Gastrointestinal Diseases 1st Half

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  • 1/36 Questions

    The term "leukoplaqia" refers to: 

    • An asymptomatic white patch on the surface of a mucous membrane.
    • Greek for "white cancer". A white patch on the surface of a mucous membrane.
    • Malignant cancer that only affects white people.
    • A malignant white lesion that occurs on the tip of the tongue.
    • What occurs when you don't brush your teeth.
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Gastrointestinal Disease Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The 'Gastrointestinal Diseases 1st half' quiz focuses on oral health, specifically conditions like leukoplakia and oral squamous cell carcinoma. It assesses knowledge on causes, locations, and metastasis of these conditions, enhancing understanding critical for medical and dental professionals.

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  • 2. 

    Causes of Leukoplakia include.....

    • Premarital sex, drugs and loud music

    • Candidiasis, Lichen Planus and Psoriasis

    • Tobacco products, alcohol and HPV infection

    • Cigarette smoking, thrush and psoriasis

    • Monkey bites

    Correct Answer
    A. Tobacco products, alcohol and HPV infection
    Explanation
    Leukoplakia is a condition characterized by thick, white patches on the mucous membranes of the mouth and tongue. The causes of leukoplakia are known to include certain risk factors. Tobacco products, such as cigarettes and chewing tobacco, are a major cause of leukoplakia as they irritate the oral tissues. Alcohol consumption is also a known risk factor, as it weakens the immune system and increases the risk of developing leukoplakia. Additionally, HPV (Human Papillomavirus) infection has been linked to the development of leukoplakia. Therefore, the correct answer is tobacco products, alcohol, and HPV infection.

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  • 3. 

    What oftenly occurs on the buccal mucosa, tongue and floor of the mouth?

    • Candidasis

    • Leukoplakia

    • Carcinoma

    • Adenocarcinomas

    • CUC

    Correct Answer
    A. Leukoplakia
    Explanation
    Leukoplakia often occurs on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and floor of the mouth. Leukoplakia is a condition characterized by the formation of white or gray patches on the mucous membranes of the mouth. It is usually caused by chronic irritation or inflammation, such as from smoking, tobacco use, or poorly fitting dentures. Leukoplakia is not a specific disease, but it can sometimes be a precursor to oral cancer. Regular monitoring and appropriate treatment are necessary to prevent the development of cancerous lesions.

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  • 4. 

    What is the most common malignant tumor of the oral mucosa?

    • Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

    • Buccal Carcinoma

    • Pleomorphic Adenoma 


    • Neoplasms of the Salivary Glands

    • Sqamous Cell Carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Sqamous Cell Carcinoma
    Explanation
    Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common malignant tumor of the oral mucosa. This type of cancer arises from the squamous cells that line the oral cavity. It is often associated with risk factors such as tobacco and alcohol use, as well as human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. Squamous cell carcinoma can present as a non-healing ulcer or a red or white patch in the mouth. Early detection and treatment are important for better prognosis and outcomes.

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  • 5. 

    Oral Squamous Cell Carcinomas metastasize mainly to the .....

    • Parotid glands

    • Posterior and anterior cervical lymph nodes

    • Submandibular, superficial, and deep cervical lymph nodes.

    • Genitalia

    • Tonsilar lymph nodes and stensons duct

    Correct Answer
    A. Submandibular, superficial, and deep cervical lymph nodes.
    Explanation
    Oral Squamous Cell Carcinomas are a type of cancer that originates in the cells of the oral cavity. When these carcinomas metastasize, they tend to spread to nearby lymph nodes. The submandibular, superficial, and deep cervical lymph nodes are all located in close proximity to the oral cavity and are commonly affected by the spread of oral squamous cell carcinomas. Therefore, these lymph nodes are the most likely sites of metastasis for this type of cancer.

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  • 6. 

    Neoplasms of the salivary glands usually arise from which gland?

    • Parotid

    • Submandibular

    • Saliva

    • Adrenal

    • Thyroid

    Correct Answer
    A. Parotid
    Explanation
    Neoplasms of the salivary glands typically originate from the parotid gland. The parotid gland is the largest of the salivary glands and is located in front of the ear. It produces saliva, which is then transported through ducts to the mouth. Neoplasms, or tumors, can develop in the cells of the parotid gland, leading to the formation of salivary gland neoplasms.

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  • 7. 

    What is the most common tumor of the salivary gland? 

    • Krukenberg

    • Pleomorphic Adenoma

    • Adenocarcinomas

    • Parotid Carcinoma

    • Neoplasm

    Correct Answer
    A. Pleomorphic Adenoma
    Explanation
    Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumor of the salivary gland. It is a benign mixed tumor that typically arises from the parotid gland. It is characterized by a combination of epithelial and mesenchymal components, resulting in a diverse histological appearance. Pleomorphic adenoma usually presents as a painless, slow-growing mass that can be mobile and well-defined. Although it is a benign tumor, there is a small risk of recurrence and rarely, malignant transformation. Other tumors listed in the options, such as Krukenberg tumor, adenocarcinomas, and parotid carcinoma, are less common in the salivary gland.

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  • 8. 

    What growth is usually seen at the angle of the mandible and is a slow-growing, painless, moveable encapsulated mass with a smooth surface?

    • Squamous Carcinoma of Tongue

    • Carotid Artery

    • Neoplasms of the Salivary Glands

    • Styloid Process

    • Pleomorphic Adenoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Pleomorphic Adenoma
    Explanation
    Pleomorphic adenoma is a benign tumor that commonly occurs in the salivary glands, including the parotid gland located near the angle of the mandible. It is characterized by slow growth, painlessness, and a smooth surface. The tumor is encapsulated and can be easily moved. Squamous carcinoma of the tongue, carotid artery, and styloid process are not typically associated with the described characteristics. Neoplasms of the salivary glands could potentially be a correct answer, but pleomorphic adenoma is a more specific and common type of tumor in this location.

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  • 9. 

    What growth, when removed may affect the facial nerve due to the difficulty in dissecting off branches of the nerve embedded in the dense scar tissue?  

    • Mucoepidermoid Carcinomas

    • Pleomorphic Adenoma

    • Neoplasms of the Salivary Glands

    • Trigeminal Ganglionic Carcinoma

    • Tetrus-tumor

    Correct Answer
    A. Pleomorphic Adenoma
    Explanation
    Pleomorphic Adenoma is the correct answer because it is a type of tumor that commonly occurs in the salivary glands, including the parotid gland where the facial nerve passes through. The tumor can grow and become embedded in dense scar tissue, making it difficult to dissect off branches of the facial nerve. This can lead to damage or injury to the nerve, affecting facial movement and sensation.

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  • 10. 

    Name the growth that is characterized by the following: malignant salivary gland tumor composed of a mixture of neoplastic squamous cells, mucous secreting cells, and intermediate hybrid cells. It is also  the most common malignancy of the salivary glands, and is the most common radiation-induced neoplasm of the glands.

    • Pleomorphic Adenoma

    • Malignant radiographical neoplasm

    • Mucoepidermoid Carcinomas

    • Neoplasms of the Salivary Glands

    • Prius Carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Mucoepidermoid Carcinomas
    Explanation
    Mucoepidermoid Carcinomas are characterized by a mixture of neoplastic squamous cells, mucous secreting cells, and intermediate hybrid cells. They are the most common malignancy of the salivary glands and the most common radiation-induced neoplasm of the glands. This explanation provides a clear description of the characteristics and prevalence of Mucoepidermoid Carcinomas in relation to the given information.

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  • 11. 

    What disease process occurs when metaplastic epithelium extends up the distal esophagus with thickened red-brown circumferential tissue? It also carries a serious risk of malignant transformation to an adenocarcinoma. 

    • Esophageal Carcinoma

    • Barrett esophagus

    • Leiomyoma

    • Luekoplaqia

    • GERD

    Correct Answer
    A. Barrett esophagus
    Explanation
    Barrett's esophagus is the correct answer. Barrett's esophagus is a disease process in which metaplastic epithelium extends up the distal esophagus, resulting in thickened red-brown circumferential tissue. This condition is associated with a serious risk of malignant transformation to adenocarcinoma, a type of esophageal carcinoma.

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  • 12. 

    What are some characteristics of Carcinoma of the Esophagus?

    • More common in Females

    • Caused by excessive alcohol use, nitroglycerine and HPV infection

    • Caused by excessively high protein diets

    • Caused by excessive consumption of alcohol, cigarette smoking nitrosamines and diets lacking in fresh fruits, vegetables

    • Weight loss, bright shiny white teeth and fresh smelling breath

    Correct Answer
    A. Caused by excessive consumption of alcohol, cigarette smoking nitrosamines and diets lacking in fresh fruits, vegetables
    Explanation
    Carcinoma of the Esophagus is caused by excessive consumption of alcohol, cigarette smoking, nitrosamines, and diets lacking in fresh fruits and vegetables. These factors have been identified as risk factors for developing this type of cancer. Excessive alcohol consumption and cigarette smoking are known to increase the risk of various types of cancer, including esophageal cancer. Nitrosamines, which are found in certain processed foods, have also been linked to the development of esophageal cancer. Additionally, diets lacking in fresh fruits and vegetables, which are rich in antioxidants and other beneficial compounds, may contribute to the development of this type of cancer.

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  • 13. 

    A polypoid tumor is known to: 

    • Grow exponantialy in the large intestine

    • Invade the nostrils of humans

    • Mate for life much like the penguin

    • Create a crater like lesion that bleeds

    • Project into the lumen

    Correct Answer
    A. Project into the lumen
    Explanation
    A polypoid tumor is known to project into the lumen. The term "lumen" refers to the cavity or channel within a tubular structure, such as the intestine. Therefore, the correct answer indicates that a polypoid tumor grows in such a way that it protrudes into the cavity or channel of the large intestine. This projection into the lumen distinguishes it from other options, such as invading the nostrils or creating a crater-like lesion.

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  • 14. 

    The most common presenting symptom in Cancer of the Esophagus is: 

    • Menstruation

    • Dysphagia

    • Dyspepsia

    • Regurgitation

    • Constipation

    Correct Answer
    A. Dysphagia
  • 15. 

    Virtually all adenocarcinomas (of the esophagus)  arise in 

    • The soft palate

    • Barrett Epithelium

    • Small intestine

    • Ileum

    • Chapped lips

    Correct Answer
    A. Barrett Epithelium
    Explanation
    Adenocarcinomas of the esophagus typically arise in Barrett Epithelium. Barrett Esophagus is a condition in which the normal squamous lining of the lower esophagus is replaced by columnar epithelium, usually as a result of chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). This columnar epithelium has a higher risk of developing into adenocarcinoma compared to the normal squamous epithelium of the esophagus. Therefore, the correct answer is Barrett Epithelium.

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  • 16. 

    PUD is best described as: 

    • Gastric and Peptic Ulcers

    • Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

    • Breaks in the mucosa of the stomach and proximal duodenum that are produced by the action of gastric secretions.

    • A condition that only affects Jewish people

    • Caused by excessive consumption of alcohol, cigarette smoking nitrosamines and diets lacking in fresh fruits, vegetables

    Correct Answer
    A. Breaks in the mucosa of the stomach and proximal duodenum that are produced by the action of gastric secretions.
    Explanation
    PUD, or Peptic Ulcer Disease, is best described as breaks in the mucosa of the stomach and proximal duodenum that are produced by the action of gastric secretions. This condition is not specific to any particular ethnic group and can affect anyone. PUD can be caused by factors such as excessive consumption of alcohol, cigarette smoking, nitrosamines, and diets lacking in fresh fruits and vegetables.

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  • 17. 

    The most common stereotype of a patient with a peptic ulcer: 

    • highly motivated executive operating in a stressful environment

    • A very attractive young man (over 18 years of age) with a fine looking rectus abdominis.

    • An olympic ice-skater right before a competition

    • A nurse working in Chicago

    • A snowboard instructor working in the Alps

    Correct Answer
    A. highly motivated executive operating in a stressful environment
    Explanation
    The stereotype of a patient with a peptic ulcer being a highly motivated executive operating in a stressful environment can be explained by the fact that stress is known to be a contributing factor to the development of peptic ulcers. Executives often have demanding jobs that involve high levels of stress, which can increase the risk of developing ulcers. Additionally, the stereotype may arise from the perception that individuals in high-pressure positions are more likely to neglect their health and engage in behaviors that can worsen ulcer symptoms, such as excessive alcohol consumption or poor dietary choices.

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  • 18. 

    What medication is associated with the pathogenesis of  PUD?

    • Asprin

    • Lidocaine

    • Atropine

    • Nyquil

    • Viagra

    Correct Answer
    A. Asprin
    Explanation
    Aspirin is associated with the pathogenesis of PUD. It is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause irritation and damage to the lining of the stomach, leading to the development of peptic ulcers. Aspirin inhibits the production of prostaglandins, which are protective substances that help maintain the integrity of the stomach lining. Without sufficient prostaglandins, the stomach lining becomes more susceptible to damage from stomach acid. Therefore, aspirin is known to contribute to the development of peptic ulcers.

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  • 19. 

    Hypersecretion of HCl can lead to 

    • Pyrosis

    • Choleolithasis

    • Mallory-Weiss Tears

    • Duodenal ulcers

    • Fatty liver disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Duodenal ulcers
    Explanation
    Hypersecretion of HCl refers to the excessive production of hydrochloric acid in the stomach. This can lead to the development of duodenal ulcers. Duodenal ulcers are open sores that form in the lining of the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine. The excess acid can erode the protective lining of the duodenum, leading to the formation of ulcers. Symptoms of duodenal ulcers may include abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, and vomiting. Treatment typically involves medications to reduce stomach acid production and promote healing of the ulcers.

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  • 20. 

    Which organism is associated with both gastric and duodenal ulcers? 

    • MRSA

    • Helicobacter pylori

    • Pseudomonas

    • E. Coli

    • Tapeworm

    Correct Answer
    A. Helicobacter pylori
    Explanation
    Helicobacter pylori is the correct answer because it is the only organism listed that is associated with both gastric and duodenal ulcers. Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium that infects the lining of the stomach and small intestine, causing inflammation and ulcers in these areas. MRSA, Pseudomonas, E. Coli, and tapeworms are not typically associated with causing ulcers in the gastrointestinal tract.

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  • 21. 

    Gastric Ulcers can be described as

    • A large growth that has sharply demarcated edges

    • An ulcer that is located on the anterior or posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum

    • Kissing ulcers

    • A single 2-10 cm ulcer that has edges that tend to be sharply punched out, with overhanging margins

    • Ulcers that give you flatulence

    Correct Answer
    A. A single 2-10 cm ulcer that has edges that tend to be sharply punched out, with overhanging margins
  • 22. 

    A lesion located in the anterior or posterior wall of the duodenum near the pylorus is known as: 

    • Gastric Ulcer

    • Duodenal Ulcer

    • Peptic Ulcer

    • Peptic ulcer disease

    • IBS

    Correct Answer
    A. Duodenal Ulcer
    Explanation
    A lesion located in the anterior or posterior wall of the duodenum near the pylorus is known as a duodenal ulcer. This type of ulcer occurs in the first part of the small intestine, specifically in the duodenum, which is located just after the stomach. It is different from a gastric ulcer, which occurs in the stomach itself. Peptic ulcer disease is a broader term that encompasses both gastric and duodenal ulcers. IBS, or irritable bowel syndrome, is a separate condition that involves chronic abdominal pain and changes in bowel habits.

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  • 23. 

    What will be seen on the microscopic examination of PUD?

    • The edges tend to be sharply punched out, with overhanging margins. The flat base is gray and indurated.

    • Fibrotic tissue covered by Necrotic tissue

    • From the lumen outward: 1. Granulation tissue 2. Necrotic tissue 3. Fibrotic tissue

    • Whiskey for my men and beer for my horses

    • From the lumen outward: 1. A superficial zone of fibrinopurulent exudate; 2. Necrotic tissue; 3. Granulation tissue; 4. Fibrotic tissue at the base of the ulcer

    Correct Answer
    A. From the lumen outward: 1. A superficial zone of fibrinopurulent exudate; 2. Necrotic tissue; 3. Granulation tissue; 4. Fibrotic tissue at the base of the ulcer
    Explanation
    On microscopic examination of PUD, the correct answer suggests that the following layers will be seen from the lumen outward: 1. A superficial zone of fibrinopurulent exudate, 2. Necrotic tissue, 3. Granulation tissue, and 4. Fibrotic tissue at the base of the ulcer. This indicates that there is an initial layer of fibrinopurulent exudate, followed by necrotic tissue, then granulation tissue, and finally fibrotic tissue at the base of the ulcer.

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  • 24. 

    What best describes a duodenal ulcer?

    • Burning epigastric pain that is relieved with milk and cookies.

    • Burning epigastric pain that is experienced 1-3 hours after a meal or that awakens the patient at night.

    • RUQ pain that yields a + psoas sign

    • Pain that subsides when fasting, patients appear to be cachectic

    • Frank blood in the stool

    Correct Answer
    A. Burning epigastric pain that is experienced 1-3 hours after a meal or that awakens the patient at night.
    Explanation
    A duodenal ulcer is characterized by burning epigastric pain that occurs 1-3 hours after a meal or wakes the patient up at night. This type of pain is typically relieved by eating or taking antacids. The other options do not accurately describe the presentation of a duodenal ulcer.

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  • 25. 

    What is the  most common complication of PUD?

    • Hemorrhage

    • Perforations

    • Malignant transformation

    • Pyloric Obstruction

    • SBO

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemorrhage
    Explanation
    Hemorrhage is the most common complication of PUD (Peptic Ulcer Disease). PUD is characterized by the formation of ulcers in the lining of the stomach or the upper part of the small intestine. These ulcers can cause bleeding, leading to hemorrhage. Hemorrhage occurs when the ulcers erode blood vessels, resulting in blood loss. It is the most frequent complication of PUD and can manifest as blood in vomit or stools. Prompt medical intervention is crucial to manage and treat PUD-related hemorrhage.

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  • 26. 

    Dietary factors that contribute to stomach cancer pathogenesis include which of the following? 

    • A diet that consists of mostly rice and beans

    • Depletion of fruits and vegetables

    • Canned sardines and pickled pigs feet

    • large amounts of starch, smoked fish and meats and pickled vegetables

    • A diet high in red meat and smoked fish

    Correct Answer
    A. large amounts of starch, smoked fish and meats and pickled vegetables
    Explanation
    Large amounts of starch, smoked fish and meats, and pickled vegetables can contribute to stomach cancer pathogenesis. Starch is converted to sugar in the body, and high intake of sugar has been linked to an increased risk of cancer. Smoked fish and meats contain harmful compounds such as nitrosamines, polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, and heterocyclic amines, which can damage the stomach lining and increase the risk of cancer. Pickled vegetables are high in salt and nitrates, which can also be harmful to the stomach lining. Therefore, consuming large amounts of these foods can contribute to the development of stomach cancer.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is most likely to contribute to the pathogenesis of stomach cancer?

    • Extremely acidic foods

    • Absence of fruits and vegetables

    • A diet high in fatty foods

    • Amino acids

    • Nitrosamines

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitrosamines
    Explanation
    Nitrosamines are most likely to contribute to the pathogenesis of stomach cancer. Nitrosamines are a group of chemical compounds that are known to be carcinogenic, meaning they have the potential to cause cancer. They are commonly found in processed meats, tobacco smoke, and certain industrial processes. When ingested, nitrosamines can react with stomach acid to form compounds that damage the DNA in the cells lining the stomach, leading to the development of cancer. Thus, the presence of nitrosamines in the diet is a significant risk factor for stomach cancer.

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  • 28. 

    Adenocarcinoma of the stomach will most likely occur .....

    • On the anterior wall of the pyloric sphincter

    • In the duodenum

    • In the distal stomach, on the lesser curvature of the antrum,

    • In the GE junction

    • In the fundus of the stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. In the distal stomach, on the lesser curvature of the antrum,
    Explanation
    Adenocarcinoma of the stomach is a type of cancer that commonly occurs in the distal stomach, specifically on the lesser curvature of the antrum. This location is more susceptible to the development of adenocarcinoma due to factors such as chronic inflammation, Helicobacter pylori infection, and exposure to certain carcinogens. The distal stomach is the portion closer to the pyloric sphincter, which makes it more prone to the development of this type of cancer compared to other areas of the stomach.

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  • 29. 

    A polypoid adenocarcinoma is a solid tumor that projects into the lumen.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A polypoid adenocarcinoma is a type of cancerous tumor that grows in a protruding manner into the lumen or cavity of an organ. This means that the tumor forms a solid mass that extends into the open space or passageway of the affected organ. Therefore, the statement "A polypoid adenocarcinoma is a solid tumor that projects into the lumen" is true.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following best describes an ulcerating adenocarcinoma?

    • No true tumor mass is seen macroscopically, instead, the wall of the stomach is thickened and firm, and when the entire stomach is involved.

    • Visualized as a shallow ulcer of variable size with surrounding tissue that is firm, raised and nodular.

    • It is a solid tumor that projects into the lumen. The surface may be partially ulcerated, and the deeper tissue may or may not be infiltrated.

    • “Linitis Plastica”

    Correct Answer
    A. Visualized as a shallow ulcer of variable size with surrounding tissue that is firm, raised and nodular.
    Explanation
    An ulcerating adenocarcinoma is best described as a shallow ulcer of variable size with surrounding tissue that is firm, raised, and nodular. This means that there is no true tumor mass visible, but instead, the wall of the stomach is thickened and firm. The presence of a shallow ulcer with surrounding firm, raised, and nodular tissue suggests the presence of adenocarcinoma. The other options do not accurately describe the characteristics of an ulcerating adenocarcinoma.

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  • 31. 

    "Linitis Plastica" refers to a polypoid adenocarcinoma. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    "Linitis Plastica" refers to a condition characterized by thickening and hardening of the stomach wall, causing it to become stiff and rigid. It is not specifically related to polypoid adenocarcinoma, which is a type of cancer that forms as a polyp in the lining of the organs. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 32. 

    The polypoid type of stomach carcinoma typically is well-differentiated whereas linitis plastica is poorly differentiated.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the polypoid type of stomach carcinoma is generally well-differentiated, meaning that the cancer cells closely resemble normal stomach cells and retain some of their specialized features. On the other hand, linitis plastica, which is a subtype of stomach carcinoma, is poorly differentiated. This means that the cancer cells in linitis plastica do not resemble normal stomach cells and have lost their specialized features, making it more aggressive and difficult to treat.

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  • 33. 

    Regarding Stomach Carcinoma: Tumor cells may contain __________ that displaces the nucleus to the periphery of the cell resulting in "signet ring cells."

    • Signet

    • Mucin

    • Nitrosamines

    • Fibrinogen

    • Fibrin

    Correct Answer
    A. Mucin
    Explanation
    Tumor cells in stomach carcinoma may contain mucin, a gelatinous substance, that displaces the nucleus to the periphery of the cell. This displacement results in the characteristic appearance of "signet ring cells." These cells have a large vacuole filled with mucin, giving them a ring-like appearance when viewed under a microscope. The presence of mucin in the tumor cells is a key feature in the diagnosis of stomach carcinoma.

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  • 34. 

    What are the most frequent initial symptoms of stomach carcinoma?

    • Weight gain with jaundice and elevated liver enzymes

    • Nausea and ascites

    • Occult blood in the stools

    • Weight loss with anorexia and nausea

    • Anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Weight loss with anorexia and nausea
    Explanation
    Weight loss with anorexia and nausea are the most frequent initial symptoms of stomach carcinoma. This is because the tumor in the stomach can cause a decrease in appetite and a feeling of fullness, leading to weight loss and loss of interest in food. Nausea is also commonly experienced due to the obstruction or irritation caused by the tumor. These symptoms are often early signs of stomach carcinoma and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional.

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  • 35. 

    What enzyme will be increased in the blood of 1/4 of the patients with advanced gastric cancer and provides little value in diagnosis? 

    • ALT

    • AED

    • DEA

    • CAE

    • CEA

    Correct Answer
    A. CEA
    Explanation
    CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen) is a tumor marker that is often increased in the blood of patients with advanced gastric cancer. However, it provides little value in diagnosis because it can also be elevated in other conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease, liver disease, and smoking. Therefore, while an increase in CEA levels may suggest the presence of gastric cancer, it is not specific enough to be used as a definitive diagnostic tool.

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  • 36. 

    What occurs when the stomach carcinoma spreads to an ovary where it elicits a desmoplastic reaction?

    • Wilson's Disease

    • Krukenberg Tumor

    • Teratocarcinoma

    • Kaposi's Sarcoma

    • Crohn's Disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Krukenberg Tumor
    Explanation
    When stomach carcinoma spreads to an ovary and elicits a desmoplastic reaction, it is known as Krukenberg Tumor. This type of tumor is characterized by the presence of signet ring cells, which are large cells with a displaced nucleus. The desmoplastic reaction refers to the formation of fibrous tissue in response to the tumor. Krukenberg Tumor most commonly arises from gastrointestinal malignancies, particularly gastric adenocarcinoma, and it is characterized by bilateral involvement of the ovaries.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 16, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Kahmie11

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