Er: Neonatal care, Illness, Foals

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Er: Neonatal care, Illness, Foals - Quiz

. Slide 1-13


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When examining a neonatal patient, you take note of how much the external canals are open between 6 and 14 days. When are they completely open?

    • A.

      17 days

    • B.

      18 days

    • C.

      19 days

    • D.

      20 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 17 days
    Explanation
    The external canals of a neonatal patient are completely open by 17 days. This means that between the 6th and 14th day, the canals gradually open up and reach full openness by the 17th day.

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  • 2. 

    When examining the head and oral cavity/nose, you check for malformations of the skull such as _________.

    • A.

      Open fontanelles and hydrocephalus

    • B.

      Cleft lip

    • C.

      Stenotic nares and open fontanelles

    • D.

      Presence of fluids from nose

    Correct Answer
    A. Open fontanelles and hydrocephalus
    Explanation
    When examining the head and oral cavity/nose, checking for malformations of the skull such as open fontanelles and hydrocephalus is important. Open fontanelles refer to the soft spots on a baby's skull that have not yet closed, and their presence can indicate abnormalities. Hydrocephalus is a condition where there is an excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, leading to an enlarged head. Both of these conditions can be indicative of underlying issues and require further investigation and management.

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  • 3. 

    When examining the head and oral cavity/nose, you check for abnormalities of the mouth such as ________.

    • A.

      Cleft lip/palate

    • B.

      Malocclusion

    • C.

      Bleeding

    • D.

      Absence of a tongue

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleft lip/palate
    Explanation
    When examining the head and oral cavity/nose, checking for abnormalities of the mouth is important. One such abnormality is cleft lip/palate, which refers to a birth defect where the lip and/or palate do not form properly during fetal development. This can result in a gap or split in the lip and/or roof of the mouth. Detecting and diagnosing cleft lip/palate is crucial for appropriate medical intervention and treatment.

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  • 4. 

    The eyelids of a nenonate separate between  _____ days.

    • A.

      5-14

    • B.

      6-12

    • C.

      4-6

    • D.

      14-20

    Correct Answer
    A. 5-14
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5-14. This means that the eyelids of a neonate separate between 5 to 14 days after birth.

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  • 5. 

    In neonates, the PLR may not be evident until _____, and the menace reflex appears at _____.

    • A.

      21 days, 3-4 weeks

    • B.

      3-4 weeks, 21 days

    • C.

      24 days, 2-6 weeks

    • D.

      2-6 weeks, 24 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 21 days, 3-4 weeks
    Explanation
    In neonates, the PLR (pupillary light reflex) may not be evident until 21 days, while the menace reflex appears at 3-4 weeks.

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  • 6. 

    Normal heartbeat and resp rate for a neonate during the first 4 weeks. 

    • A.

      HR 220 bpm, RR 15-35 bpm

    • B.

      HR 250 bpm, RR 20-40 bpm

    • C.

      HR 235 bpm, RR 15-25 bpm

    • D.

      HR 300 bpm, RR 25-35 bpm

    Correct Answer
    A. HR 220 bpm, RR 15-35 bpm
  • 7. 

    Which organ is not normally palpable in neonates?

    • A.

      Spleen

    • B.

      Kidneys

    • C.

      Bladder

    • D.

      Intestines

    Correct Answer
    A. Spleen
    Explanation
    The spleen is not normally palpable in neonates because it is located deep in the abdomen, tucked under the left side of the diaphragm. It is protected by the rib cage and surrounded by other organs, making it difficult to feel during a physical examination. In contrast, the kidneys, bladder, and intestines may be palpable in neonates due to their position and size.

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  • 8. 

    When inspecting the umbilicus, you're checking for wounds, hydration, _____, and ______.

    • A.

      External parasites, infection

    • B.

      Inflammation, exudates

    • C.

      Internal parasites, infection

    • D.

      Patency, infection

    Correct Answer
    A. External parasites, infection
    Explanation
    When inspecting the umbilicus, it is important to check for external parasites and infection. External parasites such as ticks or fleas can cause irritation and discomfort to the individual. Infection can occur if the umbilicus is not properly cared for or if there is an underlying medical condition. By checking for these two factors, healthcare professionals can ensure the well-being and health of the individual.

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  • 9. 

    Functional heart murmurs can be heard when auscultating a neonatal patient.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    But it's not always a congenital disease.

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  • 10. 

    When does a neonate's temperature become the same as for adults?

    • A.

      4 weeks

    • B.

      5 weeks

    • C.

      6 weeks

    • D.

      7weeks

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 weeks
    Explanation
    A neonate's temperature becomes the same as for adults at around 4 weeks. This is because during the first few weeks after birth, a neonate's body is still adjusting to the outside environment and their thermoregulatory system is not fully developed. As they grow and develop, their body temperature gradually becomes similar to that of adults.

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  • 11. 

    Neonate body temperature in week 1 ________ and in week 2 ______.

    • A.

      35-37 C, 36-38 C

    • B.

      36-38 C, 38-39 C

    • C.

      34.5-36 C, 36-38 C

    • D.

      Same as adults

    Correct Answer
    A. 35-37 C, 36-38 C
    Explanation
    During the first week after birth, a neonate's body temperature is expected to be between 35-37 degrees Celsius. As the neonate enters the second week, their body temperature is expected to increase slightly, ranging from 36-38 degrees Celsius. This is considered normal for newborns as their bodies adjust to the external environment and regulate their temperature accordingly.

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  • 12. 

    Why do you reduce the kV for radiography in neonates?

    • A.

      Partial mineralization of bones + thinness of soft tissue

    • B.

      Mineralization of bones

    • C.

      Softness of bones and tissue

    • D.

      You don't reduce it. You increase it.

    Correct Answer
    A. Partial mineralization of bones + thinness of soft tissue
    Explanation
    Neonates have partially mineralized bones and thin soft tissues compared to adults. This means that their bones are not fully developed and their soft tissues are less dense. Therefore, reducing the kilovoltage (kV) for radiography in neonates is necessary to ensure that the X-ray penetrates the less dense tissues and provides a clear image. This helps in diagnosing any potential abnormalities or conditions in neonates accurately.

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  • 13. 

    Neonates require external heat sources for _____.

    • A.

      1-3 weeks

    • B.

      The first 6 days

    • C.

      1-2 weeks

    • D.

      The first month

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-3 weeks
    Explanation
    Neonates require external heat sources for 1-3 weeks because during this period, their ability to regulate body temperature is not fully developed. Neonates have a higher surface area to body weight ratio, which makes them more susceptible to heat loss. Providing external heat sources such as incubators or warm clothing helps to maintain their body temperature within the normal range and prevent hypothermia.

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  • 14. 

    Elimination needs to be stimulated until ____. It occurs due to the presence of the ______.

    • A.

      3 weeks, anogenital reflex

    • B.

      2 weeks, anogenital reflex

    • C.

      3 weeks, micturation reflex

    • D.

      5 weeks, mother

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 weeks, anogenital reflex
    Explanation
    Elimination needs to be stimulated until 3 weeks, anogenital reflex. This means that until the age of 3 weeks, the anogenital reflex is responsible for triggering the elimination process. The anogenital reflex is a reflex action that occurs when there is stimulation in the anal or genital area, causing the muscles in that area to contract and initiate the elimination of waste. This reflex is present in newborns and gradually diminishes as they grow older and gain control over their elimination functions.

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  • 15. 

    Puppies should gain _____ per day. Kittens should gain ______ per day.

    • A.

      2-4g, 10-15g

    • B.

      4-6g. 15-20g

    • C.

      2-6g, 10-20g

    • D.

      Double their weight in 5 days, 2 pounds/ month

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-4g, 10-15g
    Explanation
    Puppies should gain 2-4g per day, while kittens should gain 10-15g per day.

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  • 16. 

    The neonatal area should have table heat at around _____ for the first week.

    • A.

      30-32 C

    • B.

      23-24 C

    • C.

      37C

    • D.

      35-37C

    Correct Answer
    A. 30-32 C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30-32 C. Neonates, especially premature infants, have difficulty regulating their body temperature. Keeping the neonatal area at a temperature between 30-32 C helps to prevent hypothermia and maintain a stable body temperature for the first week of life. This temperature range is considered optimal for the well-being and development of neonates.

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  • 17. 

    The neonatal area should have a humidity of ____.

    • A.

      55-65%

    • B.

      60-65%

    • C.

      70-75%

    • D.

      45-50%

    Correct Answer
    A. 55-65%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 55-65%. Neonatal areas should have a humidity level within this range because it helps to prevent the baby's skin from drying out and reduces the risk of respiratory infections. Maintaining proper humidity levels also helps to keep the baby comfortable and promotes healthy growth and development.

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  • 18. 

    In malnutrition cases, _____ and ______ occur quickly.

    • A.

      Hypoglycemia, hypothermia

    • B.

      Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia

    • C.

      Hypoglycemia, hyperthermia

    • D.

      Diabetes, death

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoglycemia, hypothermia
    Explanation
    In cases of malnutrition, both hypoglycemia and hypothermia can occur quickly. Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels, which can happen when the body does not receive enough nutrients. This can lead to symptoms such as weakness, dizziness, and confusion. Hypothermia, on the other hand, is a condition where the body's core temperature drops below normal levels. Malnutrition can impair the body's ability to regulate temperature, making individuals more susceptible to hypothermia. Therefore, both hypoglycemia and hypothermia are common complications of malnutrition.

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  • 19. 

    The heat in a neonatal area can be lowered to _______ after _____.

    • A.

      23-24 C, 3 weeks

    • B.

      23-24 C, 4 weeks

    • C.

      28-30 C, 3 weeks

    • D.

      28039 C, 4 weeks

    Correct Answer
    A. 23-24 C, 3 weeks
    Explanation
    The heat in a neonatal area can be lowered to 23-24 C after 3 weeks. This is because newborn babies, especially premature ones, require a warm environment to maintain their body temperature. However, as they grow and develop, their ability to regulate their body temperature improves, and they become more tolerant to lower temperatures. Lowering the heat to 23-24 C after 3 weeks ensures a comfortable and safe environment for the babies while allowing them to gradually adapt to a slightly cooler temperature.

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  • 20. 

    Malnutrition is often dependent on _____.

    • A.

      The mother

    • B.

      The neonate

    • C.

      Congenital abnormalities

    • D.

      The staff

    Correct Answer
    A. The mother
    Explanation
    Malnutrition is often dependent on the mother because she is responsible for providing proper nutrition to her child, especially during pregnancy and breastfeeding. The mother's diet and overall health directly impact the nutritional status of the neonate. If the mother is malnourished or lacks access to nutritious food, it can lead to malnutrition in the neonate. Congenital abnormalities and the staff may indirectly affect nutrition, but they are not the primary determinants.

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  • 21. 

    Select the malnutrition issues that are caused by the mother.

    • A.

      Not enough milk

    • B.

      Disowning the young

    • C.

      Large litter

    • D.

      Lactation failure

    • E.

      Congenital abnormalities

    • F.

      The milk tastes horrible

    • G.

      Youngster wants beer

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Not enough milk
    B. Disowning the young
    C. Large litter
    D. Lactation failure
    E. Congenital abnormalities
    Explanation
    The malnutrition issues caused by the mother include not enough milk, disowning the young, large litter, lactation failure, and congenital abnormalities. These factors can directly impact the nutrition and health of the offspring.

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  • 22. 

    Newborns are _____.

    • A.

      Helpless

    • B.

      Adorable

    • C.

      Crying all the time -_-

    • D.

      Pointless

    Correct Answer
    A. Helpless
    Explanation
    Newborns are considered helpless because they are completely dependent on others for their basic needs. They are unable to do things on their own and require constant care and attention. They cannot feed themselves, change their own diapers, or even move around without assistance. Their motor skills and abilities are underdeveloped, making them reliant on caregivers for everything.

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  • 23. 

    Select the diagnostic tests used for neonates. 

    • A.

      PCV/TP

    • B.

      WBC (blood smear)

    • C.

      BG

    • D.

      BUN

    • E.

      USG

    • F.

      Creat

    • G.

      Full CBC

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. PCV/TP
    B. WBC (blood smear)
    C. BG
    D. BUN
    E. USG
    Explanation
    The diagnostic tests used for neonates include PCV/TP (packed cell volume/total protein), WBC (blood smear), BG (blood glucose), BUN (blood urea nitrogen), and USG (ultrasound). These tests help in assessing the overall health and functioning of the neonate's body. PCV/TP measures the volume of red blood cells and total protein levels, which can indicate anemia or dehydration. WBC (blood smear) assesses the white blood cell count, which can indicate infection or immune system disorders. BG measures the blood glucose levels, which can indicate hypoglycemia or diabetes. BUN measures kidney function, and USG helps in evaluating the structure and function of organs. Full CBC provides a comprehensive analysis of blood components.

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  • 24. 

    Select the signs of malnutrition.

    • A.

      Weight loss

    • B.

      Feeble feeding

    • C.

      Constant crying

    • D.

      Inactivity/no crying

    • E.

      Reduced muscle tone

    • F.

      Vomiting

    • G.

      Hyperglycemia

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Weight loss
    B. Feeble feeding
    C. Constant crying
    D. Inactivity/no crying
    E. Reduced muscle tone
    Explanation
    The signs of malnutrition include weight loss, feeble feeding, constant crying, inactivity/no crying, and reduced muscle tone. These symptoms are commonly observed in individuals who are not receiving adequate nutrition. Weight loss is an obvious indicator of malnutrition, while feeble feeding and constant crying suggest that the individual is not getting enough nutrients to meet their needs. Inactivity or no crying and reduced muscle tone may indicate a lack of energy and muscle wasting, which are common in malnourished individuals. Therefore, these signs collectively suggest the presence of malnutrition.

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  • 25. 

    Complications related to malnutrition include ___, ____, hypoglycemia, and hypothermia.

    • A.

      Diarrhea, dehydration

    • B.

      Vomiting, dehydration

    • C.

      Inactivity, overhydration

    • D.

      Death, infections

    Correct Answer
    A. Diarrhea, dehydration
    Explanation
    Malnutrition can lead to various complications, including diarrhea and dehydration. Diarrhea is a common symptom of malnutrition and can further worsen the nutritional status of an individual. It can cause excessive loss of fluids and electrolytes, leading to dehydration. Dehydration is a serious condition that occurs when the body loses more fluids than it takes in. Both diarrhea and dehydration can have severe consequences on overall health and may require immediate medical attention.

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  • 26. 

    What happens if you don't warm the food to above 30 degrees C prior to feeding?

    • A.

      GI stasis

    • B.

      Diarrhea

    • C.

      Indigestion

    • D.

      Hypothermia

    Correct Answer
    A. GI stasis
    Explanation
    You tube feed with replacement formula.

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  • 27. 

    Normal stomach volume in neonates (to consider before tube feeding).

    • A.

      Approx 50 mL/Kg

    • B.

      Approx 20 mL/Kg

    • C.

      Approx 30 mL/Kg

    • D.

      Approx 10 mL/Kg

    Correct Answer
    A. Approx 50 mL/Kg
    Explanation
    The normal stomach volume in neonates to consider before tube feeding is approximately 50 mL/Kg. This means that for every kilogram of body weight, the neonate's stomach can hold around 50 mL of fluid. This information is important to ensure that the amount of formula or milk given through the feeding tube is appropriate and does not exceed the capacity of the stomach, which could lead to discomfort or complications.

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  • 28. 

    Rewarming: Use warm _______ and ______ mixture or electrolyte solution every 15-30 mins until patient is responsive. 

    • A.

      Lactated ringer's, 5% dextrose

    • B.

      KCL, 5% dextrose

    • C.

      Lactated ringer's, replacement forumla

    • D.

      5% dextrose, replacement formula

    Correct Answer
    A. Lactated ringer's, 5% dextrose
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Lactated ringer's, 5% dextrose. Lactated Ringer's solution is a balanced electrolyte solution that contains sodium, potassium, calcium, and lactate. It is used to restore fluid and electrolyte balance in patients. 5% dextrose is a solution that provides glucose for energy. In the context of rewarming a patient, using warm lactated Ringer's solution and 5% dextrose can help raise the patient's body temperature and provide necessary fluids and glucose for recovery.

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  • 29. 

    Why is neonatal illness is treated as an emergency?

    • A.

      Illness progresses quickly and death occurs rapidly

    • B.

      You can't cure neonatal illness because their immune system is underdeveloped

    • C.

      It's not an emergency

    • D.

      It's only an emergency when the illness is viral

    Correct Answer
    A. Illness progresses quickly and death occurs rapidly
    Explanation
    Neonatal illness is treated as an emergency because it progresses quickly and can lead to death rapidly. The immune system of neonates is underdeveloped, making it difficult to cure their illnesses. Therefore, immediate medical attention and intervention are necessary to prevent further complications and save their lives.

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  • 30. 

    In neonates, bacterial infections can overcome the _______, especially if no colostrum was consumed within the first _____ hours of life. 

    • A.

      Immune system protection, 12

    • B.

      Patient, 12

    • C.

      Immune system protection, 24

    • D.

      Patient, 24

    Correct Answer
    A. Immune system protection, 12
    Explanation
    In neonates, bacterial infections can overcome the immune system protection, especially if no colostrum was consumed within the first 12 hours of life. Colostrum is the first milk produced by the mother after giving birth, and it is rich in antibodies that provide passive immunity to the newborn. Without consuming colostrum, the neonate's immune system may not have enough protection against bacterial infections, making them more susceptible to illness.

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  • 31. 

    The two main things you have to keep tabs on in neonatal illness.

    • A.

      Watch for overhydration and monitor cardiopulmonary function

    • B.

      Watch for dehydration and hypothermia

    • C.

      Watch for malnutrition symptoms and hypothermia

    • D.

      How cute they are, and when the mom's not around you pet them.

    Correct Answer
    A. Watch for overhydration and monitor cardiopulmonary function
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to watch for overhydration and monitor cardiopulmonary function. This is because neonatal illness can often lead to fluid imbalances, and overhydration can be detrimental to the baby's health. Monitoring cardiopulmonary function is also important as neonates are more susceptible to respiratory and cardiovascular issues. By keeping tabs on these two factors, healthcare providers can ensure the well-being of the newborn and take prompt action if any abnormalities are detected.

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  • 32. 

    Fecal checks must be done at around _____ weeks, and deworming is done every 2 weeks until _____ weeks of age.

    • A.

      2-3, 12

    • B.

      2-4, 10

    • C.

      2-3, 14

    • D.

      1-2, 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-3, 12
    Explanation
    Fecal checks must be done at around 2-3 weeks to determine if a puppy has any parasites. Deworming is then done every 2 weeks until 12 weeks of age to ensure that any parasites are eliminated and the puppy remains healthy. This schedule helps to prevent the spread of parasites and maintain the puppy's overall well-being.

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  • 33. 

    Vaccines are first done at 6 weeks. The following vaccines must be done at ___, ___, then ____ weeks.

    • A.

      8, 12, 16

    • B.

      8, 10, 12

    • C.

      8, 14, 16

    • D.

      What are you talking about? It's not until a year after!

    Correct Answer
    A. 8, 12, 16
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8, 12, 16. This is because vaccines are typically administered in a series of doses, with specific intervals between each dose. In this case, the first vaccine is done at 6 weeks, and then subsequent vaccines should be done at 8 weeks, 12 weeks, and 16 weeks. This schedule allows for proper immune response and protection against the targeted diseases.

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  • 34. 

    Which statement is correct about the critically ill foal?

    • A.

      Most intensively managed patient

    • B.

      Least intensively managed patient

    • C.

      They're likely to get immediately euthanized

    • D.

      They usually heal pretty easily

    Correct Answer
    A. Most intensively managed patient
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Most intensively managed patient". This means that critically ill foals require a high level of intensive care and attention. They are likely to be closely monitored and treated with various medical interventions to stabilize their condition and improve their chances of recovery. This indicates that the management of these foals is more intense compared to other patients.

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  • 35. 

    Diseases in the mare don't usually affect the fetus.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Don't be saying foolish things now.

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  • 36. 

    Select the 3 life threatening conditions of a foal.

    • A.

      Asphyxia

    • B.

      Hypoglycemia

    • C.

      Hypothermia

    • D.

      Viral infections

    • E.

      Bacterial infections

    • F.

      Beer

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Asphyxia
    B. Hypoglycemia
    C. Hypothermia
    Explanation
    The three life-threatening conditions of a foal are asphyxia, hypoglycemia, and hypothermia. Asphyxia refers to a lack of oxygen, which can occur during birth and can lead to serious complications. Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can cause weakness, seizures, and even death if not treated promptly. Hypothermia is a dangerous drop in body temperature, often caused by exposure to cold temperatures, and can result in organ failure and death if not addressed. These three conditions require immediate medical attention to ensure the survival and well-being of the foal.

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