Er: Neonates Congenital Abnormalities

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Er: Neonates Congenital Abnormalities - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    This disease is caused by a disturbance of the processes that form the jaw and face during embryonic development. 

    • A.

      Cleft palate

    • B.

      Cleft hernia

    • C.

      Mandibular displacement

    • D.

      AIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleft palate
    Explanation
    Cleft palate is a condition that occurs when the tissues forming the roof of the mouth (palate) do not fuse together properly during embryonic development. This disturbance in the developmental processes leads to a gap or split in the palate. It can affect the jaw and face, causing difficulties with feeding, speech, and dental health. Cleft palate is not caused by mandibular displacement or AIDS, making them incorrect options. Cleft hernia is not a recognized medical condition, so it is also an incorrect option.

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  • 2. 

    Select the subdivisions of cleft palate. 

    • A.

      Cleft hard palate

    • B.

      Cleft soft palate

    • C.

      Hypoplastic soft palate

    • D.

      Neoplastic soft palate

    • E.

      Hypoplastic hard palate

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Cleft hard palate
    B. Cleft soft palate
    C. Hypoplastic soft palate
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes the subdivisions of cleft palate, which are cleft hard palate, cleft soft palate, and hypoplastic soft palate. These subdivisions refer to different types of abnormalities or malformations in the palate. A cleft hard palate is a separation or gap in the bony part of the palate, while a cleft soft palate is a gap in the soft tissue of the palate. Hypoplastic soft palate refers to an underdeveloped or insufficiently grown soft palate.

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  • 3. 

    ________ breeds are more likely to have clef palate.

    • A.

      Brachycephalic

    • B.

      Dolicocephalic

    • C.

      Mesocephalic

    • D.

      Hydrocephalic

    Correct Answer
    A. Brachycephalic
    Explanation
    Brachycephalic breeds are more likely to have a cleft palate. Cleft palate is a birth defect where the roof of the mouth does not fully close during fetal development. Brachycephalic breeds have a short, broad skull shape, which can lead to abnormalities in the development of the palate. This can result in a gap or opening in the roof of the mouth, causing difficulties with feeding, breathing, and overall health.

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  • 4. 

    Cleft palate can affect the upper lip. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cleft lip.

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  • 5. 

    Select the signs of cleft palate.

    • A.

      Difficulty suckling

    • B.

      Dysphagia

    • C.

      Milk dripping from nostrils when nursing

    • D.

      Resp infections due to aspiration pneumonia

    • E.

      Beer dripping from nostrils when nursing

    • F.

      Saggy lip

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Difficulty suckling
    B. Dysphagia
    C. Milk dripping from nostrils when nursing
    D. Resp infections due to aspiration pneumonia
    Explanation
    The signs of cleft palate include difficulty suckling, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), milk dripping from the nostrils when nursing, and respiratory infections due to aspiration pneumonia. These signs indicate that there is a problem with the palate, which is the roof of the mouth. A cleft palate is a birth defect where there is a gap or opening in the palate, leading to difficulties with feeding and potential respiratory issues. The presence of saggy lip and beer dripping from nostrils when nursing are not associated with cleft palate and are therefore not included in the correct answer.

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  • 6. 

    Surgical correction of cleft palate is only effective if the cleft is _____. It can be done at around _____ weeks minimum, but it is recommended to do it around 3-4 months. 

    • A.

      Small, 6-8 weeks

    • B.

      Big, 6-8 weeks

    • C.

      Small 4-5 weeks

    • D.

      Humongous 6-7 weeks

    Correct Answer
    A. Small, 6-8 weeks
    Explanation
    Surgical correction of cleft palate is only effective if the cleft is small. The ideal time to perform the surgery is between 6-8 weeks. However, it is recommended to wait until around 3-4 months for better results.

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  • 7. 

    The most common outcome of cleft palate is _____.

    • A.

      Euthanasia

    • B.

      Surgical repair

    • C.

      Just let the puppy live with it

    • D.

      Spay/neuter

    Correct Answer
    A. Euthanasia
  • 8. 

    ______ occur when abdominal contents protrude through a natural or abnormal opening in the body wall. It can be ______ or acquired. 

    • A.

      Hernias, congenital

    • B.

      Hernias, hereditary

    • C.

      Anastomosis, congenital

    • D.

      Weird things, required

    Correct Answer
    A. Hernias, congenital
    Explanation
    Hernias occur when abdominal contents protrude through a natural or abnormal opening in the body wall. They can be congenital, meaning they are present at birth, or acquired, meaning they develop later in life.

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  • 9. 

    Diaphragmatic hernias can be ________. This means the abdominal contents are found extending into the pericardial sac.

    • A.

      Peritoneal-pericardial

    • B.

      Pericardial-perithoracic

    • C.

      Peritoneal-periscrotal

    • D.

      Seriously annoying

    Correct Answer
    A. Peritoneal-pericardial
    Explanation
    A diaphragmatic hernia refers to a condition where there is a hole or weakness in the diaphragm, allowing abdominal contents to protrude into the chest cavity. In this case, the correct answer is "Peritoneal-pericardial" because it accurately describes the location of the herniation. "Peritoneal" refers to the abdominal cavity, and "pericardial" refers to the sac that surrounds the heart. Therefore, a peritoneal-pericardial hernia means that abdominal contents are extending into the pericardial sac.

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  • 10. 

    The most common congenital diaphragmatic hernia is pleuro-peritoneal.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Peritoneal-pericardial.

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  • 11. 

    When the abdominal contents are found within the pleural cavity, the patient has ______ diaphragmatic hernia.

    • A.

      Pleuro-peritoneal

    • B.

      Peritoneal-pericardial

    • C.

      Hiatal

    • D.

      That annoying

    Correct Answer
    A. Pleuro-peritoneal
    Explanation
    When the abdominal contents are found within the pleural cavity, the patient is diagnosed with pleuro-peritoneal diaphragmatic hernia. This condition occurs when there is a defect in the diaphragm, allowing the abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity. The term "pleuro-peritoneal" indicates the involvement of both the pleural (chest) and peritoneal (abdominal) cavities in this type of hernia.

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  • 12. 

    In hiatal diaphragmatic hernias, the ________, __________ and/or portions of the stomach protrude through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity. 

    • A.

      Esophagus, gastroesophageal junction

    • B.

      Esophagus, larynx

    • C.

      Pharynx, gastroesophageal junction

    • D.

      Heart, lungs

    Correct Answer
    A. Esophagus, gastroesophageal junction
    Explanation
    In hiatal diaphragmatic hernias, the esophagus and/or portions of the stomach protrude through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity. The esophagus is the tube that connects the throat to the stomach, and the gastroesophageal junction is the area where the esophagus meets the stomach. This answer accurately describes the structures involved in this type of hernia.

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  • 13. 

    You can diagnosie hiatal hernias through _________, __________ and endoscopy.

    • A.

      Contrast radiography, fluorscopy

    • B.

      Radiography, fluorscopy

    • C.

      MRI, Ultrasound

    • D.

      Ultrasound, computed tomography

    Correct Answer
    A. Contrast radiography, fluorscopy
    Explanation
    Contrast radiography and fluoroscopy are two imaging techniques commonly used to diagnose hiatal hernias. Contrast radiography involves the use of a contrast dye that helps visualize the structure and movement of the esophagus and stomach. Fluoroscopy is a real-time imaging technique that allows the doctor to observe the functioning of the organs in motion. These two techniques are effective in detecting the presence and extent of hiatal hernias. Other imaging techniques like MRI, ultrasound, and computed tomography may be used in certain cases, but they are not the primary methods for diagnosing hiatal hernias.

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  • 14. 

    An umbilical hernia is the protrusion of ________ into the overlying ________.

    • A.

      Abdominal contents, subcutaneous

    • B.

      The intestines, subcutaneous

    • C.

      Pelvic contents, epidermal

    • D.

      Stuff, stuff

    Correct Answer
    A. Abdominal contents, subcutaneous
    Explanation
    An umbilical hernia occurs when abdominal contents, such as intestines or fatty tissue, protrude through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles near the belly button. These contents push through the layers of the abdomen and into the overlying layer of subcutaneous tissue, which is the layer just beneath the skin. This causes a visible bulge or lump at the belly button area.

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  • 15. 

    ________ involve the protrusion of the abdominal contents through the _____. 

    • A.

      Inguinal hernias, inguinal canal

    • B.

      Abdominal hernias, inguinal canal

    • C.

      Diaphragmatic hernias, pelvic cavity

    • D.

      Frozen yogurts, land of ice cream waste

    Correct Answer
    A. Inguinal hernias, inguinal canal
    Explanation
    Inguinal hernias involve the protrusion of the abdominal contents through the inguinal canal. The inguinal canal is a passage in the lower abdominal wall that allows structures, such as blood vessels and nerves, to pass from the abdomen to the genital area. Inguinal hernias occur when a portion of the intestine or other abdominal tissues protrude through a weak spot in the inguinal canal. This can cause pain, discomfort, and a visible bulge in the groin area. Surgery is often required to repair the hernia and prevent complications.

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  • 16. 

    Newborn foals are commonly affected by abdominal hernias. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Inguinal.

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  • 17. 

    Pyloric stenosis/hypertrophy is more common in older, small breed ____ dogs. It is a congenital lesion in _____. 

    • A.

      Male, Boxers and Boston terriers

    • B.

      Female, Boxers and Boston terriers

    • C.

      Male, Yorkshire terriers

    • D.

      Female, Chichuahuas

    Correct Answer
    A. Male, Boxers and Boston terriers
    Explanation
    Pyloric stenosis/hypertrophy is more common in older, small breed male dogs such as Boxers and Boston terriers. It is a congenital lesion, meaning it is present at birth, in these breeds.

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  • 18. 

    _______ is caused by muscular thickening of the pyloric smooth muscles. 

    • A.

      Pyloric stenosis

    • B.

      Pyloric hypotrophy

    • C.

      Stenotic nares

    • D.

      Hamburgeria

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyloric stenosis
    Explanation
    Pyloric stenosis is caused by muscular thickening of the pyloric smooth muscles. This condition leads to the narrowing of the pylorus, which is the opening between the stomach and the small intestine. As a result, food and liquids have difficulty passing through, causing symptoms such as projectile vomiting, weight loss, and dehydration. Pyloric stenosis is most commonly seen in infants and requires surgical intervention to correct the narrowing and restore normal function.

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  • 19. 

    Select the diagnostic tools of pyloric stenosis.

    • A.

      History + Physical exam

    • B.

      Labwork (Rule-out underlying causes)

    • C.

      Imaging (Barium study, ultrasound, endoscopy)

    • D.

      Palpation

    • E.

      MRI

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. History + Physical exam
    B. Labwork (Rule-out underlying causes)
    C. Imaging (Barium study, ultrasound, endoscopy)
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes the diagnostic tools commonly used for pyloric stenosis. Pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the pylorus, the opening between the stomach and the small intestine. History and physical exam are important in assessing the symptoms and signs associated with pyloric stenosis. Labwork is necessary to rule out any underlying causes that may contribute to the condition. Imaging techniques such as barium study, ultrasound, and endoscopy are used to visualize the pylorus and confirm the diagnosis. Palpation can also be used to assess the abdomen for any abnormalities. MRI is not typically used as a diagnostic tool for pyloric stenosis.

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  • 20. 

    Patients with pyloric stenosis will vomit large volumes of food _______ post prandially. Some cases will have ______.

    • A.

      >8-12 hours, projectile vomiting

    • B.

    • C.

      >6-12 hours, projectile vomiting

    • D.

      >10-24, nuclear vomiting

    Correct Answer
    A. >8-12 hours, projectile vomiting
    Explanation
    Patients with pyloric stenosis will vomit large volumes of food within 8-12 hours after eating. This is known as projectile vomiting, which refers to forceful and sudden expulsion of stomach contents. The narrowing of the pylorus, the opening between the stomach and small intestine, causes food to accumulate and build up pressure, leading to the characteristic projectile vomiting.

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  • 21. 

    Treating pyloric stenosis involves a ______,  ______ such as metoclopramide or cisapride, and in severe cases, surgery.

    • A.

      Diet modification, motility modifiers

    • B.

      Diet modification, anti-emetics

    • C.

      Diet of ice-cream, motility modifiers

    • D.

      We don't treat pyloric stenosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Diet modification, motility modifiers
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Diet modification, motility modifiers" because treating pyloric stenosis involves making changes to the patient's diet to alleviate symptoms and improve digestion. Motility modifiers, such as metoclopramide or cisapride, are also used to regulate the movement of the stomach and intestines, helping to relieve blockages and improve the flow of food. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary to correct the narrowing of the pylorus.

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  • 22. 

    A portosystemic vascular shunt can be ______ or _____.

    • A.

      Intrahepatic, extrahepatic

    • B.

      Intracranial, extranial

    • C.

      Intracellular, extracellular

    • D.

      Horrible, super destructive

    Correct Answer
    A. Intrahepatic, extrahepatic
    Explanation
    A portosystemic vascular shunt refers to an abnormal connection between the portal vein and a systemic vein. This shunt can occur either within the liver (intrahepatic) or outside the liver (extrahepatic). Intrahepatic shunts are located within the liver parenchyma, while extrahepatic shunts are located outside the liver, usually in the abdominal region.

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  • 23. 

    Select the signs of portosystemic shunt. 

    • A.

      Anorexia, vomiting

    • B.

      Lethargy

    • C.

      Weight loss

    • D.

      Runt of the litter

    • E.

      Bulimia

    • F.

      Diarrhea

    • G.

      Neurological disturbances

    • H.

      Abdominal fluid/distension

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Anorexia, vomiting
    B. Lethargy
    C. Weight loss
    D. Runt of the litter
    G. Neurological disturbances
    H. Abdominal fluid/distension
    Explanation
    This question is asking for the signs of portosystemic shunt. A portosystemic shunt is an abnormal connection between the portal vein (which carries blood from the intestines to the liver) and a systemic vein (which carries blood to the rest of the body). This condition can lead to the bypassing of the liver, causing a variety of symptoms. The signs listed in the answer choices, including anorexia, vomiting, lethargy, weight loss, runt of the litter, neurological disturbances, and abdominal fluid/distension, are all commonly seen in animals with portosystemic shunts.

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  • 24. 

    Neurological signs of portosystemic shunt are caused by _____.

    • A.

      Hepatic encephalopathy

    • B.

      The intensive treatment

    • C.

      Intracranial pressure

    • D.

      Hydrocephalus

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatic encephalopathy
    Explanation
    Neurological signs of portosystemic shunt are caused by hepatic encephalopathy. Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition that occurs when the liver is unable to remove toxins from the blood, leading to a buildup of ammonia and other harmful substances. These substances can then affect the brain, causing neurological symptoms such as confusion, disorientation, and behavioral changes. Therefore, hepatic encephalopathy is the most likely cause of the neurological signs observed in patients with portosystemic shunt.

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  • 25. 

    Best diet for portosystemic shunt patients. 

    • A.

      Low protein

    • B.

      Low fat

    • C.

      Low carb

    • D.

      YOU'RE NOT ALLOWED TO EAT.

    Correct Answer
    A. Low protein
    Explanation
    Portosystemic shunt patients have a condition where blood flow bypasses the liver, leading to the accumulation of toxins in the bloodstream. A low protein diet is recommended because protein metabolism produces ammonia as a byproduct, which the liver normally converts into urea and eliminates. By reducing protein intake, the production of ammonia is minimized, helping to alleviate symptoms and prevent further liver damage. However, it is important to note that a complete elimination of protein is not recommended as it is an essential nutrient for overall health.

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  • 26. 

    Multiple shunts have poor prognosis.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Because they are often secondary to hepatic parenchymal disease.

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  • 27. 

    Megaesophagus is a _______ anomaly that manifests as swallowing dysfunction and _____.

    • A.

      Developmental, regurgitation

    • B.

      Aqcuired, regurgitation

    • C.

      Developmental, projectile vomiting

    • D.

      Messed up, who let the dogs out

    Correct Answer
    A. Developmental, regurgitation
    Explanation
    Megaesophagus is a developmental anomaly that manifests as swallowing dysfunction and regurgitation. This means that it is a condition that occurs during development and affects the normal functioning of the esophagus, leading to difficulties in swallowing and the involuntary return of swallowed food or liquid.

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  • 28. 

    Select the breeds that are predisposed to megaesophagus.

    • A.

      Shar-pei

    • B.

      German shephard

    • C.

      Great dane

    • D.

      Irish setter

    • E.

      Greyhound

    • F.

      Newfoundland

    • G.

      Coolie

    • H.

      Labrador

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Shar-pei
    B. German shephard
    C. Great dane
    D. Irish setter
    E. Greyhound
    F. Newfoundland
    Explanation
    These breeds are predisposed to megaesophagus. Megaesophagus is a condition in which the esophagus becomes enlarged and loses its ability to move food into the stomach. It can result in regurgitation, difficulty swallowing, and weight loss. Shar-pei, German shepherd, Great Dane, Irish setter, Greyhound, and Newfoundland are all known to have a higher risk of developing megaesophagus compared to other breeds. This may be due to genetic factors or anatomical differences in the structure of their esophagus. Labrador and Coolie breeds are not commonly associated with megaesophagus.

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  • 29. 

    In megaesophagus, ______, _______ and pain on swallowing, are secondary to esophagitis. 

    • A.

      Anorexia, drooling

    • B.

      Vomiting, drooling

    • C.

      Anorexia, vomiting

    • D.

      Vocalizing, drooling

    Correct Answer
    A. Anorexia, drooling
    Explanation
    In megaesophagus, anorexia (loss of appetite) and drooling are common symptoms. Megaesophagus is a condition where the esophagus becomes enlarged and loses its ability to properly transport food to the stomach. This can lead to difficulty in swallowing and subsequent esophagitis (inflammation of the esophagus), causing pain. Anorexia occurs because the dog may associate eating with discomfort, while drooling is a result of the inability to swallow properly. Vomiting and vocalizing are not typically associated with megaesophagus.

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  • 30. 

    In megaesophagus, fever, coughing and dyspnea are indicative of _____.

    • A.

      Aspiration pneumonia

    • B.

      Esophagitis

    • C.

      Gastritis

    • D.

      Diaphragmatic hernia

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspiration pneumonia
    Explanation
    The symptoms of fever, coughing, and dyspnea in a patient with megaesophagus are indicative of aspiration pneumonia. Megaesophagus is a condition characterized by the enlargement and decreased motility of the esophagus, which can lead to difficulty swallowing and regurgitation of food and fluids. This regurgitation can result in the inhalation of stomach contents into the lungs, leading to aspiration pneumonia.

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  • 31. 

    Diagnosis of megaesophagus is based on history, clinical signs, ______, and ______.

    • A.

      Contrast radiography, fluoroscopy

    • B.

      Labwork, fluoroscopy

    • C.

      Labrowk, radiography

    • D.

      Contrast radiography, auscultation

    Correct Answer
    A. Contrast radiography, fluoroscopy
    Explanation
    The diagnosis of megaesophagus is based on history, clinical signs, contrast radiography, and fluoroscopy. Contrast radiography is used to visualize the esophagus and detect any abnormalities, such as dilation or narrowing. Fluoroscopy is a dynamic imaging technique that allows for real-time visualization of the esophagus while the patient swallows. Together, these two diagnostic tools provide valuable information for confirming the presence of megaesophagus and determining its severity. Labwork and auscultation may be helpful in assessing overall health and ruling out other conditions, but they are not specific diagnostic methods for megaesophagus.

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  • 32. 

    Select the elements of supportive care for megaesophagus. 

    • A.

      Frequent elevated feedings (highly digestible/high calorie diet)

    • B.

      Different diet consistencies

    • C.

      Supportive meds (Anatcids, gastroprotectants)

    • D.

      Treatmen of aspiration pneumonia

    • E.

      Gastrotomy tube (Some cases)

    • F.

      Surgery

    • G.

      Motility modifiers

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Frequent elevated feedings (highly digestible/high calorie diet)
    B. Different diet consistencies
    C. Supportive meds (Anatcids, gastroprotectants)
    D. Treatmen of aspiration pneumonia
    E. Gastrotomy tube (Some cases)
    Explanation
    The elements of supportive care for megaesophagus include frequent elevated feedings with a highly digestible/high calorie diet to prevent regurgitation and aid in digestion. Different diet consistencies may be necessary to accommodate the condition. Supportive medications such as antacids and gastroprotectants can help manage symptoms and protect the esophagus. Treatment of aspiration pneumonia, which can occur due to regurgitation, is also an important aspect of supportive care. In some cases, a gastrotomy tube may be needed to provide nutrition directly to the stomach. Surgery and motility modifiers may be considered depending on the severity and underlying cause of the megaesophagus.

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  • 33. 

    Post-op complications of surgery for atresia. 

    • A.

      Incontinence and colonic atony

    • B.

      Incontinence

    • C.

      Colonic atony

    • D.

      Where did this hole come from....what do i do with it ?!

    Correct Answer
    A. Incontinence and colonic atony
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Incontinence and colonic atony. After surgery for atresia, there can be complications such as incontinence, which refers to the inability to control bowel movements. Colonic atony, on the other hand, refers to a condition where the colon loses its normal muscle tone and becomes unable to contract properly. Both of these complications can occur as a result of the surgery and can lead to difficulties with bowel control and function.

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  • 34. 

    Cerebellar hypoplasia is a condition seen in _____.

    • A.

      Cats

    • B.

      Dogs

    • C.

      Horses

    • D.

      Dinosaurs

    Correct Answer
    A. Cats
    Explanation
    Cerebellar hypoplasia is a condition characterized by underdevelopment of the cerebellum, which is the part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. It is commonly seen in cats, especially kittens, as a result of a viral infection or genetic abnormalities. The condition causes uncoordinated movements, tremors, and difficulties with balance and walking. While cerebellar hypoplasia can occur in other animals, such as dogs and horses, it is most frequently associated with cats.

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  • 35. 

    Cerebellar hypoplasia is an infection that occurs in utero, caused by ______.

    • A.

      Parvovirus and panlekopenia virus

    • B.

      Parvovirus and coronavirus

    • C.

      Panleukopenia virus and calicivirus

    • D.

      FeLV

    Correct Answer
    A. Parvovirus and panlekopenia virus
    Explanation
    Cerebellar hypoplasia is a condition where the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordination and balance, is underdeveloped. It is caused by an infection that occurs in utero. The correct answer, "Parvovirus and panleukopenia virus," refers to two viral infections that can lead to cerebellar hypoplasia. Parvovirus is known to cause fetal death and brain damage, while panleukopenia virus can also affect the developing brain. These infections can be transmitted from the mother to the fetus during pregnancy, leading to the development of cerebellar hypoplasia.

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  • 36. 

    Symptoms of cerebellar hypoplasia in newborn kittens. 

    • A.

      Born dead

    • B.

      Ataxia/incoordination/swaying

    • C.

      Hypermetria, spasticity

    • D.

      Non progressive symptoms

    • E.

      Intention tremors (when kitten ambulates)

    • F.

      Blindness

    • G.

      Deafness

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Born dead
    B. Ataxia/incoordination/swaying
    C. Hypermetria, spasticity
    D. Non progressive symptoms
    E. Intention tremors (when kitten ambulates)
    Explanation
    The given answer lists the symptoms of cerebellar hypoplasia in newborn kittens. These symptoms include being born dead, ataxia/incoordination/swaying, hypermetria, spasticity, non-progressive symptoms, and intention tremors when the kitten ambulates. Additionally, the answer does not include blindness or deafness as symptoms of cerebellar hypoplasia.

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