Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Prep Test

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  • 1/119 Questions
    - ProProfs

    • Aminopycine
    • Clothrimazole
    • Nystatin
    • Nafcillin
    • Ceftazidime
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About This Quiz


How well do you know the foreign pharmacy? Can you take this quiz? For this quiz, you will have to understand what phenylbutazone, ketoconazole, amphotericin B, and natamycin are. You will be shown pictures of the chemical makeup of pharmaceutical drugs, and you will have to determine what the picture means. You will also need to know about margination and coagulation. Good luck to you.

Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Prep Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 
    - ProProfs

    • Aminopycine

    • Clothrimazole

    • Nystatin

    • Nafcillin

    • Ceftazidime

    Correct Answer
    A. Clothrimazole
  • 3. 
    - ProProfs

    • Pyrazolone with analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic properties but has risk of agranulocytosis

    • Antifungal medication commonly used in the treatment of fungal infections (of both humans and other animals) such as vaginal yeast infections, oral thrush, and ringworm. It is also used to treat athlete's foot and the jock itch.

    • Polyene antifungal medication to which many molds and yeast infections are sensitive, including Candida. Due to its toxicity profile, there are currently no injectable formulations of this drug on the US market.However, it may be safely given orally as well as applied topically due to its minimal absorption through mucocutaneous membranes such as the gut and the skin

    • Narrow-spectrum[1] beta-lactam antibiotic[2] of the penicillin class. As a beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin, it is used to treat infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, in particular, species of staphylococci that are resistant to other penicillins.

    • Third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. Like other third-generation cephalosporins, it has broad spectrum activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Unlike most third-generation agents, it is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    Correct Answer
    A. Narrow-spectrum[1] beta-lactam antibiotic[2] of the penicillin class. As a beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin, it is used to treat infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, in particular, species of staphylococci that are resistant to other penicillins.
    Explanation
    phenylbutanone

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  • 4. 

    coagulation

    • Process in which leukocytes relocate from their normal central location in the bloodstream to th eperiphery along the endothelium wall

    • Cascade that leads to trhombin formation, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin, leading to clot formation

    • Leads to the production of a peptidethat causes vascular dilation and increases permeability

    • Conversion of plasminogen into plasmin for degradation of fibrin clots and activation of the complement cascade

    • Produces proteins that mediates inflamation causing vasodilation, increasing vascular permeability , promoting chemotaxis and phagocytosis and initiatiing hystamine release

    Correct Answer
    A. Cascade that leads to trhombin formation, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin, leading to clot formation
    Explanation
    Coagulation is the process in which blood forms clots to stop bleeding. This process involves a cascade of reactions that ultimately leads to the formation of thrombin. Thrombin then converts fibrinogen, a soluble protein, into fibrin, an insoluble protein. The formation of fibrin creates a mesh-like structure that traps blood cells and platelets, forming a clot. Therefore, the given answer accurately describes the cascade of reactions involved in coagulation, leading to the formation of fibrin and ultimately clot formation.

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  • 5. 

    kinin cascade

    • Process in which leukocytes relocate from their normal central location in the bloodstream to th eperiphery along the endothelium wall

    • Cascade that leads to trhombin formation, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin, leading to clot formation

    • Leads to the production of a peptidethat causes vascular dilation and increases permeability

    • Conversion of plasminogen into plasmin for degradation of fibrin clots and activation of the complement cascade

    • Produces proteins that mediates inflamation causing vasodilation, increasing vascular permeability , promoting chemotaxis and phagocytosis and initiatiing hystamine release

    Correct Answer
    A. Leads to the production of a peptidethat causes vascular dilation and increases permeability
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the kinin cascade leads to the production of a peptide that causes vascular dilation and increases permeability. This means that when the kinin cascade is activated, it triggers the release of a specific peptide that causes blood vessels to widen and become more permeable. This can result in increased blood flow to the affected area and allows immune cells and other molecules to easily move in and out of the blood vessels, facilitating the immune response and inflammation process.

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  • 6. 

    Example of hyperemia

    • Acute inflamation of a tissue

    • Varicose veins

    • Petechiae

    • Cpurpuras

    • Echymoses

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute inflamation of a tissue
    Explanation
    Hyperemia refers to the increased blood flow to a specific area of tissue, resulting in redness and warmth. In acute inflammation, hyperemia occurs as a response to injury or infection, causing the affected tissue to become red and swollen. This increased blood flow helps to deliver immune cells and nutrients to the area, aiding in the healing process. Varicose veins, petechiae, purpuras, and ecchymoses are not examples of hyperemia but rather different conditions related to blood vessel abnormalities or bleeding disorders.

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  • 7. 

    Hypovolemic shock

    • Cardiac ouput (CO) reduced systemic vascular resistance (SVR) increased

    • CO normal to elevated and SVR decreased

    • CO increased and SVR increased

    • Co reduced and SVR reduced

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac ouput (CO) reduced systemic vascular resistance (SVR) increased
    Explanation
    In hypovolemic shock, there is a decrease in blood volume, leading to a decrease in cardiac output (CO). This is because there is less blood available to be pumped by the heart. Additionally, the body responds to the decrease in blood volume by constricting blood vessels, which increases systemic vascular resistance (SVR). This helps to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. Therefore, in hypovolemic shock, the correct answer is that CO is reduced and SVR is increased.

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  • 8. 

    Deformation

    • Defects in normal development as a result of an abnormality oof intrinxsic cause (genetic)

    • Defects in th eform, shape or position of a body part resulting from abnormal mechanical forces placed in the fetus during development

    • Defects attributable to an abnormality in the cellular organization of arrangement

    • Abnormalities of normal growth and development caused by extrinsic exposures

    Correct Answer
    A. Defects in th eform, shape or position of a body part resulting from abnormal mechanical forces placed in the fetus during development
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that "deformation" refers to defects in the form, shape, or position of a body part resulting from abnormal mechanical forces placed on the fetus during development. This explanation aligns with the definition of deformation and accurately describes the concept being discussed.

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  • 9. 

    Dysplasias

    • Defects in normal development as a result of an abnormality oof intrinxsic cause (genetic)

    • Defects in th eform, shape or position of a body part resulting from abnormal mechanical forces placed in the fetus during development

    • Defects attributable to an abnormality in the cellular organization of arrangement

    • Abnormalities of normal growth and development caused by extrinsic exposures

    Correct Answer
    A. Defects attributable to an abnormality in the cellular organization of arrangement
    Explanation
    Dysplasias are defects that occur due to an abnormality in the cellular organization or arrangement. This means that there is a disruption in the normal structure and arrangement of cells, which can lead to abnormal growth and development. This can be caused by various factors, including genetic abnormalities. Other options mentioned in the question, such as defects caused by abnormal mechanical forces or extrinsic exposures, do not specifically refer to dysplasias.

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  • 10. 

    Aneuploidy

    • Down's syndrome

    • Chronic myelogenous leukemia

    • Pallister Killian syndrome

    • Cri du Chat

    Correct Answer
    A. Down's syndrome
    Explanation
    all the others are structural abnormalities.

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  • 11. 

    Bradikinin, an important mediator of inflamation, is formed following activation of the kinin cascade. whst is the principle action of bradikinin?

    • It converts fibrinogen to fibrin, important in clotting

    • It promotes vascular dilation and increases vascular permeability

    • It degrades fibrin clots and activates complement cascade

    • Protein production is important in the membrane attack complex

    Correct Answer
    A. It promotes vascular dilation and increases vascular permeability
    Explanation
    Bradikinin is an important mediator of inflammation and its principle action is to promote vascular dilation and increase vascular permeability. This means that it causes blood vessels to widen and become more permeable, allowing for increased blood flow to the affected area and the migration of immune cells to fight off any potential pathogens or foreign substances. This response is a crucial part of the body's immune response to inflammation and helps facilitate the healing process.

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  • 12. 

    Prupuras are hemorrages of what size

    • 0.3-1 cm

    • >1 cm

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.3-1 cm
    Explanation
    Purpuras are hemorrhages that occur under the skin and are characterized by purple or red discoloration. The correct answer is 0.3-1 cm, which indicates that purpuras typically have a size ranging from 0.3 to 1 centimeter. This size range suggests that purpuras are relatively small in size and can vary in diameter within this range.

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  • 13. 

    Wha mechanism is most commonly responsible for Down syndrome

    • Translocation of the philadelphia chromosome (9 and 22)

    • Deletion of a portion of the short arm of chromossome 5

    • Nondisjuntion during meiotic segregation

    • Robertsonian translocation of chromosome 21

    Correct Answer
    A. Nondisjuntion during meiotic segregation
    Explanation
    Down syndrome is most commonly caused by nondisjunction during meiotic segregation. Nondisjunction refers to the failure of chromosomes to separate properly during cell division, resulting in an abnormal distribution of chromosomes in the resulting cells. In the case of Down syndrome, there is an extra copy of chromosome 21, either because the egg or sperm cell involved in fertilization had an extra copy of chromosome 21 or because the chromosomes failed to separate during cell division in the early stages of fetal development. This leads to the presence of three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two, resulting in the characteristic features and health issues associated with Down syndrome.

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  • 14. 

    What type of shock can be seen in some patients following a pulmonary trhomboembolism?

    • Hypovolemic shock

    • Distributive shock

    • Cardiogenic shock

    • Obstructive shock

    Correct Answer
    A. Obstructive shock
    Explanation
    Following a pulmonary thromboembolism, the obstruction of blood flow in the pulmonary arteries can lead to a condition known as obstructive shock. This occurs when the blood flow is significantly reduced, causing a decrease in oxygen delivery to the body's tissues. As a result, the patient may experience symptoms such as low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, shortness of breath, and organ dysfunction. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further complications and improve the patient's outcome.

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  • 15. 

    Which organism does not belong to prokariotes?

    • Bacteria

    • Mycoplasma

    • Ricketssiae

    • Chlamydiae

    • Protozoa

    Correct Answer
    A. Protozoa
    Explanation
    protozoa are eukaryotes

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  • 16. 

    Period whn the general symptoms of an infection manisfest

    • Incubation period

    • Pondromal period

    • Acme period

    • Decline period

    • Convalescent period

    Correct Answer
    A. Pondromal period
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "prodromal period". The prodromal period refers to the time when general symptoms of an infection start to appear. This period occurs after the incubation period, which is the time between exposure to the pathogen and the onset of symptoms. During the prodromal period, individuals may experience non-specific symptoms such as fatigue, headache, fever, and muscle aches. These symptoms serve as a warning sign that an infection is developing and can help in identifying and diagnosing the specific illness.

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  • 17. 

    Functions of the primaryy lymphoid tissue, all except

    • Produce naive B and T-lymphocytes and and NK

    • The cells obtain their repertoir of specific cell surface antigen receptors.

    • Selection of tolerance to self antigens

    • Activation of the immune cells for future immunoresponses

    Correct Answer
    A. Activation of the immune cells for future immunoresponses
    Explanation
    The primary lymphoid tissues, such as the bone marrow and thymus, are responsible for producing naive B and T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells. These cells obtain their repertoire of specific cell surface antigen receptors in these tissues. Additionally, the primary lymphoid tissues play a role in the selection of tolerance to self-antigens, ensuring that immune cells do not attack the body's own tissues. However, the activation of immune cells for future immune responses is not a function of the primary lymphoid tissues. This activation typically occurs in secondary lymphoid tissues, such as the lymph nodes and spleen.

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  • 18. 

    Functions of the primaryy lymphoid tissue, all except

    • Produce naive B and T-lymphocytes and and NK

    • The cells obtain their repertoir of specific cell surface antigen receptors.

    • Selection of tolerance to self antigens

    • Activation of the immune cells for future immunoresponses

    Correct Answer
    A. Activation of the immune cells for future immunoresponses
    Explanation
    The primary lymphoid tissues are responsible for the production of naive B and T-lymphocytes and NK cells, as well as the development of their specific cell surface antigen receptors. They play a crucial role in the selection of tolerance to self antigens, ensuring that the immune system does not attack the body's own cells. However, the activation of immune cells for future immunoresponses is not a function of the primary lymphoid tissues. This process occurs in the secondary lymphoid tissues, where immune cells encounter antigens and initiate an immune response.

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  • 19. 

    Which lymphocytes produce antibodies

    • T-lymphocytes

    • B-lymphocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. B-lymphocytes
    Explanation
    B-lymphocytes, also known as B cells, are the lymphocytes that produce antibodies. These cells are a crucial part of the immune system and play a key role in identifying and neutralizing foreign substances, such as bacteria and viruses. B-lymphocytes are responsible for the production of specific antibodies that bind to antigens on the surface of these foreign substances, marking them for destruction by other immune cells. This process, known as humoral immunity, helps to protect the body against infections and diseases. T-lymphocytes, on the other hand, have different functions, including coordinating immune responses and directly attacking infected cells.

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  • 20. 

    Fab (antigen bindins fragments) consist

    • One light chain and the VH1 and CH 1 domain of the heavy chain

    • Hinge region and CH2 and CH3 domain of the heavy chain

    • CH 1 CH2 and CH3 domain of the heavy chain

    • One light chain and a heavy chain

    Correct Answer
    A. One light chain and the VH1 and CH 1 domain of the heavy chain
    Explanation
    Fab (antigen binding fragments) are composed of one light chain and the VH1 and CH1 domain of the heavy chain. The light chain is responsible for binding to the antigen, while the VH1 and CH1 domain of the heavy chain provide structural support and stability to the Fab fragment. The hinge region and CH2 and CH3 domains of the heavy chain are not included in the Fab fragment. Therefore, the correct answer is that the Fab fragment consists of one light chain and the VH1 and CH1 domain of the heavy chain.

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  • 21. 
    select the test that the image corresponds - ProProfs

    select the test that the image corresponds

    • Complement fixation test

    • Hemaglutination test

    • Precipitin test

    • ELISA

    Correct Answer
    A. Precipitin test
    Explanation
    The precipitin test is used to identify and measure the presence of specific antibodies in a sample. It involves mixing the sample with a known antigen and observing the formation of a precipitate if the antibodies are present. This test is commonly used in immunology and serology to diagnose and study various diseases, as well as in forensic science to determine the origin of biological samples. The other tests listed, such as the complement fixation test, hemagglutination test, and ELISA, are also used in immunology and serology but have different principles and applications.

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  • 22. 
    select the test that the image corresponds - ProProfs

    select the test that the image corresponds

    • Complement fixation test

    • Hemaglutination test

    • Precipitin test

    • ELISA

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemaglutination test
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Hemaglutination test." The hemaglutination test is a diagnostic method used to detect the presence of antibodies or antigens in a sample. It involves mixing red blood cells with the sample and observing for agglutination or clumping of the cells. This test is commonly used in blood typing, viral infections, and autoimmune diseases.

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  • 23. 

    Miastemia gravis

    • Caused by antibodies to the basement of the membrane of the kidney

    • Caused by antibodies to acetylcholine receptors at nerve-muscle junctions

    • Injection of foreign antigen leading to fromation and deposition of immune complexes in blood vesseld

    • Subcutaneous immune complex formation ocurring at a local site and around the walls of small blood cells

    • Caused by antibodies to DNA, histones and antigens ofthe nucleuos

    • Stimulation from a foreign body or particulate such as talc or silica resulting in granuloma, which is a mass of lymphocytes and macrophages surrounding an allergen too large to be phagocytized

    Correct Answer
    A. Caused by antibodies to acetylcholine receptors at nerve-muscle junctions
    Explanation
    Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue. The correct answer states that it is caused by antibodies to acetylcholine receptors at nerve-muscle junctions. In myasthenia gravis, these antibodies bind to and block the acetylcholine receptors, preventing normal muscle contraction. This leads to the characteristic muscle weakness and fatigue seen in the condition.

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  • 24. 

    Serum sickness

    • Caused by antibodies to the basement of the membrane of the kidney

    • Caused by antibodies to acetylcholine receptors at nerve-muscle junctions

    • Injection of foreign antigen leading to fromation and deposition of immune complexes in blood vesseld

    • Subcutaneous immune complex formation ocurring at a local site and around the walls of small blood cells

    • Caused by antibodies to DNA, histones and antigens ofthe nucleuos

    • Stimulation from a foreign body or particulate such as talc or silica resulting in granuloma, which is a mass of lymphocytes and macrophages surrounding an allergen too large to be phagocytized

    Correct Answer
    A. Injection of foreign antigen leading to fromation and deposition of immune complexes in blood vesseld
    Explanation
    Serum sickness is a type III hypersensitivity reaction, which occurs when immune complexes formed by the binding of antibodies to foreign antigens are deposited in blood vessels. This immune complex deposition can lead to inflammation and tissue damage. In this case, the correct answer states that serum sickness is caused by the injection of a foreign antigen, which leads to the formation and deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels.

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  • 25. 

    Granulomatous reactions

    • Caused by antibodies to the basement of the membrane of the kidney

    • Caused by antibodies to acetylcholine receptors at nerve-muscle junctions

    • Injection of foreign antigen leading to fromation and deposition of immune complexes in blood vesseld

    • Subcutaneous immune complex formation ocurring at a local site and around the walls of small blood cells

    • Caused by antibodies to DNA, histones and antigens ofthe nucleuos

    • Stimulation from a foreign body or particulate such as talc or silica resulting in granuloma, which is a mass of lymphocytes and macrophages surrounding an allergen too large to be phagocytized

    Correct Answer
    A. Stimulation from a foreign body or particulate such as talc or silica resulting in granuloma, which is a mass of lymphocytes and macrophages surrounding an allergen too large to be phagocytized
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the explanation itself. It states that granulomatous reactions are caused by stimulation from a foreign body or particulate, such as talc or silica. This stimulation leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a mass of lymphocytes and macrophages surrounding an allergen that is too large to be phagocytized.

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  • 26. 

    In transplant when donor and recipient  are from diferent species

    • Autograft

    • Isograft

    • Allograft

    • Xenograft

    Correct Answer
    A. Xenograft
    Explanation
    A xenograft refers to a type of transplant where the donor and recipient are from different species. In this case, the correct answer is xenograft because it aligns with the given information that the transplant involves individuals from different species. Autograft refers to a transplant where the donor and recipient are the same individual. Isograft refers to a transplant between genetically identical individuals. Allograft refers to a transplant between individuals of the same species but with different genetic makeup.

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  • 27. 
    - ProProfs

    • Phenylbutazone

    • Ketoconazol

    • Amphotericin B

    • Natamycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Ketoconazol
  • 28. 
    - ProProfs

    • Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory

    • Antifungal drug used to prevent and treat fungal skin infections

    • Polyene antifungal drug, often used intravenously for systemic fungal infections

    • Naturally occurring antifungal agent produced during fermentation by the bacterium Streptomyces natalensis

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
  • 29. 
    - ProProfs

    • Pyrazolone with analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic properties but has risk of agranulocytosis

    • Antifungal medication commonly used in the treatment of fungal infections (of both humans and other animals) such as vaginal yeast infections, oral thrush, and ringworm. It is also used to treat athlete's foot and the jock itch.

    • Polyene antifungal medication to which many molds and yeast infections are sensitive, including Candida. Due to its toxicity profile, there are currently no injectable formulations of this drug on the US market.However, it may be safely given orally as well as applied topically due to its minimal absorption through mucocutaneous membranes such as the gut and the skin

    • Narrow-spectrum[1] beta-lactam antibiotic[2] of the penicillin class. As a beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin, it is used to treat infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, in particular, species of staphylococci that are resistant to other penicillins.

    • Third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. Like other third-generation cephalosporins, it has broad spectrum activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Unlike most third-generation agents, it is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyrazolone with analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic properties but has risk of agranulocytosis
    Explanation
    aminopyrine

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  • 30. 
    Penicillins that adquired extended spectrum of activity by introduction of a polar group(amino) into alpha-position of the side chain benzyl carbon atom of penicillin G. - ProProfs

    Penicillins that adquired extended spectrum of activity by introduction of a polar group(amino) into alpha-position of the side chain benzyl carbon atom of penicillin G.

    • Methicillin and nafcillin

    • Oxacillin, cloxacillin and dicloxacillin

    • Ampicillin, amoxicillin and bacampicillin

    • Carbenicillin and ticarcillin

    • Azlocillin, mezlocillin and piperacillin

    Correct Answer
    A. Ampicillin, amoxicillin and bacampicillin
    Explanation
    Ampicillin, amoxicillin, and bacampicillin are penicillins that have acquired an extended spectrum of activity by introducing a polar group (amino) into the alpha-position of the side chain benzyl carbon atom of penicillin G. This modification allows these penicillins to have a broader range of antimicrobial activity against various bacteria.

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  • 31. 

    margination

    • Process in which leukocytes relocate from their normal central location in the bloodstream to th eperiphery along the endothelium wall

    • Cascade that leads to trhombin formation, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin, leading to clot formation

    • Leads to the production of a peptidethat causes vascular dilation and increases permeability

    • Conversion of plasminogen into plasmin for degradation of fibrin clots and activation of the complement cascade

    • Produces proteins that mediates inflamation causing vasodilation, increasing vascular permeability , promoting chemotaxis and phagocytosis and initiatiing hystamine release

    Correct Answer
    A. Process in which leukocytes relocate from their normal central location in the bloodstream to th eperiphery along the endothelium wall
  • 32. 

    Pintpoint hemorrages (<0.3cm)

    • Acute inflamation of a tissue

    • Varicose veins

    • Petechiae

    • Cpurpuras

    • Echymoses

    Correct Answer
    A. Petechiae
    Explanation
    Petechiae are small, pinpoint-sized hemorrhages that occur due to bleeding under the skin. They are typically less than 0.3cm in size. The other options listed, such as acute inflammation of a tissue, varicose veins, purpuras, and ecchymoses, do not specifically refer to small, pinpoint-sized hemorrhages. Therefore, the correct answer is petechiae.

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  • 33. 

    Atrial natriuretic peptide

    • Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

    • Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II

    • Directly stimulates release of sodium and water

    • Directly stimulates retention of sodium and water

    Correct Answer
    A. Directly stimulates release of sodium and water
    Explanation
    Atrial natriuretic peptide directly stimulates the release of sodium and water. This hormone is released by the atria of the heart in response to increased blood volume and pressure. Its main function is to promote diuresis and natriuresis, which means it increases the excretion of sodium and water by the kidneys. By doing so, it helps to decrease blood volume and pressure, counteracting the effects of angiotensin II, which promotes sodium and water retention.

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  • 34. 

    Edema is caused by which of the following changes?

    • Decreased osmotic pressure in plasma

    • Decreased hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries

    • Decreased vascular permeability caused by inflamation

    • Increased excretion of sodium

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased osmotic pressure in plasma
    Explanation
    Edema is caused by an accumulation of fluid in the tissues, which can occur when there is a disruption in the balance of forces that regulate fluid movement. Decreased osmotic pressure in plasma can lead to edema because it reduces the ability of the blood vessels to retain fluid within them. Osmotic pressure helps to keep fluid inside the blood vessels by attracting water molecules. When osmotic pressure decreases, there is less force to keep fluid in the vessels, leading to its leakage into the surrounding tissues and causing edema.

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  • 35. 

    Thrombus formation in the venous side of the circulatory system is most commonly attributable to

    • Vessel endothelium injury

    • Increased blood flow

    • Decreased blood flow

    • Disseminated intravascular coagulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased blood flow
    Explanation
    Thrombus formation in the venous side of the circulatory system is most commonly attributable to decreased blood flow. When blood flow slows down or becomes stagnant, it increases the risk of clot formation. This can occur due to various reasons such as immobility, compression of veins, or obstruction in the blood vessels. When blood flow decreases, the blood has more time to clot, leading to the formation of a thrombus.

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  • 36. 

    Which disease is not carried by  ticks

    • Q fever

    • Yellow fever

    • Rocky mountain spotted fever

    • Lyme disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Yellow fever
    Explanation
    yellow fever is a mosquito

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  • 37. 

    Which disease is not carried by mosquitos

    • West Nile virus

    • Yellow fever

    • Malaria

    • Lyme disease

    • DEgue fever

    Correct Answer
    A. Lyme disease
    Explanation
    lyme disease is a tick

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  • 38. 

    Which oif the following cell lines is most important relative to specific defense againts bacteria

    • Natural killer cells

    • B-lymphocytes

    • Helper T-lymphocyte

    • Cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. B-lymphocytes
    Explanation
    B-lymphocytes are the most important cell line relative to specific defense against bacteria. B-lymphocytes are responsible for producing antibodies, which are proteins that can recognize and bind to specific bacteria, marking them for destruction by other immune cells. This process, known as humoral immunity, plays a crucial role in neutralizing bacterial infections. Natural killer cells, Helper T-lymphocytes, and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes are important in the immune response, but they are primarily involved in defense against viruses and cancer cells rather than bacteria.

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  • 39. 

    All of the following diseases involve vectors except

    • Measles

    • Roky mountain spotted fever

    • Malaria

    • Yellow feaver

    Correct Answer
    A. Measles
    Explanation
    Measles is not a vector-borne disease, meaning it is not transmitted by vectors such as mosquitoes or ticks. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that spreads from person to person through respiratory droplets. On the other hand, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, malaria, and yellow fever are all vector-borne diseases, meaning they are transmitted to humans through the bites of infected vectors.

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  • 40. 

    Order the following eventsonce a naive lymphocyte enters the secondary lymphoid tissue : I recognition of a specific antigen presented by an MHC in an APC (macrophage) II  the engagement of the complex MCH-antigen-antigen receptor causes a cascade of events involving production of cytokines and chemokines III the lymphocytes begin to activeate an differentiate and proliferate by clona selection IVantigen-MCH complex binds the T-cell receptor on T-lymphocytes or B-cell recptor on B-lymphocytes

    • I , II , III and IV

    • I, IV, II and III

    • IV, III, I and II

    • II, I, IV and III

    Correct Answer
    A. I, IV, II and III
    Explanation
    The correct answer is I, IV, II and III. This order represents the sequential events that occur once a naive lymphocyte enters the secondary lymphoid tissue. First, the lymphocyte recognizes a specific antigen presented by an MHC in an APC. Then, the antigen-MHC complex binds to the T-cell receptor on T-lymphocytes or B-cell receptor on B-lymphocytes. This engagement triggers a cascade of events involving the production of cytokines and chemokines. Finally, the lymphocytes begin to activate, differentiate, and proliferate through clonal selection.

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  • 41. 
    select the test that the image corresponds - ProProfs

    select the test that the image corresponds

    • Complement fixation test

    • Hemaglutination test

    • Precipitin test

    • ELISA

    Correct Answer
    A. Complement fixation test
    Explanation
    The complement fixation test is a diagnostic test used to detect the presence of specific antibodies in a patient's blood. It involves mixing the patient's serum with a known antigen and then adding complement proteins. If the patient has antibodies against the antigen, they will bind to it and activate the complement proteins, leading to a visible reaction. In this case, the image likely shows the reaction occurring in the complement fixation test, making it the correct answer.

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  • 42. 

    Type I hypersensitivity

    • Atopy (allergic rinhitis or hay fever, food allegy, eczema)

    • Asthma

    • Anaphylaxis

    • Transfusion related reactions

    • Newborn hemolytic disease

    • Autoimnune diseases

    • Goodpasture's syndrome

    • Myastemia gravis

    • Serum sickness

    • Arthus reaction

    • Systemic lupus erythematosus

    • Contact dermatitis

    • Tuberculin reaction

    • Granulomatous reaction

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Atopy (allergic rinhitis or hay fever, food allegy, eczema)
    A. Asthma
    A. Anaphylaxis
    Explanation
    The answer includes a list of conditions that are associated with type I hypersensitivity reactions. Atopy, which includes allergic rhinitis or hay fever, food allergy, and eczema, is a common manifestation of type I hypersensitivity. Asthma, anaphylaxis, and other conditions listed are also known to be caused by type I hypersensitivity reactions.

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  • 43. 

    Type IV hypersensitivity

    • Atopy (allergic rinhitis or hay fever, food allegy, eczema)

    • Asthma

    • Anaphylaxis

    • Transfusion related reactions

    • Newborn hemolytic disease

    • Autoimnune diseases

    • Goodpasture's syndrome

    • Myastemia gravis

    • Serum sickness

    • Arthus reaction

    • Systemic lupus erythematosus

    • Contact dermatitis

    • Tuberculin reaction

    • Granulomatous reaction

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Contact dermatitis
    A. Tuberculin reaction
    A. Granulomatous reaction
    Explanation
    The answer includes contact dermatitis, tuberculin reaction, and granulomatous reaction. These conditions are all examples of type IV hypersensitivity reactions. In type IV hypersensitivity, the immune response is mediated by T cells rather than antibodies. Contact dermatitis occurs when the skin comes into contact with an allergen or irritant, leading to an inflammatory reaction. Tuberculin reaction is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the tuberculin antigen, seen in individuals with tuberculosis infection. Granulomatous reaction is a type of immune response characterized by the formation of granulomas, which are collections of immune cells, typically seen in chronic infections or autoimmune diseases.

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  • 44. 

    Good's pasture syndrome

    • Caused by antibodies to the basement of the membrane of the kidney

    • Caused by antibodies to acetylcholine receptors at nerve-muscle junctions

    • Injection of foreign antigen leading to fromation and deposition of immune complexes in blood vesseld

    • Subcutaneous immune complex formation ocurring at a local site and around the walls of small blood cells

    • Caused by antibodies to DNA, histones and antigens ofthe nucleuos

    • Stimulation from a foreign body or particulate such as talc or silica resulting in granuloma, which is a mass of lymphocytes and macrophages surrounding an allergen too large to be phagocytized

    Correct Answer
    A. Caused by antibodies to the basement of the membrane of the kidney
    Explanation
    Goodpasture's syndrome is an autoimmune disease that affects the kidneys and lungs. It is caused by the production of antibodies against the basement membrane of the kidney. These antibodies attack and damage the kidneys, leading to the characteristic symptoms of the syndrome. This autoimmune response is specific to the basement membrane of the kidney and is not related to antibodies against acetylcholine receptors, immune complexes, DNA, histones, antigens, or foreign bodies.

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  • 45. 

    Systemic-lupus erythematosus

    • Caused by antibodies to the basement of the membrane of the kidney

    • Caused by antibodies to acetylcholine receptors at nerve-muscle junctions

    • Injection of foreign antigen leading to fromation and deposition of immune complexes in blood vesseld

    • Subcutaneous immune complex formation ocurring at a local site and around the walls of small blood cells

    • Caused by antibodies to DNA, histones and antigens ofthe nucleuos

    • Stimulation from a foreign body or particulate such as talc or silica resulting in granuloma, which is a mass of lymphocytes and macrophages surrounding an allergen too large to be phagocytized

    Correct Answer
    A. Caused by antibodies to DNA, histones and antigens ofthe nucleuos
    Explanation
    Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by antibodies targeting DNA, histones, and antigens of the nucleuos. These antibodies can form immune complexes that deposit in various tissues and organs, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. This autoimmune disease can affect multiple systems in the body, including the skin, joints, kidneys, and central nervous system. The presence of these antibodies is a key diagnostic feature of systemic lupus erythematosus.

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  • 46. 

    In transplant when donor and recipient are the same person

    • Autograft

    • Isograft

    • Allograft

    • Xenograft

    Correct Answer
    A. Autograft
    Explanation
    Autograft refers to a type of transplant where the donor and recipient are the same person. In this procedure, healthy tissue or organs are taken from one part of the body and transplanted to another part of the same individual. This is often done to replace or repair damaged or diseased tissue. Autografts are considered the ideal type of transplant as they eliminate the risk of rejection because the tissue is genetically identical to the recipient.

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  • 47. 

    In transplant when donor and recipient aregenetically identical

    • Autograft

    • Isograft

    • Allograft

    • Xenograft

    Correct Answer
    A. Isograft
    Explanation
    In transplantation, when the donor and recipient are genetically identical, it is known as an isograft. This means that the donor and recipient have the same genetic makeup, usually because they are identical twins. Because they share the same genetic information, the recipient's immune system does not recognize the transplanted tissue as foreign and is less likely to reject it. Isografts have a higher success rate compared to other types of grafts because of this genetic similarity between the donor and recipient.

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  • 48. 
    - ProProfs

    • Phenylbutazone

    • Ketoconazol

    • Amphotericin B

    • Natamycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Phenylbutazone
  • 49. 

    B-lymphocyte activation sequence of events: I antigen binding to BCR II internalization of antigen-BCR complex III degradation of antigen-BCR complex and combination with MCH II molecules IV activation of co-receptors Ig alpha nd Ig beta V cascade of phosphorylation events leading to activation of transcription factors and expression of citoynes

    • I , II , III IV and V

    • III , I, II, IV and V

    • I, III, II, IV and V

    • I ,V, IV III and II

    Correct Answer
    A. I , II , III IV and V
    Explanation
    The correct answer is I, II, III, IV, and V. This sequence of events outlines the steps involved in B-lymphocyte activation. First, the antigen binds to the B-cell receptor (BCR). Then, the antigen-BCR complex is internalized. Next, the complex is degraded and combines with MHC II molecules. Co-receptors Ig alpha and Ig beta are activated, followed by a cascade of phosphorylation events. These events ultimately lead to the activation of transcription factors and the expression of cytokines.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 6, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Jun 06, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 11, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Sugrabell
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