Gastrointestinal Diseases 1st Half

36 Questions | Total Attempts: 117

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Gastrointestinal Disease Quizzes & Trivia

First 100 slides ballas


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The term "leukoplaqia" refers to: 
    • A. 

      An asymptomatic white patch on the surface of a mucous membrane.

    • B. 

      Greek for "white cancer". A white patch on the surface of a mucous membrane.

    • C. 

      Malignant cancer that only affects white people.

    • D. 

      A malignant white lesion that occurs on the tip of the tongue.

    • E. 

      What occurs when you don't brush your teeth.

  • 2. 
    Causes of Leukoplakia include.....
    • A. 

      Premarital sex, drugs and loud music

    • B. 

      Candidiasis, Lichen Planus and Psoriasis

    • C. 

      Tobacco products, alcohol and HPV infection

    • D. 

      Cigarette smoking, thrush and psoriasis

    • E. 

      Monkey bites

  • 3. 
    What oftenly occurs on the buccal mucosa, tongue and floor of the mouth?
    • A. 

      Candidasis

    • B. 

      Leukoplakia

    • C. 

      Carcinoma

    • D. 

      Adenocarcinomas

    • E. 

      CUC

  • 4. 
    What is the most common malignant tumor of the oral mucosa?
    • A. 

      Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

    • B. 

      Buccal Carcinoma

    • C. 

      Pleomorphic Adenoma 


    • D. 

      Neoplasms of the Salivary Glands

    • E. 

      Sqamous Cell Carcinoma

  • 5. 
    Oral Squamous Cell Carcinomas metastasize mainly to the .....
    • A. 

      Parotid glands

    • B. 

      Posterior and anterior cervical lymph nodes

    • C. 

      Submandibular, superficial, and deep cervical lymph nodes.

    • D. 

      Genitalia

    • E. 

      Tonsilar lymph nodes and stensons duct

  • 6. 
    Neoplasms of the salivary glands usually arise from which gland?
    • A. 

      Parotid

    • B. 

      Submandibular

    • C. 

      Saliva

    • D. 

      Adrenal

    • E. 

      Thyroid

  • 7. 
    What is the most common tumor of the salivary gland? 
    • A. 

      Krukenberg

    • B. 

      Pleomorphic Adenoma

    • C. 

      Adenocarcinomas

    • D. 

      Parotid Carcinoma

    • E. 

      Neoplasm

  • 8. 
    What growth is usually seen at the angle of the mandible and is a slow-growing, painless, moveable encapsulated mass with a smooth surface?
    • A. 

      Squamous Carcinoma of Tongue

    • B. 

      Carotid Artery

    • C. 

      Neoplasms of the Salivary Glands

    • D. 

      Styloid Process

    • E. 

      Pleomorphic Adenoma

  • 9. 
    What growth, when removed may affect the facial nerve due to the difficulty in dissecting off branches of the nerve embedded in the dense scar tissue?  
    • A. 

      Mucoepidermoid Carcinomas

    • B. 

      Pleomorphic Adenoma

    • C. 

      Neoplasms of the Salivary Glands

    • D. 

      Trigeminal Ganglionic Carcinoma

    • E. 

      Tetrus-tumor

  • 10. 
    Name the growth that is characterized by the following: malignant salivary gland tumor composed of a mixture of neoplastic squamous cells, mucous secreting cells, and intermediate hybrid cells. It is also  the most common malignancy of the salivary glands, and is the most common radiation-induced neoplasm of the glands.
    • A. 

      Pleomorphic Adenoma

    • B. 

      Malignant radiographical neoplasm

    • C. 

      Mucoepidermoid Carcinomas

    • D. 

      Neoplasms of the Salivary Glands

    • E. 

      Prius Carcinoma

  • 11. 
    What disease process occurs when metaplastic epithelium extends up the distal esophagus with thickened red-brown circumferential tissue? It also carries a serious risk of malignant transformation to an adenocarcinoma. 
    • A. 

      Esophageal Carcinoma

    • B. 

      Barrett esophagus

    • C. 

      Leiomyoma

    • D. 

      Luekoplaqia

    • E. 

      GERD

  • 12. 
    What are some characteristics of Carcinoma of the Esophagus?
    • A. 

      More common in Females

    • B. 

      Caused by excessive alcohol use, nitroglycerine and HPV infection

    • C. 

      Caused by excessively high protein diets

    • D. 

      Caused by excessive consumption of alcohol, cigarette smoking nitrosamines and diets lacking in fresh fruits, vegetables

    • E. 

      Weight loss, bright shiny white teeth and fresh smelling breath

  • 13. 
    A polypoid tumor is known to: 
    • A. 

      Grow exponantialy in the large intestine

    • B. 

      Invade the nostrils of humans

    • C. 

      Mate for life much like the penguin

    • D. 

      Create a crater like lesion that bleeds

    • E. 

      Project into the lumen

  • 14. 
    The most common presenting symptom in Cancer of the Esophagus is: 
    • A. 

      Menstruation

    • B. 

      Dysphagia

    • C. 

      Dyspepsia

    • D. 

      Regurgitation

    • E. 

      Constipation

  • 15. 
    Virtually all adenocarcinomas (of the esophagus)  arise in 
    • A. 

      The soft palate

    • B. 

      Barrett Epithelium

    • C. 

      Small intestine

    • D. 

      Ileum

    • E. 

      Chapped lips

  • 16. 
    PUD is best described as: 
    • A. 

      Gastric and Peptic Ulcers

    • B. 

      Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

    • C. 

      Breaks in the mucosa of the stomach and proximal duodenum that are produced by the action of gastric secretions.

    • D. 

      A condition that only affects Jewish people

    • E. 

      Caused by excessive consumption of alcohol, cigarette smoking nitrosamines and diets lacking in fresh fruits, vegetables

  • 17. 
    The most common stereotype of a patient with a peptic ulcer: 
    • A. 

      highly motivated executive operating in a stressful environment

    • B. 

      A very attractive young man (over 18 years of age) with a fine looking rectus abdominis.

    • C. 

      An olympic ice-skater right before a competition

    • D. 

      A nurse working in Chicago

    • E. 

      A snowboard instructor working in the Alps

  • 18. 
    What medication is associated with the pathogenesis of  PUD?
    • A. 

      Asprin

    • B. 

      Lidocaine

    • C. 

      Atropine

    • D. 

      Nyquil

    • E. 

      Viagra

  • 19. 
    Hypersecretion of HCl can lead to 
    • A. 

      Pyrosis

    • B. 

      Choleolithasis

    • C. 

      Mallory-Weiss Tears

    • D. 

      Duodenal ulcers

    • E. 

      Fatty liver disease

  • 20. 
    Which organism is associated with both gastric and duodenal ulcers? 
    • A. 

      MRSA

    • B. 

      Helicobacter pylori

    • C. 

      Pseudomonas

    • D. 

      E. Coli

    • E. 

      Tapeworm

  • 21. 
    Gastric Ulcers can be described as
    • A. 

      A large growth that has sharply demarcated edges

    • B. 

      An ulcer that is located on the anterior or posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum

    • C. 

      Kissing ulcers

    • D. 

      A single 2-10 cm ulcer that has edges that tend to be sharply punched out, with overhanging margins

    • E. 

      Ulcers that give you flatulence

  • 22. 
    A lesion located in the anterior or posterior wall of the duodenum near the pylorus is known as: 
    • A. 

      Gastric Ulcer

    • B. 

      Duodenal Ulcer

    • C. 

      Peptic Ulcer

    • D. 

      Peptic ulcer disease

    • E. 

      IBS

  • 23. 
    What will be seen on the microscopic examination of PUD?
    • A. 

      The edges tend to be sharply punched out, with overhanging margins. The flat base is gray and indurated.

    • B. 

      Fibrotic tissue covered by Necrotic tissue

    • C. 

      From the lumen outward: 1. Granulation tissue 2. Necrotic tissue 3. Fibrotic tissue

    • D. 

      Whiskey for my men and beer for my horses

    • E. 

      From the lumen outward: 1. A superficial zone of fibrinopurulent exudate; 2. Necrotic tissue; 3. Granulation tissue; 4. Fibrotic tissue at the base of the ulcer

  • 24. 
    What best describes a duodenal ulcer?
    • A. 

      Burning epigastric pain that is relieved with milk and cookies.

    • B. 

      Burning epigastric pain that is experienced 1-3 hours after a meal or that awakens the patient at night.

    • C. 

      RUQ pain that yields a + psoas sign

    • D. 

      Pain that subsides when fasting, patients appear to be cachectic

    • E. 

      Frank blood in the stool

  • 25. 
    What is the  most common complication of PUD?
    • A. 

      Hemorrhage

    • B. 

      Perforations

    • C. 

      Malignant transformation

    • D. 

      Pyloric Obstruction

    • E. 

      SBO

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