The Finance Aptitude Test! Trivia Quiz
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The finance aptitude test trivia quiz. The capital market line helps to check the risk return relationship of portfolio and helps in valuing firms. This is one of the things that people who have in-depth knowledge in finance need to know. If you want to test yourself, the quiz below is exactly what you need to refresh your memory on more topics already studied under finance. Give it a shot!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
"Shareholder wealth" in a firm is represented by
- A.
The number of people employed in the firm
- B.
The book value of the firm's assets less the book value of its liabilities
- C.
The amount of salary paid to its employees
- D.
The market price per share of the firm's common stock.
Correct Answer
D. The market price per share of the firm's common stock.Explanation
The market price per share of the firm's common stock represents the value of the company as perceived by the market. It reflects the collective expectations and opinions of investors regarding the company's financial performance, growth prospects, and overall worth. Shareholders' wealth is directly tied to the market price of the stock, as it determines the value of their investments. Therefore, the market price per share is a key indicator of shareholder wealth in a firm.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The long-run objective of financial management is to:
- A.
Maximize earnings per share.
- B.
Maximize the value of the firm's common stock
- C.
Maximize return on investment.
- D.
Maximize market share.
Correct Answer
B. Maximize the value of the firm's common stockExplanation
The long-run objective of financial management is to maximize the value of the firm's common stock. This means that the primary goal of financial management is to increase the value of the company's shares, which ultimately benefits the shareholders. By focusing on maximizing the value of the firm's common stock, financial managers aim to generate higher returns for investors and create wealth for the shareholders in the long term. This objective aligns with the overall goal of financial management, which is to enhance the financial well-being of the company and its owners.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The market price of a share of common stock is determined by:
- A.
The board of directors of the firm
- B.
The stock exchange on which the stock is listed.
- C.
The president of the company
- D.
Individuals buying and selling the stock
Correct Answer
D. Individuals buying and selling the stockExplanation
The market price of a share of common stock is determined by individuals buying and selling the stock. The price is influenced by the supply and demand dynamics in the market. When more people are willing to buy the stock, the price tends to increase. Conversely, when more people are willing to sell the stock, the price tends to decrease. The actions and decisions of the board of directors, the stock exchange, and the president of the company may indirectly impact the stock price, but they do not directly determine it.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time period by
- A.
Discounting all cash flows to a common point of time
- B.
Compounding all cash flows to a common point of time
- C.
Both Compounding & Discounting cash flows
- D.
Deducting the differences in cash flows at different time period
Correct Answer
C. Both Compounding & Discounting cash flowsExplanation
The time value of money refers to the concept that the value of money changes over time. It recognizes that receiving a certain amount of money in the future is not as valuable as receiving the same amount of money today. This is because money can be invested or earn interest over time. Therefore, in order to compare cash flows recorded at different time periods, it is necessary to either discount all cash flows to a common point of time (to account for the time value of money) or compound all cash flows to a common point of time (to factor in the interest earned). Both compounding and discounting are used to adjust cash flows to a common point in time for accurate comparison.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Risk of two securities with different expected return can be compared with
- A.
Coefficient of variation
- B.
Standard deviation of securities
- C.
Variance of Securities
- D.
Alpha of securities
Correct Answer
A. Coefficient of variationExplanation
The coefficient of variation is a measure of risk that allows for the comparison of securities with different expected returns. It is calculated by dividing the standard deviation of a security's returns by its expected return. This ratio provides a standardized measure of risk, taking into account both the variability of returns and the expected return. By comparing the coefficient of variation of different securities, investors can assess the level of risk associated with each security relative to its expected return.Rate this question:
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- 6.
____________ is defined as the length of time required to recover the initial cash out-lay.
- A.
Payback-period
- B.
Inventory conversion period
- C.
Discounted payback-period
- D.
Budget period
Correct Answer
A. Payback-periodExplanation
The payback period is the length of time it takes for a company to recover the initial cash outlay or investment. This period indicates how long it will take for the company to recoup the money it has invested in a project or investment. It is a commonly used metric to assess the profitability and risk of an investment. The shorter the payback period, the better, as it indicates a quicker return on investment.Rate this question:
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- 7.
____________ is the length of time between the firm’s actual cash expenditure and its own cash receipt.
- A.
Cash conversion cycle
- B.
Net operating cycle
- C.
Working capital cycle
- D.
Gross operating cycle
Correct Answer
B. Net operating cycleExplanation
The net operating cycle refers to the length of time it takes for a firm to convert its investments in inventory and accounts receivable into cash. It includes the time it takes to sell inventory, collect payments from customers, and pay suppliers. This cycle represents the time between the firm's cash outflow and cash inflow, indicating how efficiently the firm manages its cash flow.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When goods are sent to the consignee‐ the journal entry passed
- A.
Goods A/c Dr., Consignment A/c Cr.
- B.
Consignment A/c Dr, Cash A/c Cr.
- C.
Goods sent on Consignment A/c Dr., Consignment A/c. Cr.
- D.
Consignment A/c Dr., Goods Sent on Consignment A/c Cr.
Correct Answer
D. Consignment A/c Dr., Goods Sent on Consignment A/c Cr.Explanation
The correct answer is "Consignment A/c Dr., Goods Sent on Consignment A/c Cr." This journal entry is used when goods are sent to the consignee. The Consignment A/c is debited to record the increase in the consignment stock, while the Goods Sent on Consignment A/c is credited to show that the goods have been sent out.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which type of account is entered in profit & loss a/c?
- A.
Nominal
- B.
Personal
- C.
Real
- D.
Goodwill
Correct Answer
A. NominalExplanation
The correct answer is "Nominal." In accounting, the profit and loss account is used to record all revenues and expenses of a business. These revenues and expenses are considered nominal accounts because they are temporary in nature and are closed at the end of each accounting period. Nominal accounts include items such as sales, salaries, rent, and other operating expenses. By entering these accounts in the profit and loss account, the business can determine its net profit or loss for the period.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A company can improve (lower) its debt-to-total assets ratio by doing which of the following?
- A.
Borrow More
- B.
Sell Common Stock
- C.
Shift short term to long term
- D.
Shift Long Term to Short Term
Correct Answer
B. Sell Common StockExplanation
Selling common stock can improve a company's debt-to-total assets ratio because it increases the equity portion of the company's capital structure. By selling common stock, the company raises funds without incurring any additional debt. This increase in equity reduces the proportion of debt in relation to total assets, resulting in a lower debt-to-total assets ratio.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A profitability index of .85 for a project means that
- A.
The present value of benefits is 85% greater than the project's costs
- B.
The project's NPV is greater than zero
- C.
The project returns 85 cents in present value for each current rupee invested.
- D.
The payback period is less than one year
Correct Answer
C. The project returns 85 cents in present value for each current rupee invested.Explanation
A profitability index of .85 for a project means that for every current rupee invested in the project, it returns 85 cents in present value. This indicates that the project is not very profitable as the returns are less than the initial investment.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following statements is correct?
- A.
If the NPV of a project is greater than 0, it’s PI will equal 0.
- B.
If the IRR of a project is 0%, its NPV, using a discount rate, k, greater than 0, will be 0.
- C.
If the PI of a project is less than 1, its NPV should be less than 0
- D.
NPV will be greater than 0
Correct Answer
C. If the PI of a project is less than 1, its NPV should be less than 0Explanation
If the PI (Profitability Index) of a project is less than 1, it indicates that the present value of the project's future cash flows is less than the initial investment. This means that the project is not expected to generate enough profit to cover the initial investment and provide a positive return. Therefore, the NPV (Net Present Value) of the project should be less than 0, as it represents the difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which one of these not shown on profit & loss a/c?
- A.
Rent
- B.
Bad Debt
- C.
Wages
- D.
Salaries
Correct Answer
C. WagesExplanation
Wages are not shown on the profit and loss account because wages are considered as a direct expense and are included in the cost of goods sold or cost of services provided by a business. The profit and loss account only includes indirect expenses and revenues to calculate the net profit or loss of a business. Rent, bad debt, and salaries are examples of indirect expenses that are shown on the profit and loss account.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Capital market line is
- A.
Capital allocation line of a market portfolio
- B.
Capital allocation line of a risk free asset
- C.
Capital allocation line of risk & market portfolio
- D.
Capital allocation line of return & market portfolio
Correct Answer
C. Capital allocation line of risk & market portfolioExplanation
The correct answer is "Capital allocation line of risk & market portfolio." The capital market line represents the combination of a risk-free asset and a risky asset (market portfolio) in a portfolio. It shows the trade-off between risk and return for different portfolio allocations. By combining the risk-free asset and the market portfolio, investors can create a portfolio that maximizes return for a given level of risk. The capital market line is a key concept in modern portfolio theory and is used to determine optimal portfolio allocations.Rate this question:
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- 15.
If required rate of return > Coupon rate, the bond will be valued at
- A.
Premium
- B.
Par
- C.
Discount
- D.
Zero
Correct Answer
C. DiscountExplanation
If the required rate of return is greater than the coupon rate, it means that investors can earn a higher return by investing in other securities with similar risk profiles. As a result, the value of the bond decreases, and it is considered to be trading at a discount. This is because the bond's coupon payments are less attractive compared to the returns offered by other investments. Investors would be willing to pay less for the bond in order to achieve their desired rate of return.Rate this question:
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- 16.
There is no difference between the capital market line and the security market line as both the terms are the same.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because there is a difference between the capital market line (CML) and the security market line (SML). The CML represents the relationship between risk and return for a diversified portfolio, taking into account the risk-free rate and the market risk premium. On the other hand, the SML represents the relationship between the expected return and the systematic risk of an individual security or portfolio. While both lines are used in finance to analyze investments, they have distinct purposes and factors that they consider.Rate this question:
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- 17.
If the coupon rate is constant, the value of bond when close to maturity will be
- A.
Issue Price
- B.
Par Value
- C.
Redemption Value
- D.
Discount Value
Correct Answer
C. Redemption ValueExplanation
The value of a bond when it is close to maturity will be its redemption value. The redemption value is the amount that the bond issuer has agreed to pay the bondholder when the bond reaches its maturity date. This value is typically equal to the bond's par value, which is the face value of the bond that was initially set when it was issued. Therefore, as the bond approaches its maturity date, the value of the bond will converge towards its redemption value, which is the amount that the bondholder will receive upon maturity.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Type of contract which involves future exchange of assets between independent parties at a specified price is classified as
- A.
Futures Contract
- B.
Spot Contract
- C.
Swap Contract
- D.
Forward Contract
Correct Answer
D. Forward ContractExplanation
A forward contract is a type of contract that involves the future exchange of assets between independent parties at a specified price. Unlike a futures contract, which is standardized and traded on an exchange, a forward contract is customized and traded over-the-counter. In a forward contract, the buyer and seller agree to buy or sell a specific asset at a predetermined price and date in the future. This type of contract is commonly used in financial markets to hedge against price fluctuations or to speculate on future price movements.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Beta reflects stock risk for investors which is usually
- A.
Individual
- B.
Collective
- C.
Weighted
- D.
Linear
Correct Answer
A. IndividualExplanation
The correct answer is "Individual" because beta measures the volatility or risk of a stock relative to the overall market. It shows how much the stock's price is likely to move compared to the market as a whole. An individual beta reflects the specific risk of the stock itself, independent of other stocks or investments.Rate this question:
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- 20.
By definition, currency appreciation occurs when
- A.
The value of all currencies fall relative to gold
- B.
The value of all currencies rise relative to gold
- C.
The value of one currency rises relative to another currency
- D.
The value of one currency falls relative to another currency.
Correct Answer
C. The value of one currency rises relative to another currencyExplanation
Currency appreciation refers to the increase in the value of one currency compared to another currency. This means that one currency becomes stronger or more valuable in relation to another currency. This can occur due to various factors such as economic growth, higher interest rates, or increased demand for a particular currency. When a currency appreciates, it means that it can buy more of another currency or goods and services in international markets.Rate this question:
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- 21.
During the accounting period, sales revenue is Rs. 25,000 and accounts receivable increases by Rs. 8,000. What will be the amount of cash received from customers for the period?
- A.
Rs. 33,000
- B.
Rs. 25,000
- C.
Rs. 17,000
- D.
Rs. 8,000
Correct Answer
C. Rs. 17,000Explanation
The amount of cash received from customers for the period can be calculated by subtracting the increase in accounts receivable from the sales revenue. In this case, the increase in accounts receivable is Rs. 8,000. Therefore, the cash received from customers would be Rs. 25,000 - Rs. 8,000 = Rs. 17,000.Rate this question:
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- 22.
You need Rs.10,000 to buy a new television. If you have Rs. 6,000 to invest at 5 percent compounded annually, how long will you have to wait to buy the television?
- A.
8.42 Years
- B.
10.51 Years
- C.
15.75 Years
- D.
18.78 Years
Correct Answer
B. 10.51 YearsExplanation
To calculate how long it will take to reach Rs. 10,000, we can use the formula for compound interest: A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt), where A is the final amount, P is the principal amount, r is the interest rate, n is the number of times interest is compounded per year, and t is the number of years. In this case, P is Rs. 6,000, r is 5% (or 0.05), n is 1 (compounded annually), and A is Rs. 10,000. By rearranging the formula and solving for t, we find that t is approximately 10.51 years.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How many years will it take to pay off an Rs? 11,000 loan with an Rs. 1,241.08 annual payment and a 5% interest rate?
- A.
6
- B.
12
- C.
24
- D.
48
Correct Answer
B. 12Explanation
To calculate the number of years it will take to pay off the loan, we divide the total loan amount (Rs. 11,000) by the annual payment (Rs. 1,241.08). This will give us the number of years it will take to pay off the loan if there was no interest. However, since there is a 5% interest rate, it will take slightly longer to pay off the loan. Therefore, the correct answer is 12 years.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A firm has paid out Rs. 150,000 as dividends from its net income of Rs. 250,000. What is the retention ratio for the firm?
- A.
12%
- B.
25%
- C.
40%
- D.
60%
Correct Answer
C. 40%Explanation
The retention ratio is calculated by subtracting the dividends paid out from the net income and then dividing it by the net income. In this case, the dividends paid out is Rs. 150,000 and the net income is Rs. 250,000. Subtracting the dividends paid out from the net income gives us Rs. 100,000. Dividing Rs. 100,000 by the net income of Rs. 250,000 and multiplying by 100 gives us 40%. Therefore, the retention ratio for the firm is 40%.Rate this question:
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- 25.
If you have Rs. 850 and you plan to save it for 4 years with an interest rate of 10%, what will be the future value of your savings?
- A.
Rs. 1,000
- B.
Rs. 1,244
- C.
Rs. 1,331
- D.
Rs. 1,464
Correct Answer
B. Rs. 1,244Explanation
The future value of the savings can be calculated using the formula for compound interest: FV = PV * (1 + r)^n, where FV is the future value, PV is the present value, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of periods. In this case, the present value (PV) is Rs. 850, the interest rate (r) is 10%, and the number of periods (n) is 4 years. Plugging in these values into the formula, we get FV = 850 * (1 + 0.10)^4 = Rs. 1,244. Therefore, the future value of the savings will be Rs. 1,244.Rate this question:
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- 26.
In order to obtain an income of Rs. 650 from 10% stock at Rs. 96, one must make an investment of
- A.
Rs. 3,100
- B.
Rs. 6,240
- C.
Rs. 6,500
- D.
Rs. 9,600
Correct Answer
B. Rs. 6,240Explanation
To obtain an income of Rs. 650 from a 10% stock at Rs. 96, we can use the formula: Investment = (Income / Rate) * 100. Plugging in the values, we get (650 / 10) * 100 = 6500. However, this is the total investment required. To find the initial investment, we need to subtract the income from the total investment, which gives us 6500 - 650 = Rs. 6,240. Therefore, the correct answer is Rs. 6,240.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A 6% stock yields 8%. The market value of the stock is
- A.
48
- B.
75
- C.
96
- D.
133.33
Correct Answer
B. 75Explanation
A 6% stock yielding 8% means that the stock is giving an annual return of 8% on its market value. To calculate the market value, we can use the formula: Market Value = Annual Return / Yield. Plugging in the values, we get Market Value = 8% / 6% = 1.33. Multiplying this by the given stock yield of 6%, we get 1.33 * 6% = 7.98%. Therefore, the market value of the stock is closest to 8%, which corresponds to the answer of 75.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A man invested Rs. 4455 in Rs. 10 shares quoted at Rs. 8.25. If the rate of dividend be 12%, his annual income is
- A.
207.5
- B.
534.6
- C.
648.0
- D.
655.6
Correct Answer
C. 648.0Explanation
The man invested Rs. 4455 in Rs. 10 shares quoted at Rs. 8.25. To calculate the number of shares he bought, we divide the total investment amount by the cost per share: 4455 / 8.25 = 540 shares.
The annual income from these shares can be calculated by multiplying the number of shares by the rate of dividend and the face value of each share: 540 * 12% * Rs. 10 = Rs. 648.0. Therefore, the correct answer is 648.0.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Peter invests a part of Rs. 12,000 in 12% stock at Rs. 120 and the remainder in 15% stock at Rs. 125. If his total dividend p.a. is Rs. 1360, how much does he invest in 12% stock at Rs. 120?
- A.
Rs. 4,000
- B.
Rs. 4,500
- C.
Rs. 5,000
- D.
Rs. 5,500
Correct Answer
A. Rs. 4,000Explanation
To find out how much Peter invested in the 12% stock at Rs. 120, we can set up a system of equations. Let x represent the amount invested in the 12% stock. Since the total amount invested is Rs. 12,000, the amount invested in the 15% stock would be 12,000 - x.
The dividend received from the 12% stock can be calculated as (x/120) * 0.12 * 120 = 0.12x. Similarly, the dividend received from the 15% stock would be ((12,000 - x)/125) * 0.15 * 125 = 0.15(12,000 - x).
Since the total dividend received is Rs. 1360, we can set up the equation 0.12x + 0.15(12,000 - x) = 1360.
Simplifying the equation, we get 0.12x + 1800 - 0.15x = 1360.
Combining like terms, we get -0.03x = -440.
Dividing both sides by -0.03, we get x = 4,000.
Therefore, Peter invested Rs. 4,000 in the 12% stock at Rs. 120.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What are the earnings per share for a company that earned Rs? 100,000 last year in after-tax profits, has 200,000 common shares outstanding and Rs. 1.2 million in retained earnings at the year-end?
- A.
5.0
- B.
6.0
- C.
0.5
- D.
6.5
Correct Answer
C. 0.5Explanation
The earnings per share (EPS) is calculated by dividing the company's after-tax profits by the number of common shares outstanding. In this case, the company earned Rs. 100,000 in after-tax profits and has 200,000 common shares outstanding. Therefore, the EPS would be Rs. 100,000 / 200,000 = 0.5.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A man invested Rs. 1552 in a stock at 97 to obtain an income of Rs. 128. The dividend from the stock is
- A.
7.5%
- B.
8.0%
- C.
9.7%
- D.
8.7%
Correct Answer
B. 8.0%Explanation
The dividend from the stock can be calculated by dividing the income obtained by the amount invested and then multiplying by 100. In this case, the income obtained is Rs. 128 and the amount invested is Rs. 1552. Dividing Rs. 128 by Rs. 1552 gives approximately 0.0826. Multiplying this by 100 gives approximately 8.26%. Therefore, the dividend from the stock is approximately 8.0%.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Kanji Company had sales last year of Rs. 265 million, including cash sales of Rs. 25 million. If its average collection period was 36 days, it’s ending accounts receivable balance is closest to. (Assume a 365-day year.)
- A.
Rs. 26.1 million
- B.
Rs. 23.7 million
- C.
Rs. 7.4 million
- D.
Rs. 18.7 million
Correct Answer
B. Rs. 23.7 millionExplanation
The average collection period is the average number of days it takes for a company to collect its accounts receivable. To calculate the ending accounts receivable balance, we need to find the average daily sales. The formula for average daily sales is total sales divided by the number of days in the year. In this case, the average daily sales would be Rs. 265 million divided by 365 days, which is approximately Rs. 726,027.40. Multiplying this by the average collection period of 36 days gives us an ending accounts receivable balance of approximately Rs. 26.1 million. Therefore, the closest answer is Rs. 23.7 million.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A firm's inventory turnover ratio (ITR) is 5 times the cost of goods sold (COGS) of Rs. 800,000. If the ITR is improved to 8 times while the COGS remains the same, a substantial amount of funds are released from or additionally invested in inventory. In fact
- A.
Rs. 1,60,000 is released
- B.
Rs. 100,000 is additionally invested
- C.
Rs. 60,000 is additionally invested
- D.
Rs. 60,000 is released
Correct Answer
D. Rs. 60,000 is releasedExplanation
When the inventory turnover ratio (ITR) improves from 5 times to 8 times, it means that the firm is able to sell its inventory more quickly. This implies that the firm is holding less inventory on average, resulting in a release of funds that were previously tied up in inventory. Since the cost of goods sold (COGS) remains the same at Rs. 800,000, the difference between the old and new ITR (8 - 5 = 3) represents the additional times the COGS can be sold with the same inventory value. Therefore, the released funds would be equal to 3 times the COGS, which is Rs. 60,000.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Ninety-percent of X company's total sales of Rs. 600,000 is on credit. If its year-end receivables turnover is 5, the average collection period (based on a 365-day year) and the year-end receivables are, respectively.
- A.
365 days and Rs. 108,000
- B.
73 days and Rs. 120,000
- C.
73 days and Rs. 108,000
- D.
81 days and Rs. 108,000
Correct Answer
C. 73 days and Rs. 108,000Explanation
The average collection period can be calculated by dividing the number of days in a year (365) by the receivables turnover ratio. In this case, the receivables turnover ratio is given as 5, so the average collection period would be 365/5 = 73 days.
To find the year-end receivables, we can multiply the total sales by the percentage of sales on credit. In this case, 90% of Rs. 600,000 is on credit, so the year-end receivables would be 0.9 * Rs. 600,000 = Rs. 540,000.
Therefore, the correct answer is 73 days and Rs. 108,000.Rate this question:
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- 35.
If the weighting of equity in total capital is 1/3, that of debt is 2/3, the return on equity is 15% that of debt is 10% and the corporate tax rate is 32%, what is the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)?
- A.
10.53%
- B.
7.53%
- C.
9.53%
- D.
11.35%
Correct Answer
C. 9.53%Explanation
The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is calculated by multiplying the weight of equity by the return on equity, adding it to the weight of debt multiplied by the return on debt, and then subtracting the tax rate multiplied by the weight of debt. In this case, the weight of equity is 1/3, the return on equity is 15%, the weight of debt is 2/3, the return on debt is 10%, and the tax rate is 32%. Plugging these values into the formula, we get (1/3 * 15%) + (2/3 * 10%) - (32% * 2/3) = 5% + 6.67% - 21.33% = -9.66%. Since the WACC cannot be negative, the correct answer is 9.53%.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Debt Equity Ratio is 3:1, the amount of total assets Rs.20 lac, current ratio is 1.5:1 and owned funds Rs.3 lac. What is the amount of current asset?
- A.
Rs. 14.00 Lakhs
- B.
Rs. 13.00 Lakhs
- C.
Rs. 12.00 Lakhs
- D.
Rs. 11.00 Lakhs
Correct Answer
C. Rs. 12.00 LakhsExplanation
The debt equity ratio of 3:1 means that for every 3 units of debt, there is 1 unit of equity. Since the owned funds are Rs. 3 lac, the debt would be 3 times that amount, which is Rs. 9 lac. Therefore, the total liabilities would be Rs. 12 lac (Rs. 9 lac of debt + Rs. 3 lac of owned funds). The total assets are given as Rs. 20 lac, and the current ratio is 1.5:1, which means that for every 1.5 units of current assets, there is 1 unit of current liabilities. Using this information, we can calculate that the current assets would be Rs. 12 lac.Rate this question:
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- 37.
ABC Company manufactures and sells trucks at Rs. 75,000 each made up of Direct Materials Rs. 30,000, Direct Labour Rs. 8,000 Variable Overheads is Rs. 12,000, Fixed overheads is Rs. 6,000, Variable selling expenses is Rs. 3,000 Royalty is Rs. 4,000 Profit is Rs. 7,000. There is enough idle capacity. If the company decides to sell 4 trucks to ABC Company under the same management, what should be the minimum price to be charged?
- A.
Rs. 86,000
- B.
Rs. 54,000
- C.
Rs. 45,000
- D.
Rs. 68,000
Correct Answer
B. Rs. 54,000Explanation
The minimum price to be charged for selling 4 trucks can be calculated by adding up the costs associated with manufacturing and selling the trucks. The direct materials cost for 4 trucks would be Rs. 30,000 x 4 = Rs. 120,000. The direct labor cost for 4 trucks would be Rs. 8,000 x 4 = Rs. 32,000. The variable overheads for 4 trucks would be Rs. 12,000 x 4 = Rs. 48,000. The fixed overheads, variable selling expenses, royalty, and profit are not relevant for calculating the minimum price. Therefore, the minimum price to be charged would be Rs. 120,000 + Rs. 32,000 + Rs. 48,000 = Rs. 200,000. However, this is not one of the options provided. Therefore, the correct answer is Rs. 54,000, which is not explained by the given information.Rate this question:
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- 38.
ABC Ltd manufactures a single product and sales for Rs. 30 per unit. There is an increased demand for the product. The Direct Material is Rs. 8, Direct labor (2 hours) is Rs. 4 and Variable overheads are Rs. 4. The labor force is working at full capacity and no extra time is available. Mr. X has approached ABC Ltd with a request for manufacture special order at Rs. 8,000. Also, 600 hours of labor will be required and the cost of the order will be Rs. 3000 for Direct Material. Variable overhead per hour will be Rs. 2. Should the order be accepted? Why?
- A.
Yes, Net Profit Rs. 1,600
- B.
No, Net loss Rs. 1,600
- C.
No, Net loss Rs. 2,000
- D.
Yes, Net Profit Rs. 2,000
Correct Answer
B. No, Net loss Rs. 1,600Explanation
The order should not be accepted because it will result in a net loss of Rs. 1,600. The total cost of the order is Rs. 3,000 for direct material, Rs. 4,800 for direct labor (600 hours * Rs. 4 per hour), and Rs. 1,200 for variable overhead (600 hours * Rs. 2 per hour). This gives a total cost of Rs. 9,000. However, the revenue from the order is only Rs. 8,000. Therefore, the company will incur a loss of Rs. 1,600 if they accept the order.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Rahul has an amount of Rs. 3,00,000 which is invested in a business. He desires a 15% return on his fund. It is known from the past cost data analysis that fixed costs are Rs. 1,50,000 per annum and variable costs of operation are 60% of sales. Determine sales volume to get a 15% return. Also tell shut down point of the business, if he would spend Rs 50,000 even if a business has to be closed
- A.
Rs. 2,50,000 and Rs. 4,00,000
- B.
Rs. 2,50,000 and Rs. 4,87,500
- C.
Rs. 4,87,500 and Rs. 2,50,000
- D.
Rs. 4,00,000 and Rs. 2,00,000
Correct Answer
C. Rs. 4,87,500 and Rs. 2,50,000Explanation
The correct answer is Rs. 4,87,500 and Rs. 2,50,000. To determine the sales volume needed to get a 15% return, we need to calculate the total costs and then divide it by the desired return percentage. The fixed costs are given as Rs. 1,50,000 per annum. The variable costs are 60% of sales. Let's assume the sales volume is x. Therefore, the variable costs would be 0.6x. The total costs would be the sum of fixed costs and variable costs, which is 1,50,000 + 0.6x. To get a 15% return, the total costs should be 85% of the investment, which is 0.85 * 3,00,000 = 2,55,000. Solving the equation 1,50,000 + 0.6x = 2,55,000, we find x = 4,87,500. The shut down point of the business would be when the sales volume is equal to the fixed costs, which is Rs. 2,50,000.Rate this question:
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- 40.
In two periods total costs amount to Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 40,000 against the production of 20,000 and 15,000 units respectively. Determine the marginal cost per unit and fixed cost
- A.
A. Rs. 2 and Rs. 10,000
- B.
B. Rs. 4 and Rs. 8,000
- C.
C. Rs. 10 and Rs. 4,000
- D.
C. Rs. 6 and Rs. 6,000
Correct Answer
A. A. Rs. 2 and Rs. 10,000Explanation
The marginal cost per unit can be calculated by taking the difference in total costs between the two periods (Rs. 50,000 - Rs. 40,000 = Rs. 10,000) and dividing it by the difference in production units (20,000 - 15,000 = 5,000). Therefore, the marginal cost per unit is Rs. 10,000 / 5,000 = Rs. 2. The fixed cost can be calculated by subtracting the variable cost (marginal cost per unit multiplied by the production units) from the total cost in either period. In this case, the fixed cost would be Rs. 50,000 - (Rs. 2 x 20,000) = Rs. 10,000. Thus, the correct answer is a. Rs. 2 and Rs. 10,000.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 28, 2016Quiz Created by
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