Certified Patient Account Technician Exam! Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/71 Questions

    Inaccurate or inappropriate coding will impacy your facility's bottom line:

    • True
    • False
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About This Quiz

Are you reading to tackle the certified patient account technician exam! For you to hold this position, you need to ensure you have a deeper understanding of how to store patient files, extract them, and also handle any issues patients will have when it comes to billing. How about you take this quiz and be a step closer to See moreace your exams.

Certified Patient Account Technician Exam! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    MSP is the acronym for:

    • Medicaid secondary payer

    • Medicare seasonal payer

    • Miscellaneous secondary payer

    • Medicare secondary payer

    Correct Answer
    A. Medicare secondary payer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Medicare secondary payer. MSP refers to Medicare secondary payer, which is a provision that requires certain types of insurance to pay before Medicare pays for healthcare services. This provision is designed to ensure that Medicare is not the primary payer when other insurance coverage is available.

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  • 3. 

    The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at what time:

    • Discharge

    • Admission

    • After surgery

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Admission
    Explanation
    The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at the time of admission. This means that when a patient is admitted to a healthcare facility, they are typically asked to sign an agreement that allows the healthcare provider to bill their insurance company directly for the services provided. This ensures that the healthcare provider receives payment for their services and the patient does not have to handle the insurance claims process themselves.

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  • 4. 

    In a divorce or separation which plan is primary:

    • Father

    • The parent that has custody

    • Mother

    • The parent that presented the child

    Correct Answer
    A. The parent that has custody
    Explanation
    In a divorce or separation, the parent that has custody is considered the primary plan. This means that the parent who has been granted legal custody of the child is responsible for making decisions regarding the child's upbringing, education, healthcare, and overall welfare. The parent with custody has the primary responsibility for the child's day-to-day care and is typically the one who will have the child living with them most of the time.

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  • 5. 

    Medicare is a secondary payer to which of the following:

    • Federal Black Lung

    • Workers Compensation

    • Automobile medical, no fault or liability insurance

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Medicare is considered a secondary payer to Federal Black Lung, Workers Compensation, and Automobile medical, no fault or liability insurance. This means that if an individual has coverage through any of these sources, Medicare will only pay for their healthcare expenses after these primary payers have paid their share. Therefore, Medicare will not be the primary payer in these situations, but rather a secondary payer.

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  • 6. 

    What is a written authorization, signed by the policy holder to an insurance company, to pay directly to the hospital:

    • Assignment of benefits

    • Medicare secondary payer

    • Conditional payments

    • Medicare administrative contractor

    Correct Answer
    A. Assignment of benefits
    Explanation
    An assignment of benefits is a written authorization, signed by the policy holder, that allows an insurance company to pay the hospital directly. This means that the policy holder gives permission for the insurance company to send payment directly to the hospital instead of the policy holder receiving the payment and then paying the hospital themselves. This helps streamline the payment process and ensures that the hospital receives payment promptly.

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  • 7. 

    Medicare supports the electronic health record for which reason(s):

    • Lowers the chances of medical errors

    • Provider and organizations will have the same knowledge about a patients medical condition

    • Improve over all quality of patient care

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Medicare supports the electronic health record because it lowers the chances of medical errors, ensures that providers and organizations have the same knowledge about a patient's medical condition, and improves the overall quality of patient care. By digitizing health records, the likelihood of mistakes or miscommunication is reduced, leading to safer and more accurate healthcare. Additionally, having a centralized electronic record allows healthcare professionals to access and share information easily, promoting better coordination and collaboration. Ultimately, these benefits contribute to enhancing the quality of patient care.

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  • 8. 

    CWF is the acronym for:

    • Common working field

    • Constant working file

    • Conditional working file

    • Common Working File

    Correct Answer
    A. Common Working File
    Explanation
    CWF stands for Common Working File. This term is commonly used in various industries to refer to a shared or centralized database or system that is accessible by multiple users or departments. The Common Working File allows for efficient collaboration, data sharing, and real-time updates, ultimately improving productivity and streamlining processes.

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  • 9. 

    A clean claim is one which:

    • If investigated does not require contact with the provider

    • Will pass all front end edits

    • Is processed electronically

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    A clean claim is one that meets all the requirements for processing without any issues. It does not require any further investigation or contact with the healthcare provider. Additionally, it will pass all front-end edits, meaning it meets all the necessary criteria for electronic processing. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as all the statements mentioned are true for a clean claim.

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  • 10. 

    The OBRA Act of 1986 requires HCPCS coding on the UB04 Medicare claims by which facilities:

    • Tertiary care hospitals

    • Acute care hospitals

    • Hospital based rural health clinics

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The OBRA Act of 1986 mandates the use of HCPCS coding on the UB04 Medicare claims for various facilities. Tertiary care hospitals, acute care hospitals, and hospital-based rural health clinics are all required to use HCPCS coding on their Medicare claims. This means that all of the mentioned facilities must adhere to the OBRA Act of 1986 and use HCPCS coding on their UB04 Medicare claims.

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  • 11. 

    ICD-9 codes are used to identify:

    • Procedures

    • Diagnosis

    • Supplies

    • Office visits

    Correct Answer
    A. Diagnosis
    Explanation
    ICD-9 codes are used to identify diagnoses. These codes are a standardized system used by healthcare providers to classify and code all diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures. They provide a way to accurately document and track patient conditions, which is essential for proper medical billing, research, and statistical analysis. By assigning an ICD-9 code to a diagnosis, healthcare professionals can easily communicate and share information about a patient's condition with other providers and insurance companies.

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  • 12. 

    ICD-9 coding has no affect reimbursement.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    ICD-9 coding does have an effect on reimbursement. The International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision (ICD-9) is used by healthcare providers to classify and code diagnoses and procedures. These codes are used by insurance companies to determine the reimbursement amount for medical services. Accurate and detailed coding is essential for proper reimbursement. Incorrect or incomplete coding can result in denied claims or reduced reimbursement. Therefore, ICD-9 coding does have an impact on reimbursement.

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  • 13. 

    Who is the primary according to the birthday rule:

    • Mother

    • Father

    • The plan that has covered the parent longer

    • The parent born first in the calendar year

    Correct Answer
    A. The parent born first in the calendar year
    Explanation
    According to the birthday rule, the primary is determined by the parent who is born first in the calendar year. This means that if both parents have the same coverage, the parent who has their birthday earlier in the year will be considered the primary.

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  • 14. 

    The first digit in the type of bill indicates:

    • Frequency

    • Type of facility

    • Bill Classification

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Type of facility
    Explanation
    The first digit in the type of bill indicates the type of facility. This means that the first digit in the bill number represents the specific type of healthcare facility where the bill originated from. It helps in categorizing and identifying the source of the bill, making it easier for administrative purposes and tracking.

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  • 15. 

    A UB04 code used which identifies the specific date defining a significant event relating to the bill that may affect payment processing:

    • Condition code

    • Occurrence code

    • Value code

    • Revenue code

    Correct Answer
    A. Occurrence code
    Explanation
    Occurrence code is a UB04 code that is used to identify a specific date defining a significant event relating to the bill that may affect payment processing. This code helps in providing additional information about the occurrence of a particular event, such as the date of admission, discharge, or surgery. It is essential for accurate billing and payment processing as it helps in determining the appropriate reimbursement for the services provided.

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  • 16. 

    A claim that contains complete and necessary information, but the information is illogical or incorrect is:

    • Clean claim

    • Incomplete claim

    • Invalid claim

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Invalid claim
    Explanation
    An invalid claim refers to a statement that contains all the necessary information but is illogical or incorrect. This means that the claim may have all the required details but fails to make sense or is factually incorrect. Therefore, it cannot be considered as a valid or accurate claim.

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  • 17. 

    ICD-9-CM is updated how often:

    • Bi annually

    • Annually

    • Every 2 years

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    ICD-9-CM is updated annually. This means that the International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification is revised and updated on a yearly basis. This ensures that the coding system remains current and reflects the latest medical knowledge and practices. Regular updates are necessary to accommodate new diseases, procedures, and treatments, as well as to address any changes in coding guidelines or regulations.

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  • 18. 

    A UB04 code which identifies the condition(s) relating to the bill that may affect payer processing:

    • Condtion code

    • Occurrence code

    • Value code

    • Revenue code

    Correct Answer
    A. Condtion code
    Explanation
    A condition code is a UB04 code that identifies any specific condition(s) related to the bill that may impact the processing by the payer. These codes are used to provide additional information about the patient's condition or treatment that may affect the reimbursement or coverage. By including a condition code, healthcare providers can ensure that the payer has all the necessary information to accurately process the claim.

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  • 19. 

    The medicare Part A deductible for days 1-60 is:

    • $1000.00

    • $1132.00

    • $1200.00

    • $1500.00

    Correct Answer
    A. $1132.00
    Explanation
    The correct answer is $1132.00. This is the deductible amount for the first 60 days of Medicare Part A coverage. It means that if a person is admitted to the hospital, they will be responsible for paying the first $1132.00 of their medical expenses before Medicare coverage begins.

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  • 20. 

    When a person with VA benefits (Veterans Administration) and Medicare recieves healthcare, they can use both benefits:

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    A person with VA benefits and Medicare cannot use both benefits simultaneously. Generally, if a person is eligible for both VA benefits and Medicare, they can choose to use either one for their healthcare needs. However, it is important to note that there are certain situations where VA benefits and Medicare may work together to provide coverage for specific services or treatments.

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  • 21. 

    A critical care hospital can determine the time it offeres services:

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    A critical care hospital cannot determine the time it offers services as it needs to be available 24/7 to provide emergency medical care to patients. Critical care hospitals operate round the clock to ensure that they are always prepared to handle critical medical situations and provide immediate treatment and support to patients in need. Therefore, the statement that a critical care hospital can determine the time it offers services is false.

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  • 22. 

    What is a payment by Medicare where another payer is responsible for payment and the claim is not expected to be paid promptly:

    • Assignment of benefits

    • Medicare secondary payer

    • Conditional payments

    • Medicare Administrative Contractor

    Correct Answer
    A. Conditional payments
    Explanation
    Conditional payments refer to payments made by Medicare when another payer is responsible for payment, and the claim is not expected to be paid promptly. These payments are made on the condition that Medicare will be reimbursed when the primary payer makes the payment. It allows Medicare to provide temporary coverage until the primary payer fulfills its responsibility.

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  • 23. 

    Resource Utilization Groups are used to assess payment for wich facilities:

    • Skilled nursing facility

    • Inpatient hospital

    • Outpatient Hospital

    • Ambulatory Surgical Facility

    Correct Answer
    A. Skilled nursing facility
    Explanation
    Resource Utilization Groups (RUGs) are used to assess payment for skilled nursing facilities. RUGs are a classification system that categorizes patients based on their level of care needs and resource utilization. This system helps determine the reimbursement amount for skilled nursing facilities based on the specific RUG category assigned to each patient. Therefore, RUGs are not used to assess payment for inpatient hospitals, outpatient hospitals, or ambulatory surgical facilities.

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  • 24. 

    The blood deductible for Medicare Part A & B is:

    • 1 unit per year

    • 2 units per year

    • 3 units per year

    • 4 units per year

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 units per year
    Explanation
    Medicare Part A and B have a blood deductible of 3 units per year. This means that Medicare beneficiaries are responsible for paying for the first 3 units of blood they receive each year before Medicare coverage kicks in. This deductible applies to both inpatient and outpatient blood transfusions.

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  • 25. 

    Problems with electronic billing include all of the following except:

    • Creates challenges

    • Less paper

    • Vendor reporting is inflexable and/or not available

    • Upload / download issues

    Correct Answer
    A. Less paper
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Less paper," is not a problem with electronic billing. In fact, electronic billing is known for reducing the use of paper by allowing transactions to be conducted digitally. Therefore, this option does not fit the category of problems associated with electronic billing.

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  • 26. 

    The critical access  hospital program was created to assure Medicare beneficiaries access to health care facililities in which areas:

    • Suburbs

    • Rural

    • Urban

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Rural
    Explanation
    The critical access hospital program was created to assure Medicare beneficiaries access to health care facilities in rural areas. This program recognizes the challenges faced by individuals living in remote and underserved communities, where access to healthcare services may be limited. By designating certain hospitals as critical access hospitals, Medicare aims to ensure that beneficiaries in rural areas have access to essential healthcare services close to their homes. This helps to improve healthcare outcomes and reduce the burden on patients who would otherwise have to travel long distances for medical care.

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  • 27. 

    The Uniform Bill is also known as:

    • UB04

    • UB92

    • CMS1500

    • Both A & C

    Correct Answer
    A. UB04
    Explanation
    The Uniform Bill is also known as UB04 because it is a standardized form used by hospitals and other healthcare facilities to submit claims for reimbursement to insurance companies. It replaced the previous version known as UB92. CMS1500, on the other hand, is a different form used for physician and outpatient services. Therefore, the correct answer is UB04, as it refers to the specific form used for hospital claims.

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  • 28. 

    The UB04 contains how many data elements:

    • 78

    • 81

    • 92

    • 150

    Correct Answer
    A. 81
    Explanation
    The UB04 form contains 81 data elements. This means that there are 81 specific pieces of information that can be recorded on the form. These data elements are used to capture important details about a patient's healthcare services, such as their diagnosis, treatment, and costs. Having 81 data elements ensures that a comprehensive range of information can be collected and documented accurately for billing and administrative purposes.

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  • 29. 

    The type of bill code is how many digits:

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The type of bill code consists of three digits.

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  • 30. 

    A UB04 code used to identify values of monetary nature:

    • Condition code

    • Occurrence code

    • Value code

    • Revenue code

    Correct Answer
    A. Value code
    Explanation
    Value code is a UB04 code used to identify values of monetary nature in healthcare billing. This code is used to indicate specific dollar amounts related to services provided, such as charges, payments, or adjustments. It helps in accurately capturing and reporting financial information for reimbursement purposes.

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  • 31. 

    Level II HCPCS codes are:

    • Alpha

    • Numeric

    • Alpha-numeric

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha-numeric
    Explanation
    Level II HCPCS codes are alpha-numeric, meaning they contain both letters and numbers. This is because these codes provide a more specific and detailed description of medical procedures, supplies, and services than alpha or numeric codes alone. The combination of letters and numbers allows for a greater level of specificity and accuracy in coding, which is essential for proper billing and reimbursement in the healthcare industry.

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  • 32. 

    Level II HCPCS codes are used to identify all of the following except:

    • Product

    • Office visit

    • Supplies

    • DME

    Correct Answer
    A. Office visit
    Explanation
    Level II HCPCS codes are used to identify products, supplies, and DME (Durable Medical Equipment). However, they are not used to identify office visits. Office visits are typically identified using Evaluation and Management (E/M) codes, which are a separate set of codes used to document and bill for healthcare services provided during an office visit. Therefore, the correct answer is "Office visit".

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  • 33. 

    Type of bill code 227, the third digit 7 indicates:

    • Final claim for a home health PPS episode

    • Interim- last class

    • Replacement of prior claim

    • Late charge only

    Correct Answer
    A. Replacement of prior claim
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Replacement of prior claim." In the type of bill code 227, the third digit 7 indicates that the claim is a replacement of a prior claim. This means that a previous claim for the same patient and episode was submitted, but it was incorrect or incomplete, so it needs to be replaced with a corrected claim.

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  • 34. 

    Type of bill code 131 indicates:

    • Skilled nursing, Outpatient, Interim- first claim

    • Hospital, outpatient, non payment zero claims

    • Hospital, inpatient, admit through discharge claim

    • Hospital, outpatient, admit through discharge claim

    Correct Answer
    A. Hospital, outpatient, admit through discharge claim
    Explanation
    The type of bill code 131 indicates a claim for a hospital outpatient visit that includes both the admission and discharge of the patient. This means that the patient was admitted to the hospital for treatment or observation and then discharged after receiving the necessary care. The code is used to accurately categorize and process the claim for reimbursement purposes.

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  • 35. 

    A system generated free form statement that is used to communicate the status of a patients account:

    • Data Mailer

    • Superbill

    • Itemized Statement

    • Both B & C

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Mailer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Data Mailer." A data mailer is a system-generated statement that is used to communicate the status of a patient's account. It is typically sent to the patient or their insurance company and contains detailed information about the services provided, charges incurred, and any payments made. This statement helps in keeping the patient informed about their account balance and facilitates the billing and payment process.

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  • 36. 

    Who is primary if both parents have the same birthday:

    • Mother

    • Father

    • The plan that has covered the parent longer

    • The parent born first in the calendar year

    Correct Answer
    A. The plan that has covered the parent longer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The plan that has covered the parent longer." This means that if both parents have the same birthday, the primary parent would be determined based on which parent has been covered by the insurance plan for a longer period of time. This criterion is used to determine the primary parent in cases where both parents have the same birthday.

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  • 37. 

    Type of bill code 333, the second digit 3 indicates:

    • Outpatient

    • Inpatient Part B

    • Swing Bed

    • Inpatient part A

    Correct Answer
    A. Outpatient
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Outpatient. In the type of bill code 333, the second digit 3 indicates that the bill is for an outpatient service. This means that the patient received medical treatment or services in a healthcare facility but did not require an overnight stay. Outpatient services can include consultations, diagnostic tests, minor surgeries, and other procedures that do not require hospitalization.

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  • 38. 

    V-codes are used when:

    • Describe an illness

    • Describe a procedure

    • Circumstances other than disease or inury

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Circumstances other than disease or inury
    Explanation
    V-codes are used to describe circumstances other than disease or injury. These codes are used to document reasons for healthcare encounters that do not involve a current illness or injury. This includes codes for routine check-ups, vaccinations, counseling, and other preventive services. V-codes are important for capturing and tracking healthcare encounters that are not directly related to a specific disease or injury, providing a comprehensive view of a patient's healthcare needs and history.

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  • 39. 

    Hospital, swing bed, Interim- first claim:

    • 251

    • 182

    • 145

    • 262

    Correct Answer
    A. 182
    Explanation
    The given sequence of numbers represents the number of patients in a hospital's swing bed on different days. The numbers 251, 145, and 262 are higher than the previous numbers, indicating an increase in the number of patients. However, the number 182 is lower than the previous number, suggesting a decrease in the number of patients. Therefore, the number 182 is the correct answer as it breaks the pattern of increasing numbers.

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  • 40. 

    A UB04 code that identifies a specific accommodation, ancillary service or billing calculation:

    • Condtion code

    • Occurrence code

    • Value code

    • Revenue code

    Correct Answer
    A. Revenue code
    Explanation
    A revenue code is a UB04 code that identifies a specific accommodation, ancillary service, or billing calculation. It helps in categorizing the services provided by healthcare facilities and determining the charges associated with them. Revenue codes are used for billing purposes and play a crucial role in accurately documenting and tracking financial transactions in the healthcare industry. They ensure that the correct charges are applied and that the billing process is transparent and standardized.

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  • 41. 

    The Medicare Part A Lifetime Reserve Days deductible for days 91-150 is:

    • $275.00 per day

    • $350.00 per day

    • $566.00 per day

    • $1132.00 per spell of illness

    Correct Answer
    A. $566.00 per day
    Explanation
    The Medicare Part A Lifetime Reserve Days deductible for days 91-150 is $566.00 per day. This means that for each day of hospitalization during this time period, the patient is responsible for paying $566.00 out of pocket before Medicare coverage kicks in. This deductible applies to the lifetime reserve days, which are additional days of hospitalization that Medicare covers after the standard 90-day benefit period has been exhausted.

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  • 42. 

    How many major diagnostic categories are there:

    • 25

    • 50

    • 745

    • 500

    Correct Answer
    A. 25
    Explanation
    There are 25 major diagnostic categories.

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  • 43. 

    RBRVS is the acronym  for:

    • Resource based relative value system

    • Resource based related value system

    • Resource based related value scale

    • Resource based relative value scale

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource based relative value scale
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Resource based relative value scale." RBRVS is an acronym that stands for Resource Based Relative Value Scale. This system is used to determine the reimbursement rates for medical services provided by physicians. It takes into account the resources required to provide each service, such as time, skill, and overhead costs. The relative value scale assigns a numerical value to each service, which is then multiplied by a conversion factor to determine the reimbursement amount. This system helps ensure that physicians are fairly compensated for their services based on the complexity and resources required.

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  • 44. 

    The 72- hour rule does not apply to all of the following except:

    • Childrens hos[otals

    • Cancer hospitals

    • Psychiatric hospitals

    • Inpatient hospitals

    Correct Answer
    A. Inpatient hospitals
    Explanation
    The 72-hour rule refers to a regulation that allows hospitals to bill Medicare for services provided to a patient who is admitted for at least 72 hours. Inpatient hospitals are the only option listed that falls under the category of hospitals where the 72-hour rule applies. Children's hospitals, cancer hospitals, and psychiatric hospitals may also have inpatient services, but they are not specifically mentioned in the question. Therefore, the correct answer is "Inpatient hospitals."

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  • 45. 

    The standard code set adopted by HIPAA EDI include all of the following except:

    • CPT-4

    • RBRVS

    • CDT

    • ICD-9

    Correct Answer
    A. RBRVS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RBRVS. RBRVS stands for Resource-Based Relative Value Scale, which is a system used by Medicare to determine the reimbursement rates for different medical procedures. While CPT-4, CDT, and ICD-9 are all standard code sets adopted by HIPAA EDI, RBRVS is not included in this list.

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  • 46. 

    The third digit in the type of bill indicates:

    • Frequency

    • Type of facility

    • Bill Classification

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Frequency
    Explanation
    The third digit in the type of bill indicates the frequency. This means that it represents how often a particular bill is being issued or generated. It helps in categorizing and organizing bills based on their frequency, making it easier for record-keeping and analysis purposes.

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  • 47. 

    The CWF contains all of the following except:

    • Part A & B deductible information

    • Date of Birth

    • Date of service

    • Benefit periods and days remaining in the current benefit period

    Correct Answer
    A. Date of service
    Explanation
    The CWF (Common Working File) is a database that contains important information about a patient's Medicare coverage. It includes details such as Part A & B deductible information, date of birth, benefit periods, and days remaining in the current benefit period. However, it does not include the specific date of service, which refers to the date on which a particular medical service was provided to the patient.

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  • 48. 

    The personal health record was developed for the following reasons except:

    • Allows the patient to take home and review the medical record

    • Allows the patient to stay involved in their health care services

    • Allows patient to update health information to make sure it remains current

    • Allows the patient to request prescription refills and schedule appointments

    Correct Answer
    A. Allows the patient to take home and review the medical record
    Explanation
    The personal health record was developed to allow the patient to stay involved in their health care services, update health information to make sure it remains current, and request prescription refills and schedule appointments. However, it does not specifically allow the patient to take home and review the medical record.

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  • 49. 

    How many days does CMS allow a hospital to file a subsequent inpatient DRG adjustment:

    • 30 days

    • 45 days

    • 60 days

    • 90 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 days
    Explanation
    CMS allows a hospital to file a subsequent inpatient DRG adjustment within 60 days. This means that after the initial submission of a claim, the hospital has a window of 60 days to make any necessary adjustments or corrections to the DRG assignment. This timeframe allows hospitals to review and analyze their coding and billing processes, ensuring accurate reimbursement and compliance with CMS guidelines.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 08, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 29, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Mimsymom

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