Geriatrics Final Quiz Part II

47 Questions | Total Attempts: 160

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Geriatrics Quizzes & Trivia

Ocular Diseases in the Elderly Part II


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Your pt presents to your office with hyphema in the left eye after being hit in the eye with a football.  During your exam of the retina which of the following this are you looking for in particular?
    • A. 

      Commotio retinae

    • B. 

      Macular edema

    • C. 

      Chorodial rupture

    • D. 

      CWS

    • E. 

      Optociliary shunt

  • 2. 
    Oral aminocaproic acid is a treatment option for which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Hyphema

    • B. 

      Iritis

    • C. 

      Asteroid hyalosis

    • D. 

      Neurotrophic keratopathy

  • 3. 
    Your patient has hyphema-related elevated IOP.  You would like to Rx something to control the IOP, which would be the safest option?
    • A. 

      Prostaglandins

    • B. 

      Pilocarpine

    • C. 

      CAI

    • D. 

      Beta Blocker

  • 4. 
    Which of the following etiologies of iritis will have little to no flare.
    • A. 

      Idiopathic

    • B. 

      Phacolytic

    • C. 

      Laser-induced

    • D. 

      Lens particle

  • 5. 
    Indicate ALL the statements that are true for Iris Melanomas
    • A. 

      Inferior portion of iris

    • B. 

      Superior portion of iris

    • C. 

      Arises from iris stroma

    • D. 

      Arises from iris pigmented epithelium

    • E. 

      Causes pupil distortion

  • 6. 
    If you diagnose your pt with an iris melanoma, it is imperative to seek immediate treatment since these lesions have a chance for metastasis
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    Latanoprost usage is a risk factor/cause for iris cysts.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 8. 
    Indicate ALL the true statement about asteroid hyalosis.
    • A. 

      Calcium soaps

    • B. 

      Cholesterol

    • C. 

      Unilateral mostly

    • D. 

      Bilateral mostly

    • E. 

      Reduced VA if get really dense

  • 9. 
    Nongeographic atrophy is RPE hypopigmentation where you can see the underlying choroid vessels.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    MPOD (macular pigment optical density) and PHP (preferential hyperacuity perimetry) are 2 tests that help you to determine the effectiveness of hypertensive retinopathy treatment
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 11. 
    Which of the following can lead to hemmorahgic Pigmented Epithelium Detachments (PED)?
    • A. 

      Serous PED

    • B. 

      Fibrovascular PED

  • 12. 
    HTN choroidopathy is usually found in Grade 3 & 4
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 13. 
    Elschnig's Spots & Siegrit's is found in which condition?
    • A. 

      HTN choroidopathy

    • B. 

      HTN retinopathy

    • C. 

      BRVO/CRVO

    • D. 

      Acute Ophthalmic Artery Obstruction

  • 14. 
    In the early signs of HTN retinopathy, the arteries are straight.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 15. 
    BRVO/CRVO is typically caused by plaques that obstruct the blood flow.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    When differentiating btwn CRVO vs hemi-central CRVO, if the vessels bifurcate before the lamina cribosa it is:
    • A. 

      Hemi-central CRVO

    • B. 

      BRVO

    • C. 

      CRVO

    • D. 

      All of the above possible

  • 17. 
    To determine if a CRVO is ischemic or non-ischemic, you perform a FA.  At what level of capillary dropout will it be considered ischemic?
    • A. 

      > 5 dd

    • B. 

      > 10 dd

    • C. 

      > 20 dd

    • D. 

      > 7 dd

  • 18. 
    Choose the FALSE statement.
    • A. 

      Acute ophthalmic artery obstruction will have little to no cherry red spot

    • B. 

      CRAO and AOAO both cause opacified retinas, but AOAO is usually worse

    • C. 

      CRAO generally causes larger VA reduction that AOAO

    • D. 

      CRAO will cause an immediate APD

  • 19. 
    The most common etiology of epiretinal membrane is retinal vascular diseases.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    Impendiing macular holes typically resolve 50% of the time, otherwise treat with a vitrectomy and gas bubble
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 21. 
    Choose the TRUE statement abut Vitrealmacular Traction Syndrome.
    • A. 

      Aphakia/pseudoaphakia can be protective

    • B. 

      Most require vitrecomy w/ ILP peel

    • C. 

      Present in 25% of pts > 70 yo

    • D. 

      None of the above are true

  • 22. 
    Choose ALL of the correct statement about Idiopathic Juxtafoveal Telangiectasia.
    • A. 

      Group 3 associated with CNS vasculitis

    • B. 

      Signs associated with area nasal to fovea

    • C. 

      Signs associated with area temporal to fovea

    • D. 

      FA hypofluroescece

    • E. 

      Yellow intra-retinal crystals

    • F. 

      Associated with HTN

  • 23. 
    Irvine-Gass Syndome refers to what sign of Sickle Cell Ret?
    • A. 

      Salmon patch hemes

    • B. 

      Iridecent spot

    • C. 

      Sunburst spot

    • D. 

      Sea fan neo

    • E. 

      Cystoid macular edema post cataract sx

  • 24. 
    Which of the following is NOT a s/s of Ocular Ischemic Syndrome?
    • A. 

      Dilated and tortuous vessels

    • B. 

      Neovascularization

    • C. 

      Anterior uveitis

    • D. 

      Lenticular stress leading to true exfoliation

    • E. 

      Ocular angina (dull ache)

  • 25. 
    The most common cause of Macroanerysms is DM
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

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