CPAT Prep Hospital And Clinic Billing Pfs

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Brandy Cummins
B
Brandy Cummins
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 763
| Attempts: 763 | Questions: 84
Please wait...
Question 1 / 84
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. The uniform billing form is also known as the UB-04.

Explanation

The statement is true because the uniform billing form is indeed known as the UB-04. The UB-04 is a standard claim form used by institutional healthcare providers to bill Medicare and Medicaid, as well as other insurance companies. It replaced the UB-92 form in 2007 and is widely used in the United States.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
CPAT Prep Hospital And Clinic Billing Pfs - Quiz

This CPAT Prep quiz focuses on Hospital and Clinic Billing PFS, testing knowledge on UB-04 forms, including data elements, condition codes, and revenue codes. It's designed to enhance... see morebilling accuracy and compliance in healthcare settings. see less

2. MSP is the acronym for:

Explanation

The correct answer is Medicare secondary payer. MSP refers to Medicare secondary payer, which is a provision that requires certain types of insurance to pay claims as secondary to Medicare. This means that if someone has Medicare coverage along with another type of insurance, such as employer-sponsored insurance or Medicaid, Medicare will act as the primary payer and the other insurance will act as the secondary payer. This ensures that Medicare is not responsible for covering costs that should be covered by another insurance source.

Submit
3. In a divorce or separation which plan is primary?

Explanation

The parent who has custody is considered the primary plan in a divorce or separation. This means that they have the responsibility and authority to make decisions regarding the child's well-being, including medical treatment. They are the one who has the legal right to make decisions for the child and are responsible for their day-to-day care. The parent who presented the child for treatment may have a role in the child's healthcare, but ultimately, the parent with custody has the primary authority.

Submit
4. Medicare is secondary payer to which of the following:

Explanation

Medicare is considered a secondary payer to Federal Black Lung, Workers' Compensation, and Automobile medical, no-fault or liability insurance. This means that if an individual has any of these types of insurance coverage, Medicare will only pay for healthcare services after the primary insurance has paid its share. In other words, Medicare will step in to cover any remaining costs that the primary insurance does not cover. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

Submit
5. Inaccurate or inappropriate coding will impact your facility's bottom line.

Explanation

Inaccurate or inappropriate coding can have a negative impact on a facility's financial performance. This is because incorrect coding can lead to billing errors, claim denials, and delays in reimbursement. These issues can result in lost revenue and increased costs for the facility. Therefore, it is important to ensure accurate and appropriate coding practices to maintain a healthy bottom line.

Submit
6. What is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder to an insurance company, to pay benefits directly to the hospital?

Explanation

Assignment of Benefits is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder, that allows an insurance company to pay benefits directly to the hospital. This means that the policyholder assigns their right to receive the insurance benefits to the hospital, so the hospital can directly receive the payment for the services provided. This is commonly used in healthcare settings where the hospital wants to ensure they receive payment for services rendered without relying on the patient to pay and then seek reimbursement from the insurance company.

Submit
7. The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at what time?

Explanation

The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at the time of admission. This means that when a patient is admitted to a healthcare facility, they typically sign an agreement that allows the healthcare provider to directly bill their insurance company for the services rendered. This ensures that the healthcare provider will receive payment from the insurance company, rather than the patient having to pay out of pocket and then seek reimbursement.

Submit
8. ICD-9 CM is updated how often:

Explanation

ICD-9 CM is updated annually. This means that the International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification is revised and updated on a yearly basis. This update ensures that the coding system remains current and reflects any changes in medical practices, procedures, and diagnoses. By updating the ICD-9 CM annually, healthcare professionals can accurately code and classify diseases and medical conditions, facilitating effective communication and data analysis in the healthcare industry.

Submit
9. CWF is the acronym for:

Explanation

CWF stands for Common Working File. This term refers to a shared workspace or storage area where multiple users can access and collaborate on documents, data, or projects. It is a central location that allows for easy communication and coordination among team members, ensuring that everyone is working with the most up-to-date information. The use of a Common Working File promotes efficiency, productivity, and effective teamwork.

Submit
10. A clean claim is one which:

Explanation

A clean claim is one that meets all the criteria mentioned in the options. It does not require contact with the provider when investigated, passes all front-end edits, and is processed electronically. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

Submit
11. Who is primary according to the birthday rule?

Explanation

According to the birthday rule, the primary coverage is determined by the parent who was born first in the calendar year. This means that if both parents have coverage through different plans, the plan of the parent who has their birthday earlier in the year will be considered primary. This rule is used to determine which insurance plan will be responsible for paying claims first when a dependent child is covered by both parents' plans.

Submit
12. The Medicare Part A deductible for days 1 through 60 is:

Explanation

The Medicare Part A deductible for days 1 through 60 is $1132. This means that if a person is admitted to the hospital and stays for less than 60 days, they will be responsible for paying this deductible amount before Medicare coverage kicks in.

Submit
13. Blood deductible for Medicare Part A and Part B is:

Explanation

Medicare Part A and Part B have a blood deductible of 3 pints per year. This means that Medicare beneficiaries are responsible for the cost of the first 3 pints of blood they receive in a calendar year. After the deductible is met, Medicare will cover the cost of any additional blood transfusions. This deductible helps to ensure that Medicare resources are used efficiently and encourages beneficiaries to use blood transfusions judiciously.

Submit
14. The OBRA Act of 1986 requires HCPCS coding on the UB-04 Medicare claims by which facilities:

Explanation

The OBRA Act of 1986 requires HCPCS coding on the UB-04 Medicare claims by all of the mentioned facilities, including Tertiary Care Hospitals, Acute Care Hospitals, and Hospital Based Rural Health Clinics. This means that these facilities are obligated to use the Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) when submitting their claims to Medicare using the UB-04 form.

Submit
15. ICD-9 codes are used to identify:

Explanation

ICD-9 codes are a standardized system of alphanumeric codes used to classify and identify medical diagnoses. These codes are used by healthcare providers, insurance companies, and researchers to accurately document and track diagnoses for various purposes such as billing, statistical analysis, and patient care management. Therefore, the correct answer is "Diagnosis."

Submit
16. NCCI identifies:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Both A and C." NCCI (National Correct Coding Initiative) identifies codes that should not be billed together and mutually exclusive codes. This means that certain codes should not be reported together because they represent similar or overlapping services. NCCI also identifies unbundled costs, which refers to the practice of separately reporting components of a service that should be reported as a single code. Therefore, the correct answer is that NCCI identifies both codes that should not be billed together and mutually exclusive codes.

Submit
17. The UB-04 contains how many data elements?

Explanation

The UB-04 contains 81 data elements.

Submit
18. The first digit in the type of bill indicates:

Explanation

The first digit in the type of bill indicates the type of facility. This means that the first digit in the bill number corresponds to the specific type of healthcare facility where the services were provided. This classification helps in identifying the type of facility and streamlining the billing process accordingly.

Submit
19. A Critical Care hospital can determine the time it offers services:

Explanation

A Critical Care hospital cannot determine the time it offers services as it needs to be available 24/7 to provide emergency medical care to critically ill patients. Critical care hospitals operate round the clock to ensure that patients receive immediate and specialized treatment whenever required. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

Submit
20. A UB-04 code which identifies the condition(s) relating to the bill that may affect payer processing:

Explanation

A condition code is a UB-04 code that is used to identify specific conditions or circumstances related to a medical bill that may impact how the payer processes the claim. These codes provide additional information to the payer about the patient's condition or the services provided, helping them determine the appropriate payment or reimbursement for the claim.

Submit
21. A claim that contains complete and necessary information but the information is illogical or incorrect is:

Explanation

An invalid claim refers to a statement that contains all the necessary information but is illogical or incorrect. This means that the claim might have all the required details, but the information provided is not accurate or does not make sense. It is important to distinguish between incomplete claims, which lack necessary information, and invalid claims, which have incorrect or illogical information.

Submit
22. When a person with VA benefits and Medicare receives healthcare, they can use both benefits:

Explanation

A person with VA benefits and Medicare cannot use both benefits simultaneously. When receiving healthcare, they must choose to use either their VA benefits or Medicare. This is because VA benefits are specifically designed to provide healthcare services to veterans, while Medicare is a federal health insurance program available to all individuals aged 65 and older, as well as certain younger individuals with disabilities. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

Submit
23. What is a payment made by Medicare where another payer is responsible for payment and the claim is not expected to be paid promptly:

Explanation

Conditional Payments refer to payments made by Medicare when another payer is responsible for payment, but the claim is not expected to be paid promptly. These payments are made on a temporary basis and are subject to reimbursement by the primary payer once they have made their payment. Conditional Payments are typically made when there is a delay or dispute in determining the primary payer, and Medicare steps in to cover the costs in the meantime.

Submit
24. Resource Utilization Groups are used to assess payment for which facilities:

Explanation

Resource Utilization Groups (RUGs) are a classification system used to assess payment for Skilled Nursing Facilities (SNFs). RUGs categorize patients based on their level of care needs, such as therapy services, nursing care, and activities of daily living. This classification helps determine the appropriate reimbursement rate for each patient in an SNF. RUGs are not used to assess payment for Inpatient Hospitals, Outpatient Hospitals, or Ambulatory Surgical Facilities.

Submit
25. The RBRVS contained which major elements:

Explanation

The RBRVS (Resource-Based Relative Value Scale) contained three major elements. First, it included limits on the amount that a non-participating physician can charge beneficiaries. This helps to ensure that healthcare costs remain reasonable and affordable for patients. Second, it established a fee schedule for the payment of physician services. This fee schedule helps to standardize and regulate the reimbursement rates for different medical procedures and services. Finally, the RBRVS implemented MVPS (Medicare Volume Performance Standards) to control the rates of increase in Medicare expenditures for physician services. These measures aim to control healthcare costs and ensure the sustainability of the Medicare program.

Submit
26. MUE's were designed to:

Explanation

MUE's, or Medically Unlikely Edits, were designed to reduce errors due to clerical errors and reduce incorrect coding based on anatomic considerations. By implementing MUE's, healthcare providers can decrease the likelihood of mistakes caused by human error during the coding and billing process, as well as ensure that codes are accurately assigned based on the specific anatomical details of each patient's condition. Therefore, the correct answer is "Both A and C."

Submit
27. The Critical Hospital Access Program was created to assure Medicare benficiaries access to health care services in which areas:

Explanation

The Critical Hospital Access Program was created to assure Medicare beneficiaries access to health care services in rural areas. This program recognizes the challenges faced by individuals living in rural communities, where access to healthcare facilities and services may be limited. By focusing on improving access to healthcare in rural areas, the program aims to ensure that Medicare beneficiaries in these areas have equal opportunities to receive the necessary medical care and services they need.

Submit
28. Level II HCPCS codes are:

Explanation

Level II HCPCS codes are alpha-numeric, meaning they consist of both letters and numbers. These codes are used to identify medical supplies, equipment, and services that are not covered by CPT codes. The alpha characters in the code represent the category or type of item or service, while the numeric characters provide additional information such as the specific item or service being billed. Using alpha-numeric codes allows for a more detailed and specific identification of medical items and services, making it easier for healthcare providers and insurers to accurately bill and track these items.

Submit
29. A UB04 code used to identify values of monetary nature:

Explanation

Value code is a UB04 code used to identify values of monetary nature. This code is used to indicate specific monetary amounts related to services provided, such as charges, payments, or adjustments. It helps in accurately documenting and billing for the financial aspects of healthcare services.

Submit
30. A UB04 code used which identifies the specific date defining a significant event relating to the bill that my affect payment processing:

Explanation

An occurrence code is a UB04 code used to identify a specific date that defines a significant event related to the bill. This code helps in determining the payment processing for the bill.

Submit
31. The type of bill code is how many digits:

Explanation

The type of bill code consists of three digits.

Submit
32. ICD-9 coding has no effect on reimbursement.

Explanation

ICD-9 coding does have an effect on reimbursement. ICD-9 codes are used to classify and report medical diagnoses and procedures for billing purposes. Insurance companies and other payers use these codes to determine the appropriate reimbursement for healthcare services. Accurate and detailed ICD-9 coding is crucial for healthcare providers to receive proper reimbursement for the services they provide. Therefore, the statement that ICD-9 coding has no effect on reimbursement is false.

Submit
33. Type of bill code 227, the third digit 7 indicates:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Replacement of prior claim." The third digit of the type of bill code 227 indicates that it is a replacement of a prior claim. This means that the current claim is being submitted to replace a previously submitted claim for the same episode of care.

Submit
34. Problems with electronic billing include all of the following except:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Less paper". This is because electronic billing actually reduces the need for paper, as it allows for digital invoices and transactions to be sent and received electronically. The other options listed all highlight potential issues or challenges that can arise with electronic billing, such as creating challenges, vendor reporting being inflexible or unavailable, and upload/download issues.

Submit
35. Level II HCPCS codes are used to identify all of the following except:

Explanation

Level II HCPCS codes are used to identify products, supplies, and DME (Durable Medical Equipment). However, they are not used to identify office visits. Office visits are typically categorized and billed using Evaluation and Management (E&M) codes. Therefore, the correct answer is "Office Visits".

Submit
36. Type of bill code 131 indicates:

Explanation

Type of bill code 131 indicates a Hospital, outpatient, admit through discharge claim. This means that the claim is being submitted for services provided at a hospital on an outpatient basis, starting from the admission of the patient to their discharge. This type of bill code is used to report the entire episode of care for a patient who is admitted to the hospital as an outpatient and undergoes various treatments or procedures before being discharged.

Submit
37. Type of bill code 333, the second digit 3 indicates:

Explanation

The correct answer is Outpatient. In the type of bill code 333, the second digit 3 indicates that the bill is for an outpatient service. Type of bill codes are used in medical billing to categorize the type of services provided to the patient. In this case, the code 333 specifically identifies outpatient services.

Submit
38. Hospital, Swing bed, Interim-first claim:

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
39. Who is primary if both parents have the same birthday?

Explanation

If both parents have the same birthday, the primary parent would be determined by the plan that has covered the parent longer. This means that the parent who has been covered by the insurance plan for a longer period of time would be considered the primary parent.

Submit
40. NCCI is the acronym for:

Explanation

The correct answer is National Correct Coding Initiative. NCCI is an acronym that stands for National Correct Coding Initiative. This initiative was developed by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) to promote correct coding methodologies and prevent improper coding practices in medical claims. It includes coding edits and guidelines that help ensure accurate and consistent coding, reducing the risk of fraud and abuse in healthcare billing.

Submit
41. APC is the acronym for:

Explanation

APC stands for Ambulatory Payment Classification. Ambulatory refers to medical care provided on an outpatient basis, meaning that patients do not require overnight hospitalization. Payment classification refers to the system used to categorize and determine reimbursement for healthcare services. Ambulatory Payment Classification is a specific payment system used by Medicare to determine the payment rates for outpatient services. This system groups similar services together based on clinical similarity and resource use, allowing for more accurate reimbursement.

Submit
42. V- codes are used when?

Explanation

V-codes are used to describe circumstances other than diseases or injury. These codes are used to indicate reasons for encounters that are not due to a specific illness or injury. They are used to provide additional information about the patient's condition, such as a history of a certain disease, a family history of a certain condition, or a need for a specific service, like a vaccination or screening. V-codes help in capturing important information about the patient's health status, which can be useful for research, public health monitoring, and reimbursement purposes.

Submit
43. The 72 hour rule does not apply to all of the following except:

Explanation

The 72 hour rule is a regulation that applies to psychiatric hospitals, stating that a patient must stay for at least 72 hours to be eligible for insurance coverage. However, this rule does not apply to inpatient hospitals. Therefore, the correct answer is "Inpatient Hospitals" because they are not subject to the 72 hour rule.

Submit
44. The third digit in the type of bill indicates:

Explanation

The third digit in the type of bill indicates the frequency. This means that it represents how often a bill is being generated or how often a certain service is being provided. It is used to classify bills and determine the billing cycle for a particular facility or service. The third digit helps in organizing and tracking the frequency of bill generation or service provision, making it easier for administrative purposes.

Submit
45. The CWF contains all of the following except:

Explanation

The Correct answer is "Date of service". The reason for this is that the CWF (Common Working File) is a database used by Medicare to store and track beneficiary information. It contains various details such as Part A and B deductible information, date of birth, and benefit periods and days remaining in the current benefit period. However, it does not include the specific date of service, which refers to the date on which a particular medical service or treatment was provided to the beneficiary.

Submit
46. The Medicare Part A Lifetime Reserve 91 through 150 days:

Explanation

The correct answer is $550 per day. Medicare Part A provides coverage for hospital stays, and the Lifetime Reserve days are additional days of coverage that can be used after the initial 90 days. During these reserve days, Medicare covers a portion of the cost, and the beneficiary is responsible for the daily coinsurance. In this case, the coinsurance amount is $550 per day.

Submit
47. RBRVS is the acronym for:

Explanation

RBRVS stands for Resource Based Relative Value Scale. This system is used to determine the reimbursement rates for medical services provided by physicians. It takes into account the resources required to perform each service, such as time, skill, and overhead costs. The relative value of each service is then calculated based on these factors, and payment rates are set accordingly. This system helps ensure that physicians are fairly compensated for their services based on the complexity and resources required for each procedure.

Submit
48. NCCI was introduced to do all of the following except:

Explanation

NCCI, or the National Correct Coding Initiative, was introduced to achieve multiple objectives, such as identifying codes that may be susceptible to fraud and abuse, establishing standards of medical billing, and identifying codes that should not be billed together. However, the purpose of NCCI does not include increasing reimbursement. Instead, it aims to promote accurate and appropriate coding practices to ensure proper reimbursement based on the services provided.

Submit
49. A UB04 code that identifies a specific accommodation, ancillary service or billing calculation:

Explanation

A revenue code is a UB04 code that identifies a specific accommodation, ancillary service, or billing calculation. It is used to indicate the type of service or item provided to a patient, which helps in determining the appropriate billing and reimbursement. Revenue codes are essential for accurate and efficient medical billing and coding processes.

Submit
50. HCPCS codes have how many levels:

Explanation

HCPCS codes have two levels. This means that each HCPCS code consists of two parts: a letter followed by four digits. The first level is represented by the letter, which indicates the general category or type of service. The second level is represented by the four digits, which provide more specific information about the service or item being billed. Having two levels allows for a more detailed and specific coding system, ensuring accurate and consistent reporting of healthcare services.

Submit
51. The components of an E/M code include all of the following except:

Explanation

The components of an E/M code include examination, medical decision making, and history. Time is not included as a component in an E/M code. E/M codes are used to classify and bill for medical services based on the complexity and intensity of the service provided, and time is not considered as a factor in determining the level of service. Instead, the level of service is determined based on the examination performed, the medical decision making involved, and the patient's history.

Submit
52. Department numbers are usually how many digits?

Explanation

Department numbers are usually three digits because they provide a unique identifier for each department within an organization. Using three digits allows for a larger range of department numbers to be assigned, accommodating a larger number of departments. Additionally, three digits are easier to read and manage compared to longer numbers, making them more practical for administrative purposes.

Submit
53. A hospital cannot bill a beneficiary for units of service of MUE limits even if they have an ABN on file.

Explanation

The statement is true because MUE (Medically Unlikely Edits) limits are set by Medicare to prevent excessive or inappropriate billing for certain services or procedures. These limits specify the maximum number of units of service that can be billed for a particular code on a single date of service. If a hospital exceeds the MUE limit, they cannot bill the beneficiary for the additional units of service, even if they have an ABN (Advance Beneficiary Notice) on file. The ABN is used to inform the beneficiary that Medicare may deny payment for the service, but it does not allow the hospital to bill the beneficiary for services beyond the MUE limit.

Submit
54. Revenue codes are found in which fields:

Explanation

Revenue codes are found in the fields numbered 42-49.

Submit
55. The type of bill code is found in what form locator:

Explanation

The type of bill code is found in form locator 4. The form locator is a specific field on a claim form that indicates where certain information should be entered. In this case, the type of bill code, which is a code that identifies the type of service being billed, is entered in form locator 4.

Submit
56. How many major diagnostic categories are there?

Explanation

There are 25 major diagnostic categories.

Submit
57. How many hours can a Critical Acces hospital keep an inpatient?

Explanation

A Critical Access hospital can keep an inpatient for a maximum of 96 hours. This means that the hospital is able to provide care and treatment to the patient for up to four days before they may need to be transferred to a different facility. This extended period allows the hospital to stabilize the patient's condition or arrange for any necessary transfers or further treatment.

Submit
58. SNF days 21 through 100:

Explanation

The correct answer is $137.50 per day. This is because the given information states that the SNF (Skilled Nursing Facility) charges different rates for different days. From days 21 through 100, the rate increases progressively from $125 per day to $127.50 per day, then to $137.50 per day, and finally to $150 per day. Therefore, the rate for day 100 would be $137.50 per day.

Submit
59. Working aged means a person is:

Explanation

A working aged person is defined as someone who is 65 years of age and currently works and is covered by an EGHP (Employer Group Health Plan). This means that they are of a certain age, still employed, and have health coverage through their employer. This definition encompasses all the given options, making "All of the above" the correct answer.

Submit
60. The standard code set adopted by HIPAA EDI include all of the following except:

Explanation

The correct answer is RBRVS. The question is asking for the code set that is not included in the standard code set adopted by HIPAA EDI. CPT-4, CDT, and ICD-9 are all included in the standard code set, but RBRVS is not. RBRVS stands for Resource-Based Relative Value Scale, which is a system used by Medicare to determine the reimbursement rates for medical services. While it is not included in the HIPAA EDI standard code set, it is still an important system used in healthcare reimbursement.

Submit
61. How many days does CMS allow a hospital to file a subsequent inpatient DRG adjustment?

Explanation

CMS allows a hospital to file a subsequent inpatient DRG adjustment within 60 days. This means that the hospital has a window of 60 days after the initial filing to submit any necessary adjustments or corrections to the inpatient DRG. This timeframe allows the hospital to review and assess the accuracy of the initial filing and make any necessary changes within a reasonable period.

Submit
62. A system generated free-form statement that is used to communicate the status of a patient’s account:

Explanation

A system generated free-form statement that is used to communicate the status of a patient's account is called a Data Mailer. This statement provides information about the patient's account, including any outstanding balances, payments made, and any adjustments or charges. It is generated by the system and can be sent to the patient via mail or electronically. This statement helps in keeping the patient informed about their account status and facilitates communication between the healthcare provider and the patient.

Submit
63. Elements of a Chargemaster are found in what locator fields on the UB04:

Explanation

The elements of a Chargemaster are found in locator fields 42-49 on the UB04 form. These fields correspond to the Revenue Codes, HCPCS codes, and charges associated with each service or item provided by the healthcare facility. The Chargemaster is a comprehensive list of all the services and items that can be billed to the patient or their insurance, along with their corresponding charges. By referencing fields 42-49 on the UB04, healthcare providers can accurately document and bill for the services they have provided.

Submit
64. How many miles must be between a Critical Access Hospital and any other hospital?

Explanation

Critical Access Hospitals are small, rural hospitals that provide essential healthcare services to underserved areas. They are required to be located at least 35 miles away from any other hospital to ensure that they serve areas where access to healthcare is limited. This distance requirement helps to prevent competition between hospitals and ensures that Critical Access Hospitals can effectively provide healthcare services to their designated communities.

Submit
65. NCCI reviews claims at what time:

Explanation

The NCCI (National Correct Coding Initiative) reviews claims before they are paid. This means that they assess the accuracy and appropriateness of the submitted claims before any payment is made. This review process helps to ensure that the claims are in compliance with coding and billing guidelines, preventing any potential errors or fraudulent activities. By reviewing claims before payment, the NCCI aims to maintain the integrity of the payment system and protect against improper billing practices.

Submit
66. How many componenets are used in defininf the level of an E/M service:

Explanation

The correct answer is 7 because the level of an E/M (Evaluation and Management) service is determined by considering seven components. These components include the history of the present illness, review of systems, past medical, family and social history, examination, medical decision making, counseling, and coordination of care. Each component contributes to the overall level of the E/M service, helping healthcare professionals accurately code and bill for their services.

Submit
67. If ESRD is the only reason a patient was entitled to Medicare, the coverage will end in the following time frames except:

Explanation

If ESRD (End-Stage Renal Disease) is the only reason a patient was entitled to Medicare, their coverage will end in the following time frames except 24 months after they no longer require maintenance dialysis. This means that if a patient with ESRD stops needing regular dialysis, their Medicare coverage will continue for 24 months after that point. After those 24 months, their Medicare coverage will end. The other options listed have different time frames for when Medicare coverage will end, such as 36 months after a successful kidney transplant or 12 months after no longer needing maintenance dialysis. However, the exception is the 24-month time frame.

Submit
68. The 3 resource components of the RBRVS include all of the following except:

Explanation

The correct answer is Physicians normal charges. The Resource-Based Relative Value Scale (RBRVS) is a system used to determine the reimbursement rates for medical services. It takes into account three resource components: practice expenses, work required, and malpractice insurance expense. Physicians normal charges are not considered as a resource component in the RBRVS.

Submit
69. Evaluation and management services have how many key components

Explanation

The correct answer is 3 because evaluation and management services typically consist of three key components: history, examination, and medical decision making. These components are used to determine the level of complexity and medical necessity for the service provided.

Submit
70. MS-DRG’s result in savings to Medciare.

Explanation

MS-DRG's (Medicare Severity-Diagnosis Related Groups) do not result in savings to Medicare. In fact, MS-DRG's are a payment system used by Medicare to classify and reimburse hospitals for inpatient services based on the patient's diagnosis, severity of illness, and other factors. The purpose of MS-DRG's is to standardize payment and ensure appropriate reimbursement, but they do not inherently lead to savings for Medicare. Therefore, the statement is false.

Submit
71. Elements of a chargemaster include all of the following except:

Explanation

A chargemaster is a comprehensive list of all the services and procedures provided by a healthcare facility along with their corresponding prices. It is used for billing purposes and includes various elements such as revenue codes, CPT/HCPCS codes, and modifiers. However, ICD-9 codes are not typically included in a chargemaster. ICD-9 codes are used for diagnostic coding and are not directly related to the pricing and billing of services.

Submit
72. Occurrence codes are found in which fields:

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
73. MS-DRG’s were created on which tiers of payments?

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above". MS-DRGs (Medicare Severity Diagnosis Related Groups) were created on all tiers of payments, including major complications or comorbidities, complications or comorbidities, and no complications or comorbidities. This means that the payment system takes into account the severity of the patient's condition and any additional complications or comorbidities they may have, in order to determine the appropriate reimbursement level.

Submit
74. Per Medicare timely filing regulations, a claim for date of service October 1, 2010 must be submitted by:

Explanation

Per Medicare timely filing regulations, a claim for a date of service must be submitted within 12 months from the date of service. In this case, the date of service is October 1, 2010, so the claim must be submitted by October 1, 2011. However, since the options provided are all in December, the correct answer would be the closest option to October 1, 2011, which is Dec 31, 2012.

Submit
75. These defining componentts include all of the following except:

Explanation

The question is asking for a component that is not included in the defining components mentioned. The options provided are Time, Cost, Coordination of Care, and History. The correct answer is Cost, as it is not one of the defining components. The other options, Time, Coordination of Care, and History, are all important factors in defining components.

Submit
76. How many acute care beds may a Critical Access hospital provide?

Explanation

A Critical Access hospital is a small rural hospital that provides limited inpatient services. These hospitals are required to have no more than 25 acute care beds. Therefore, the correct answer is 15, as it falls within the allowed range of acute care beds for a Critical Access hospital.

Submit
77. Assignment of a MS-DRG uses the following elements in order for correct selection except:

Explanation

The assignment of a MS-DRG uses the principle diagnosis, discharge status, and surgical procedure to determine the appropriate code. However, condition codes are not used in the selection process. Condition codes are additional codes that provide information about the patient's health status, such as whether the patient has a specific condition or is receiving certain treatments. While condition codes are important for providing additional information, they do not directly impact the selection of the MS-DRG.

Submit
78. Benefits of electronic billing include all of the following except:

Explanation

Electronic billing offers several benefits, such as providing proof of receipt, reducing the need for paper, and enabling better follow-up capabilities. However, the statement "Attachments can be sent electronically" is not a benefit of electronic billing, but rather a feature that is commonly associated with it. This feature allows users to easily attach supporting documents, such as invoices or receipts, to the electronic bill.

Submit
79. Elements required to assign an APC include all of the following except:

Explanation

The elements required to assign an APC include CPT codes, ICD-9 codes, and the site of service. Condition codes, on the other hand, are not required for assigning an APC. Condition codes are used to indicate specific conditions or circumstances that may affect the processing of a claim, but they are not directly related to the assignment of an APC.

Submit
80. APC's apply to which facilities:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Both A and C" because APCs (Ambulatory Payment Classifications) apply to both Inpatient Hospitals and Ambulatory Care Facilities. Inpatient Hospitals are facilities where patients are admitted for overnight stays or longer-term care, while Ambulatory Care Facilities provide outpatient services and same-day surgeries. Therefore, APCs are applicable to both types of facilities.

Submit
81. What form provides a complete listing or detailed account of every service posted to a  patient account:

Explanation

Both a superbill and an itemized statement provide a complete listing or detailed account of every service posted to a patient account. A superbill is a document that healthcare providers use to record the services provided to a patient during a visit, including the procedure codes, diagnosis codes, and charges. An itemized statement is a detailed breakdown of all the services rendered to a patient, including the date of service, description of the service, and the associated charges. Therefore, both options B (superbill) and C (itemized statement) are correct answers to this question.

Submit
82. Conditons codes are found in which field locators?

Explanation

Condition codes are found in the field locators 39-41.

Submit
83. Medicare supports the Electronic Health Record for which reason(s):

Explanation

Medicare supports the Electronic Health Record (EHR) to lower the chances of medical errors. By having a digital record of a patient's medical information, healthcare providers can access accurate and up-to-date data, reducing the risk of mistakes in diagnosis, medication, or treatment. EHRs also facilitate communication and coordination among different healthcare providers, ensuring that everyone involved in a patient's care has the same knowledge about their medical condition. Ultimately, the use of EHRs improves the overall quality of patient care by promoting safety, efficiency, and continuity of care.

Submit
84. An invoice used to document the services ordered or render during a patient visit:

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Feb 19, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 19, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 16, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Brandy Cummins
Cancel
  • All
    All (84)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
The uniform billing form is also known as the UB-04.
MSP is the acronym for:
In a divorce or separation which plan is primary?
Medicare is secondary payer to which of the following:
Inaccurate or inappropriate coding will impact your facility's bottom...
What is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder to an...
The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at what time?
ICD-9 CM is updated how often:
CWF is the acronym for:
A clean claim is one which:
Who is primary according to the birthday rule?
The Medicare Part A deductible for days 1 through 60 is:
Blood deductible for Medicare Part A and Part B is:
The OBRA Act of 1986 requires HCPCS coding on the UB-04 Medicare...
ICD-9 codes are used to identify:
NCCI identifies:
The UB-04 contains how many data elements?
The first digit in the type of bill indicates:
A Critical Care hospital can determine the time it offers services:
A UB-04 code which identifies the condition(s) relating to the bill...
A claim that contains complete and necessary information but the...
When a person with VA benefits and Medicare receives healthcare, they...
What is a payment made by Medicare where another payer is responsible...
Resource Utilization Groups are used to assess payment for...
The RBRVS contained which major elements:
MUE's were designed to:
The Critical Hospital Access Program was created to assure Medicare...
Level II HCPCS codes are:
A UB04 code used to identify values of monetary nature:
A UB04 code used which identifies the specific date defining a...
The type of bill code is how many digits:
ICD-9 coding has no effect on reimbursement.
Type of bill code 227, the third digit 7 indicates:
Problems with electronic billing include all of the following except:
Level II HCPCS codes are used to identify all of the following except:
Type of bill code 131 indicates:
Type of bill code 333, the second digit 3 indicates:
Hospital, Swing bed, Interim-first claim:
Who is primary if both parents have the same birthday?
NCCI is the acronym for:
APC is the acronym for:
V- codes are used when?
The 72 hour rule does not apply to all of the following except:
The third digit in the type of bill indicates:
The CWF contains all of the following except:
The Medicare Part A Lifetime Reserve 91 through 150 days:
RBRVS is the acronym for:
NCCI was introduced to do all of the following except:
A UB04 code that identifies a specific accommodation, ancillary...
HCPCS codes have how many levels:
The components of an E/M code include all of the following except:
Department numbers are usually how many digits?
A hospital cannot bill a beneficiary for units of service of MUE...
Revenue codes are found in which fields:
The type of bill code is found in what form locator:
How many major diagnostic categories are there?
How many hours can a Critical Acces hospital keep an inpatient?
SNF days 21 through 100:
Working aged means a person is:
The standard code set adopted by HIPAA EDI include all of the...
How many days does CMS allow a hospital to file a subsequent inpatient...
A system generated free-form statement that is used to communicate the...
Elements of a Chargemaster are found in what locator fields on the...
How many miles must be between a Critical Access Hospital and any...
NCCI reviews claims at what time:
How many componenets are used in defininf the level of an E/M service:
If ESRD is the only reason a patient was entitled to Medicare, the...
The 3 resource components of the RBRVS include all of the following...
Evaluation and management services have how many key components
MS-DRG’s result in savings to Medciare.
Elements of a chargemaster include all of the following except:
Occurrence codes are found in which fields:
MS-DRG’s were created on which tiers of payments?
Per Medicare timely filing regulations, a claim for date of service...
These defining componentts include all of the following except:
How many acute care beds may a Critical Access hospital provide?
Assignment of a MS-DRG uses the following elements in order for...
Benefits of electronic billing include all of the following except:
Elements required to assign an APC include all of the following...
APC's apply to which facilities:
What form provides a complete listing or detailed account of every...
Conditons codes are found in which field locators?
Medicare supports the Electronic Health Record for which reason(s):
An invoice used to document the services ordered or render during a...
Alert!

Advertisement