprehensive list of all the services and procedures offered by a healthcare facility along with their corresponding prices. It is used for billing and reimbursement purposes. The elements of a chargemaster include modifiers, revenue codes, ICD-9 codes, and CPT/HCPCS codes. Modifiers are used to provide additional information about a service or procedure, revenue codes are used to indicate the type of service being provided, ICD-9 codes are used to classify diagnoses, and CPT/HCPCS codes are used to describe the services and procedures performed. These elements are necessary for accurate billing and coding in healthcare settings.

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69. Assignment of a MS-DRG uses the following elements in order for correct selection except:

Explanation

The assignment of a MS-DRG requires consideration of various elements, including the principle diagnosis, discharge status, and surgical procedure. However, condition codes are not used in the selection process. Condition codes are typically used for reporting additional information about a patient's condition or circumstances, but they do not directly impact the assignment of a MS-DRG. Therefore, condition codes are not included in the elements used for correct selection.

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70. The  RBRVS contained which major elements:

Explanation

The given answer, "None of the above," suggests that the major elements of the RBRVS (Resource-Based Relative Value Scale) do not include any of the options mentioned in the question. The RBRVS is a system used to determine the reimbursement rates for physician services based on the relative value of each service. It considers factors like the physician's work, practice expenses, and malpractice insurance. The major elements of the RBRVS would typically involve the calculation and assignment of relative values to different services, which are then used to determine payment rates.

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71. Benefits of electronic billing include all of the following except:

Explanation

Electronic billing provides proof of receipt, which means that the sender has evidence that the recipient has received and acknowledged the bill. This helps to ensure that there is a record of the transaction and can be useful for resolving any disputes or discrepancies. Therefore, the statement "Provides proof of receipt" is not an exception but rather one of the benefits of electronic billing.

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Inaccurate or inappropriate coding will impacy your facility's bottom...
MSP is the acronym for:
The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at what time:
In a divorce or separation which plan is primary:
Medicare is a secondary payer to which of the following:
What is a written authorization, signed by the policy holder to an...
Medicare supports the electronic health record for which reason(s):
CWF is the acronym for:
A clean claim is one which:
The OBRA Act of 1986 requires HCPCS coding on the UB04 Medicare claims...
ICD-9 codes are used to identify:
ICD-9 coding has no affect reimbursement.
Who is the primary according to the birthday rule:
The first digit in the type of bill indicates:
A UB04 code used which identifies the specific date defining a...
A claim that contains complete and necessary information, but the...
ICD-9-CM is updated how often:
A UB04 code which identifies the condition(s) relating to the bill...
The medicare Part A deductible for days 1-60 is:
When a person with VA benefits (Veterans Administration) and Medicare...
A critical care hospital can determine the time it offeres services:
What is a payment by Medicare where another payer is responsible for...
Resource Utilization Groups are used to assess payment for wich...
The blood deductible for Medicare Part A & B is:
Problems with electronic billing include all of the following except:
The critical access  hospital program was created to assure...
The Uniform Bill is also known as:
The UB04 contains how many data elements:
The type of bill code is how many digits:
A UB04 code used to identify values of monetary nature:
Level II HCPCS codes are:
Level II HCPCS codes are used to identify all of the following except:
Type of bill code 227, the third digit 7 indicates:
Type of bill code 131 indicates:
A system generated free form statement that is used to communicate the...
Who is primary if both parents have the same birthday:
Type of bill code 333, the second digit 3 indicates:
V-codes are used when:
Hospital, swing bed, Interim- first claim:
A UB04 code that identifies a specific accommodation, ancillary...
The Medicare Part A Lifetime Reserve Days deductible for days 91-150...
How many major diagnostic categories are there:
RBRVS is the acronym  for:
The 72- hour rule does not apply to all of the following except:
The standard code set adopted by HIPAA EDI include all of the...
The third digit in the type of bill indicates:
The CWF contains all of the following except:
The personal health record was developed for the following reasons...
Which of the following tasks is typically performed by a Certified...
How many days does CMS allow a hospital to file a subsequent inpatient...
Revenue codes are found in which fields:
What form provides a complete listing or detailed account of every...
An invoice used to document the services ordered or rendured during a...
Department numbers are usually how many digits:
HCPCS codes have how many levels:
Working aged means a person is:
Evaluation and management services have how many key components:
Condition codes are found in which fields:
The type of bill code is found in what field locator:
How many miles must be between a Critical Access hospital and any...
How many hours may a critical care hospital keep and inpatient:
Occurrence codes are found in which fields:
Elements of a chargemaster are found in what locator fields in the...
The three resource component of the RBRVS include all of the following...
If ESRD (End Stage Renal Disease) is the only reason a patient was...
MS-DRG's were created on which tiers of payments:
MS-DRG's result in savings to Medicare,
Elements of a chargemaster include all of the following:
Assignment of a MS-DRG uses the following elements in order for...
The  RBRVS contained which major elements:
Benefits of electronic billing include all of the following except:
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