Ophthalmology Board Exam Review Quiz

107 Questions | Total Attempts: 2671

SettingsSettingsSettings
Please wait...
Ophthalmology Board Exam Review Quiz

Before you are completely allowed to practice as an optician, you have to take up the ophthalmology exam. The board exam review quiz below will help you revise and well prepare for your exam. Success in your forthcoming exam.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    This nerve to an extraocular muscle does not pass through the muscle cone on entering the orbit
    • A. 

      CN III

    • B. 

      CN IV

    • C. 

      CN V

    • D. 

      CN VI

    • E. 

      CN VIII

  • 2. 
    Which is true regarding orbital anatomy?
    • A. 

      The lacrimal gland fossa is located within the lateral orbital wall.

    • B. 

      The optic canal is located within the greater wing of the sphenoid bone

    • C. 

      The medial wall of the optic canal is formed by the lateral wall of the spenoid sinus.

    • D. 

      The nerve to the inferior rectus muscle travels anteriorly along the medial aspect of the muscle and innervates the muscle on its posterior surface

  • 3. 
    The five major branches of the facial nerve include the temporal, buccal, marginal mandibular, cervical and
    • A. 

      Temporal parietal

    • B. 

      Zygomatic

    • C. 

      Infraorbital

    • D. 

      Zygomaticofacial

  • 4. 
    What structure is deep to the plane of the facial nerve branches in the lower face?
    • A. 

      Masseter muscle

    • B. 

      Parotidomasseteric fascia

    • C. 

      Deep temporal fascia

    • D. 

      Parotid gland

  • 5. 
    The superior transverse ligament is also referred to as
    • A. 

      Lockwood's ligament

    • B. 

      Sommerring's ligament

    • C. 

      The ROOF

    • D. 

      Whitnall's ligament

  • 6. 
    Compared to CT scanning, MRI scanning provides better
    • A. 

      View of bone and calcium

    • B. 

      View of the orbital apex and orbitocranial junction

    • C. 

      Elimination of motion artificat

    • D. 

      Comfort for claustrophobic patients

    • E. 

      Safety to patients with prosthetic implants

  • 7. 
    In patients with a facial nerve paralysis, all of the following characteristics may be present except:
    • A. 

      Eyebrow ptosis

    • B. 

      Blepharoptosis

    • C. 

      Lower eyelid ectropion

    • D. 

      Epiphora

    • E. 

      Ocular exposure symptoms

  • 8. 
    A one year old presents with a round, well-demarcated mass at the superotemporal rim.  The lesion has been present since birth.  The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. 

      Rhabdomyosarcoma

    • B. 

      Neurofibroma

    • C. 

      Dermoid cyst

    • D. 

      Capillary hemangioma

    • E. 

      Metastatic Ewing sarcoma

  • 9. 
    A 65 year old woman presents with a progressively enlarging mass in the right inferior orbit.  distraction of the lower eyelid reveals a "salmon patch" appearance to the fornix.  The most likely diagnosis is
    • A. 

      Reactive lymphoid hyperplasia

    • B. 

      Lymphoma

    • C. 

      Sebaceous carcinoma

    • D. 

      Melanoma

    • E. 

      Apocrine hidrocystoma

  • 10. 
    Which of the following signs is most likely to be prsent in a patient with Graves ophthalmopathy?
    • A. 

      Exophthalmos

    • B. 

      Exernal ophthalmoplegia

    • C. 

      Eyelid Retraction

    • D. 

      Optic neuropathy

  • 11. 
    In the US all of the following conditions could cause xerophthalmia except:
    • A. 

      Chronic alcoholism

    • B. 

      Cystic Fibrosis

    • C. 

      Bowel resection

    • D. 

      Glomerulonephritis

  • 12. 
    Which of the following viruses is transmissible even after medical instrumentation is cleaned with alcohol?
    • A. 

      Herpes simplex virus

    • B. 

      Adenovirus

    • C. 

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D. 

      Epstein-Barr Virus

  • 13. 
    Which of the following statements regarding Acanthamoeba is false?
    • A. 

      Two potentially infectious forms of Acanthamoeba exist: the motile trophozoite and the dormant cyst

    • B. 

      Acanthaamoeba keratitis can appear as a pseudodendrite early in its course

    • C. 

      Acanthamoeba can be visualized with calcofluor white, acridine orange, or the Giemsa stain

    • D. 

      Acantamoeba keratitis can appear as a pseudodendrite early in its course.

  • 14. 
    All of the following can be seen with ocular adenoviral infection except:
    • A. 

      Preauricular lymphadenopathy

    • B. 

      Large central geographic corneal erosions

    • C. 

      Multifocal subepithelial infiltrates

    • D. 

      Enlarged corneal nerves

  • 15. 
    Which of the following statements regarding  Herpetic Eye Disease Study (HEDS) is false?
    • A. 

      It demonstrated that topical corticosteroids given together with a prophylactic antiviral reduce persistence or progression of stromal inflammation and shorten the duration of herpes simplex stromal keratitis

    • B. 

      It showed that long term suppressive oral acyclovir theraphy reduces the rate of recurrent HSV keratitis and helps to preserve vision

    • C. 

      It showed some additional benefit of oral acyclovir in treating active HSV stromal keratitis in those patients also receiving concomitant topical cortiscosteroids and trifluridine

    • D. 

      It deomstrated that oral acyclovir did not appear to prevent subsequent HSV stromal keratitis or iritis when it was given briefly along with trifluridine during an episode of epithelial keratitis

  • 16. 
    A healthy 60 year old man presents with a 2 day history of a painful rash on the right side of his forehead extending down to the eyelids.  A vesicular skin lesion is also seen near the tip of his nose.  Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate?
    • A. 

      Topical trifluridine 1% drops 8 times per day for 14 days

    • B. 

      Oral famciclovir 500 mg two times per day for 10 days

    • C. 

      Oral valacyclovir 1000mg three times per day for 10 days

    • D. 

      Oral acyclovir 800mg three times per day for 10 days

  • 17. 
    A 9 year old boy with a history of atopy presents with a seasonally recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis and complains of blurred vision for 1 week.  giant papillae are seen upon lid eversion.  All of the following could also be seen on the slit-lamp except:
    • A. 

      Vascular pannus and pnctate epithelial erosions involving the superior cornea

    • B. 

      An oval epithelial ulceration with underlying stromal opacification in the central cornea

    • C. 

      Limbal follicles

    • D. 

      Conjunctical symblephara

  • 18. 
    Which of the following statements regarding graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is false?
    • A. 

      It is a relatively common complication of allogeneic bone marrow transplantation in which the grafted cells can attack the patient's tissues.

    • B. 

      Conjunctival inflammation and severe sicca are the main features

    • C. 

      Cicatrical lagophthalmos can occur

    • D. 

      Aggressive lubrication is adequate even in severe cases of GVHD

  • 19. 
    Which of the following infectious agents can be linked to interstital keratitis?
    • A. 

      Herpes simplex virus

    • B. 

      Herpes zoster virus

    • C. 

      Chlamydia trachomatis

    • D. 

      All of the Above

  • 20. 
    The Joint Statement of the American Academy of Pediatrics, Section on Ophthalmology; the American Association for Pediatric Ophthalmology and Strabismus; and the American Academy of Ophthalmology recommends at least 2 dilated funduscopic examinations using binocular indirect ophthalmoscopy for all infants with:
    • A. 

      A birth weight less than 1500 grams

    • B. 

      A gestational age of 28 weeks or less

    • C. 

      A birth weight between 1500 and 2000 grams and an unstable clinical course

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 21. 
    Which of the following statements about cataract surgery in patients with diabetes is correct?
    • A. 

      Patients with diabetes enrolled in the ETDRS who underwent cataract surgery did not show an immediate imporvement in visual acuity.

    • B. 

      Patiens with diabetes with CSME should have cataract surgery performed prior to focal laser

    • C. 

      Patients with diabetes and high risk proliferative changes visible through their cataract should ideally have scatter laser immediately before cataract extraction

    • D. 

      Patients with diabetes and high risk proliferative changes visible through their cataract should have scatter laser 1 to 2 months prior to cataract extraction

    • E. 

      Preoperative phenylephrine drops for dilation are contraindicated in patients with diabetes undergoing cataract surgery

  • 22. 
    Which of the following statements about punctate inner choroidopathy (PIC) is correct?
    • A. 

      The condition affects males and females with equal frequency

    • B. 

      Punctate inner choroidopathy is more commonly seen in patients with the ocular histoplasmosis syndrome

    • C. 

      Disease involvement is associated with HLA-DR2 antigen

    • D. 

      The condition is differentiated from MEWDS in that choroidal neovascularization is rarely seen in PIC

    • E. 

      The condition is usually bilateral

  • 23. 
    The following statement about diffuse unilateral subacute neuroretinitis (dusn) is correct:
    • A. 

      The disease never occurs bilaterally

    • B. 

      DUSN is a common casue of incorrectly diagnosed "unilateral retinitis pigmentosa"

    • C. 

      Eradication of the subretinal nematode often results in an intense inflammatory reaction

    • D. 

      Visual loss typically continues after successful eardication of the subretinal nematode

    • E. 

      The condition is seen only in individuals with a history of travel to endemic areas

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      Pneumatic retinopexy works by mechanically reattaching the detached retina.

    • B. 

      Pneumatic retinopexy is contraindicated in patients with total retinal detachments

    • C. 

      Pseudophakia is an absolute contraindication to pneumatic retinopexy

    • D. 

      Chronic detaments are a relative contraindication for Pneumatic retinopexy

    • E. 

      Pneumatic retinopexy is contraindicated in failed scleral buckles

  • 25. 
    Features that may help distinguish CRVO from carotid artery occlusive disease include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Dilated retinal veins

    • B. 

      Tortuosity of retinal veins

    • C. 

      Ophthalmodynamometry

    • D. 

      Retinal artery pressure

Related Topics