Hemolytic Disease In The Newborn
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There are 25 questions on this test. A score of 85% is required to be successful; no more than 3 questions Read moremay be incorrect. Good Luck!
Questions 26-36 are your evaluation of this learning activity. This evaluation must be
completed to receive credit. Thank you.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
_________________ is an immunoglobulin that provides protection against most common infections. It is a glycoprotein that stimulates phagocytosis.
- A.
Antigen
- B.
Antibody
Correct Answer
B. AntibodyExplanation
An antibody is an immunoglobulin that provides protection against most common infections. It is a glycoprotein that stimulates phagocytosis. Antibodies are produced by B cells in response to the presence of antigens in the body. They bind to specific antigens and mark them for destruction by immune cells, such as phagocytes. This immune response helps to eliminate pathogens and prevent further infection.Rate this question:
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- 2.
________________ is an oligosaccharide and is a marker on the surface of cells that identifies the cell type. The T- and B-Cells respond to these as part of the immune response.
- A.
Antigen
- B.
Antibody
Correct Answer
A. AntigenExplanation
An antigen is an oligosaccharide and a marker on the surface of cells that helps identify the cell type. T- and B-Cells recognize antigens and respond to them as part of the immune response.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The term autosome, or autosomal, refers to all of the chromosomes, including the sex, or X and Y, chromosomes.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because the term autosome specifically refers to the non-sex chromosomes. It does not include the sex chromosomes (X and Y chromosomes).Rate this question:
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- 4.
A person's blood type is determined by the presence or absence of specific antigen(s) on the surface of their red blood cells (RBCs).
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
A person's blood type is determined by the presence or absence of specific antigen(s) on the surface of their red blood cells (RBCs). This means that certain molecules, called antigens, are present on the surface of the red blood cells, and the combination of these antigens determines a person's blood type. This is why blood types can be classified into different groups, such as A, B, AB, and O, based on the presence or absence of these antigens. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 5.
______________ measures the effect of the infant's serum on unrelated adult RBCs.
- A.
Indirect Coombs' test
- B.
Direct Coombs' test
Correct Answer
A. Indirect Coombs' testExplanation
The indirect Coombs' test is used to measure the effect of the infant's serum on unrelated adult red blood cells (RBCs). This test is performed to detect antibodies that may be present in the infant's serum and could potentially cause hemolytic disease of the newborn. It involves mixing the infant's serum with adult RBCs, followed by the addition of Coombs' reagent. If the serum contains antibodies that react with the RBCs, agglutination will occur, indicating a positive result. This test helps in identifying potential risks to the newborn and guiding appropriate medical interventions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
______________ measures the amount of maternal antibody coating an infant's RBC.
- A.
Indirect Coombs' test
- B.
Direct Coombs' test
Correct Answer
B. Direct Coombs' testExplanation
The Direct Coombs' test measures the amount of maternal antibody coating an infant's RBC. This test is used to detect antibodies that are attached to the surface of red blood cells, which can occur in conditions such as hemolytic disease of the newborn. The test involves mixing the infant's blood with Coombs' reagent, which contains antibodies that can bind to the maternal antibodies on the RBCs. If agglutination occurs, it indicates the presence of maternal antibodies on the infant's RBCs.Rate this question:
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- 7.
_________________ is a protein or starch that is commonly used as an intravascular volume expander.
- A.
Crystalloid solution
- B.
Colloid solution
Correct Answer
B. Colloid solutionExplanation
A colloid solution is a protein or starch that is commonly used as an intravascular volume expander. Unlike crystalloid solutions, which are made up of small molecules that can easily pass through blood vessels, colloid solutions contain larger particles that remain in the blood vessels for a longer period of time. This helps to increase blood volume and improve circulation. Colloid solutions are often used in cases where there is significant fluid loss or low blood volume.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The production of blood cells is known as -
- A.
Hemolysis
- B.
Hematopoiesis
- C.
Hematoblast
Correct Answer
B. HematopoiesisExplanation
Hematopoiesis is the correct answer because it refers to the process of blood cell production. It takes place in the bone marrow, where stem cells differentiate and mature into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Hemolysis, on the other hand, refers to the destruction of red blood cells, while hematoblast is not a term used to describe blood cell production.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The production of red blood cells is know as -
- A.
Erythrocyte
- B.
Erythroblast
- C.
Erythropoiesis
Correct Answer
C. ErythropoiesisExplanation
Erythropoiesis is the correct answer because it refers to the process of red blood cell production in the body. It involves the differentiation and maturation of erythroblasts into mature red blood cells. Erythrocyte refers to the mature red blood cells themselves, while erythroblast refers to the precursor cells in the process of differentiation. Therefore, erythropoiesis is the most appropriate term to describe the production of red blood cells.Rate this question:
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- 10.
By 24 weeks gestation, production of RBCs in the __________ surpasses that of the liver.
- A.
Spleen
- B.
Kidneys
- C.
Bone marrow
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Bone marrowExplanation
By 24 weeks gestation, the production of red blood cells (RBCs) in the bone marrow surpasses that of the liver. The bone marrow is responsible for the production of RBCs in the body. The spleen and kidneys also play a role in the production and maintenance of RBCs, but by 24 weeks gestation, the bone marrow becomes the primary site for RBC production.Rate this question:
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- 11.
RBCs are able to release oxygen into the systemic tissues because of higher oxygen tension in the systemic capillaries than in the surrounding tissues.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
RBCs, or red blood cells, are able to release oxygen into the systemic tissues because the oxygen tension, or concentration, in the systemic capillaries is higher than in the surrounding tissues. This difference in oxygen concentration allows the oxygen to diffuse from the RBCs into the tissues, providing them with the necessary oxygen for cellular respiration.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Hemolytic disease in the newborn results in a shortened life of the fetal and/or newborn RBCs because of the mother's sensitization to the fetal RBC antigens inherited from the father.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that hemolytic disease in the newborn occurs when the mother's immune system produces antibodies against the fetal red blood cells (RBCs) due to the presence of different RBC antigens inherited from the father. This immune response leads to the destruction of the fetal and/or newborn RBCs, resulting in a shortened lifespan for these cells. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Sensitization of the mother's immune system to the fetus' RBCs stimulates the production of the immunoglobulin, _____ , that is transplacentally transferred to the fetus.
- A.
IgA
- B.
IgM
- C.
IgG
- D.
IgD
Correct Answer
C. IgGExplanation
During pregnancy, the mother's immune system may become sensitized to the fetus' red blood cells. This sensitization triggers the production of immunoglobulin G (IgG), which is then transferred across the placenta to the fetus. IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta and provide passive immunity to the developing fetus. It helps protect the fetus from infections and plays a crucial role in the immune response during pregnancy. IgA, IgM, and IgD do not cross the placenta as readily as IgG and have different functions within the immune system.Rate this question:
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- 14.
For the following question, please check all answer(s) that apply. From the maternal blood groups listed below, which infant(s) need testing at birth?
- A.
O negative
- B.
O positive
- C.
AB negative
- D.
B positive
Correct Answer(s)
A. O negative
B. O positive
C. AB negativeExplanation
Infants with O negative, O positive, and AB negative blood types need testing at birth. This is because these blood types can potentially cause complications if the mother's blood type is incompatible with the infant's. Testing is necessary to determine if the infant has any blood type-related issues that need to be addressed.Rate this question:
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- 15.
For the following question, please check all answer(s) that apply. Nursing care of the infant receiving phototherapy includes -
- A.
Increasing and/or changing feeding frequency, using glycerin suppositories
- B.
Monitoring temperature every 30 minutes, monitoring blood glucose as needed
- C.
Maintaining bank lights 12 inches above the infant with an intensity of at least 12
- D.
Initiating IV therapy, turning phototherapy lights off during lab draws
Correct Answer(s)
A. Increasing and/or changing feeding frequency, using glycerin suppositories
B. Monitoring temperature every 30 minutes, monitoring blood glucose as needed
C. Maintaining bank lights 12 inches above the infant with an intensity of at least 12
D. Initiating IV therapy, turning phototherapy lights off during lab drawsExplanation
The correct answer includes several nursing care measures for an infant receiving phototherapy. Increasing and/or changing feeding frequency is important because phototherapy can increase the infant's metabolic rate and increase the need for nutrition. Using glycerin suppositories helps to prevent constipation, which can be a side effect of phototherapy. Monitoring the temperature every 30 minutes is necessary because phototherapy can cause an increase in body temperature. Monitoring blood glucose levels is important as phototherapy can affect glucose metabolism. Maintaining bank lights 12 inches above the infant with an intensity of at least 12 is necessary to ensure effective phototherapy. Initiating IV therapy may be necessary to maintain hydration and administer medications. Turning off the phototherapy lights during lab draws is important to prevent interference with accurate test results.Rate this question:
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- 16.
For the following question, please check all answer(s) that apply. Nursing care during an exchange transfusion includes -
- A.
Verifying parental consent and maintaining all emergency equipment nearby
- B.
Monitoring vital signs every 10 minutes and blood glucose every 30 minutes during the procedure
- C.
Constant 1:1 observation and recording blood volume in and out
Correct Answer(s)
A. Verifying parental consent and maintaining all emergency equipment nearby
B. Monitoring vital signs every 10 minutes and blood glucose every 30 minutes during the procedure
C. Constant 1:1 observation and recording blood volume in and outExplanation
The correct answer includes verifying parental consent and maintaining all emergency equipment nearby, monitoring vital signs every 10 minutes and blood glucose every 30 minutes during the procedure, and constant 1:1 observation and recording blood volume in and out.Rate this question:
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- 17.
For the following question, please check all answer(s) that apply. Considerations when administering intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) include -
- A.
The solution is reconstituted by pharmacy, keep it refrigerated until it is used
- B.
The solution foams easily and is compatible with all dextrose solutions
- C.
Monitoring vital signs, glucose, and IV site every 30 minutes during the procedure
Correct Answer(s)
A. The solution is reconstituted by pharmacy, keep it refrigerated until it is used
B. The solution foams easily and is compatible with all dextrose solutions
C. Monitoring vital signs, glucose, and IV site every 30 minutes during the procedureExplanation
The correct answer includes three considerations when administering intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG). First, the solution is reconstituted by the pharmacy and should be kept refrigerated until it is used. Second, the solution foams easily and is compatible with all dextrose solutions. Lastly, it is important to monitor vital signs, glucose levels, and the IV site every 30 minutes during the procedure. These considerations ensure the proper administration and monitoring of IVIG to ensure patient safety and efficacy.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Rh incompatibility is also known as erythroblastosis fetalis.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Rh incompatibility refers to a condition where the blood of the mother and the fetus have different Rh factors. This can cause complications during pregnancy, leading to the destruction of the fetus's red blood cells, a condition known as erythroblastosis fetalis. Therefore, the statement that Rh incompatibility is also known as erythroblastosis fetalis is true.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Rh incompatibility occurs when Rh-negative maternal blood is exposed to Rh-positive fetal RBCs.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Rh incompatibility occurs when Rh-negative maternal blood is exposed to Rh-positive fetal RBCs. This can happen during pregnancy or childbirth, and can cause the mother's immune system to produce antibodies against the Rh factor. These antibodies can then cross the placenta and attack the Rh-positive red blood cells in the fetus, leading to a condition called hemolytic disease of the newborn. This can result in severe anemia, jaundice, and other complications for the baby. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Recommended testing at birth includes -
- Maternal cord blood for Rh and grouping, Coombs' test, and bilirubin
- Infant blood for type and screen, direct Coombs' test, and bilirubin
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The recommended testing at birth includes maternal cord blood for Rh and grouping, Coombs' test, and bilirubin. However, it does not include infant blood testing for type and screen, direct Coombs' test, and bilirubin. Therefore, the statement is false.Rate this question:
- 21.
Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM®) is -
- A.
Immunoglobulin M
- B.
Immunoglobulin A
- C.
Immunoglobulin G
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Immunoglobulin GExplanation
Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM®) is a medication that contains Immunoglobulin G (IgG). IgG is the most abundant type of antibody in the human body and is responsible for providing long-term immunity against pathogens. RhoGAM is used to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative individuals who are exposed to Rh-positive blood, such as during pregnancy or blood transfusions. By providing passive immunity, RhoGAM helps prevent the production of antibodies that could harm future pregnancies or transfusions.Rate this question:
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- 22.
With the widespread use of Rho(D) immune globulin , non-immune mechanisms are the major causes of hydrops fetalis.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that Rho(D) immune globulin is commonly used to prevent the development of antibodies in Rh-negative mothers who are carrying Rh-positive fetuses. This helps to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn, which can lead to hydrops fetalis. Therefore, with the widespread use of Rho(D) immune globulin, non-immune mechanisms become the major causes of hydrops fetalis.Rate this question:
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- 23.
For the following question, please check all answer(s) that apply. Infants with hydrops fetalis may present with -
- A.
Pericardial and/or pleural effusions
- B.
Ascites and/or enlarged liver and spleen
- C.
Respiratory distress and/or hypotension
- D.
Anemia and/or hypoalbuminemia
Correct Answer(s)
A. Pericardial and/or pleural effusions
B. Ascites and/or enlarged liver and spleen
C. Respiratory distress and/or hypotension
D. Anemia and/or hypoalbuminemiaExplanation
Infants with hydrops fetalis may present with pericardial and/or pleural effusions, ascites and/or enlarged liver and spleen, respiratory distress and/or hypotension, and anemia and/or hypoalbuminemia. These symptoms are commonly seen in hydrops fetalis, which is a condition characterized by abnormal accumulation of fluid in the fetus, leading to various complications. The presence of these symptoms indicates the severity and systemic involvement of the condition.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Each blood group (A, B, AB, O) has an antigen on the surface of the RBC and the corresponding antibody to the antigen that is missing in the plasma.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Each blood group (A, B, AB, O) does indeed have an antigen on the surface of the red blood cells (RBCs) and the corresponding antibody to the antigen that is missing in the plasma. This is a fundamental principle of blood typing and compatibility. For example, individuals with blood group A have A antigens on their RBCs and anti-B antibodies in their plasma, while individuals with blood group B have B antigens on their RBCs and anti-A antibodies in their plasma. This antigen-antibody interaction is important in determining blood compatibility for transfusions and can have significant medical implications.Rate this question:
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- 25.
ABO incompatibility is more common than Rh incompatibility, is less severe, can result in RBC hemolysis, and can occur during the first pregnancy.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
ABO incompatibility occurs when a mother's blood type is different from the fetus's blood type. It is more common than Rh incompatibility, which occurs when a mother is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive. ABO incompatibility is less severe than Rh incompatibility and can result in the hemolysis of red blood cells. It can occur during the first pregnancy, whereas Rh incompatibility typically occurs in subsequent pregnancies. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The following questions are the activity evaluation. Discuss the etiology of hemolytic disease in the newborn.
- A.
Excellent
- B.
Good
- C.
Fair
- D.
Poor
Correct Answer
A. ExcellentExplanation
The answer "Excellent" suggests that the explanation of the etiology of hemolytic disease in the newborn is thorough, comprehensive, and well-researched. It likely includes a detailed discussion of the causes, risk factors, and mechanisms involved in the development of hemolytic disease in newborns. The answer may also provide examples and evidence to support the explanation, demonstrating a deep understanding of the topic.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Describe the clinical presentation of hemolytic disease in the newborn.
- A.
Excellent
- B.
Good
- C.
Fair
- D.
Poor
Correct Answer
A. ExcellentExplanation
The clinical presentation of hemolytic disease in the newborn includes symptoms such as jaundice, anemia, enlarged liver and spleen, and fluid accumulation in the body. The condition occurs when there is an incompatibility between the blood types of the mother and the baby, leading to the mother's antibodies attacking the baby's red blood cells. This can result in the destruction of red blood cells, leading to the symptoms mentioned above. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to prevent complications and manage the condition effectively.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Discuss management, complications, and outcomes of hemolytic disease in the newborn.
- A.
Excellent
- B.
Good
- C.
Fair
- D.
Poor
Correct Answer
A. Excellent -
- 29.
The content in the presentation reflects current evidence-based practice.
- A.
Excellent
- B.
Good
- C.
Fair
- D.
Poor
Correct Answer
A. ExcellentExplanation
The content in the presentation reflects current evidence-based practice, indicating that it is of high quality and based on the most up-to-date and reliable information available. This suggests that the presentation is well-researched and likely to provide accurate and reliable information to the audience.Rate this question:
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- 30.
How well did the layout and flow of this activity help meet the objectives?
- A.
Excellent
- B.
Good
- C.
Fair
- D.
Poor
Correct Answer
A. ExcellentExplanation
The layout and flow of the activity helped meet the objectives exceptionally well. The organization and structure of the activity were clear and easy to follow, allowing for a smooth progression of content. The layout effectively facilitated the learning process and ensured that the objectives were met efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Please indicate the amount of time required to complete this activity.
- A.
Less than 1 hour
- B.
1-1.9 hours
- C.
2-2.9 hours
- D.
3-3.9 hours
- E.
4 hours or longer
Correct Answer
B. 1-1.9 hoursExplanation
The given answer suggests that the activity will take between 1 and 1.9 hours to complete. This implies that the task at hand is not too time-consuming and can be finished within a relatively short period. It indicates that the activity requires a moderate amount of time and effort, but not an extensive commitment.Rate this question:
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- 32.
General Comments -
- 33.
The provider of the activity has disclosed in writing the conflict of interest or lack thereof declared by the planners and presenters/content specialists. Please see Disclosure to Participants page.
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
Correct Answer
A. YesExplanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that the provider of the activity has indeed disclosed in writing the conflict of interest or lack thereof declared by the planners and presenters/content specialists. This means that participants have been informed about any potential conflicts of interest that may arise from the activity, allowing them to make informed decisions about their participation.Rate this question:
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- 34.
If the answer to the previous question was ‘no‘, please explain.
- 35.
The content was presented without bias of any commercial product or drug.
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
Correct Answer
A. YesExplanation
The content was presented without bias of any commercial product or drug. This means that the information provided was not influenced or favored towards any specific product or drug. It was presented objectively and impartially, ensuring that there was no promotion or endorsement of any particular commercial product or drug.Rate this question:
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- 36.
If the answer to the previous question was ‘no‘, please explain.
- 37.
Please complete the following questions for time test submission. Keep a record of your test answers. You may re-take the test for contact hours once they have been assigned to this module. Area of Specialty -
- 38.
Number of years in specialty -
- 39.
Total amount of time required to review the module and take the test. Please state in exact hours or minutes.
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 27, 2011Quiz Created by
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