Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Prep Test
(25).webp "Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Prep Test - Quiz")
How well do you know the foreign pharmacy? Can you take this quiz? For this quiz, you will have to understand what phenylbutazone, ketoconazole, amphotericin B, and natamycin are. You will be shown pictures of the chemical makeup of pharmaceutical drugs, and you will have to determine what the picture means. You will also need to know about margination and coagulation. Good luck to you.
- 1.
- A.
Phenylbutazone
- B.
Ketoconazol
- C.
Amphotericin B
- D.
Natamycin
Correct Answer
A. Phenylbutazone -
- 2.
- A.
Phenylbutazone
- B.
Ketoconazol
- C.
Amphotericin B
- D.
Natamycin
Correct Answer
B. Ketoconazol -
- 3.
- A.
Phenylbutazone
- B.
Ketoconazol
- C.
Amphotericin B
- D.
Natamycin
Correct Answer
C. Amphotericin B -
- 4.
- A.
Phenylbutazone
- B.
Ketoconazol
- C.
Amphotericin B
- D.
Natamycin
Correct Answer
D. Natamycin -
- 5.
- A.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
- B.
Antifungal drug used to prevent and treat fungal skin infections
- C.
Polyene antifungal drug, often used intravenously for systemic fungal infections
- D.
Naturally occurring antifungal agent produced during fermentation by the bacterium Streptomyces natalensis
Correct Answer
A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory -
- 6.
- A.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
- B.
Antifungal drug used to prevent and treat fungal skin infections
- C.
Polyene antifungal drug, often used intravenously for systemic fungal infections
- D.
Naturally occurring antifungal agent produced during fermentation by the bacterium Streptomyces natalensis
Correct Answer
B. Antifungal drug used to prevent and treat fungal skin infectionsExplanation
ketoconazolRate this question:
-
- 7.
- A.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
- B.
Antifungal drug used to prevent and treat fungal skin infections
- C.
Polyene antifungal drug, often used intravenously for systemic fungal infections
- D.
Naturally occurring antifungal agent produced during fermentation by the bacterium Streptomyces natalensis
Correct Answer
C. Polyene antifungal drug, often used intravenously for systemic fungal infectionsExplanation
amphotericin BRate this question:
-
- 8.
- A.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
- B.
Antifungal drug used to prevent and treat fungal skin infections
- C.
Polyene antifungal drug, often used intravenously for systemic fungal infections
- D.
Naturally occurring antifungal agent produced during fermentation by the bacterium Streptomyces natalensis
Correct Answer
D. Naturally occurring antifungal agent produced during fermentation by the bacterium Streptomyces natalensisExplanation
natamycinRate this question:
-
- 9.
- A.
Aminopycine
- B.
Clothrimazole
- C.
Nystatin
- D.
Nafcillin
- E.
Ceftazidime
Correct Answer
A. Aminopycine -
- 10.
- A.
Aminopycine
- B.
Clothrimazole
- C.
Nystatin
- D.
Nafcillin
- E.
Ceftazidime
Correct Answer
B. Clothrimazole -
- 11.
- A.
Aminopycine
- B.
Clothrimazole
- C.
Nystatin
- D.
Nafcillin
- E.
Ceftazidime
Correct Answer
C. Nystatin -
- 12.
- A.
Aminopycine
- B.
Clothrimazole
- C.
Nystatin
- D.
Nafcillin
- E.
Ceftazidime
Correct Answer
D. Nafcillin -
- 13.
- A.
Aminopycine
- B.
Clothrimazole
- C.
Nystatin
- D.
Nafcillin
- E.
Ceftazidime
Correct Answer
E. Ceftazidime -
- 14.
- A.
Pyrazolone with analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic properties but has risk of agranulocytosis
- B.
Antifungal medication commonly used in the treatment of fungal infections (of both humans and other animals) such as vaginal yeast infections, oral thrush, and ringworm. It is also used to treat athlete's foot and the jock itch.
- C.
Polyene antifungal medication to which many molds and yeast infections are sensitive, including Candida. Due to its toxicity profile, there are currently no injectable formulations of this drug on the US market.However, it may be safely given orally as well as applied topically due to its minimal absorption through mucocutaneous membranes such as the gut and the skin
- D.
Narrow-spectrum[1] beta-lactam antibiotic[2] of the penicillin class. As a beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin, it is used to treat infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, in particular, species of staphylococci that are resistant to other penicillins.
- E.
Third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. Like other third-generation cephalosporins, it has broad spectrum activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Unlike most third-generation agents, it is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer
A. Pyrazolone with analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic properties but has risk of agranulocytosisExplanation
aminopyrineRate this question:
-
- 15.
- A.
Pyrazolone with analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic properties but has risk of agranulocytosis
- B.
Antifungal medication commonly used in the treatment of fungal infections (of both humans and other animals) such as vaginal yeast infections, oral thrush, and ringworm. It is also used to treat athlete's foot and the jock itch.
- C.
Polyene antifungal medication to which many molds and yeast infections are sensitive, including Candida. Due to its toxicity profile, there are currently no injectable formulations of this drug on the US market.However, it may be safely given orally as well as applied topically due to its minimal absorption through mucocutaneous membranes such as the gut and the skin
- D.
Narrow-spectrum[1] beta-lactam antibiotic[2] of the penicillin class. As a beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin, it is used to treat infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, in particular, species of staphylococci that are resistant to other penicillins.
- E.
Third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. Like other third-generation cephalosporins, it has broad spectrum activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Unlike most third-generation agents, it is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer
B. Antifungal medication commonly used in the treatment of fungal infections (of both humans and other animals) such as vaginal yeast infections, oral thrush, and ringworm. It is also used to treat athlete's foot and the jock itch.Explanation
clhotrimazoleRate this question:
-
- 16.
- A.
Pyrazolone with analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic properties but has risk of agranulocytosis
- B.
Antifungal medication commonly used in the treatment of fungal infections (of both humans and other animals) such as vaginal yeast infections, oral thrush, and ringworm. It is also used to treat athlete's foot and the jock itch.
- C.
Polyene antifungal medication to which many molds and yeast infections are sensitive, including Candida. Due to its toxicity profile, there are currently no injectable formulations of this drug on the US market.However, it may be safely given orally as well as applied topically due to its minimal absorption through mucocutaneous membranes such as the gut and the skin
- D.
Narrow-spectrum[1] beta-lactam antibiotic[2] of the penicillin class. As a beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin, it is used to treat infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, in particular, species of staphylococci that are resistant to other penicillins.
- E.
Third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. Like other third-generation cephalosporins, it has broad spectrum activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Unlike most third-generation agents, it is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer
C. Polyene antifungal medication to which many molds and yeast infections are sensitive, including Candida. Due to its toxicity profile, there are currently no injectable formulations of this drug on the US market.However, it may be safely given orally as well as applied topically due to its minimal absorption through mucocutaneous membranes such as the gut and the skinExplanation
phenylbutanoneRate this question:
-
- 17.
- A.
Pyrazolone with analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic properties but has risk of agranulocytosis
- B.
Antifungal medication commonly used in the treatment of fungal infections (of both humans and other animals) such as vaginal yeast infections, oral thrush, and ringworm. It is also used to treat athlete's foot and the jock itch.
- C.
Polyene antifungal medication to which many molds and yeast infections are sensitive, including Candida. Due to its toxicity profile, there are currently no injectable formulations of this drug on the US market.However, it may be safely given orally as well as applied topically due to its minimal absorption through mucocutaneous membranes such as the gut and the skin
- D.
Narrow-spectrum[1] beta-lactam antibiotic[2] of the penicillin class. As a beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin, it is used to treat infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, in particular, species of staphylococci that are resistant to other penicillins.
- E.
Third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. Like other third-generation cephalosporins, it has broad spectrum activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Unlike most third-generation agents, it is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer
D. Narrow-spectrum[1] beta-lactam antibiotic[2] of the penicillin class. As a beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin, it is used to treat infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, in particular, species of staphylococci that are resistant to other penicillins.Explanation
phenylbutanoneRate this question:
-
- 18.
- A.
Pyrazolone with analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic properties but has risk of agranulocytosis
- B.
Antifungal medication commonly used in the treatment of fungal infections (of both humans and other animals) such as vaginal yeast infections, oral thrush, and ringworm. It is also used to treat athlete's foot and the jock itch.
- C.
Polyene antifungal medication to which many molds and yeast infections are sensitive, including Candida. Due to its toxicity profile, there are currently no injectable formulations of this drug on the US market.However, it may be safely given orally as well as applied topically due to its minimal absorption through mucocutaneous membranes such as the gut and the skin
- D.
Narrow-spectrum[1] beta-lactam antibiotic[2] of the penicillin class. As a beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin, it is used to treat infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, in particular, species of staphylococci that are resistant to other penicillins.
- E.
Third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. Like other third-generation cephalosporins, it has broad spectrum activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Unlike most third-generation agents, it is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer
E. Third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. Like other third-generation cephalosporins, it has broad spectrum activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Unlike most third-generation agents, it is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosaExplanation
phenylbutanoneRate this question:
-
- 19.
First penicillins that adquired penicillase resistance by steric hindrance at the alpha-carbon of the acyl group
- A.
Methicillin and nafcillin
- B.
Oxacillin, cloxacillin and dicloxacillin
- C.
Ampicillin, amoxicillin and bacampicillin
- D.
Carbenicillin and ticarcillin
- E.
Azlocillin, mezlocillin and piperacillin
Correct Answer
A. Methicillin and nafcillinExplanation
NafcillinRate this question:
-
- 20.
Penicillins that adquired penicillase resistance by steric hindrance at the alpha-carbon of the acyl group by introduction of bulky groups.
- A.
Methicillin and nafcillin
- B.
Oxacillin, cloxacillin and dicloxacillin
- C.
Ampicillin, amoxicillin and bacampicillin
- D.
Carbenicillin and ticarcillin
- E.
Azlocillin, mezlocillin and piperacillin
Correct Answer
B. Oxacillin, cloxacillin and dicloxacillinExplanation
Methicillin and nafcillin are not included in the answer because they do not contain bulky groups at the alpha-carbon of the acyl group. Ampicillin, amoxicillin, bacampicillin, carbenicillin, ticarcillin, azlocillin, mezlocillin, and piperacillin are also not included because they do not have bulky groups at the alpha-carbon of the acyl group. Therefore, the correct answer is oxacillin, cloxacillin, and dicloxacillin as they have bulky groups at the alpha-carbon of the acyl group, which provides steric hindrance and confers penicillase resistance.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Penicillins that adquired extended spectrum of activity by introduction of a polar group(acidic) into alpha-position of the side chain benzyl carbon atom of oenicillin G.
- A.
Methicillin and nafcillin
- B.
Oxacillin, cloxacillin and dicloxacillin
- C.
Ampicillin, amoxicillin and bacampicillin
- D.
Carbenicillin and ticarcillin
- E.
Azlocillin, mezlocillin and piperacillin
Correct Answer
D. Carbenicillin and ticarcillinExplanation
Carbenicillin and ticarcillin are penicillins that have acquired an extended spectrum of activity by introducing a polar group (acidic) into the alpha-position of the side chain benzyl carbon atom of penicillin G. This modification allows them to be effective against a broader range of bacteria, including some that are resistant to other penicillins. Methicillin, nafcillin, oxacillin, cloxacillin, dicloxacillin, ampicillin, amoxicillin, bacampicillin, azlocillin, mezlocillin, and piperacillin do not have this specific modification and therefore do not possess the same extended spectrum of activity.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
First penicillins that adquired extended spectrum of activity by introduction of a alpha-acylureido group into alpha-position of the side chain benzyl carbon atom of oenicillin G.
- A.
Methicillin and nafcillin
- B.
Oxacillin, cloxacillin and dicloxacillin
- C.
Ampicillin, amoxicillin and bacampicillin
- D.
Carbenicillin and ticarcillin
- E.
Azlocillin, mezlocillin and piperacillin
Correct Answer
E. Azlocillin, mezlocillin and piperacillinExplanation
The correct answer is azlocillin, mezlocillin, and piperacillin. These penicillins acquired an extended spectrum of activity by introducing an alpha-acylureido group into the alpha-position of the side chain benzyl carbon atom of penicillin G. This modification allowed these penicillins to have a broader range of antimicrobial activity compared to the other options listed. Methicillin and nafcillin, oxacillin, cloxacillin, and dicloxacillin, ampicillin, amoxicillin, and bacampicillin, and carbenicillin and ticarcillin do not have this specific modification in their structure.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
Penicillins that adquired extended spectrum of activity by introduction of a polar group(amino) into alpha-position of the side chain benzyl carbon atom of penicillin G.
- A.
Methicillin and nafcillin
- B.
Oxacillin, cloxacillin and dicloxacillin
- C.
Ampicillin, amoxicillin and bacampicillin
- D.
Carbenicillin and ticarcillin
- E.
Azlocillin, mezlocillin and piperacillin
Correct Answer
C. Ampicillin, amoxicillin and bacampicillinExplanation
Ampicillin, amoxicillin, and bacampicillin are penicillins that have acquired an extended spectrum of activity by introducing a polar group (amino) into the alpha-position of the side chain benzyl carbon atom of penicillin G. This modification allows these penicillins to have a broader range of antimicrobial activity against various bacteria.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
margination
- A.
Process in which leukocytes relocate from their normal central location in the bloodstream to th eperiphery along the endothelium wall
- B.
Cascade that leads to trhombin formation, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin, leading to clot formation
- C.
Leads to the production of a peptidethat causes vascular dilation and increases permeability
- D.
Conversion of plasminogen into plasmin for degradation of fibrin clots and activation of the complement cascade
- E.
Produces proteins that mediates inflamation causing vasodilation, increasing vascular permeability , promoting chemotaxis and phagocytosis and initiatiing hystamine release
Correct Answer
A. Process in which leukocytes relocate from their normal central location in the bloodstream to th eperiphery along the endothelium wall -
- 25.
coagulation
- A.
Process in which leukocytes relocate from their normal central location in the bloodstream to th eperiphery along the endothelium wall
- B.
Cascade that leads to trhombin formation, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin, leading to clot formation
- C.
Leads to the production of a peptidethat causes vascular dilation and increases permeability
- D.
Conversion of plasminogen into plasmin for degradation of fibrin clots and activation of the complement cascade
- E.
Produces proteins that mediates inflamation causing vasodilation, increasing vascular permeability , promoting chemotaxis and phagocytosis and initiatiing hystamine release
Correct Answer
B. Cascade that leads to trhombin formation, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin, leading to clot formationExplanation
Coagulation is the process in which blood forms clots to stop bleeding. This process involves a cascade of reactions that ultimately leads to the formation of thrombin. Thrombin then converts fibrinogen, a soluble protein, into fibrin, an insoluble protein. The formation of fibrin creates a mesh-like structure that traps blood cells and platelets, forming a clot. Therefore, the given answer accurately describes the cascade of reactions involved in coagulation, leading to the formation of fibrin and ultimately clot formation.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
kinin cascade
- A.
Process in which leukocytes relocate from their normal central location in the bloodstream to th eperiphery along the endothelium wall
- B.
Cascade that leads to trhombin formation, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin, leading to clot formation
- C.
Leads to the production of a peptidethat causes vascular dilation and increases permeability
- D.
Conversion of plasminogen into plasmin for degradation of fibrin clots and activation of the complement cascade
- E.
Produces proteins that mediates inflamation causing vasodilation, increasing vascular permeability , promoting chemotaxis and phagocytosis and initiatiing hystamine release
Correct Answer
C. Leads to the production of a peptidethat causes vascular dilation and increases permeabilityExplanation
The correct answer states that the kinin cascade leads to the production of a peptide that causes vascular dilation and increases permeability. This means that when the kinin cascade is activated, it triggers the release of a specific peptide that causes blood vessels to widen and become more permeable. This can result in increased blood flow to the affected area and allows immune cells and other molecules to easily move in and out of the blood vessels, facilitating the immune response and inflammation process.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
fibrinolytic cascade
- A.
Process in which leukocytes relocate from their normal central location in the bloodstream to th eperiphery along the endothelium wall
- B.
Cascade that leads to trhombin formation, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin, leading to clot formation
- C.
Leads to the production of a peptidethat causes vascular dilation and increases permeability
- D.
Conversion of plasminogen into plasmin for degradation of fibrin clots and activation of the complement cascade
- E.
Produces proteins that mediates inflamation causing vasodilation, increasing vascular permeability , promoting chemotaxis and phagocytosis and initiatiing hystamine release
Correct Answer
D. Conversion of plasminogen into plasmin for degradation of fibrin clots and activation of the complement cascadeExplanation
The correct answer is the conversion of plasminogen into plasmin for the degradation of fibrin clots and activation of the complement cascade. Plasminogen is converted into plasmin, which is an enzyme responsible for breaking down fibrin clots. This process is important for preventing excessive clot formation and promoting clot dissolution. Additionally, plasmin can also activate the complement cascade, which is a series of immune system reactions that help to eliminate pathogens and promote inflammation.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
complement cascade
- A.
Process in which leukocytes relocate from their normal central location in the bloodstream to th eperiphery along the endothelium wall
- B.
Cascade that leads to trhombin formation, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin, leading to clot formation
- C.
Leads to the production of a peptidethat causes vascular dilation and increases permeability
- D.
Conversion of plasminogen into plasmin for degradation of fibrin clots and activation of the complement cascade
- E.
Produces proteins that mediates inflamation causing vasodilation, increasing vascular permeability , promoting chemotaxis and phagocytosis and initiatiing hystamine release
Correct Answer
E. Produces proteins that mediates inflamation causing vasodilation, increasing vascular permeability , promoting chemotaxis and phagocytosis and initiatiing hystamine releaseExplanation
This answer correctly describes the function of the complement cascade, which is to produce proteins that mediate inflammation. These proteins cause vasodilation, increase vascular permeability, promote chemotaxis and phagocytosis, and initiate histamine release.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Prostaglandin I produced from arachidonic acid II produced through the cyclooxygenase pathway III induce vasodilation and increase vascular permeability IV facilitates platelet agregation for the proces of healing and repair
- A.
I and II and III
- B.
I nad II and IV
- C.
I and III and IV
- D.
I and III
Correct Answer
A. I and II and IIIExplanation
Prostaglandin is a lipid compound that is produced from arachidonic acid, making statement I correct. It is also produced through the cyclooxygenase pathway, validating statement II. Prostaglandins are known to induce vasodilation and increase vascular permeability, supporting statement III. However, there is no mention of prostaglandins facilitating platelet aggregation for the process of healing and repair, making statement IV incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is I and II and III.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Thromboxanes I produced from arachidonic acid II produced through the cyclooxygenase pathway III induce vasodilation and increase vascular permeability IV facilitates platelet agregation for the proces of healing and repair
- A.
I and II and III
- B.
I nad II and IV
- C.
I and III and IV
- D.
I and III
Correct Answer
B. I nad II and IVExplanation
Thromboxanes are produced from arachidonic acid and through the cyclooxygenase pathway. They facilitate platelet aggregation for the process of healing and repair. Additionally, they induce vasodilation and increase vascular permeability. Therefore, the correct answer is I and II and IV.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
Thromboxanes I produced from arachidonic acid II produced by th elipooxygenase pathway III induce vasodilation and increase vascular permeability IVinitiate chemotactic activities for white blood cells, causes vasodilation and increases vascular permeability
- A.
I and II and III
- B.
I nad II and IV
- C.
I and III and IV
- D.
II and IV
Correct Answer
D. II and IVExplanation
Thromboxanes are produced from arachidonic acid and are also produced by the lipooxygenase pathway. They initiate chemotactic activities for white blood cells, causing vasodilation and increasing vascular permeability. Therefore, the correct answer is II and IV.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
Example of hyperemia
- A.
Acute inflamation of a tissue
- B.
Varicose veins
- C.
Petechiae
- D.
Cpurpuras
- E.
Echymoses
Correct Answer
A. Acute inflamation of a tissueExplanation
Hyperemia refers to the increased blood flow to a specific area of tissue, resulting in redness and warmth. In acute inflammation, hyperemia occurs as a response to injury or infection, causing the affected tissue to become red and swollen. This increased blood flow helps to deliver immune cells and nutrients to the area, aiding in the healing process. Varicose veins, petechiae, purpuras, and ecchymoses are not examples of hyperemia but rather different conditions related to blood vessel abnormalities or bleeding disorders.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Congestion
- A.
Acute inflamation of a tissue
- B.
Varicose veins
- C.
Petechiae
- D.
Cpurpuras
- E.
Echymoses
Correct Answer
B. Varicose veinsExplanation
Varicose veins are a possible explanation because they are enlarged and swollen veins that often appear twisted or bulging. They occur when the valves in the veins do not work properly, causing blood to pool and the veins to become congested. This can lead to discomfort, pain, and aching in the affected area.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Pintpoint hemorrages (<0.3cm)
- A.
Acute inflamation of a tissue
- B.
Varicose veins
- C.
Petechiae
- D.
Cpurpuras
- E.
Echymoses
Correct Answer
C. PetechiaeExplanation
Petechiae are small, pinpoint-sized hemorrhages that occur due to bleeding under the skin. They are typically less than 0.3cm in size. The other options listed, such as acute inflammation of a tissue, varicose veins, purpuras, and ecchymoses, do not specifically refer to small, pinpoint-sized hemorrhages. Therefore, the correct answer is petechiae.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Wide-spread hemorrhage (0.3-1cm)
- A.
Acute inflamation of a tissue
- B.
Varicose veins
- C.
Petechiae
- D.
Purpuras
- E.
Echymoses
Correct Answer
D. PurpurasExplanation
Purpuras refers to the presence of small, flat, purple or red spots on the skin or mucous membranes. These spots occur due to bleeding underneath the skin, resulting in the accumulation of blood. Wide-spread hemorrhage with a size range of 0.3-1cm is characteristic of purpuras. Acute inflammation of a tissue, varicose veins, petechiae, and echymoses do not specifically involve widespread hemorrhage of this size range, making purpuras the correct answer.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
>1cm hemorrhages
- A.
Acute inflamation of a tissue
- B.
Varicose veins
- C.
Petechiae
- D.
Cpurpuras
- E.
Echymoses
Correct Answer
E. EchymosesExplanation
Echymoses refers to the discoloration of the skin caused by bleeding underneath the skin, typically resulting from bruising. It is characterized by larger areas of purple or blue discoloration, often caused by trauma or injury. In contrast, petechiae are tiny red or purple spots caused by small broken blood vessels, while purpuras are larger purple or red spots caused by bleeding under the skin. Varicose veins are swollen and twisted veins that usually occur in the legs. Therefore, the presence of 1cm hemorrhages aligns with the description of echymoses.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Hypovolemic shock
- A.
Cardiac ouput (CO) reduced systemic vascular resistance (SVR) increased
- B.
CO normal to elevated and SVR decreased
- C.
CO increased and SVR increased
- D.
Co reduced and SVR reduced
Correct Answer
A. Cardiac ouput (CO) reduced systemic vascular resistance (SVR) increasedExplanation
In hypovolemic shock, there is a decrease in blood volume, leading to a decrease in cardiac output (CO). This is because there is less blood available to be pumped by the heart. Additionally, the body responds to the decrease in blood volume by constricting blood vessels, which increases systemic vascular resistance (SVR). This helps to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. Therefore, in hypovolemic shock, the correct answer is that CO is reduced and SVR is increased.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
Distributive shock
- A.
Cardiac ouput (CO) reduced systemic vascular resistance (SVR) increased
- B.
CO normal to elevated and SVR decreased
- C.
CO increased and SVR increased
- D.
Co reduced and SVR reduced
Correct Answer
B. CO normal to elevated and SVR decreasedExplanation
In distributive shock, there is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance (SVR), which refers to the resistance to blood flow in the blood vessels. This decrease in SVR causes the blood vessels to dilate, leading to a decrease in blood pressure and an increase in cardiac output (CO) to compensate for the decreased SVR. Therefore, the correct answer is that CO is normal to elevated and SVR is decreased.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Cardiogenic shock
- A.
Cardiac ouput (CO) reduced systemic vascular resistance (SVR) increased
- B.
CO normal to elevated and SVR decreased
- C.
CO increased and SVR increased
- D.
Co reduced and SVR reduced
Correct Answer
A. Cardiac ouput (CO) reduced systemic vascular resistance (SVR) increasedExplanation
In cardiogenic shock, the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. This leads to a reduced cardiac output (CO), as the heart is not able to effectively pump blood out to the rest of the body. Additionally, there is an increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR), which refers to the resistance to blood flow in the blood vessels throughout the body. The increased SVR is a compensatory mechanism in response to the reduced CO, as the body tries to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. Therefore, the correct answer is that in cardiogenic shock, CO is reduced and SVR is increased.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
Obstructive shock
- A.
Cardiac ouput (CO) reduced systemic vascular resistance (SVR) increased
- B.
CO normal to elevated and SVR decreased
- C.
CO increased and SVR increased
- D.
Co reduced and SVR reduced
Correct Answer
A. Cardiac ouput (CO) reduced systemic vascular resistance (SVR) increasedExplanation
In obstructive shock, there is a blockage or obstruction in the blood flow, leading to a decrease in cardiac output (CO). This means that the heart is unable to pump an adequate amount of blood to meet the body's needs. At the same time, there is an increase in systemic vascular resistance (SVR), which refers to the resistance to blood flow in the blood vessels throughout the body. This increased resistance further impairs the flow of blood. Therefore, the correct answer is that in obstructive shock, cardiac output is reduced and systemic vascular resistance is increased.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
Malformation
- A.
Defects in normal development as a result of an abnormality oof intrinxsic cause (genetic)
- B.
Defects in th eform, shape or position of a body part resulting from abnormal mechanical forces placed in the fetus during development
- C.
Defects attributable to an abnormality in the cellular organization of arrangement
- D.
Abnormalities of normal growth and development caused by extrinsic exposures
Correct Answer
A. Defects in normal development as a result of an abnormality oof intrinxsic cause (genetic)Explanation
The correct answer is "defects in normal development as a result of an abnormality of intrinsic cause (genetic)". This means that malformation refers to the abnormalities in the development of a body part due to genetic factors. It implies that there is an inherent issue in the genetic makeup of the individual, leading to the malformation during the normal process of development.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
Deformation
- A.
Defects in normal development as a result of an abnormality oof intrinxsic cause (genetic)
- B.
Defects in th eform, shape or position of a body part resulting from abnormal mechanical forces placed in the fetus during development
- C.
Defects attributable to an abnormality in the cellular organization of arrangement
- D.
Abnormalities of normal growth and development caused by extrinsic exposures
Correct Answer
B. Defects in th eform, shape or position of a body part resulting from abnormal mechanical forces placed in the fetus during developmentExplanation
The correct answer states that "deformation" refers to defects in the form, shape, or position of a body part resulting from abnormal mechanical forces placed on the fetus during development. This explanation aligns with the definition of deformation and accurately describes the concept being discussed.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Dysplasias
- A.
Defects in normal development as a result of an abnormality oof intrinxsic cause (genetic)
- B.
Defects in th eform, shape or position of a body part resulting from abnormal mechanical forces placed in the fetus during development
- C.
Defects attributable to an abnormality in the cellular organization of arrangement
- D.
Abnormalities of normal growth and development caused by extrinsic exposures
Correct Answer
C. Defects attributable to an abnormality in the cellular organization of arrangementExplanation
Dysplasias are defects that occur due to an abnormality in the cellular organization or arrangement. This means that there is a disruption in the normal structure and arrangement of cells, which can lead to abnormal growth and development. This can be caused by various factors, including genetic abnormalities. Other options mentioned in the question, such as defects caused by abnormal mechanical forces or extrinsic exposures, do not specifically refer to dysplasias.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Disruption
- A.
Defects in normal development as a result of an abnormality oof intrinxsic cause (genetic)
- B.
Defects in th eform, shape or position of a body part resulting from abnormal mechanical forces placed in the fetus during development
- C.
Defects attributable to an abnormality in the cellular organization of arrangement
- D.
Abnormalities of normal growth and development caused by extrinsic exposures
Correct Answer
D. Abnormalities of normal growth and development caused by extrinsic exposuresExplanation
The correct answer is "abnormalities of normal growth and development caused by extrinsic exposures." This refers to disruptions in the normal development of an organism caused by external factors or exposures, rather than genetic or intrinsic causes. These external factors could include environmental toxins, infections, or maternal drug use, among others. These exposures can lead to defects or abnormalities in the form, shape, or position of body parts during fetal development.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
Aneuploidy
- A.
Down's syndrome
- B.
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
- C.
Pallister Killian syndrome
- D.
Cri du Chat
Correct Answer
A. Down's syndromeExplanation
all the others are structural abnormalities.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Renin
- A.
Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
- B.
Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II
- C.
Directly stimulates release of aldostrone
- D.
Directly stimulates retention of sodium and water
Correct Answer
A. Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin IExplanation
Renin is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. It is responsible for converting angiotensinogen, a protein produced by the liver, into angiotensin I. This conversion is the first step in the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which ultimately leads to the production of angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor and also stimulates the release of aldosterone, which promotes the retention of sodium and water by the kidneys. Therefore, the correct answer is that renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
ACE
- A.
Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
- B.
Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II
- C.
Directly stimulates release of aldostrone
- D.
Directly stimulates retention of sodium and water
Correct Answer
B. Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin IIExplanation
ACE (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme) is responsible for converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin I is an inactive form of the hormone, and ACE plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by converting it into angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor and also stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal glands. Aldosterone, in turn, promotes the retention of sodium and water in the kidneys, leading to increased blood volume and blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is that ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
Angiotensin II
- A.
Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
- B.
Stimulates adrenergic receptors
- C.
Directly stimulates release of aldostrone
- D.
Directly stimulates retention of sodium and water
Correct Answer
C. Directly stimulates release of aldostroneExplanation
Angiotensin II directly stimulates the release of aldosterone. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that plays a role in regulating blood pressure and electrolyte balance. When angiotensin II binds to receptors in the adrenal glands, it triggers the release of aldosterone. Aldosterone then acts on the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of sodium and water, leading to increased blood volume and blood pressure. Therefore, angiotensin II indirectly affects the retention of sodium and water by stimulating the release of aldosterone.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
Aldosterone
- A.
Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
- B.
Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II
- C.
Directly stimulates release of progesterone
- D.
Directly stimulates retention of sodium and water
Correct Answer
D. Directly stimulates retention of sodium and waterExplanation
Aldosterone directly stimulates the retention of sodium and water. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that plays a crucial role in regulating fluid and electrolyte balance in the body. It acts on the kidneys, specifically on the distal tubules and collecting ducts, to increase the reabsorption of sodium and water back into the bloodstream. This helps to maintain blood volume and blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is that aldosterone directly stimulates the retention of sodium and water.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
Atrial natriuretic peptide
- A.
Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
- B.
Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II
- C.
Directly stimulates release of sodium and water
- D.
Directly stimulates retention of sodium and water
Correct Answer
C. Directly stimulates release of sodium and waterExplanation
Atrial natriuretic peptide directly stimulates the release of sodium and water. This hormone is released by the atria of the heart in response to increased blood volume and pressure. Its main function is to promote diuresis and natriuresis, which means it increases the excretion of sodium and water by the kidneys. By doing so, it helps to decrease blood volume and pressure, counteracting the effects of angiotensin II, which promotes sodium and water retention.Rate this question:
-
.png)
.png)
.png)
.png)
.png)
.png)
.png)
.png "Penicillins that adquired penicillase resistance by steric hindrance at the alpha-carbon of the acyl group by introduction of bulky groups.")
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Jun 06, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jan 11, 2013Quiz Created by
Sugrabell
- Abdomen Quizzes
- Addiction Quizzes
- Aging Quizzes
- Arthritis Quizzes
- Beauty Quizzes
- Blood Quizzes
- Body Quizzes
- Bone Quizzes
- Brain Quizzes
- Child Health Quizzes
- Dermatology Quizzes
- Digestive System Quizzes
- Disease Quizzes
- Fertility Quizzes
- First Aid Quizzes
- Hair care Quizzes
- Health And Nutrition Quizzes
- Health And Wellness Quizzes
- Health Policy Quizzes
- Health Psychology Quizzes
- Health Worldwide Quizzes
- Hearing Quizzes
- Heart Quizzes
- Hospital Quizzes
- Illness Quizzes
- Injury Quizzes
- Kidney Quizzes
- Liver Quizzes
- Lung Quizzes
- Medical Quizzes
- Mental Health Quizzes
- Nose Quizzes
- Nutrition Quizzes
- Obesity Quizzes
- Ophthalmology Quizzes
- Patient Quizzes
- Pregnancy Quizzes
- Puberty Quizzes
- Public Health Quizzes
- Respiratory System Quizzes
- Sleep Quizzes
- Stress Quizzes
- Surgery Quizzes
- Surgical Instruments Quizzes
- Throat Quizzes
- Weight Quizzes
- Wellness Quizzes
Back to top