Gastrointestinal Diseases 1st Half

36 Questions | By Kahmie11 | Last updated: Mar 20, 2022 | Total Attempts: 117

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Gastrointestinal Disease Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers

1.

The term "leukoplaqia" refers to:
- A.
  
  An asymptomatic white patch on the surface of a mucous membrane.
- B.
  
  Greek for "white cancer". A white patch on the surface of a mucous membrane.
- C.
  
  Malignant cancer that only affects white people.
- D.
  
  A malignant white lesion that occurs on the tip of the tongue.
- E.
  
  What occurs when you don't brush your teeth.
2.

Causes of Leukoplakia include.....
- A.
  
  Premarital sex, drugs and loud music
- B.
  
  Candidiasis, Lichen Planus and Psoriasis
- C.
  
  Tobacco products, alcohol and HPV infection
- D.
  
  Cigarette smoking, thrush and psoriasis
- E.
  
  Monkey bites
3.

What oftenly occurs on the buccal mucosa, tongue and floor of the mouth?
- A.
  
  Candidasis
- B.
  
  Leukoplakia
- C.
  
  Carcinoma
- D.
  
  Adenocarcinomas
- E.
  
  CUC
4.

What is the most common malignant tumor of the oral mucosa?
- A.
  
  Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma
- B.
  
  Buccal Carcinoma
- C.
  
  Pleomorphic Adenoma  
- D.
  
  Neoplasms of the Salivary Glands
- E.
  
  Sqamous Cell Carcinoma
5.

Oral Squamous Cell Carcinomas metastasize mainly to the .....
- A.
  
  Parotid glands
- B.
  
  Posterior and anterior cervical lymph nodes
- C.
  
  Submandibular, superficial, and deep cervical lymph nodes.
- D.
  
  Genitalia
- E.
  
  Tonsilar lymph nodes and stensons duct
6.

Neoplasms of the salivary glands usually arise from which gland?
- A.
  
  Parotid
- B.
  
  Submandibular
- C.
  
  Saliva
- D.
  
  Adrenal
- E.
  
  Thyroid
7.

What is the most common tumor of the salivary gland?
- A.
  
  Krukenberg
- B.
  
  Pleomorphic Adenoma
- C.
  
  Adenocarcinomas
- D.
  
  Parotid Carcinoma
- E.
  
  Neoplasm
8.

What growth is usually seen at the angle of the mandible and is a slow-growing, painless, moveable encapsulated mass with a smooth surface?
- A.
  
  Squamous Carcinoma of Tongue
- B.
  
  Carotid Artery
- C.
  
  Neoplasms of the Salivary Glands
- D.
  
  Styloid Process
- E.
  
  Pleomorphic Adenoma
9.

What growth, when removed may affect the facial nerve due to the difficulty in dissecting off branches of the nerve embedded in the dense scar tissue?
- A.
  
  Mucoepidermoid Carcinomas
- B.
  
  Pleomorphic Adenoma
- C.
  
  Neoplasms of the Salivary Glands
- D.
  
  Trigeminal Ganglionic Carcinoma
- E.
  
  Tetrus-tumor
10.

Name the growth that is characterized by the following: malignant salivary gland tumor composed of a mixture of neoplastic squamous cells, mucous secreting cells, and intermediate hybrid cells. It is also the most common malignancy of the salivary glands, and is the most common radiation-induced neoplasm of the glands.
- A.
  
  Pleomorphic Adenoma
- B.
  
  Malignant radiographical neoplasm
- C.
  
  Mucoepidermoid Carcinomas
- D.
  
  Neoplasms of the Salivary Glands
- E.
  
  Prius Carcinoma
11.

What disease process occurs when metaplastic epithelium extends up the distal esophagus with thickened red-brown circumferential tissue? It also carries a serious risk of malignant transformation to an adenocarcinoma.
- A.
  
  Esophageal Carcinoma
- B.
  
  Barrett esophagus
- C.
  
  Leiomyoma
- D.
  
  Luekoplaqia
- E.
  
  GERD
12.

What are some characteristics of Carcinoma of the Esophagus?
- A.
  
  More common in Females
- B.
  
  Caused by excessive alcohol use, nitroglycerine and HPV infection
- C.
  
  Caused by excessively high protein diets
- D.
  
  Caused by excessive consumption of alcohol, cigarette smoking nitrosamines and diets lacking in fresh fruits, vegetables
- E.
  
  Weight loss, bright shiny white teeth and fresh smelling breath
13.

A polypoid tumor is known to:
- A.
  
  Grow exponantialy in the large intestine
- B.
  
  Invade the nostrils of humans
- C.
  
  Mate for life much like the penguin
- D.
  
  Create a crater like lesion that bleeds
- E.
  
  Project into the lumen
14.

The most common presenting symptom in Cancer of the Esophagus is:
- A.
  
  Menstruation
- B.
  
  Dysphagia
- C.
  
  Dyspepsia
- D.
  
  Regurgitation
- E.
  
  Constipation
15.

Virtually all adenocarcinomas (of the esophagus) arise in
- A.
  
  The soft palate
- B.
  
  Barrett Epithelium
- C.
  
  Small intestine
- D.
  
  Ileum
- E.
  
  Chapped lips
16.

PUD is best described as:
- A.
  
  Gastric and Peptic Ulcers
- B.
  
  Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
- C.
  
  Breaks in the mucosa of the stomach and proximal duodenum that are produced by the action of gastric secretions.
- D.
  
  A condition that only affects Jewish people
- E.
  
  Caused by excessive consumption of alcohol, cigarette smoking nitrosamines and diets lacking in fresh fruits, vegetables
17.

The most common stereotype of a patient with a peptic ulcer:
- A.
  
  highly motivated executive operating in a stressful environment
- B.
  
  A very attractive young man (over 18 years of age) with a fine looking rectus abdominis.
- C.
  
  An olympic ice-skater right before a competition
- D.
  
  A nurse working in Chicago
- E.
  
  A snowboard instructor working in the Alps
18.

What medication is associated with the pathogenesis of PUD?
- A.
  
  Asprin
- B.
  
  Lidocaine
- C.
  
  Atropine
- D.
  
  Nyquil
- E.
  
  Viagra
19.

Hypersecretion of HCl can lead to
- A.
  
  Pyrosis
- B.
  
  Choleolithasis
- C.
  
  Mallory-Weiss Tears
- D.
  
  Duodenal ulcers
- E.
  
  Fatty liver disease
20.

Which organism is associated with both gastric and duodenal ulcers?
- A.
  
  MRSA
- B.
  
  Helicobacter pylori
- C.
  
  Pseudomonas
- D.
  
  E. Coli
- E.
  
  Tapeworm
21.

Gastric Ulcers can be described as
- A.
  
  A large growth that has sharply demarcated edges
- B.
  
  An ulcer that is located on the anterior or posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum
- C.
  
  Kissing ulcers
- D.
  
  A single 2-10 cm ulcer that has edges that tend to be sharply punched out, with overhanging margins
- E.
  
  Ulcers that give you flatulence
22.

A lesion located in the anterior or posterior wall of the duodenum near the pylorus is known as:
- A.
  
  Gastric Ulcer
- B.
  
  Duodenal Ulcer
- C.
  
  Peptic Ulcer
- D.
  
  Peptic ulcer disease
- E.
  
  IBS
23.

What will be seen on the microscopic examination of PUD?
- A.
  
  The edges tend to be sharply punched out, with overhanging margins. The flat base is gray and indurated.
- B.
  
  Fibrotic tissue covered by Necrotic tissue
- C.
  
  From the lumen outward: 1. Granulation tissue 2. Necrotic tissue 3. Fibrotic tissue
- D.
  
  Whiskey for my men and beer for my horses
- E.
  
  From the lumen outward: 1. A superficial zone of fibrinopurulent exudate; 2. Necrotic tissue; 3. Granulation tissue; 4. Fibrotic tissue at the base of the ulcer
24.

What best describes a duodenal ulcer?
- A.
  
  Burning epigastric pain that is relieved with milk and cookies.
- B.
  
  Burning epigastric pain that is experienced 1-3 hours after a meal or that awakens the patient at night.
- C.
  
  RUQ pain that yields a + psoas sign
- D.
  
  Pain that subsides when fasting, patients appear to be cachectic
- E.
  
  Frank blood in the stool
25.

What is the most common complication of PUD?
- A.
  
  Hemorrhage
- B.
  
  Perforations
- C.
  
  Malignant transformation
- D.
  
  Pyloric Obstruction
- E.
  
  SBO