Ophthalmology Board Exam Review Quiz

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1. Which of the following is most likely to be positive in an American patient with acute non-granulomatous uveitis?

Explanation

HLA-B27 is most likely to be positive in an American patient with acute non-granulomatous uveitis. This is because HLA-B27 is strongly associated with certain autoimmune diseases, including uveitis. Studies have shown that a significant percentage of patients with acute non-granulomatous uveitis, particularly in the American population, are positive for HLA-B27. Therefore, HLA-B27 is the most likely positive result in this scenario.

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About This Quiz
Ophthalmology Board Exam Review Quiz - Quiz

Before you are completely allowed to practice as an optician, you have to take up the ophthalmology exam. The board exam review quiz below will help you revise... see moreand well prepare for your exam. Success in your forthcoming exam.
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2. The preferred therapy for infantile glaucoma is

Explanation

Trabeculotomy or goniotomy is the preferred therapy for infantile glaucoma because these surgical procedures directly target the underlying cause of the condition, which is the abnormality in the drainage system of the eye. Topical beta blockers and topical bromonidine may be used as adjunctive therapies to lower intraocular pressure, but they do not address the underlying issue. Oral acetazolamide may also be used to lower intraocular pressure, but it is not the preferred therapy for infantile glaucoma.

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3. The Joint Statement of the American Academy of Pediatrics, Section on Ophthalmology; the American Association for Pediatric Ophthalmology and Strabismus; and the American Academy of Ophthalmology recommends at least 2 dilated funduscopic examinations using binocular indirect ophthalmoscopy for all infants with:

Explanation

The Joint Statement of the American Academy of Pediatrics, Section on Ophthalmology; the American Association for Pediatric Ophthalmology and Strabismus; and the American Academy of Ophthalmology recommends at least 2 dilated funduscopic examinations using binocular indirect ophthalmoscopy for all infants with a birth weight less than 1500 grams, a gestational age of 28 weeks or less, or a birth weight between 1500 and 2000 grams and an unstable clinical course. This means that all infants who meet any of these criteria should undergo the recommended examinations to assess their eye health.

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4. All of these diagnostic tests are useful in evaluating a patient with a retained magnetic intraocular foreign body except:

Explanation

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is not useful in evaluating a patient with a retained magnetic intraocular foreign body because it uses a strong magnetic field, which can cause movement or displacement of the foreign body and potentially lead to further complications. The other diagnostic tests mentioned, such as indirect ophthalmoscopy, computed tomography, electrophysiology, and echography, are all useful in evaluating a patient with a retained magnetic intraocular foreign body as they provide valuable information about the location, size, and potential damage caused by the foreign body.

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5. Which of the following is commonly associated with host defenses against parasitic infections?

Explanation

Eosinophils are commonly associated with host defenses against parasitic infections. These white blood cells play a crucial role in the immune response against parasites by releasing toxic granules that can kill or immobilize the parasites. Eosinophils are particularly effective against helminth (worm) infections and are often found in higher numbers in areas of the body where parasites are more likely to invade, such as the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory system. Their ability to release toxic substances and regulate inflammation makes eosinophils an important component of the immune system's defense against parasitic infections.

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6. Goldmann tonometry

Explanation

Goldmann tonometry measures intraocular pressure (IOP) by flattening the cornea and measuring the force required to do so. Increased central corneal thickness can cause an artificially high IOP measurement because the thicker cornea requires more force to be flattened. Therefore, Goldmann tonometry may give an artificially high IOP measurement with increased central corneal thickness.

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7. Which of the following laser properties is not clinically important in ophthalmic applications?

Explanation

Polarity is not clinically important in ophthalmic applications because it refers to the direction of the electric field oscillation of the laser beam, which does not significantly affect the laser's interaction with eye tissues. The other properties listed, such as energy level, power level, pulse duration, and focal spot size, are all important factors that can impact the effectiveness and safety of laser treatments in ophthalmology.

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8. Compared to CT scanning, MRI scanning provides better

Explanation

MRI scanning provides a better view of the orbital apex and orbitocranial junction compared to CT scanning. This is because MRI uses magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of soft tissues, while CT scanning uses X-rays to create images of bones and calcium. The ability of MRI to visualize soft tissues in high resolution makes it a preferred imaging modality for evaluating structures in the orbital apex and orbitocranial junction.

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9. Which of the rectus muscles inserts the closes to the limbus?

Explanation

The medial rectus muscle inserts closest to the limbus. The rectus muscles are a group of muscles that control eye movement. The medial rectus muscle is responsible for inward or adduction movement of the eye. It originates from the common tendinous ring and inserts on the medial surface of the eyeball. The limbus is the border between the cornea and sclera of the eye. Therefore, the medial rectus muscle inserts closest to the limbus compared to the other rectus muscles.

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10. Patients with which of the follwoing are most likely to present with granulomatous uveitis?

Explanation

Patients with sarcoidosis are most likely to present with granulomatous uveitis. Sarcoidosis is a systemic inflammatory disease that can affect multiple organs, including the eyes. Granulomatous uveitis is a specific type of uveitis characterized by the formation of granulomas, which are small inflammatory nodules. In sarcoidosis, these granulomas can develop in the eyes, leading to symptoms such as redness, pain, blurred vision, and sensitivity to light. Therefore, patients with sarcoidosis are more likely to present with granulomatous uveitis compared to those with Behcet syndrome, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, or Reiter syndrome.

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11. A 1 year old child presents with monocular vertical nystagmus.  What is the best course of action?

Explanation

In this scenario, the best course of action is to undertake neuroimaging, preferably an MRI. Monocular vertical nystagmus in a 1-year-old child is a concerning symptom that may indicate an underlying neurological problem. Neuroimaging can help identify any structural abnormalities or lesions in the brain that may be causing the nystagmus. This can aid in making an accurate diagnosis and determining the appropriate treatment plan for the child.

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12. The aqueous layer of the tear film is produced by which of the following?

Explanation

The aqueous layer of the tear film is produced by the glands of Krause. These glands are located in the conjunctiva, which is the thin membrane that covers the front surface of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. The glands of Krause secrete a watery fluid that helps to keep the eye lubricated and moist. This fluid is an important component of the tear film, which helps to protect the eye from dryness and foreign particles.

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13. All of the following conditions have a characteristic anterior-segment finding except:

Explanation

Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects the shape of red blood cells, causing them to become crescent-shaped. This condition primarily affects the red blood cells and does not typically involve any abnormalities in the anterior segment of the eye. In contrast, Marfan syndrome is associated with lens dislocation, Galactosemia can cause cataracts, and Wilson disease can lead to Kayser-Fleischer rings in the cornea.

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14. Which of the following infectious agents can be linked to interstital keratitis?

Explanation

All of the above infectious agents can be linked to interstitial keratitis. Interstitial keratitis is an inflammation of the cornea that can be caused by various infectious agents. Herpes simplex virus and herpes zoster virus are both known to cause interstitial keratitis, while Chlamydia trachomatis, a bacterium, can also lead to this condition. Therefore, all three options listed in the question are correct.

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15. The most common cause of binocular transient visual loss lasting 30 minutes a 29 year old woman is

Explanation

Migraine is the most common cause of binocular transient visual loss lasting 30 minutes in a 29-year-old woman. Migraine is a neurological condition characterized by recurring headaches, often accompanied by visual disturbances such as flashing lights or blind spots. These visual disturbances, known as auras, can last for a short period of time and affect both eyes. Migraine-related visual loss is typically temporary and resolves on its own. Other potential causes such as thromboembolism, pseudotumor cerebri, and giant cell arteritis are less likely in this age group and presentation.

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16. Reiter syndrome is associated with all except which of the following?

Explanation

Reiter syndrome is a condition characterized by the triad of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. It is also commonly associated with other symptoms such as skin lesions and inflammation of the joints and tendons. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, is a separate condition that primarily affects the spine and can lead to fusion of the vertebrae. While both Reiter syndrome and ankylosing spondylitis are related to inflammation and joint problems, they are distinct conditions. Therefore, ankylosing spondylitis is not associated with Reiter syndrome.

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17. The gene known to be associated with aniridia is

Explanation

PAX6 is the correct answer because it is a well-known gene associated with aniridia, a genetic disorder that affects the development of the eye. Mutations in the PAX6 gene can lead to the absence or malformation of the iris, which is a characteristic feature of aniridia. PAX6 is responsible for regulating the development of various eye structures, including the iris, lens, and retina.

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18. Current smokers should avoid which one of the following?

Explanation

Current smokers should avoid beta carotene because it has been found to increase the risk of lung cancer in this population. Studies have shown that high doses of beta carotene, typically found in supplements, can actually have harmful effects on smokers. Therefore, it is recommended that smokers avoid beta carotene supplementation.

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19. Parasympathetic fibers destined for the pupil reside in the

Explanation

The correct answer is the medial portion of CN III. Parasympathetic fibers that control the pupil are located in the medial portion of the third cranial nerve (CN III). CN III, also known as the oculomotor nerve, is responsible for controlling the movement of the eye muscles and also carries parasympathetic fibers that regulate the size of the pupil. Therefore, the parasympathetic fibers destined for the pupil reside in the medial portion of CN III.

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20. Which antibody is produced in the effector phase of the primary immune response to antigens?

Explanation

During the effector phase of the primary immune response to antigens, IgM antibodies are produced. IgM is the first antibody class to be produced by B cells in response to an infection or antigen. It is a pentameric antibody that is effective in neutralizing pathogens and activating the complement system. IgM antibodies are primarily involved in the early stages of an immune response, while IgG antibodies, for example, are produced later in the secondary immune response and provide long-term immunity. IgD antibodies are mainly found on the surface of B cells and are involved in the activation of B cells, while IgE antibodies are associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections.

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21. Which of the following is a true basement membrane?

Explanation

Descemet's membrane is a true basement membrane because it is a thin, acellular layer located between the corneal endothelium and the stroma of the cornea. It provides structural support and acts as a barrier between the cornea and the aqueous humor. Bowman's layer is a component of the cornea, but it is not considered a basement membrane. Zonules of Zinn are fibers that hold the lens of the eye in place and are not a basement membrane. The anterior border layer of the iris is also not a basement membrane but rather a part of the iris structure.

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22. A one year old presents with a round, well-demarcated mass at the superotemporal rim.  The lesion has been present since birth.  The most likely diagnosis is

Explanation

The most likely diagnosis in this case is a dermoid cyst. Dermoid cysts are typically present at birth and are well-demarcated masses. They can occur in various locations, including the superotemporal rim. Dermoid cysts are benign and are composed of tissue from the ectoderm, which can include hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands. They are usually slow-growing and painless. Rhabdomyosarcoma, neurofibroma, capillary hemangioma, and metastatic Ewing sarcoma are less likely in this case because they do not typically present as well-demarcated masses present since birth.

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23. Risk factor(s) for nuclear o pacification identified by epidemiological studies include

Explanation

Epidemiological studies have identified several risk factors for nuclear pacification. Current smoking is a known risk factor, as it increases the likelihood of developing nuclear pacification. Additionally, being of white race has been associated with a higher risk of nuclear pacification. Lower education levels have also been identified as a risk factor for this condition. Therefore, all of the above factors have been found to contribute to the risk of nuclear pacification based on epidemiological studies.

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24. All of the following are risk factors for cystoid macular edema after cataract surgery except:

Explanation

Flexible open-loop anterior chamber IOL implantation is not a risk factor for cystoid macular edema after cataract surgery. Cystoid macular edema is a condition where there is swelling in the macula, the central part of the retina, after surgery. Risk factors for this condition include diabetes mellitus, ruptured posterior capsule, marked postoperative inflammation, and vitreous loss. However, the type of IOL implantation does not contribute to the development of cystoid macular edema.

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25. The five major branches of the facial nerve include the temporal, buccal, marginal mandibular, cervical and

Explanation

The correct answer is "Zygomatic" because it is one of the five major branches of the facial nerve. The facial nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles of the face and is divided into several branches that innervate different regions. The zygomatic branch specifically innervates the muscles around the cheekbone area, including the zygomaticus major and minor muscles.

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26. Hypopyon is most likely to be seen in which of the following uveitic syndromes?

Explanation

Hypopyon is most likely to be seen in Behcet syndrome. Behcet syndrome is a chronic autoimmune disorder that causes inflammation in blood vessels throughout the body. It commonly affects the eyes, causing uveitis which is inflammation of the uvea, the middle layer of the eye. Hypopyon is the accumulation of white blood cells in the anterior chamber of the eye, and it is a characteristic feature of uveitis in Behcet syndrome. Sarcoidosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and Reiter syndrome can also cause uveitis, but hypopyon is most commonly associated with Behcet syndrome.

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27. Periocular depot cortiscosteroid injections should not be used in which of the following uveitic syndromes?

Explanation

Periocular depot corticosteroid injections should not be used in toxoplasmosis uveitic syndrome. This is because corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, which may worsen the infection caused by toxoplasmosis. In contrast, corticosteroids are often used in the other uveitic syndromes mentioned, such as pars planitis with cystoid macular edema, sarcoidosis, and Reiter syndrome, to reduce inflammation and manage symptoms.

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28. In normals, the average normal corneal thickness is

Explanation

The average normal corneal thickness in the general population is typically around 540 um. This measurement is important as it helps to assess the health of the cornea and can be used to diagnose conditions such as glaucoma and keratoconus. A cornea that is thicker or thinner than the average range may indicate an underlying issue that requires further evaluation and treatment.

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29. A 65 year old woman presents with a progressively enlarging mass in the right inferior orbit.  distraction of the lower eyelid reveals a "salmon patch" appearance to the fornix.  The most likely diagnosis is

Explanation

Based on the given information, a 65-year-old woman with a progressively enlarging mass in the right inferior orbit and a "salmon patch" appearance to the fornix, the most likely diagnosis is lymphoma. Lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system and can present as a mass or swelling in various parts of the body, including the orbit. The "salmon patch" appearance refers to the reddish coloration often seen in lymphoma. Therefore, considering the symptoms and characteristics described, lymphoma is the most likely diagnosis.

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30. An underlying condition is most likely to be determined in a patient with isolated eye pain and

Explanation

The presence of ipsilateral facial numbness along with isolated eye pain suggests that there may be an underlying condition causing these symptoms. This combination of symptoms could be indicative of a neurological issue, such as trigeminal neuralgia or a tumor affecting the trigeminal nerve. The normal neuroimaging of the brain and orbits rules out any structural abnormalities, while the poor response to tricyclic antidepressants suggests that the pain is not related to a psychiatric condition. Therefore, the most likely explanation for the given symptoms is an underlying condition that is causing both the eye pain and facial numbness.

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31. Which of the following local/regional anesthetic agents has the longest duration of effect?

Explanation

Bupivacaine has the longest duration of effect among the given local/regional anesthetic agents. This is because it is a long-acting amide-type anesthetic that is highly protein-bound, allowing it to stay at the site of action for a longer period of time. It has a slower onset but provides prolonged anesthesia, making it suitable for procedures requiring longer-lasting pain relief. Lidocaine, procaine, and mepivacaine, on the other hand, have shorter durations of effect compared to bupivacaine.

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32. Which of the following statements about pleomorphic adenoma of the lacrimal gland is false?

Explanation

Pleomorphic adenoma of the lacrimal gland is a benign tumor that arises from the epithelial cells of the gland. It is known to have a tendency to recur, and in some cases, these recurrences can transform into malignancy. However, it is not known to resolve spontaneously. Therefore, the statement that it can resolve spontaneously is false.

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33. Which of the following nerves does not enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure?

Explanation

CN II, also known as the optic nerve, does not enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure. Instead, it enters the orbit through the optic canal. The superior orbital fissure is a passage in the skull that allows several nerves and blood vessels to enter the orbit, including CN III (oculomotor nerve), CN IV (trochlear nerve), and CN VI (abducens nerve).

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34. The modified Callender classification of ocular melanoma applies to melanomas of the

Explanation

The modified Callender classification of ocular melanoma applies to melanomas of the choroid. This classification system is used to categorize and stage melanomas based on their size, location, and extent of invasion. The choroid is a layer of tissue in the eye that contains blood vessels and provides nourishment to the retina. Melanomas that develop in the choroid can be particularly dangerous as they can grow and spread to other parts of the eye and body. Therefore, it is important to accurately classify and stage these melanomas to determine the appropriate treatment and prognosis.

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35. In the CNTG, Collaborative Normal-Tension glaucoma treatment study, progression was reduced by nearly threefold by a reduction in IOP of

Explanation

In the CNTG study, it was found that a reduction in intraocular pressure (IOP) by 30% resulted in a significant reduction in the progression of Collaborative Normal-Tension glaucoma. This implies that lowering IOP by 30% was effective in slowing down the advancement of the disease. The study suggests that a 30% reduction in IOP is an optimal target for treatment in order to achieve positive outcomes in patients with this condition.

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36. Which of the follow is most useful in distinguishing the cause of anisocoria that is greater in dark than in light?

Explanation

Cocaine 10% is most useful in distinguishing the cause of anisocoria that is greater in dark than in light. Cocaine is a potent sympathomimetic drug that blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine, leading to dilation of the pupil. In cases where anisocoria is greater in the dark, it suggests a sympathetic denervation of the dilator muscle in the affected eye. By instilling cocaine 10% into the eye, if the anisocoria resolves or decreases, it confirms that the cause of anisocoria is related to sympathetic dysfunction.

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37. Optic disc drusen typically demonstrate all of the following features except

Explanation

Optic disc drusen is a condition characterized by the presence of small calcium deposits in the optic disc. These deposits can cause various symptoms and features, such as optic disc elevation and blurred margins, high reflective signal on b-scan ultrasonography, and arcuate visual field defects. However, visual acuity loss is not typically associated with optic disc drusen. Therefore, the correct answer is visual acuity loss.

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38. HLA-B27-associated acute anterior uveitis is associated with all except which of the following systemic disorders?

Explanation

HLA-B27-associated acute anterior uveitis is associated with Reiter syndrome, psoriatic arthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis. Behcet syndrome, however, is not typically associated with HLA-B27.

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39. The superior transverse ligament is also referred to as

Explanation

The superior transverse ligament is commonly known as Whitnall's ligament. This ligament is located in the eye socket and helps to support the upper eyelid. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the proper position and function of the eyelid, ensuring that it opens and closes smoothly. Whitnall's ligament is named after the British ophthalmologist Charles Whitnall, who first described its anatomy and function.

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40. In the US all of the following conditions could cause xerophthalmia except:

Explanation

Xerophthalmia is a condition characterized by dryness of the eyes due to vitamin A deficiency. Chronic alcoholism, cystic fibrosis, and bowel resection are all conditions that can potentially lead to malabsorption of nutrients, including vitamin A, and therefore increase the risk of xerophthalmia. On the other hand, glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease that does not directly affect the absorption or utilization of vitamin A, making it the exception among the given conditions.

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41. Which of the following statements about cataract surgery in patients with diabetes is correct?

Explanation

Patients with diabetes and high risk proliferative changes visible through their cataract should have scatter laser 1 to 2 months prior to cataract extraction. This statement suggests that patients with diabetes and high risk proliferative changes should undergo scatter laser treatment before cataract surgery. This is done to reduce the risk of complications and improve the outcome of the surgery. The scatter laser treatment helps to stabilize the proliferative changes and reduce the risk of bleeding during the cataract surgery. By performing the scatter laser treatment prior to cataract extraction, the surgeon can ensure a safer and more successful surgery for these patients.

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42. Which of the following uveitic syndromes is least likely to require topical corticosteroid management?

Explanation

Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis is least likely to require topical corticosteroid management because it is a chronic, low-grade inflammation of the eye that typically does not respond well to corticosteroids. Unlike the other uveitic syndromes listed, Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis is often managed with other treatments such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or immunomodulatory agents.

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43. Which of the following signs is most likely to be prsent in a patient with Graves ophthalmopathy?

Explanation

Eyelid retraction is most likely to be present in a patient with Graves ophthalmopathy. Graves ophthalmopathy is an autoimmune condition that affects the eyes, commonly seen in patients with Graves' disease. It is characterized by inflammation and swelling of the tissues around the eyes, causing various eye symptoms. Eyelid retraction refers to the abnormal elevation of the upper eyelid, which is a classic sign of Graves ophthalmopathy. This condition is caused by the accumulation of glycosaminoglycans and inflammation in the tissues behind the eyes, leading to the protrusion of the eyeballs and retraction of the eyelids.

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44. Which of the following viruses is transmissible even after medical instrumentation is cleaned with alcohol?

Explanation

Adenovirus is the correct answer because it is known to be resistant to alcohol-based disinfectants. This means that even after medical instruments are cleaned with alcohol, adenovirus can still remain viable and transmissible. Unlike other viruses listed, such as herpes simplex virus, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and Epstein-Barr virus, adenovirus has the ability to survive and persist on surfaces even after alcohol disinfection.

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45. Multifocal IOLs

Explanation

Multifocal IOLs offer a trade-off between decreased image quality and increased depth of focus. This means that while these lenses can provide a wider range of focus, allowing for better near and far vision, the overall image quality may not be as sharp as with other types of lenses. However, the increased depth of focus can still be beneficial for patients who prioritize convenience and reduced dependence on spectacles.

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46. Behcet syndrome is associated with all except which of the following?

Explanation

Behcet syndrome is a chronic, multisystem inflammatory disorder that primarily affects blood vessels. The characteristic symptoms of Behcet syndrome include aphthous stomatitis (recurrent mouth ulcers), genital ulceration, and retinal vasculitis (inflammation of the blood vessels in the retina). Arthritis, however, is not typically associated with Behcet syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is arthritis.

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47. Which of the following systemic diseases is not associated with ectopia lentis?

Explanation

Myotonic dystrophy is not associated with ectopia lentis. Ectopia lentis is a condition where the lens of the eye is abnormally positioned. It is commonly seen in individuals with homocystinuria, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Marfan syndrome, and sulfite oxidase deficiency. However, myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the muscles and other systems of the body, but it is not typically associated with ectopia lentis.

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48. Which of the following is most likely to prompt additional evaluation in a patient with facial palsy

Explanation

Simultaneous bilateral facial palsy, where both sides of the face are affected, is most likely to prompt additional evaluation in a patient with facial palsy. This is because bilateral facial palsy is a rare condition and can be associated with more serious underlying causes such as Lyme disease, Guillain-Barré syndrome, or certain viral infections. Therefore, it is important to further investigate and determine the underlying cause of simultaneous bilateral facial palsy in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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49. Which eye movement disorder is most commonly seen in patients with paraneoplastic syndromes?

Explanation

Opsoclonus is a type of eye movement disorder that is commonly seen in patients with paraneoplastic syndromes. Paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of rare disorders that occur due to an abnormal immune response to a cancerous tumor. Opsoclonus is characterized by rapid, involuntary, and unpredictable eye movements in multiple directions. It is often accompanied by other neurological symptoms such as ataxia, myoclonus, and behavioral changes. Opsoclonus is believed to result from an autoimmune response against the tumor, leading to inflammation in the brain and affecting the control of eye movements.

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50. You are about to write the postoperative spectacle prescription for a cataract surgery patient with macular degeneration. The best choice for a reading add for the patient with 20/70 best-corrected vision is

Explanation

The best choice for a reading add for a cataract surgery patient with macular degeneration and 20/70 best-corrected vision is +3.50 D. Macular degeneration affects the central vision, making it difficult to see fine details and small print. A reading add of +3.50 D would provide the patient with the necessary magnification to improve their near vision and make reading easier. A higher add power, such as +7.00 D, may be too strong and cause the patient to have difficulty focusing or adapting to the new prescription. A 3.5x magnifier is not a suitable option for a spectacle prescription.

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51. A lens coloboma

Explanation

A lens coloboma is often associated with cortical lens opacification. This means that when a lens coloboma is present, there is a high likelihood of also observing cortical lens opacification.

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52. All of the following can be seen with ocular adenoviral infection except:

Explanation

Ocular adenoviral infection typically presents with symptoms such as preauricular lymphadenopathy, large central geographic corneal erosions, and multifocal subepithelial infiltrates. However, enlarged corneal nerves are not typically associated with ocular adenoviral infection.

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53. A healthy 60 year old man presents with a 2 day history of a painful rash on the right side of his forehead extending down to the eyelids.  A vesicular skin lesion is also seen near the tip of his nose.  Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate?

Explanation

The patient's presentation is consistent with herpes zoster ophthalmicus, which is caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. The most appropriate therapy for this condition is oral antiviral medication. Valacyclovir is a prodrug of acyclovir and has better bioavailability, allowing for less frequent dosing. The recommended duration of treatment for herpes zoster ophthalmicus is 7-10 days. Therefore, oral valacyclovir 1000mg three times per day for 10 days would be the most appropriate therapy for this patient.

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54. Clear corneal incisions are associated with all of the following characteristics except:

Explanation

Clear corneal incisions are associated with less incidence of endophthalmitis. This means that clear corneal incisions are less likely to result in the development of endophthalmitis, which is a severe infection within the eye. The other characteristics mentioned in the question are associated with clear corneal incisions, meaning that they are more susceptible to wound burn, more difficult to construct, and less likely to be watertight.

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55. The goal of anterior vitrectomy is

Explanation

The goal of anterior vitrectomy is to remove the vitreous gel that is located in front of the posterior lens capsule. This procedure is typically performed to improve visualization during cataract surgery or to remove vitreous opacities that may be causing visual disturbances. By removing the vitreous anterior to the posterior lens capsule, the surgeon can ensure a clear visual field and facilitate the placement of an intraocular lens if necessary.

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56. Which feature below are not typicall found in brown syndrome

Explanation

Brown syndrome is a rare eye condition characterized by limited or incomplete elevation of the affected eye in straight upgaze. Exotropia (outward deviation) in straight upgaze is also commonly observed in individuals with Brown syndrome. However, hyperdeviation in the lower field of gaze (choice a) and esotropia (inward deviation) in downgaze (choice d) are not typically found in Brown syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is a and d.

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57. In patients with a facial nerve paralysis, all of the following characteristics may be present except:

Explanation

Facial nerve paralysis can cause a variety of symptoms due to the loss of muscle control in the face. Eyebrow ptosis, lower eyelid ectropion, epiphora, and ocular exposure symptoms are all potential manifestations of facial nerve paralysis. However, blepharoptosis, which refers to drooping of the upper eyelid, is not typically associated with facial nerve paralysis. Therefore, the correct answer is "Blepharoptosis."

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58. A 9 year old boy with a history of atopy presents with a seasonally recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis and complains of blurred vision for 1 week.  giant papillae are seen upon lid eversion.  All of the following could also be seen on the slit-lamp except:

Explanation

The given answer is correct because conjunctival symblephara is not typically seen in patients with atopic conjunctivitis. Atopic conjunctivitis is characterized by inflammation of the conjunctiva, which can lead to the formation of giant papillae. Other findings that can be seen on slit-lamp examination in atopic conjunctivitis include limbal follicles, vascular pannus, and punctate epithelial erosions. However, symblephara, which refers to adhesions between the conjunctiva and the globe or eyelid, is not a common feature of atopic conjunctivitis.

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59. Which of the following is not a point of firm attachment between the sclera and uvea?

Explanation

The ora serrata is the boundary between the retina and the ciliary body. It is not a point of firm attachment between the sclera and uvea. The scleral spur is a thickening of the sclera where the ciliary muscle attaches. The internal ostia of vortex veins are openings in the sclera through which blood drains from the choroid. The peripapillary tissue refers to the area surrounding the optic nerve head.

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60. The power of an intraocular lens should be increased

Explanation

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61. Sturge-Weber Syndrome

Explanation

Sturge-Weber Syndrome is a rare neurological disorder that is characterized by abnormal blood vessel development in the brain. It typically presents with a port-wine stain birthmark on the face, and it is usually bilateral, meaning it affects both sides of the body. While the syndrome is not always inherited, it can occur in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene from one parent to develop the condition. Although the syndrome is more common in males, it can affect both genders. Additionally, while glaucoma is rarely associated with Sturge-Weber Syndrome, it may occur in infants with the condition.

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62. The parents of a 7 month old child complain of intermittent tearing OD only, beginning 3 months ago.  Their pediatrician prescribed lacrimal sac massage but noticed a decreased red reflex OD on a follow-up visit.  The most likely diagnosis is

Explanation

The most likely diagnosis in this case is congenital glaucoma. The parents of the child complain of intermittent tearing in the right eye only, which is a common symptom of glaucoma. The decreased red reflex on follow-up suggests a possible obstruction in the drainage system of the eye, which is a characteristic feature of congenital glaucoma. Infantile cataract usually presents with cloudy or white pupils, while chlamydial conjunctivitis with corneal scarring typically causes redness and discharge in both eyes. Retinoblastoma, a tumor of the retina, is unlikely to present with tearing as the main symptom.

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63. Which of the following statements regarding graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is false?

Explanation

Aggressive lubrication is not adequate in severe cases of GVHD. Severe cases of GVHD require more intensive treatment, such as systemic immunosuppressive therapy, to manage the inflammation and symptoms. Aggressive lubrication alone may not be enough to provide relief in severe cases.

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64. A feature not associated with exfoliation syndrome is

Explanation

Exfoliation syndrome is a condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal protein fibers in the eye. It is associated with various eye complications, including earlier cataract formations, higher incidence of vitreous loss during cataract surgery, and volatile intraocular pressures (IOPs). However, deeper anterior chamber angles are not typically associated with exfoliation syndrome. Anterior chamber angles refer to the space where the cornea and iris meet, and deeper angles are often associated with other conditions, such as narrow-angle glaucoma.

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65. A single  intraoperative application of mitomycin C has been associated with an increase risk of

Explanation

A single intraoperative application of mitomycin C has been associated with an increased risk of hypotony and bleb leaks and infections. This means that using mitomycin C during surgery can lead to abnormally low intraocular pressure (hypotony), as well as the development of leaks and infections in the surgical site (bleb). The answer "a and c only" correctly identifies the risks associated with mitomycin C use, which are hypotony and bleb leaks and infections.

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66. Which of the following statements regarding Acanthamoeba is false?

Explanation



Acanthamoeba keratitis does not typically present as a pseudodendrite early on. Pseudodendrites are more characteristic of herpes simplex keratitis. Acanthamoeba keratitis often starts with pain disproportionate to the clinical signs, and may initially appear as a diffuse corneal edema or a small epithelial defect. Later in the course of the disease, it can develop into a ring-shaped infiltrate or a severe stromal keratitis.
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67. A family history of retinoblastoma is present in what percent of newly diagnosed retinoblastoma patients

Explanation

The correct answer is 6% because a family history of retinoblastoma is present in a small percentage of newly diagnosed retinoblastoma patients. This suggests that genetics play a role in the development of the disease, but it is not a common occurrence.

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68. The epidemiology of cataracts suggests that

Explanation

The correct answer is that cataracts are more prevalent in women. This can be explained by various factors such as hormonal changes, longer life expectancy in women, and higher exposure to risk factors like smoking and sun exposure. Additionally, studies have shown that women may have a higher susceptibility to developing cataracts due to genetic and biological differences. However, it is important to note that cataracts can still occur in both genders and at any age.

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69. Congenital dacryocystocele

Explanation



Congenital dacryocystocele is a condition present at birth where the tear duct (nasolacrimal duct) is blocked, leading to a buildup of fluid in the lacrimal sac. This causes a bluish swelling below the medial canthal tendon. It can also lead to an intranasal mucocele, which is a cyst filled with mucus in the nasal cavity, as the blockage prevents tears from draining into the nose. The blockage is often caused by stenosis (narrowing) of the bony nasolacrimal canal, which is the passageway that connects the lacrimal sac to the nasal cavity.
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70. Tucking the superior oblique tendon

Explanation

Tucking the superior oblique tendon is appropriate to correct superior oblique muscle palsy, as it helps to strengthen the muscle and improve its function. This procedure can also result in Brown syndrome, a condition characterized by limited upward gaze and a positive forced duction test. Tucking the tendon is considered the procedure of choice when the symptoms and measurements indicate primarily a torsional misalignment, as it helps to correct the misalignment and improve the patient's vision. Therefore, the correct answer is a and b.

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71. In adults, the most common intraocular malignant tumor and most common site of involvement are

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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72. Which of the follwoing choroidal lesions may be assoicated witha denocarcinoma of the colon?

Explanation

Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium may be associated with adenocarcinoma of the colon. This is because congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium is a rare condition that is often associated with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), which is a hereditary condition that predisposes individuals to develop adenocarcinoma of the colon. Therefore, the presence of congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium may indicate a higher risk for developing colon cancer.

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73. All of the following are common causes of transient visual loss except

Explanation

Transient visual loss refers to a temporary loss of vision that lasts for a short duration. Nonarteritic ischemic optic neuropathy (NAION) is a condition characterized by sudden, painless vision loss due to ischemia (lack of blood flow) to the optic nerve. It is a common cause of transient visual loss and is often associated with risk factors such as hypertension, diabetes, and smoking. Migraine, giant cell arteritis (a condition that causes inflammation of blood vessels), and pseudotumor cerebri (increased pressure inside the skull) are also common causes of transient visual loss. Therefore, the correct answer is nonarteritic ischemic optic neuropathy, as it is not a common cause of transient visual loss.

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74. Which of the following statements is false

Explanation

Telecanthus actually indicates decreased separation between the bony orbits, not increased separation. Telecanthus is a condition characterized by a wide nasal bridge and increased distance between the inner corners of the eyes. This can be caused by various factors such as genetic abnormalities, trauma, or certain medical conditions. It is often associated with other craniofacial abnormalities. Surgical correction may be required to address the cosmetic or functional concerns associated with telecanthus.

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75. This nerve to an extraocular muscle does not pass through the muscle cone on entering the orbit

Explanation

CN IV, also known as the trochlear nerve, is the correct answer because it is the only nerve among the options that does not pass through the muscle cone on entering the orbit. The muscle cone, also called the annulus of Zinn, is a fibrous structure that surrounds the optic nerve and contains the other extraocular muscles and nerves. CN IV, however, exits the brainstem dorsally and passes through a small hole in the skull called the superior orbital fissure, bypassing the muscle cone.

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76. Which of the following ocular histologic changes is not considered to be associated with diabetes mellitus?

Explanation

Iris hemorrhages are not considered to be associated with diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus is known to cause various ocular histologic changes such as lacy vacuolization of the iris, retinal hemorrhages, and thickened basement membranes. However, iris hemorrhages are typically associated with other conditions such as trauma, inflammation, or certain systemic diseases like hypertension, rather than diabetes mellitus.

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77. The ability of a light wave from a laser to form interference fringes with another wave from the same beam, separated in time, is a measure of its

Explanation

Temporal coherence refers to the ability of a light wave to maintain a constant phase relationship over time. In the context of the question, when a light wave from a laser forms interference fringes with another wave from the same beam, it indicates that the waves are in phase and have a consistent phase relationship. This demonstrates the temporal coherence of the light wave. Spatial coherence refers to the ability of a wave to maintain a constant phase relationship at different points in space. Polarization refers to the orientation of the electric field vector of a light wave, and directionality refers to the ability of a wave to propagate in a specific direction.

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78. Proper distance visual acuity testing for a low vision patient includes all except:

Explanation

Proper distance visual acuity testing for a low vision patient includes all options except a snellen visual acuity chart. This is because a snellen chart is typically used for testing visual acuity in individuals with normal vision, not for low vision patients. Instead, a testing chart with symbols arranged in rows of decreasing size that are equally legible is used for low vision patients. Additionally, nonstandardized room illuminations and a +1.00 D lens placed over the patient's distance refraction may be included in the testing process for low vision patients.

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79. A retrobulbar anesthetic is least likely to produce anesthesia of cranial nerve

Explanation

A retrobulbar anesthetic is least likely to produce anesthesia of cranial nerve II. This is because cranial nerve II, also known as the optic nerve, is responsible for transmitting visual information from the eye to the brain. Retrobulbar anesthesia involves injecting anesthetic behind the eyeball to block the sensory nerves supplying the eye and surrounding structures. While retrobulbar anesthesia can affect cranial nerves III, IV, and VI, which control eye movement and pupil constriction, it is unlikely to affect cranial nerve II as it is not directly involved in these functions.

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80. Which is true regarding orbital anatomy?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the medial wall of the optic canal is formed by the lateral wall of the sphenoid sinus. This means that the space within the optic canal is bordered by the lateral wall of the sphenoid sinus, which is located in the skull. The optic canal is a passageway that allows the optic nerve to travel from the eye to the brain. Understanding the anatomy of the optic canal is important for understanding the pathway of the optic nerve and any potential issues that may arise in this area.

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81. In a randomized, controlled clinical trial, pneumatic retinopexy

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that in a randomized, controlled clinical trial, pneumatic retinopexy showed slightly better visual outcomes compared to scleral buckle in patients with macula involving rhegmatogenous retinal detachments of less than 14 day duration. This suggests that pneumatic retinopexy may be a more effective treatment option for this specific group of patients.

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82. Fetal alcohol syndrome includes all of the following except:

Explanation

Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition caused by prenatal exposure to alcohol and can result in various physical and developmental abnormalities. The given options are all potential symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome except for microspherophakia. Microspherophakia is a condition characterized by abnormally small and spherical lenses in the eyes, which is not typically associated with fetal alcohol syndrome.

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83. Two tumors commonly associated with so-called masquerade syndrome are

Explanation

The correct answer is eyelid sebaceous carcinoma, intraocular lymphoma. Masquerade syndrome refers to the situation where a malignant tumor mimics a benign condition, leading to delayed diagnosis and treatment. In this case, both eyelid sebaceous carcinoma and intraocular lymphoma can present with symptoms similar to benign conditions, such as chronic inflammation or infection. Therefore, they can be mistaken for less serious conditions, causing a delay in proper diagnosis and treatment.

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84. The most common secondary tumors in retinoblastoma patients within and outside of the field of ocular radiation are

Explanation

The correct answer is within, osteosarcoma; outside, osteosarcoma. Retinoblastoma patients are more likely to develop secondary tumors within the field of ocular radiation, and osteosarcoma is the most common secondary tumor in this area. Outside of the field of ocular radiation, retinoblastoma patients are also at an increased risk of developing osteosarcoma. Therefore, the most common secondary tumors in retinoblastoma patients are osteosarcoma both within and outside the field of ocular radiation.

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85. What structure is deep to the plane of the facial nerve branches in the lower face?

Explanation

The masseter muscle is deep to the plane of the facial nerve branches in the lower face. This means that the facial nerve branches are located beneath the masseter muscle when considering the anatomical layers of the lower face.

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86. Vision loss in Riley-Day syndrome is most often due to

Explanation

Vision loss in Riley-Day syndrome is most often due to corneal scarring. Riley-Day syndrome, also known as familial dysautonomia, is a rare genetic disorder that affects the autonomic nervous system. One of the common symptoms of this syndrome is decreased tear production, which can lead to corneal drying and scarring. Corneal scarring can cause vision impairment and eventually lead to vision loss in individuals with Riley-Day syndrome.

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87. The following statement about diffuse unilateral subacute neuroretinitis (dusn) is correct:

Explanation



After eradicating the subretinal nematode in diffuse unilateral subacute neuroretinitis (DUSN), an intense inflammatory reaction often occurs due to the release of toxins from the dying parasite. This inflammation can exacerbate vision issues and may require additional treatment to manage complications and preserve visual function.
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88. Histologic differentiation between primary and recurrent pterygia can be based on

Explanation

The correct answer is the absence of elastotic degeneration in recurrent pterygia. Elastotic degeneration is a characteristic feature of primary pterygia, but it is not present in recurrent pterygia. This difference in elastotic degeneration can be used to differentiate between primary and recurrent pterygia histologically.

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89. Which of the following extraocular muscles inserts farthest from the limbus?

Explanation

The inferior oblique muscle inserts farthest from the limbus. The limbus is the border between the cornea and the sclera of the eye. Among the given options, the inferior oblique muscle is the only one that inserts farthest from this border. The superior rectus, inferior rectus, and superior oblique muscles all insert closer to the limbus compared to the inferior oblique muscle.

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90. What is the retinal magnification of an eye with a refractive error of +5D when viewed with a direct opthalmoscope?

Explanation

The retinal magnification of an eye with a refractive error of +5D when viewed with a direct ophthalmoscope is 13.75x. This means that the image seen through the ophthalmoscope appears 13.75 times larger than it would without the ophthalmoscope. The refractive error of +5D indicates that the eye has difficulty focusing on near objects, and the ophthalmoscope helps to compensate for this by magnifying the image.

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91. The risk of cataract development may be decreased by foods rich in

Explanation

Lutein is a carotenoid that is found in high concentrations in the eye, particularly in the macula. It acts as an antioxidant and helps to filter out harmful blue light, reducing the risk of oxidative damage to the lens and the development of cataracts. Therefore, consuming foods rich in lutein, such as leafy green vegetables, can help decrease the risk of cataract development.

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92. The inheritance pattern of the 5 primary loci for adult-onset glaucoma is

Explanation

The inheritance pattern of adult-onset glaucoma is autosomal dominant. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to inherit the condition. If a parent has the condition, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their children. This pattern is different from autosomal recessive inheritance, where two copies of the mutated gene are needed to inherit the condition, and sex-linked inheritance, which is determined by genes on the sex chromosomes.

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93. Which of the following statements regarding  Herpetic Eye Disease Study (HEDS) is false?

Explanation

The Herpetic Eye Disease Study (HEDS) demonstrated that oral acyclovir has additional benefits in treating active HSV stromal keratitis when used in combination with topical corticosteroids and trifluridine. This suggests that the combination therapy is more effective in treating the condition compared to using oral acyclovir alone.

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94. Which of the following is not considered to be an illusion?

Explanation

Palinopsia is a visual disturbance characterized by the persistence or recurrence of visual images after the stimulus has been removed. It is often associated with certain medical conditions or drug use. In contrast, the Pulfrich phenomenon, metamorphopsia, and micropsia are all considered to be illusions. The Pulfrich phenomenon refers to a perceived 3D effect caused by a slight delay in the processing of visual information between the two eyes. Metamorphopsia is the distortion or alteration of visual perception, while micropsia is the perception of objects as being smaller than they actually are.

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95. The near point of the fully accomated hyperopic eye

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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96. Which of the following statements about punctate inner choroidopathy (PIC) is correct?

Explanation

Punctate inner choroidopathy (PIC) is usually bilateral, meaning that it typically affects both eyes. This is in contrast to other conditions such as MEWDS (Multiple Evanescent White Dot Syndrome) where the involvement is usually unilateral. Bilateral involvement in PIC is a characteristic feature of the condition.

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97. Patients with acute posterior multifocal placoid pigment epitheliopathy (APMPPE) may have all of the following clinical features except:

Explanation

Patients with acute posterior multifocal placoid pigment epitheliopathy (APMPPE) typically present with unilateral or asymmetric fundus involvement, recurrent or relentless progression of fundus lesions leading to permanent loss of central vision, and associated cerebral vasculitis. However, they do not show a prompt response to oral steroids. This means that while oral steroids may be used as a treatment option, they do not result in an immediate improvement in symptoms or resolution of the condition.

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98. Which of the following statements about stabismus secondary to thyroid ophthalmopathy is false

Explanation

The statement "it usually is surgically corrected early after onset" is false. Stabismus secondary to thyroid ophthalmopathy is not usually surgically corrected early after onset. Surgical correction is typically considered after the active phase of the disease has resolved and stabilization of the condition has occurred. The timing of surgery depends on various factors such as the severity of the stabismus, the patient's overall health, and the presence of any other ocular complications.

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99. The electroretinogram (ERG) usually appears normal in the following conditions except

Explanation

The electroretinogram (ERG) is a test that measures the electrical activity of the retina in response to light stimulation. It is used to evaluate the function of the retina and can help diagnose various eye conditions. Optic nerve hypoplasia, cortical visual impairment, and delayed visual maturation can all affect the function of the retina and therefore may result in abnormal ERG findings. However, achromatopsia is a condition characterized by a lack of color vision and does not directly affect the function of the retina. Therefore, the ERG is expected to appear normal in individuals with achromatopsia.

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100. Features that may help distinguish CRVO from carotid artery occlusive disease include all of the following except:

Explanation

The features listed in the question are all potential distinguishing factors between central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and carotid artery occlusive disease, except for dilated retinal veins. CRVO is characterized by dilated retinal veins, tortuosity of retinal veins, and increased retinal artery pressure. Ophthalmodynamometry is a diagnostic test that measures the pressure in the central retinal artery, which can help differentiate between the two conditions. Therefore, the absence of dilated retinal veins is the exception among the listed features.

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101. Congenital anterior chamber anomalies include all of the follow except:

Explanation

The given answer, iris colomboas, is not a congenital anterior chamber anomaly. Congenital anterior chamber anomalies are structural abnormalities that affect the front part of the eye, including the iris, cornea, and anterior chamber. Posterior embryotoxon is a condition where the Schwalbe's line (the border between the cornea and the iris) is displaced. Peters anomaly is characterized by central corneal opacity and defects in the posterior cornea. Axenfeld-Rieger syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the development of the anterior chamber structures. Posterior keratoconus is a rare condition where the back surface of the cornea bulges outward. However, iris colomboas is not a recognized congenital anterior chamber anomaly.

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102. Multiple evanescent white dot syndrome (MEWDS) is characterized by each of the following clinical features except:

Explanation

MEWDS is primarily a retinal condition, but it can be associated with mild anterior chamber inflammation and cells. While the inflammation is usually not severe, it's not entirely absent. The other options are characteristic features of MEWDS:

Enlargement of the physiologic blind spot: This is a common finding in MEWDS due to the involvement of the peripapillary retina.

Hyperfluorescent spots on fluorescein angiography: These spots are typically arranged in a wreath-like pattern around the fovea and are a hallmark of the condition.

Unilateral photopsias and vision loss in young females with myopia: This accurately describes the typical patient demographic and presentation of MEWDS.

Granular appearance of the fovea: This can be observed during the acute phase of the disease.

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103. The far point of the nonaccommodated myopic eye

Explanation

The statement "The far point of the nonaccommodated myopic eye and the fovea are corresponding points" means that the farthest point at which a nonaccommodated myopic eye can focus and the fovea, which is the central part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, align with each other. This suggests that when the myopic eye is not able to focus properly, the fovea is also affected, resulting in blurred vision at far distances.

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104. If a cornea has an anterior radius of curvature of 7.7 mm, a posterior radius of curvature of 6.8 mm and a center thickness of 0.5mm, what will its diptric power be if it is submerged in water?

Explanation

The diptric power of a lens is determined by the difference in curvature between its anterior and posterior surfaces. In this case, the anterior radius of curvature is larger (7.7 mm) than the posterior radius of curvature (6.8 mm), indicating that the lens is thicker in the center and thinner at the edges. This configuration results in a negative diptric power, which means that the lens diverges light. The specific value of -0.29D indicates the strength of the divergence, with a higher negative value indicating a stronger divergence.

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105. The following statement is correct about pneumatic retinopexy:

Explanation

The statement "chronic detaments are a relative contraindication for Pneumatic retinopexy" is correct because while pneumatic retinopexy can be used to treat retinal detachments, it may not be as effective in cases of chronic detachments where the retina has been detached for a longer period of time. In these cases, other surgical interventions such as scleral buckles or vitrectomy may be more appropriate.

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106. The percentage of primary congenital glaucoma that is now known to have a definite genetic component is

Explanation

75% of primary congenital glaucoma cases are now known to have a definite genetic component. This means that the condition is largely caused by genetic factors. The high percentage suggests that there is a strong hereditary component to primary congenital glaucoma, with a significant number of cases being directly influenced by genetic factors.

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107. Timolol 0.5% has how many milligrams per large drop?

Explanation

Timolol 0.5% is a medication that is available in the form of eye drops. The concentration of timolol in these eye drops is 0.5%. This means that for every 100 mL of the eye drop solution, there is 0.5 mg of timolol. Since the question asks for the amount of timolol in a "large drop," we can assume that a large drop is equivalent to 0.1 mL. Therefore, the amount of timolol in a large drop would be 0.5 mg * 0.1 mL = 0.05 mg. However, none of the given options match this value. Therefore, the correct answer is not available.

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Which of the following is most likely to be positive in an American...
The preferred therapy for infantile glaucoma is
The Joint Statement of the American Academy of Pediatrics, Section on...
All of these diagnostic tests are useful in evaluating a patient with...
Which of the following is commonly associated with host defenses...
Goldmann tonometry
Which of the following laser properties is not clinically important in...
Compared to CT scanning, MRI scanning provides better
Which of the rectus muscles inserts the closes to the limbus?
Patients with which of the follwoing are most likely to present with...
A 1 year old child presents with monocular vertical nystagmus. ...
The aqueous layer of the tear film is produced by which of the...
All of the following conditions have a characteristic anterior-segment...
Which of the following infectious agents can be linked to interstital...
The most common cause of binocular transient visual loss lasting 30...
Reiter syndrome is associated with all except which of the following?
The gene known to be associated with aniridia is
Current smokers should avoid which one of the following?
Parasympathetic fibers destined for the pupil reside in the
Which antibody is produced in the effector phase of the primary immune...
Which of the following is a true basement membrane?
A one year old presents with a round, well-demarcated mass at the...
Risk factor(s) for nuclear o pacification identified by...
All of the following are risk factors for cystoid macular edema after...
The five major branches of the facial nerve include the temporal,...
Hypopyon is most likely to be seen in which of the following uveitic...
Periocular depot cortiscosteroid injections should not be used in...
In normals, the average normal corneal thickness is
A 65 year old woman presents with a progressively enlarging mass in...
An underlying condition is most likely to be determined in a patient...
Which of the following local/regional anesthetic agents has the...
Which of the following statements about pleomorphic adenoma of the...
Which of the following nerves does not enter the orbit through the...
The modified Callender classification of ocular melanoma applies to...
In the CNTG, Collaborative Normal-Tension glaucoma treatment study,...
Which of the follow is most useful in distinguishing the cause of...
Optic disc drusen typically demonstrate all of the following features...
HLA-B27-associated acute anterior uveitis is associated with all...
The superior transverse ligament is also referred to as
In the US all of the following conditions could cause xerophthalmia...
Which of the following statements about cataract surgery in patients...
Which of the following uveitic syndromes is least likely to require...
Which of the following signs is most likely to be prsent in a patient...
Which of the following viruses is transmissible even after medical...
Multifocal IOLs
Behcet syndrome is associated with all except which of the following?
Which of the following systemic diseases is not associated with...
Which of the following is most likely to prompt additional evaluation...
Which eye movement disorder is most commonly seen in patients with...
You are about to write the postoperative spectacle prescription for a...
A lens coloboma
All of the following can be seen with ocular adenoviral infection...
A healthy 60 year old man presents with a 2 day history of a painful...
Clear corneal incisions are associated with all of the following...
The goal of anterior vitrectomy is
Which feature below are not typicall found in brown syndrome
In patients with a facial nerve paralysis, all of the following...
A 9 year old boy with a history of atopy presents with a seasonally...
Which of the following is not a point of firm attachment between the...
The power of an intraocular lens should be increased
Sturge-Weber Syndrome
The parents of a 7 month old child complain of intermittent tearing OD...
Which of the following statements regarding graft-versus-host disease...
A feature not associated with exfoliation syndrome is
A single  intraoperative application of mitomycin C has been...
Which of the following statements regarding Acanthamoeba is false?
A family history of retinoblastoma is present in what percent of newly...
The epidemiology of cataracts suggests that
Congenital dacryocystocele
Tucking the superior oblique tendon
In adults, the most common intraocular malignant tumor and most common...
Which of the follwoing choroidal lesions may be assoicated witha...
All of the following are common causes of transient visual loss except
Which of the following statements is false
This nerve to an extraocular muscle does not pass through the muscle...
Which of the following ocular histologic changes is not considered to...
The ability of a light wave from a laser to form interference fringes...
Proper distance visual acuity testing for a low vision patient...
A retrobulbar anesthetic is least likely to produce anesthesia of...
Which is true regarding orbital anatomy?
In a randomized, controlled clinical trial, pneumatic retinopexy
Fetal alcohol syndrome includes all of the following except:
Two tumors commonly associated with so-called masquerade syndrome are
The most common secondary tumors in retinoblastoma patients within and...
What structure is deep to the plane of the facial nerve branches in...
Vision loss in Riley-Day syndrome is most often due to
The following statement about diffuse unilateral subacute...
Histologic differentiation between primary and recurrent pterygia can...
Which of the following extraocular muscles inserts farthest from the...
What is the retinal magnification of an eye with a refractive error of...
The risk of cataract development may be decreased by foods rich in
The inheritance pattern of the 5 primary loci for adult-onset glaucoma...
Which of the following statements regarding  Herpetic Eye Disease...
Which of the following is not considered to be an illusion?
The near point of the fully accomated hyperopic eye
Which of the following statements about punctate inner choroidopathy...
Patients with acute posterior multifocal placoid pigment...
Which of the following statements about stabismus secondary to thyroid...
The electroretinogram (ERG) usually appears normal in the following...
Features that may help distinguish CRVO from carotid artery occlusive...
Congenital anterior chamber anomalies include all of the follow...
Multiple evanescent white dot syndrome (MEWDS) is characterized by...
The far point of the nonaccommodated myopic eye
If a cornea has an anterior radius of curvature of 7.7 mm, a posterior...
The following statement is correct about pneumatic retinopexy:
The percentage of primary congenital glaucoma that is now known to...
Timolol 0.5% has how many milligrams per large drop?
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