Overview Of The Autonomic Nervous System Quiz

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Autonomic Nervous System Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The term general senses refers to sensitivity to all of the following, EXCEPT

    • A.

      Taste

    • B.

      Pain

    • C.

      Temperature

    • D.

      Touch

    • E.

      Vibration

    Correct Answer
    A. Taste
    Explanation
    General senses refer to the overall sensitivity of the body to various stimuli. This includes pain, temperature, touch, and vibration. However, taste is not considered a part of general senses as it is a specific sense related to the perception of flavors and the chemical composition of substances.

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  • 2. 

    The general senses

    • A.

      Are located in specialized structures called sense organs

    • B.

      Are localized to specific areas of the body

    • C.

      Cannot generate action potentials

    • D.

      Involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure

    • E.

      Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. Involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure." The general senses, such as touch, temperature, pain, and pressure, do not require complex receptors like those found in specialized senses such as vision or hearing. Instead, they rely on simple receptors that can detect basic stimuli and transmit signals to the brain. These receptors are located throughout the body and are not localized to specific areas. Therefore, the general senses involve relatively simple receptors in comparison to the specialized senses.

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  • 3. 

    A receptor that contains many mechanically gated ion channels would function best as a

    • A.

      Tactile receptor

    • B.

      Thermoreceptor

    • C.

      Nociceptor

    • D.

      Chemoreceptor

    • E.

      Light receptor

    Correct Answer
    A. Tactile receptor
    Explanation
    A receptor that contains many mechanically gated ion channels would function best as a tactile receptor. Tactile receptors are responsible for detecting mechanical stimuli such as touch, pressure, and vibration. Mechanically gated ion channels are sensitive to mechanical forces and open in response to them, allowing ions to flow in and generate electrical signals. Therefore, a receptor with many mechanically gated ion channels would be highly sensitive to mechanical stimuli and well-suited for detecting tactile sensations.

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  • 4. 

    Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called

    • A.

      Chemoreceptors

    • B.

      Thermoreceptors

    • C.

      Proprioceptors

    • D.

      Baroreceptors

    • E.

      Nociceptors

    Correct Answer
    C. Proprioceptors
    Explanation
    Proprioceptors are receptors that monitor the position of joints. They provide information about the body's position in space, allowing for coordination and control of movement. These receptors are responsible for proprioception, which is the sense of the relative position of body parts and the strength and effort being employed in movement. This information is crucial for maintaining balance, coordination, and posture. Therefore, proprioceptors are the correct category of receptors that monitor the position of joints.

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  • 5. 

    Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called

    • A.

      Nociceptors

    • B.

      Chemoreceptors

    • C.

      Thermoreceptors

    • D.

      Baroreceptors

    • E.

      Proprioceptors

    Correct Answer
    D. Baroreceptors
    Explanation
    Baroreceptors are mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure. They are located in the walls of blood vessels and the heart and are responsible for monitoring and regulating blood pressure. When blood pressure increases, baroreceptors send signals to the brain to decrease it, and vice versa. Nociceptors respond to pain, chemoreceptors respond to chemical changes, thermoreceptors respond to temperature changes, and proprioceptors respond to changes in body position and movement. Therefore, the correct answer is baroreceptors.

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  • 6. 

    Pain is to _________ as cold is to _________ .

    • A.

      Chemoreceptors; nociceptors

    • B.

      Nociceptors; thermoreceptors

    • C.

      Baroreceptors; thermoreceptors

    • D.

      Baroreceptors; chemoreceptors

    • E.

      Baroreceptors; nociceptors

    Correct Answer
    B. Nociceptors; thermoreceptors
    Explanation
    Pain and cold are both sensory experiences that are detected by specific receptors in the body. Pain is detected by nociceptors, which are specialized receptors that respond to harmful or potentially damaging stimuli. Similarly, cold is detected by thermoreceptors, which are receptors that respond to changes in temperature. Therefore, the relationship between pain and nociceptors is analogous to the relationship between cold and thermoreceptors.

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  • 7. 

    Peripheral adaptation __________ the number of action potentials that reach the CNS.

    • A.

      Neutralizes

    • B.

      Increases

    • C.

      Decreases

    • D.

      Stabilizes

    • E.

      Both A and C

    Correct Answer
    C. Decreases
    Explanation
    Peripheral adaptation refers to the process by which sensory receptors become less responsive to a constant stimulus over time. In the context of the question, this means that the number of action potentials that reach the central nervous system (CNS) decreases. This is because as the sensory receptors adapt to a constant stimulus, they become less sensitive and therefore generate fewer action potentials to transmit the sensory information to the CNS.

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  • 8. 

    The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest"

    • A.

      Sympathetic

    • B.

      Somatomotor

    • C.

      Visceral

    • D.

      Parasympathetic

    • E.

      Thoracolumbar

    Correct Answer
    D. Parasympathetic
    Explanation
    The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for promoting relaxation and digestion. It helps to conserve energy and restore the body to a calm state after periods of stress or activity. This division is involved in functions such as slowing heart rate, increasing digestion and salivation, constricting the pupils, and promoting urination.

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  • 9. 

    The statement "it initiates contraction of urinary bladder smooth muscle" is

    • A.

      True only for the sympathetic nervous system

    • B.

      True only for the somatic nervous system

    • C.

      Not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems

    • D.

      True for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems

    • E.

      True only for the parasympathetic nervous system

    Correct Answer
    E. True only for the parasympathetic nervous system
    Explanation
    The statement "it initiates contraction of urinary bladder smooth muscle" is true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the rest and digest response, which includes the contraction of the urinary bladder smooth muscle. The sympathetic nervous system, on the other hand, is responsible for the fight or flight response and does not initiate the contraction of the urinary bladder smooth muscle.

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  • 10. 

    Each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers, EXCEPT

    • A.

      Dilation of the pupils

    • B.

      Increased sweat secretion

    • C.

      Increased blood flow to skeletal muscles

    • D.

      Reduced circulation to the skin

    • E.

      Decreased heart rate

    Correct Answer
    E. Decreased heart rate
    Explanation
    The action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers generally leads to an increase in heart rate, as sympathetic stimulation is associated with the "fight or flight" response. However, the question asks for an effect that is NOT associated with the action of these fibers. Therefore, the correct answer is decreased heart rate, as this is typically associated with the action of parasympathetic fibers.

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  • 11. 

    Parasympathetic stimulation

    • A.

      Increases gastric motility

    • B.

      Causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate

    • C.

      Increases heart rate

    • D.

      Causes the pupils to dilate

    • E.

      Causes sweat glands to secrete

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases gastric motility
    Explanation
    Parasympathetic stimulation refers to the activation of the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the body's rest and digest response. This stimulation increases gastric motility, meaning it enhances the movement and contractions of the muscles in the stomach and intestines, aiding in digestion and the absorption of nutrients. This response is important for the proper functioning of the digestive system and the overall maintenance of gastrointestinal health.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is essential for memory consolidation?

    • A.

      Occipital lobe

    • B.

      Prefrontal lobe

    • C.

      Hippocampus

    • D.

      Insula

    • E.

      Basal nuclei

    Correct Answer
    C. Hippocampus
    Explanation
    The hippocampus is essential for memory consolidation. It is a region of the brain that plays a crucial role in the formation and storage of new memories. It helps in transferring information from short-term memory to long-term memory. Damage to the hippocampus can result in difficulties in forming new memories. Therefore, the hippocampus is necessary for the process of memory consolidation.

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  • 13. 

    Long-term memories that are with you for a lifetime are called

    • A.

      Reflexive memories

    • B.

      Consolidated memories

    • C.

      Multilobar memories

    • D.

      Tertiary memories

    • E.

      Secondary memories

    Correct Answer
    D. Tertiary memories
  • 14. 

    Changes in the central nervous system that accompany aging include

    • A.

      Decreased blood flow to the brain

    • B.

      Decrease in the number of neurons

    • C.

      Reduction in brain size and weight

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      B and C only

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    As individuals age, various changes occur in the central nervous system. These changes include decreased blood flow to the brain, a decrease in the number of neurons, and a reduction in brain size and weight. These alterations are all part of the natural aging process and can have an impact on cognitive function and overall brain health. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."

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  • 15. 

    The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as which of the following?

    • A.

      Craniosacral division

    • B.

      Somatic division

    • C.

      Resting division

    • D.

      Thoracolumbar division

    • E.

      Both B and D

    Correct Answer
    D. Thoracolumbar division
    Explanation
    The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as the thoracolumbar division because it originates from the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord. This division is responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response, increasing heart rate, dilating blood vessels, and releasing stress hormones. The other options, craniosacral division and somatic division, refer to different divisions of the ANS with different functions. The resting division is not a recognized term in the context of the ANS.

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  • 16. 

    Your uncle was just diagnosed with a heart attack.  one of his major symptoms is left arm pain.  You are not surprised because you are familiar with the phenomenon of

    • A.

      Psychogenic pain

    • B.

      Neurogenic pain

    • C.

      Phantom pain

    • D.

      Referred pain

    • E.

      Somatic pain

    Correct Answer
    D. Referred pain
    Explanation
    Referred pain is the phenomenon where pain is felt in an area of the body that is different from the actual source of the pain. In this case, the left arm pain experienced by the uncle is a common symptom of a heart attack. The pain is referred from the heart to the left arm due to the shared nerve pathways between the heart and the arm. This phenomenon is well-known and understood, which is why the person is not surprised by the left arm pain as a symptom of a heart attack.

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  • 17. 

    Muscles that guard entrances and exits of internal passageways are ______ muscles.

    • A.

      Bipennate

    • B.

      Circular

    • C.

      Parallel

    • D.

      Pennate

    • E.

      Convergent

    Correct Answer
    B. Circular
    Explanation
    Circular muscles are the muscles that surround and guard the entrances and exits of internal passageways. These muscles are arranged in a circular pattern, allowing them to contract and constrict the opening, thereby controlling the flow of substances through the passageway. They are commonly found in structures such as the digestive system, where they help regulate the movement of food through the digestive tract.

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  • 18. 

    The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum and the load.  These are called ________ levers.

    • A.

      Third-class

    • B.

      Fourth-class

    • C.

      Fifth-class

    • D.

      Second-class

    • E.

      First-class

    Correct Answer
    A. Third-class
    Explanation
    Third-class levers are the most common lever systems in the body where the applied force is located between the fulcrum and the load. In this type of lever, the force arm is shorter than the load arm, meaning that a smaller force can be applied to move a larger load. This type of lever is commonly found in our musculoskeletal system, such as when we use our biceps to flex our forearm.

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  • 19. 

    The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      The angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body

    • B.

      Collagen content of the muscle

    • C.

      Structural characteristics of the muscle

    • D.

      The action of the muscle

    • E.

      The location of the muscle

    Correct Answer
    B. Collagen content of the muscle
    Explanation
    The names of the muscles can indicate the angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body, structural characteristics of the muscle, the action of the muscle, and the location of the muscle. However, the names of the muscles do not indicate the collagen content of the muscle.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is NOT a muscle of the rotator cuff?

    • A.

      Supraspinatus

    • B.

      Infraspinatus

    • C.

      Subscapularis

    • D.

      Subclavius

    • E.

      Teres minor

    Correct Answer
    D. Subclavius
    Explanation
    The subclavius muscle is not a muscle of the rotator cuff. The rotator cuff is a group of muscles that help stabilize and move the shoulder joint. The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor muscles are all part of the rotator cuff and play a role in various movements of the shoulder. However, the subclavius muscle is located below the clavicle and is not directly involved in the actions of the rotator cuff.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

    • A.

      Skeletal muscles store nutrient reserves

    • B.

      Skeletal muscles are responsible for the pumping action of the heart

    • C.

      Skeletal muscles support the weight of some internal organs

    • D.

      Skeletal muscle contractions help maintain body temperature

    • E.

      The contractions of skeletal muscles pull on tendons and move bones of the skeleton

    Correct Answer
    B. Skeletal muscles are responsible for the pumping action of the heart
  • 22. 

    The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the

    • A.

      Tendon

    • B.

      Fascicle

    • C.

      Perimysium

    • D.

      Epimysium

    • E.

      Endomysium

    Correct Answer
    D. Epimysium
    Explanation
    The epimysium is the dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire skeletal muscle. It serves to protect and support the muscle, as well as provide a pathway for blood vessels and nerves to reach the muscle fibers. The epimysium also connects the muscle to the tendons, which in turn attach the muscle to the bones, allowing for movement and force generation.

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  • 23. 

    Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers

    • A.

      Have many nuclei

    • B.

      Lack mitochondria

    • C.

      Lack a plasma membrane

    • D.

      Are very small

    • E.

      Both B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Have many nuclei
    Explanation
    Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that they have many nuclei. This is because muscle fibers are formed by the fusion of multiple precursor cells called myoblasts, which each contribute their own nucleus to the mature muscle fiber. This multinucleated characteristic allows muscle fibers to efficiently coordinate and regulate muscle contraction.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following best describes the term sarcomere?

    • A.

      Thin filaments are anchored here

    • B.

      Protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle

    • C.

      Largely made of myosin molecules

    • D.

      Repeating unit of striated myofibrils

    • E.

      Storage site for calcium ions

    Correct Answer
    D. Repeating unit of striated myofibrils
    Explanation
    The term sarcomere refers to the repeating unit of striated myofibrils. This means that it is the basic structural unit of a muscle fiber, specifically in striated muscles. Sarcomeres are responsible for muscle contraction and are composed of thick and thin filaments, with the thin filaments being anchored in the sarcomere. The sarcomere is where the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction occurs, with the thick and thin filaments sliding past each other to generate force. Therefore, the best description of sarcomere is that it is the repeating unit of striated myofibrils.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum?

    • A.

      Storage and release site for calcium ions

    • B.

      Protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle

    • C.

      Largely made of myosin molecules

    • D.

      Repeating unit of striated myofibrils

    • E.

      Storage site for calcium ions

    Correct Answer
    A. Storage and release site for calcium ions
    Explanation
    The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialized type of endoplasmic reticulum found in muscle cells. It is responsible for storing and releasing calcium ions, which are crucial for muscle contraction. Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the muscle fibers during muscle contraction, and then reabsorbed back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum during relaxation. Therefore, the correct answer is "storage and release site for calcium ions."

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  • 26. 

    Cross-bridges are portions of 

    • A.

      Tropomyosin molecules

    • B.

      Actin molecules

    • C.

      Calcium ions

    • D.

      Myosin molecules

    • E.

      Troponin molecules

    Correct Answer
    D. Myosin molecules
    Explanation
    Cross-bridges are the structures formed by myosin molecules in muscle fibers. These myosin molecules have a unique shape that allows them to bind to actin molecules, forming cross-bridges. When calcium ions are released in the muscle cell, they bind to troponin molecules, causing a conformational change that exposes the binding sites on actin. The myosin heads then bind to these exposed sites, forming cross-bridges. The interaction between the myosin heads and actin filaments leads to muscle contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is myosin molecules.

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  • 27. 

    A muscle producing tension that peaks and falls at intermediate stimulus rates is said to be in

    • A.

      Wave summation

    • B.

      Complete tetanus

    • C.

      Recruitment

    • D.

      Incomplete tetanus

    • E.

      Treppe

    Correct Answer
    D. Incomplete tetanus
    Explanation
    Incomplete tetanus refers to a muscle producing tension that peaks and falls at intermediate stimulus rates. In this state, the muscle is not able to sustain a constant level of tension due to the rapid firing of motor neurons. Instead, there are brief periods of relaxation between contractions. This is in contrast to complete tetanus, where the muscle is able to maintain a sustained contraction without any relaxation.

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  • 28. 

    A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called

    • A.

      A motor unit

    • B.

      A myotome

    • C.

      An end plate

    • D.

      An end foot

    • E.

      A dermatome

    Correct Answer
    A. A motor unit
    Explanation
    A motor unit refers to a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates. This means that when the motor neuron is activated, all the muscle fibers it is connected to will contract simultaneously. This coordinated contraction allows for precise and efficient movement control in the body. The other options, such as myotome, end plate, end foot, and dermatome, do not accurately describe the relationship between a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates.

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  • 29. 

    The type of contracting in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called

    • A.

      Treppe

    • B.

      Isotonic

    • C.

      Isometric

    • D.

      Tetany

    • E.

      Concentric

    Correct Answer
    C. Isometric
    Explanation
    Isometric contraction is the correct answer because it refers to the type of muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten. During an isometric contraction, the muscle generates tension without changing its length. This type of contraction is commonly seen when a muscle is pushing or pulling against an immovable object.

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  • 30. 

    The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the _________ fiber.

    • A.

      Fast

    • B.

      Slow

    • C.

      Anaerobic

    • D.

      High-density

    • E.

      Intermediate

    Correct Answer
    B. Slow
    Explanation
    Slow muscle fibers, also known as Type I fibers, are the most resistant to fatigue. These fibers are characterized by their ability to produce energy through aerobic metabolism, which means they can sustain contractions for longer periods of time without tiring. Slow fibers are rich in mitochondria and have a high capacity for oxidative metabolism, allowing them to efficiently use oxygen to produce energy. This makes them ideal for activities that require endurance and prolonged muscle contractions, such as long-distance running or cycling.

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  • 31. 

    All of the following are true of the nervous system, EXCEPT that it doesn't

    • A.

      Communicate by the release of neurotransmitters

    • B.

      Function independently of the endocrine system

    • C.

      Respond specifically to stimuli

    • D.

      Respond with motor output

    • E.

      Respond rapidly to stimuli

    Correct Answer
    B. Function independently of the endocrine system
    Explanation
    The nervous system does not function independently of the endocrine system. The endocrine system and the nervous system work together to regulate and control the body's functions. The endocrine system releases hormones into the bloodstream, which can affect the nervous system and its responses. The nervous system, on the other hand, sends signals to the endocrine system to regulate hormone release. Therefore, the statement that the nervous system functions independently of the endocrine system is not true.

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  • 32. 

    All of the following are true of steroid hormones, EXCEPT that they

    • A.

      Are derived from cholesterol

    • B.

      Are produced by the suprarenal medulla

    • C.

      Are produced by reproductive glands

    • D.

      Bind to receptors within the cell

    • E.

      Are lipids

    Correct Answer
    B. Are produced by the suprarenal medulla
    Explanation
    Steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol, produced by reproductive glands, bind to receptors within the cell, and are lipids. However, they are not produced by the suprarenal medulla. The suprarenal medulla produces catecholamines, such as adrenaline and noradrenaline. Steroid hormones are primarily produced by the adrenal cortex, which is a different region of the adrenal gland.

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  • 33. 

    When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell, the

    • A.

      Cell membrane becomes depolarized

    • B.

      Hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm

    • C.

      Hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA

    • D.

      Cell becomes inactive

    • E.

      Second messenger appears in the cytoplasm

    Correct Answer
    E. Second messenger appears in the cytoplasm
    Explanation
    When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell, it triggers a series of intracellular events. One of these events is the activation of second messengers in the cytoplasm. Second messengers are small molecules that relay signals from the cell membrane to various intracellular targets, such as enzymes or ion channels. They amplify and propagate the signal initiated by the hormone-receptor binding, leading to a cellular response. Therefore, the appearance of a second messenger in the cytoplasm is a crucial step in the signaling cascade triggered by hormone binding to its receptor.

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  • 34. 

    The hypothalamus controls secretion by the adenohypophysis by

    • A.

      Direct neural stimulation

    • B.

      Secreting releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system

    • C.

      Indirect osmotic control

    • D.

      Gap synaptic junctions

    • E.

      Altering ion concentrations and pH in the anterior pituitary

    Correct Answer
    B. Secreting releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus controls secretion by the adenohypophysis by secreting releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system. These factors are then carried by blood vessels directly to the anterior pituitary gland, where they stimulate or inhibit the release of specific hormones. This mechanism allows the hypothalamus to have direct control over the secretion of hormones by the adenohypophysis, ensuring precise regulation of the endocrine system.

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  • 35. 

    Neurons of the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus manufacture

    • A.

      CRF and GnRH

    • B.

      FSH and PRL

    • C.

      TSH and FSH

    • D.

      GHIH and GHRH

    • E.

      ADH and oxytocin

    Correct Answer
    E. ADH and oxytocin
    Explanation
    The neurons of the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus are responsible for manufacturing and releasing the hormones ADH (antidiuretic hormone) and oxytocin. ADH helps regulate water balance in the body by controlling the reabsorption of water by the kidneys. Oxytocin plays a role in various reproductive functions, including stimulating uterine contractions during childbirth and promoting milk letdown during breastfeeding. These hormones are produced in the hypothalamus and then transported to the posterior pituitary gland for release into the bloodstream.

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  • 36. 

    The pituitary hormone that stimulates milk production by the mammary glands is

    • A.

      Growth hormone

    • B.

      FSH

    • C.

      Prolactin

    • D.

      TSH

    • E.

      ACTH

    Correct Answer
    C. Prolactin
    Explanation
    Prolactin is the pituitary hormone that stimulates milk production by the mammary glands. It is responsible for the development of mammary glands during pregnancy and the production of milk after childbirth. Prolactin levels increase in response to the suckling stimulus, promoting milk synthesis and secretion. This hormone plays a crucial role in lactation and is essential for the successful breastfeeding of infants.

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  • 37. 

    Thyroid hormone contains the element

    • A.

      Zinc

    • B.

      Fluorine

    • C.

      Iron

    • D.

      Iodine

    • E.

      Chlorine

    Correct Answer
    D. Iodine
    Explanation
    Thyroid hormone contains iodine. Iodine is an essential element for the production of thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism, growth, and development. The thyroid gland takes up iodine from the blood and uses it to synthesize thyroid hormones, such as thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). These hormones play a crucial role in maintaining the body's energy levels, temperature, heart rate, and other important functions. Without sufficient iodine, the thyroid gland cannot produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to a condition called iodine deficiency, which can result in various health problems.

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  • 38. 

    A hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ion is

    • A.

      Thyroxine

    • B.

      Parathyroid hormone

    • C.

      Calcitonin

    • D.

      Glucagon

    • E.

      Oxytocin

    Correct Answer
    C. Calcitonin
    Explanation
    Calcitonin is a hormone that is responsible for lowering blood levels of calcium ion. It does so by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue and release calcium into the bloodstream. By inhibiting osteoclast activity, calcitonin helps to decrease the amount of calcium released into the bloodstream, thereby lowering blood levels of calcium ion.

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  • 39. 

    When blood glucose levels fall,

    • A.

      Glucagon is released

    • B.

      Peripheral cells take up more glucose

    • C.

      Protein synthesis increases

    • D.

      Insulin is released

    • E.

      Both B and D

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucagon is released
    Explanation
    When blood glucose levels fall, the hormone glucagon is released. Glucagon acts to increase blood glucose levels by stimulating the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose and release it into the bloodstream. This helps to maintain a stable blood glucose level and prevent hypoglycemia. Insulin, on the other hand, is released when blood glucose levels are high and acts to lower blood glucose levels by promoting the uptake of glucose into cells. Therefore, the correct answer is that glucagon is released when blood glucose levels fall.

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  • 40. 

    Which of these hormones increases production of red blood cells?

    • A.

      Atrial natriuretic peptide

    • B.

      Cortisol

    • C.

      Aldosterone

    • D.

      Thymosin

    • E.

      Erythropoietin

    Correct Answer
    E. Erythropoietin
    Explanation
    Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. When the body detects low oxygen levels, it releases erythropoietin to increase the production and release of red blood cells into the bloodstream. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and ensuring adequate oxygen supply to the body's tissues and organs.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 14, 2011
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    Rachelelyse
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