CPAT Aaham Final Practice Exam

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  • 1/88 Questions

    ________ is a health insurance sold by private insurance companies to fill in the "gaps" in coverage (like deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments) under the Original Medicare Plan. Also known as a Medicare Supplemental Plan

    • Medicaid
    • Worker's Compensation
    • TRICARE
    • Medigap
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About This Quiz

This CPAT AAHAM Final Practice Exam assesses key skills in healthcare service eligibility, pre-certification, and patient intake. It verifies learner's understanding of insurance coverage, benefits, and patient data management, essential for professionals in healthcare administration.

CPAT Aaham Final Practice Exam - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at what time:

    • Discharge

    • Admission

    • After surgery

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Admission
    Explanation
    The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at the time of admission. This means that when a patient is admitted to a healthcare facility, they are typically asked to sign a form that assigns their insurance benefits to the provider. This allows the provider to bill the insurance company directly for the services rendered to the patient. By obtaining the assignment of benefits at admission, the provider can ensure that they will be reimbursed for the care provided.

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  • 3. 

    CMS was formerly known as what?

    • HCFA (Health Care Financing Administration)

    • Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

    • Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

    • Indian Health Services (IHS)

    Correct Answer
    A. HCFA (Health Care Financing Administration)
    Explanation
    CMS, which stands for Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, was formerly known as HCFA (Health Care Financing Administration). This change in name occurred in 2001 to better reflect the agency's expanded responsibilities in administering healthcare programs for both Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries. The name change aimed to emphasize the agency's focus on providing access to quality healthcare services and ensuring the financial stability of these programs.

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  • 4. 

    The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at what time?

    • Discharge

    • Admission

    • After Surgery

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Admission
    Explanation
    The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at the time of admission. This means that when a patient is admitted to a healthcare facility, they are typically asked to sign a form that assigns their insurance benefits to the facility. This allows the facility to directly bill the insurance company for the services provided. It is important to obtain the assignment of benefits at admission to ensure smooth processing of insurance claims and payment for the healthcare services rendered.

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  • 5. 

    What is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder to an insurance company, to pay benefits directly to the hospital?

    • Assignment of Benefits

    • Medicare Secondary Payer

    • Conditional Payments

    • Medicare Administrative Contractor

    Correct Answer
    A. Assignment of Benefits
    Explanation
    Assignment of Benefits is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder, that allows an insurance company to pay benefits directly to the hospital. This means that the policyholder gives permission for the insurance company to pay the hospital directly for the services rendered, rather than the policyholder receiving the payment and then paying the hospital themselves. This can help streamline the payment process and ensure that the hospital receives payment in a timely manner.

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  • 6. 

    What is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder to an insurance company, to pay benefits directly to the hospital?

    • Assignment of Benefits

    • Medicare Secondary Payer

    • Conditional Payments

    • Medicare Administrative Contractor

    Correct Answer
    A. Assignment of Benefits
    Explanation
    An assignment of benefits is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder, that allows an insurance company to pay benefits directly to a hospital. This means that the policyholder gives the hospital the right to receive the insurance benefits on their behalf. This can be beneficial for the policyholder as it ensures that the hospital is paid directly and eliminates the need for the policyholder to handle the payment process themselves.

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  • 7. 

    Medicare supports the electronic health record for which reason(s):

    • Lowers the chances of medical errors

    • Provider and organizations will have the same knowledge about a patients medical condition

    • Improve over all quality of patient care

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Medicare supports the electronic health record because it lowers the chances of medical errors by providing accurate and up-to-date patient information. It also ensures that healthcare providers and organizations have the same knowledge about a patient's medical condition, leading to better coordination and continuity of care. Additionally, the use of electronic health records improves the overall quality of patient care by enabling more efficient and effective communication, decision-making, and care coordination among healthcare providers.

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  • 8. 

    Which part of Mediare pays for Outpatient Services?

    • Part B

    • Part A

    • Part C

    • Part D

    Correct Answer
    A. Part B
    Explanation
    Part B of Medicare is responsible for paying for outpatient services. This includes services such as doctor visits, preventive care, and medical supplies that are not covered under Part A, which mainly covers inpatient hospital stays. Part C refers to Medicare Advantage plans, which are offered by private insurance companies and provide additional coverage beyond what is offered by Parts A and B. Part D is the part of Medicare that covers prescription drug costs. Therefore, the correct answer is Part B.

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  • 9. 

    In a divorce or separation which plan is primary?

    • Father

    • The parent who has custody

    • Mother

    • The parent that presented the child for treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. The parent who has custody
    Explanation
    In a divorce or separation, the parent who has custody is considered the primary plan. This means that the parent who has been granted legal custody of the child is responsible for making decisions regarding the child's healthcare, education, and overall well-being. They are the primary caregiver and have the authority to make important decisions on behalf of the child.

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  • 10. 

    The intentional or illegal deception or misrepresentation made for the purpose of personal gain is called:

    • Abuse

    • Fraud

    • Living Will

    • None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. Fraud
    Explanation
    Fraud refers to the intentional or illegal deception or misrepresentation made with the intention of personal gain. It involves dishonesty, deceit, or trickery, usually for financial or material benefits. Fraud can occur in various forms, such as financial fraud, identity theft, insurance fraud, or internet fraud. The perpetrator of fraud manipulates facts or conceals information to deceive others and obtain advantages or profits at their expense.

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  • 11. 

    Which are included in patient access' collection control points:

    • At discharge

    • Admission

    • In-House

    • All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the Above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the Above" because patient access' collection control points include the processes of admission, in-house, and at discharge. This means that the collection of necessary information and payments from patients occurs at all stages of their interaction with the healthcare facility, from the moment they are admitted, throughout their stay, and even at the time of discharge. By including all of these control points, the healthcare facility ensures that they collect the required data and payments from patients in a timely and efficient manner.

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  • 12. 

    If the HICN ends with a C, this would indicate the cardholder is:

    • Husband

    • Non-wage earner

    • Wife

    • Child

    Correct Answer
    A. Child
    Explanation
    If the Health Insurance Claim Number (HICN) ends with a C, it indicates that the cardholder is a child. The HICN is a unique identifier assigned to individuals enrolled in a health insurance program. The letter C in the HICN signifies the relationship of the cardholder to the primary insured person. In this case, since the HICN ends with a C, it suggests that the cardholder is a child, as opposed to being the husband, wife, or a non-wage earner.

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  • 13. 

    What is an uncollectable account resulting from the extension of credit?

    • Tort liability

    • Lien

    • Bad debt

    • Judgment

    Correct Answer
    A. Bad debt
    Explanation
    Bad debt refers to an uncollectable account resulting from the extension of credit. This means that when a company or individual extends credit to a customer, there is a risk that the customer may not be able to repay the debt. In such cases, the debt becomes uncollectable and is considered a bad debt. This can happen due to various reasons such as bankruptcy, financial difficulties, or non-payment by the customer. It is important for businesses to account for bad debts and make appropriate provisions to minimize their impact on financial statements.

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  • 14. 

    What is a liability for an injury or wrongdoing done by one person to another resulting from a breach of legal duty?

    • Tort liability

    • Lien

    • Bad debt

    • Judgment

    Correct Answer
    A. Tort liability
    Explanation
    Tort liability refers to the legal responsibility or obligation that one person has towards another for any injury or wrongdoing caused due to a breach of legal duty. In other words, it is the liability that arises from a civil wrong, such as negligence or intentional harm, committed by one person against another. This can include situations where someone is injured due to a car accident, medical malpractice, or any other form of personal injury.

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  • 15. 

    A clean claim is one which:

    • If investigated does not require contact with the provider

    • Will pass all front end edits

    • Is processed electronically

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    A clean claim is one that meets all the criteria mentioned in the options. It does not require contact with the provider if investigated, passes all front end edits, and is processed electronically. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 16. 

    Medicare Part B covers all of the following except:

    • Eye Exam

    • Mammograms

    • Glaucoma Screening

    • Pneumonia Vaccinations

    Correct Answer
    A. Eye Exam
    Explanation
    Medicare Part B covers a wide range of medical services, including preventive screenings and vaccinations. However, it does not cover routine eye exams. While Medicare Part B covers certain eye-related services such as glaucoma screenings, it does not provide coverage for routine eye exams, which are considered to be part of regular vision care. Therefore, the correct answer is "Eye Exam".

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  • 17. 

    The RBRVS contained which major elements:

    • Limits on the amount that a non-participating physician can charge benficiaries

    • Fee schedule for the payment of physician services

    • MVPS for the rates of increase in Medicare expenditures for physician services

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The RBRVS (Resource-Based Relative Value Scale) contained all of the major elements mentioned in the question. It included limits on the amount that a non-participating physician can charge beneficiaries, a fee schedule for the payment of physician services, and MVPS (Medicare Volume Performance Standards) for the rates of increase in Medicare expenditures for physician services.

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  • 18. 

    ICD-9 codes are used to identify:

    • Procedures

    • Diagnosis

    • Supplies

    • Office visits

    Correct Answer
    A. Diagnosis
    Explanation
    ICD-9 codes are used to identify diagnoses. These codes are a standardized system of alphanumeric codes that represent specific medical conditions or diseases. They are used by healthcare providers to document and communicate diagnoses for billing, research, and statistical purposes. Each ICD-9 code corresponds to a specific diagnosis, allowing for accurate and consistent identification of medical conditions.

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  • 19. 

    Each HICN will include either ____ or ____ numeric digits:

    • 5 or 8

    • 6 or 9

    • 4 or 9

    • 1 or 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 or 9
    Explanation
    Each HICN (Health Insurance Claim Number) will include either 6 or 9 numeric digits.

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  • 20. 

    _____________ is defined as the period in time when a person is qualified for healthcare services covered by the insurance plan or entity (third party payer).

    • Pre-certification.

    • Benefit level.

    • Eligibility period.

    • Authorization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eligibility period.
    Explanation
    The term "eligibility period" refers to the specific time period during which an individual is eligible to receive healthcare services covered by their insurance plan or third-party payer. This period is typically determined by factors such as enrollment in the insurance plan, payment of premiums, and meeting any other requirements set by the insurance provider. During this eligibility period, the individual can access healthcare services without any additional authorization or pre-certification.

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  • 21. 

    In order to obtain Medigap coverage the beneficiary must have:

    • Part A only

    • Part B only

    • Parts A and B

    • Medicare/ Medicaid

    Correct Answer
    A. Parts A and B
    Explanation
    To obtain Medigap coverage, the beneficiary must have both Part A and Part B of Medicare. Medigap, also known as Medicare Supplement Insurance, is designed to help fill the gaps in Original Medicare coverage. Part A covers hospital insurance, while Part B covers medical insurance. Having both parts of Medicare ensures that the beneficiary has comprehensive coverage for both hospital and medical expenses, which is necessary to be eligible for Medigap coverage. Medicare/Medicaid is not mentioned as a requirement for Medigap coverage in this question.

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  • 22. 

    One of the tasks of a ______ is to reduce unncessary admissions:

    • Referring Physician

    • Registered Nurse

    • Case Manager

    • Ordering Physician

    Correct Answer
    A. Case Manager
    Explanation
    A case manager is responsible for coordinating and managing the care of patients, ensuring that they receive the appropriate level of care and services. One of their key tasks is to reduce unnecessary admissions by closely monitoring patients' conditions and working with healthcare providers to develop alternative care plans or interventions that can prevent hospitalization. They collaborate with the healthcare team to ensure that patients receive the right care in the right setting, which can help reduce the burden on hospitals and prevent unnecessary admissions.

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  • 23. 

    _____________ is to give official approval or permission for the service.

    • Pre-certification.

    • Benefit level.

    • Eligibility period.

    • Authorization

    Correct Answer
    A. Authorization
    Explanation
    Authorization is the act of giving official approval or permission for a service. It involves granting the necessary authorization or clearance for something to proceed. In the context of the question, authorization is the most appropriate term as it accurately describes the action of granting official approval or permission for the service.

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  • 24. 

    Fraud and abuse Initiatives are enforced by who:

    • Department of Justice

    • Office of Inspector General

    • Kenny Koerner

    • Answers A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. Answers A and B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Answers A and B". Fraud and abuse initiatives are enforced by both the Department of Justice and the Office of Inspector General. The Department of Justice is responsible for investigating and prosecuting fraud cases, while the Office of Inspector General works to prevent and detect fraud, waste, and abuse within various government agencies. Both entities play crucial roles in combating fraud and abuse, making them the correct answers.

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  • 25. 

    Resource Utilization Groups are used to assess payment for which facilities:

    • Skilled Nursing Facility

    • Inpatient Hospital

    • Outpatient Hospital

    • Ambulatory Surgical Facility

    Correct Answer
    A. Skilled Nursing Facility
    Explanation
    Resource Utilization Groups (RUGs) are used to assess payment for Skilled Nursing Facilities. RUGs are a classification system that categorizes residents based on their care needs and the resources required to provide that care. This system helps determine the appropriate level of reimbursement for skilled nursing facilities based on the complexity and intensity of care provided to residents. RUGs take into account factors such as the resident's medical condition, functional status, and required services to determine the appropriate payment level.

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  • 26. 

    A UB04 code used which identifies the specific date defining a significant event relating to the bill that my affect payment processing:

    • Condition code

    • Occurrence code

    • Value code

    Correct Answer
    A. Occurrence code
    Explanation
    An occurrence code is a UB04 code used to identify a specific date that defines a significant event related to the bill, which may affect payment processing. It helps to provide additional information about the services provided or the circumstances surrounding the billing. This code is important for proper reimbursement and accurate processing of claims by insurance companies or other payers.

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  • 27. 

    The first digit in the type of bill indicates:

    • Frequency

    • Type of facility

    • Bill Classification

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Type of facility
    Explanation
    The first digit in the type of bill indicates the type of facility. This means that the first digit in the bill number represents the category or type of healthcare facility where the bill originated from. It helps in identifying the specific type of facility, such as a hospital, nursing home, or outpatient clinic, which can be useful for administrative and billing purposes.

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  • 28. 

    70% of all bankruptcies are filed under this chapter:

    • Chapter 7

    • Chapter 11

    • Chapter 12

    • Chapter 13

    Correct Answer
    A. Chapter 7
    Explanation
    Chapter 7 is the correct answer because it is the most common type of bankruptcy filing. It is also known as "liquidation bankruptcy" and is typically used by individuals and businesses to discharge their debts and start fresh. This chapter allows the debtor to sell off non-exempt assets to repay creditors and have most remaining debts discharged.

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  • 29. 

    The medicare Part B  annual deductible is:

    • $147.00

    • $155.00

    • $120.00

    • Free for STUDS Like Eric

    Correct Answer
    A. $147.00
    Explanation
    The correct answer is $147.00. This is the annual deductible for Medicare Part B. The deductible is the amount that a beneficiary must pay out of pocket before their Medicare Part B coverage begins. Once the deductible is met, Medicare will pay its share of the approved services and the beneficiary will be responsible for any remaining costs.

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  • 30. 

    _____ examines a record for the correct use of ICD-9-CM codes

    • Clinical Edits

    • Code Edits

    • Coverage Edits

    • Charlie Sheen

    Correct Answer
    A. Code Edits
    Explanation
    Code Edits examine a record for the correct use of ICD-9-CM codes. This means that they check if the codes used to classify medical diagnoses and procedures are accurate and compliant with the ICD-9-CM coding system. Code Edits help ensure that healthcare claims are properly coded and billed, reducing errors and potential fraud.

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  • 31. 

    A claim that contains complete and necessary information but the information is illogical or incorrect is:

    • Clean claim

    • Incomplete claim

    • Invalid claim

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Invalid claim
    Explanation
    An invalid claim is a claim that contains complete and necessary information, but the information provided is illogical or incorrect. This means that the claim may have all the required details, but those details do not make sense or are not accurate. Therefore, the claim cannot be considered valid or reliable.

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  • 32. 

    Medicare is which title:

    • Title XVIII (title 18)

    • Title I (title 1)

    • Title VI (title 6)

    • Title XIX (title 19)

    Correct Answer
    A. Title XVIII (title 18)
    Explanation
    Medicare is known as Title XVIII (title 18) because it is the 18th title of the Social Security Act. Medicare is a federal health insurance program in the United States that primarily provides coverage for people who are 65 years old or older, as well as certain younger individuals with disabilities. The program is divided into different parts, including Part A (hospital insurance), Part B (medical insurance), Part C (Medicare Advantage plans), and Part D (prescription drug coverage).

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  • 33. 

    For Medicare Part B patients, a mammogram screening is covered:

    • Twice Every 12 Months

    • Once every 24 Months

    • Never

    • Once Every 12 Months

    Correct Answer
    A. Once Every 12 Months
    Explanation
    Medicare Part B patients are covered for a mammogram screening once every 12 months. This means that they can receive this preventive service once a year at no cost to them. Regular mammograms are essential for early detection of breast cancer, which increases the chances of successful treatment. By covering it annually, Medicare aims to ensure that beneficiaries have access to this important screening on a regular basis.

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  • 34. 

    The Medicare Part A deductible for days 1 through 60 is:

    • $1000

    • $1184

    • $1200

    • $1500

    Correct Answer
    A. $1184
    Explanation
    The Medicare Part A deductible for days 1 through 60 is $1184. This means that Medicare beneficiaries are responsible for paying the first $1184 of their hospital stay costs during this time period. After the deductible is met, Medicare will cover a portion of the remaining costs. It is important for beneficiaries to understand their deductible amount and how it applies to their healthcare expenses.

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  • 35. 

    This act imposed strict limitations on communications with consumers for call times, harassment and false or misleading info.

    • Fair Debt Collections Act

    • Truth in Lending Act

    • Fair Credit Reporting Act

    • Fair Credit Billing Act

    Correct Answer
    A. Fair Debt Collections Act
    Explanation
    The Fair Debt Collections Act is the correct answer because it is a federal law that regulates the actions of debt collectors. It imposes strict limitations on how debt collectors can communicate with consumers, including restrictions on call times, harassment, and providing false or misleading information. The purpose of this act is to protect consumers from abusive and unfair debt collection practices.

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  • 36. 

    This code identifies the specific date defining a significant event relating to the bill that may affect payment processing

    • Condition Code

    • Value Code

    • Revenue Code

    • Occurence Code

    Correct Answer
    A. Occurence Code
    Explanation
    The Occurrence Code in the given code identifies a specific date that relates to a significant event regarding the bill. This code is used to indicate any occurrence or condition that may affect the payment processing. It helps in providing additional information or context about the bill, allowing for accurate and efficient payment processing.

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  • 37. 

    The Critical Hospital Access Program was created to assure Medicare benficiaries access to health care services in which areas:

    • Suburbs

    • Rural

    • Urban

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Rural
    Explanation
    The Critical Hospital Access Program was created to assure Medicare beneficiaries access to health care services in rural areas. This program aims to address the lack of healthcare facilities and services in rural communities, ensuring that individuals living in these areas have access to necessary medical care. By focusing on rural areas, the program aims to improve healthcare equity and reduce disparities between urban and rural populations.

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  • 38. 

    The UB-04 contains how many data elements?

    • 78

    • 81

    • 92

    Correct Answer
    A. 81
    Explanation
    The UB-04 form contains a total of 81 data elements. This means that there are 81 different pieces of information that can be recorded on the form. These data elements include various patient information such as demographics, diagnoses, procedures, and billing details. Having a standardized set of data elements helps ensure consistency and accuracy in healthcare billing and reporting.

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  • 39. 

    _____________ is defined as the service the third party payer will pay, based on the Patient's coverage plan.

    • Pre-certification.

    • Benefit level.

    • Eligibility period.

    • Referral.

    Correct Answer
    A. Benefit level.
    Explanation
    Benefit level is defined as the service that the third party payer will pay, based on the patient's coverage plan. This means that the amount or extent of coverage provided by the insurance company for a particular service or treatment is determined by the benefit level specified in the patient's plan. It determines the maximum amount that the payer will reimburse for a specific service or treatment, and any costs beyond this benefit level will typically have to be paid by the patient.

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  • 40. 

    What is a recorded claim against real or personal property, generally arising out of a debt?

    • Tort Liability

    • Lien

    • Bad debt

    • Judgment

    Correct Answer
    A. Lien
    Explanation
    A lien is a recorded claim against real or personal property that typically arises from a debt. It gives the creditor the right to take possession of the property if the debtor fails to fulfill their financial obligations. This legal encumbrance ensures that the creditor has a security interest in the property until the debt is paid off.

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  • 41. 

    Problems with electronic billing include all of the following except:

    • Creates challenges

    • Less paper

    • Vendor reporting is inflexible and/or not available

    • Upload / download issues

    Correct Answer
    A. Less paper
    Explanation
    The given answer is "Less paper". This is the exception among the problems with electronic billing. While electronic billing does have its own set of challenges, such as creating challenges, vendor reporting issues, and upload/download problems, it actually reduces the need for paper in billing processes. Electronic billing eliminates the need for physical documents and allows for a more streamlined and efficient billing system.

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  • 42. 

    This code identifies the condition(s) relating to the bill that may affect payer processing.

    • Revenue Code

    • Condition Code

    • Occurence Code

    • Value Code

    Correct Answer
    A. Condition Code
    Explanation
    This code, known as the Condition Code, is used to identify specific conditions relating to the bill that may affect the processing of payment by the payer. These conditions could include information such as the need for prior authorization, the presence of a specific diagnosis or treatment, or any other relevant information that may impact the payment process. By using the Condition Code, healthcare providers can ensure that the payer has all the necessary information to accurately process the bill and make appropriate payment decisions.

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  • 43. 

    What is a legally verified claim against a debtor?

    • Tort liability

    • Lien

    • Bad debt

    • Judgment

    Correct Answer
    A. Judgment
    Explanation
    A legally verified claim against a debtor refers to a judgment. This means that a court has made a decision regarding a claim against a debtor and has determined that the debtor is legally obligated to pay the claimed amount. A judgment is typically obtained through a legal process, such as a lawsuit, and it allows the creditor to take further action to collect the debt, such as garnishing wages or placing a lien on the debtor's property.

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  • 44. 

    A _____________ is to send or direct for treatment, aid, information, or decision. Some third party payers utilize this process to monitor and manage patient care.

    • Pre-certification.

    • Benefit level.

    • Eligibility period.

    • Referral.

    Correct Answer
    A. Referral.
    Explanation
    A referral is a process of sending or directing a patient for treatment, aid, information, or decision. Some third party payers use referrals to monitor and manage patient care.

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  • 45. 

    Patient accounts that occur after the petition and/or were not included in the notification will be subject to the discharge.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Patient accounts that occur after the petition and/or were not included in the notification will not be subject to the discharge.

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  • 46. 

    A debtor can be placed in involuntary bankruptcy under chapter 7 or 11 if the debtor has:

    • 10 or more creditor, three of which have claims in excess of $2500 each

    • 12 or more creditors, three of which have claims in excess of $5000 each

    • 15 or more creditors, five of which have claims in excess of $10,000 each

    • 20 or more creditor, ten of which have claims in excess of $15,000 each

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 or more creditors, three of which have claims in excess of $5000 each
    Explanation
    If a debtor has 12 or more creditors, with three of them having claims in excess of $5000 each, they can be placed in involuntary bankruptcy under chapter 7 or 11. This means that if enough creditors meet these criteria, they can force the debtor into bankruptcy proceedings.

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  • 47. 

    ____________ is to attest as meeting a standard of care prior to service.

    • Pre-certification.

    • Benefit level.

    • Eligibility period.

    • Referral

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-certification.
    Explanation
    Pre-certification is the process of obtaining approval from an insurance company before receiving a medical service or treatment. It involves meeting certain criteria or standards of care that the insurance company requires in order to ensure that the service is necessary and appropriate. Attesting, on the other hand, refers to providing evidence or proof of something, which is not directly related to meeting a standard of care prior to service. Therefore, the correct answer is pre-certification.

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  • 48. 

    A Bankruptcy notice that releases the guarantor/patient from financial responsibility of any and all account balances listed on the bankruptcy petition is called:

    • Dismissal

    • Bankruptcy Notice

    • Discharge of Debtor

    • Chapter 7

    Correct Answer
    A. Discharge of Debtor
    Explanation
    A discharge of debtor is a bankruptcy notice that releases the guarantor or patient from the financial responsibility of any and all account balances listed on the bankruptcy petition. This means that the person who filed for bankruptcy is no longer obligated to repay the debts listed in the petition. It provides a fresh start for the debtor by eliminating their financial obligations and allowing them to move forward without the burden of past debts.

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  • 49. 

    For Medicare Part B patients, a pap smear and pelvic examination is covered:

    • Once Every 24 Months

    • Once Every 12 Months if at risk for vaginal cancer

    • Monthly

    • Both answers A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. Both answers A and B
    Explanation
    For Medicare Part B patients, a pap smear and pelvic examination is covered once every 24 months. However, if the patient is at risk for vaginal cancer, the coverage is extended to once every 12 months. Therefore, both answers A and B are correct as they provide the different scenarios in which the coverage is provided.

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