EMT - Module Test

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EMT - Module Test - Quiz

A multiable of catergories from the multiable modules of EMT- Basic Complete


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Your first responsibility as an EMT-B is to:

    • A.

      Open the patients airwvay

    • B.

      Keep yourself safe.

    • C.

      Gain access to the patient.

    • D.

      Provide for the patients safety.

    Correct Answer
    B. Keep yourself safe.
    Explanation
    As an EMT-B, your first responsibility is to keep yourself safe. This is crucial because if you become injured or incapacitated, you will not be able to effectively provide care to the patient. By ensuring your own safety, you can then proceed to assess the situation, gain access to the patient, and provide for their safety. However, prioritizing your own safety is essential in order to effectively carry out your duties as an EMT-B.

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  • 2. 

    Centralized coordination of resources, which provides victims at trauma or medical emergencies with equal access to basic emergency care and transportation by certified personnel , is a    function of:

    • A.

      Transportation.

    • B.

      Training.

    • C.

      Resource management,

    • D.

      Regulation and policy

    Correct Answer
    C. Resource management,
    Explanation
    Resource management involves the centralized coordination of resources, ensuring that victims of trauma or medical emergencies have equal access to basic emergency care and transportation by certified personnel. This function involves efficiently allocating and utilizing resources such as ambulances, medical equipment, and personnel to ensure that they are available where and when they are needed most. Resource management helps to optimize the response to emergencies and ensure that the necessary resources are in place to provide timely and effective care to those in need.

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  • 3. 

    Choose the BEST completion for this sentence: On-scene safety is the responsibility of:

    • A.

      Each crew member.

    • B.

      The senior responder.

    • C.

      Gain access to the patient.

    • D.

      Provide for the patient's safety.

    Correct Answer
    A. Each crew member.
    Explanation
    Each crew member is responsible for on-scene safety. This means that every member of the crew has a duty to ensure the safety of themselves, their colleagues, and any patients or bystanders at the scene. On-scene safety includes things like wearing appropriate personal protective equipment, following safety protocols, and being aware of potential hazards. By assigning this responsibility to each crew member, it ensures that everyone is actively engaged in maintaining a safe environment throughout the duration of the incident.

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  • 4. 

    The program for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of the EMS system is called quality:

    • A.

      Assessment.

    • B.

      Improvement

    • C.

      Documentation.

    • D.

      Involvement.

    Correct Answer
    B. Improvement
    Explanation
    The program mentioned in the question is specifically designed to evaluate and enhance the effectiveness of the EMS system. This implies that the program aims to identify areas for improvement and implement strategies to enhance the quality of the EMS system. Therefore, the correct answer is "improvement".

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  • 5. 

    Maintaining your equipment; continuing your education, and getting feedback from patients and hospital staff are ALL ways that you can:

    • A.

      Keep the ambulance in running order.

    • B.

      Stay abreast of changes in medical care.

    • C.

      Improve the quality of care in your system

    • D.

      Maintain a professional manner and appearance

    Correct Answer
    C. Improve the quality of care in your system
    Explanation
    By maintaining equipment, continuing education, and receiving feedback from patients and hospital staff, you are actively working towards improving the quality of care in your system. Regular maintenance of equipment ensures that it is in optimal condition, allowing for efficient and effective treatment. Continuing education helps you stay updated with the latest advancements and changes in medical care, enabling you to provide the best possible care to patients. Feedback from patients and hospital staff provides valuable insights and helps identify areas for improvement, ultimately enhancing the overall quality of care provided.

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  • 6. 

    The EMS physician's oversight of the patient care aspects of the EMS system is referred to as :

    • A.

      Trauma system.

    • B.

      Medical direction.

    • C.

      Evaluation.

    • D.

      In-hospital care.

    Correct Answer
    B. Medical direction.
    Explanation
    Medical direction refers to the oversight and guidance provided by an EMS physician in managing the patient care aspects of the EMS system. This includes providing medical protocols, training, and supervision to EMS personnel, as well as ensuring quality control and adherence to best practices. The EMS physician plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of prehospital care, making medical direction the correct answer in this case.

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  • 7. 

    The EMT-B's authority to provide emergency care is:

    • A.

      Conferred by the state legislature and EMS system.

    • B.

      An extension of the Medical Director's license to practice.

    • C.

      Responsibility of the National Registry of EMTs

    • D.

      Obtained from the U.S. Department of Transportation.

    Correct Answer
    B. An extension of the Medical Director's license to practice.
    Explanation
    EMT-B's authority to provide emergency care is an extension of the Medical Director's license to practice. This means that the EMT-B is allowed to provide emergency care under the supervision and direction of a licensed Medical Director. The Medical Director is responsible for overseeing the EMT-B's actions and ensuring that they are providing care within their scope of practice and following established protocols. The EMT-B's authority is not conferred by the state legislature or EMS system, nor is it obtained from the U.S. Department of Transportation. The responsibility of the National Registry of EMTs is to certify and maintain a registry of qualified EMTs, but they do not confer authority to provide emergency care.

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  • 8. 

    Orders given to the EMT-B by telephone or radio are called:

    • A.

      Off-line medical direction

    • B.

      Standing orders

    • C.

      On-line medical direction

    • D.

      Protocols

    Correct Answer
    C. On-line medical direction
    Explanation
    On-line medical direction refers to the orders given to an EMT-B through telephone or radio communication. This type of direction allows real-time communication between the EMT-B and a medical director or physician who provides guidance and instructions for patient care. It is called "on-line" because it enables direct communication and immediate decision-making, as opposed to off-line medical direction which involves pre-established protocols or standing orders.

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  • 9. 

    Attending conferences, watching EMS videos, or listening to lectures for the purpose of supplementing, or adding to, knowledge received in an orginal course is known as:

    • A.

      Graduate school

    • B.

      Refresher training

    • C.

      Continuning education

    • D.

      Recertification qualification

    Correct Answer
    C. Continuning education
    Explanation
    Continuing education refers to the act of attending conferences, watching EMS videos, or listening to lectures in order to enhance the knowledge gained from a previous course. It is a way for individuals to stay updated with the latest developments and advancements in their field. This ongoing learning process helps professionals to maintain and expand their expertise beyond their initial education. It is different from graduate school, which involves pursuing a higher level of education, and refresher training, which focuses on reviewing previously learned material. Recertification qualification is not a suitable answer as it does not accurately describe the concept of continuing education.

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  • 10. 

    A communication system that has the capability of automaticall identifying the caller's phone number and location is called:

    • A.

      Emergency medical dispatch

    • B.

      Auto call-back

    • C.

      Enhanced 9-1-1

    • D.

      Priority dispatch

    Correct Answer
    C. Enhanced 9-1-1
    Explanation
    Enhanced 9-1-1 refers to a communication system that can automatically identify the caller's phone number and location. This system is designed to provide emergency services with crucial information, allowing them to quickly respond to the caller's location in case of an emergency. It helps emergency responders to efficiently locate and assist individuals in need, improving the overall emergency response system.

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  • 11. 

    The role of the emergency medical dispatcher includes all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Obtaining appropriate information from callers.

    • B.

      Giving instructions to callers for emergency care.

    • C.

      Dispatching appropriate agencies to the emergency scene.

    • D.

      Providing on-line medical direction to EMS personnel

    Correct Answer
    D. Providing on-line medical direction to EMS personnel
    Explanation
    The role of the emergency medical dispatcher includes obtaining appropriate information from callers, giving instructions to callers for emergency care, and dispatching appropriate agencies to the emergency scene. However, providing on-line medical direction to EMS personnel is not part of the emergency medical dispatcher's responsibilities.

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  • 12. 

    A positive form of stress that helps people work under pressure and respond effectively is called:

    • A.

      Stimulation

    • B.

      Eustress

    • C.

      Rest

    • D.

      Distress

    Correct Answer
    B. Eustress
    Explanation
    Eustress refers to a positive form of stress that motivates and energizes individuals to perform effectively under pressure. Unlike distress, which is associated with negative emotions and can hinder performance, eustress helps individuals to focus, meet deadlines, and achieve goals. It is a beneficial type of stress that can lead to personal growth and improved performance.

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  • 13. 

    The emotional stages that patients or their famalies go through when confronted with death or dying include all of the following EXCEPT;

    • A.

      Denial

    • B.

      Barganing

    • C.

      Acceptance

    • D.

      Gratitude

    Correct Answer
    D. Gratitude
    Explanation
    The emotional stages that patients or their families go through when confronted with death or dying are denial, bargaining, and acceptance. Gratitude is not typically considered as one of the stages because it is not a common emotional response in this context. Gratitude is more commonly associated with feelings of appreciation and thankfulness, which may not be the primary emotions experienced when facing death or the loss of a loved one.

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  • 14. 

    A reaction to death or dying where the patient says"Not Me" is referred to as;

    • A.

      Anger

    • B.

      Denial

    • C.

      Bargaining

    • D.

      Depression

    Correct Answer
    B. Denial
    Explanation
    Denial is the correct answer because it refers to a reaction to death or dying where the patient refuses to accept or acknowledge the reality of the situation. When the patient says "Not Me," they are essentially denying that they are the ones who will experience death or dying. This response is a common defense mechanism that helps individuals cope with the overwhelming emotions and fear associated with their mortality.

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  • 15. 

    A reaction to death or dying where the patient questions" Why Me?" is referred to as;

    • A.

      Anger

    • B.

      Denial

    • C.

      Bargaining

    • D.

      Depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Anger
    Explanation
    In the context of reactions to death or dying, the patient questioning "Why Me?" indicates a sense of anger. This emotional response is a common reaction to the unfairness or injustice of their situation. The individual may feel frustrated, resentful, or even enraged about their circumstances. This anger can be directed towards themselves, others, or even towards a higher power. It is a natural part of the grieving process and can help individuals cope with their loss by expressing their emotions.

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  • 16. 

    A reaction to death or dying when the patient says" Okay, I'am not afraid" is referred to as;

    • A.

      Anger

    • B.

      Denial

    • C.

      Acceptance

    • D.

      Depression

    Correct Answer
    C. Acceptance
    Explanation
    When a patient responds to death or dying by saying "Okay, I am not afraid," it indicates that they have reached a stage of acceptance. Acceptance is the final stage of the Kübler-Ross model of grief, where individuals come to terms with their impending death or the death of a loved one. It signifies a willingness to face the reality of the situation and find peace with it, rather than denying or fighting against it.

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  • 17. 

    A reaction to death or dying where the patient says "Okav, but first let me..-" is referred to as:

    • A.

      Bargaining.

    • B.

      Acceptance.

    • C.

      Depression.

    • D.

      Denial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bargaining.
    Explanation
    This reaction to death or dying, where the patient says "Okav, but first let me..-", is referred to as bargaining. Bargaining is a stage in the Kübler-Ross model of grief, where individuals may attempt to negotiate or make deals in an attempt to postpone or avoid the inevitable outcome of death. This reaction is often seen as a way for individuals to cope with the reality of their impending death and find some sense of control or hope in the situation.

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  • 18. 

    Scenario; Your partner has worked manv shifts in a row and has recently handled a number of serious trauma calls.   She has recently become Irritable at home and work and complains of the inability to sleep and concentrate. Which one of the following is a likely cause of her signsand symptoms?

    • A.

      Infectious mononucleosis

    • B.

      A cumulative stress reaction

    • C.

      High blood pressure

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. A cumulative stress reaction
    Explanation
    A cumulative stress reaction is the likely cause of her signs and symptoms because working multiple shifts in a row and handling serious trauma calls can lead to chronic stress. This can result in irritability, difficulty sleeping, and problems with concentration. Infectious mononucleosis and high blood pressure are not likely causes in this scenario.

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  • 19. 

    Foods that should be avoided or limited to help control stress include:

    • A.

      Fruits and vegetables.

    • B.

      Alcohol and coffee,

    • C.

      Salads and breads.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    B. Alcohol and coffee,
    Explanation
    Alcohol and coffee should be avoided or limited to help control stress because they can increase anxiety and interfere with sleep patterns. While fruits and vegetables are generally considered healthy and beneficial for stress management, the other options listed (salads and breads) do not specifically contribute to stress control. Therefore, the correct answer is alcohol and coffee.

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  • 20. 

    A process where a team of trained peer counselors and mental health professionals meet withEMT-Bs who have ben involved in a major incident is called a CISD, which stands for:

    • A.

      Critique and interview on scene deportment

    • B.

      Catastrophic incident service defusing.

    • C.

      Critical incident stress debriefing.

    • D.

      Counseling interview for situational depression.

    Correct Answer
    C. Critical incident stress debriefing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is critical incident stress debriefing. This process involves a team of trained peer counselors and mental health professionals meeting with EMT-Bs who have been involved in a major incident. The purpose of this debriefing is to help the EMT-Bs cope with the stress and emotions associated with the incident and to provide support and counseling if needed. The other options, critique and interview on scene deportment, catastrophic incident service defusing, and counseling interview for situational depression, do not accurately describe this process.

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  • 21. 

    The purpose of the CISD process is to:

    • A.

      Investigate the events of a call.

    • B.

      Help diffuse the psychological trauma.

    • C.

      create a chain of events for documentation

    • D.

      Critique the call

    Correct Answer
    B. Help diffuse the psychological trauma.
    Explanation
    The CISD (Critical Incident Stress Debriefing) process is designed to assist individuals who have experienced a traumatic event, such as emergency responders or victims of a crisis. It aims to provide emotional support and help them cope with the psychological impact of the incident. By facilitating open communication and providing a safe space for individuals to share their feelings and thoughts, the CISD process helps to diffuse the psychological trauma associated with the event.

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  • 22. 

    After a stessful incident, EMS providers should:

    • A.

      Go home and have a big meal

    • B.

      Speak openly with the press.

    • C.

      Vent feelings by talking with each other,

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. Vent feelings by talking with each other,
    Explanation
    After a stressful incident, EMS providers should vent their feelings by talking with each other. This is important because discussing their experiences and emotions with colleagues who have gone through similar situations can help them process and cope with the stress. It provides an opportunity for them to share their thoughts, concerns, and emotions, which can help them feel supported and understood. Additionally, talking with each other can also help them learn from each other's experiences and provide valuable insights for future incidents. It is a crucial step in promoting emotional well-being and resilience among EMS providers.

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  • 23. 

    Making the physical and emotional needs of the patient a priority is a part of the EMT-B's:

    • A.

      Advanced directive.

    • B.

      Protocol.

    • C.

      Ethical responsibility.

    • D.

      Legal responsibility.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ethical responsibility.
    Explanation
    The EMT-B's ethical responsibility involves prioritizing the physical and emotional needs of the patient. This means that they must consider the well-being and comfort of the patient as a top priority in their care. This includes providing appropriate medical treatment, offering emotional support, and ensuring the patient's dignity and privacy are respected. The EMT-B must make decisions based on what is morally right and in the best interest of the patient, even if it may not be required by law or protocol.

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  • 24. 

    DNR is an abbreviation for a type of:

    • A.

      Organ donation procedure.

    • B.

      Implied consent.

    • C.

      Genetic material.

    • D.

      Advance directive.

    Correct Answer
    D. Advance directive.
    Explanation
    An advance directive is a legal document that allows individuals to specify their healthcare preferences in advance, in case they become unable to make decisions for themselves. DNR, on the other hand, stands for "do not resuscitate," which is a specific type of advance directive that instructs medical professionals not to perform CPR or other life-saving measures in the event of cardiac arrest. Therefore, the correct answer is advance directive.

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  • 25. 

    Expressed consent is:

    • A.

      Assumed to exist when the patient is unconscious.

    • B.

      Definedby local protocol for certain types of emergencies.

    • C.

      Assumed to exist when care is urgently needed.

    • D.

      Obtained from a conscious, competent, adult patient.

    Correct Answer
    D. Obtained from a conscious, competent, adult patient.
    Explanation
    Expressed consent is obtained from a conscious, competent, adult patient. This means that the patient is fully aware of the situation and is able to make a voluntary decision regarding their medical care. It is important to obtain expressed consent in order to respect the autonomy and rights of the patient. This answer is supported by the fact that the other options either assume consent without the patient's awareness or do not specify the need for the patient to be conscious and competent.

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  • 26. 

    Consent based on the theory that the unconscious patient would approve of life-savingtreatment is called  _________ consent.     

    • A.

      expressed

    • B.

      Mutual

    • C.

      Implied

    • D.

      Assumed

    Correct Answer
    C. Implied
    Explanation
    Implied consent is the correct answer because it refers to consent that is not explicitly given but can be inferred from the circumstances or the actions of the individual. In the case of an unconscious patient, it can be assumed that they would approve of life-saving treatment if they were able to communicate their wishes. Therefore, the concept of implied consent is applicable in this situation.

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  • 27. 

    Unlawful touching of another person without consent is:

    • A.

      Waiver of consent.

    • B.

      Negligence.

    • C.

      Implied cons&nt

    • D.

      Assault or battery.

    Correct Answer
    D. Assault or battery.
    Explanation
    Unlawful touching of another person without consent is considered assault or battery. Assault refers to the intentional act of causing apprehension or fear of harmful or offensive contact, while battery refers to the actual physical contact without consent. Both assault and battery are considered illegal and can result in legal consequences.

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  • 28. 

    Stopping the treatment of a patient without assuring the continuation of treatment at the same level or higher is referred to as:

    • A.

      Negligence.

    • B.

      Assault.

    • C.

      Abandonment.

    • D.

      Breach of duty

    Correct Answer
    C. Abandonment.
    Explanation
    Abandonment refers to the act of stopping a patient's treatment without ensuring that they receive the same level or higher of care. This can be considered as a form of negligence, as it goes against the duty of a healthcare provider to provide continuous care to their patients. Assault refers to the act of intentionally causing harm or fear of harm, which is not applicable in this scenario. Breach of duty refers to a failure to fulfill the duty of care, but it does not specifically address the issue of discontinuing treatment. Therefore, abandonment is the most appropriate term to describe this situation.

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  • 29. 

    A duty to act is the obligation to provide emergency care to a patient. Laws governing a duty tovary from state to state. In ALL states, the EMT-B has a LEGAL duty to act when he or sheis:

    • A.

      Serving on an ambulance that is dispatched to a call

    • B.

      Off duty and observes serious accident.

    • C.

      In a foreign jurisdiction and obseves a serious accident,

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Serving on an ambulance that is dispatched to a call
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "serving on an ambulance that is dispatched to a call" because in all states, an EMT-B has a legal duty to act when they are on duty and responding to an emergency call. This means that when they are actively serving on an ambulance that has been dispatched to a call, they are obligated to provide emergency care to the patient. This duty does not apply when the EMT-B is off duty or in a foreign jurisdiction, unless they are specifically assigned to respond to the incident.

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  • 30. 

    Slicing through an imaginary body down the center, passing between the eyes and extending down past the umbilicus, creates a plane called the:

    • A.

      Mid-axillary line,

    • B.

      Anterior axillary line.

    • C.

      Midline.

    • D.

      Mid-clavicular line.

    Correct Answer
    C. Midline.
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the name of a plane that is created by slicing through an imaginary body down the center, passing between the eyes and extending down past the umbilicus. The correct answer is "midline" because the midline is an imaginary line that divides the body into left and right halves, and it runs vertically down the center of the body from the top of the head to the bottom of the torso.

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  • 31. 

    All of the following are body systems EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Respiratory

    • B.

      Cardiovascular

    • C.

      Abdominal

    • D.

      Musculoskeletal

    Correct Answer
    C. Abdominal
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the body system that is NOT included in the options. The options include respiratory, cardiovascular, abdominal, and musculoskeletal. The respiratory system is responsible for breathing, the cardiovascular system is responsible for circulating blood, and the musculoskeletal system is responsible for providing support and movement. However, the abdominal system is not a recognized body system. Therefore, the correct answer is abdominal.

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  • 32. 

    The musculoskeletal system:

    • A.

      Gives the body shape.

    • B.

      Protects vital internal organs.

    • C.

      Provides for body movement

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The musculoskeletal system is responsible for giving the body its shape, protecting vital internal organs, and providing for body movement. It consists of bones, muscles, tendons, ligaments, and other connective tissues that work together to support the body and enable movement. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as all the mentioned statements are true.

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  • 33. 

    The segment of the spinal column that forms the posterior pelvis is the:

    • A.

      Thoracic.

    • B.

      Cervical.

    • C.

      Lumbar.

    • D.

      Sacral.

    Correct Answer
    D. Sacral.
    Explanation
    The sacral segment of the spinal column forms the posterior pelvis. The sacrum is a triangular bone located at the base of the spine, between the two hip bones. It consists of five fused vertebrae and connects the spine to the pelvic girdle. The sacrum plays a crucial role in providing stability and support to the pelvis and transferring the weight of the upper body to the lower limbs. Therefore, the correct answer is sacral.

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  • 34. 

    The bones of the lower extremities include:

    • A.

      Acetabulum, calcaneous, and carpals.

    • B.

      Femur, tibia, and fibula.

    • C.

      Orbit, lumbar, and shin.

    • D.

      Radius, ulna, and humerous

    Correct Answer
    B. Femur, tibia, and fibula.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is femur, tibia, and fibula. These are the bones that make up the lower extremities of the body. The femur is the thigh bone, the tibia is the shin bone, and the fibula is the smaller bone next to the tibia. These bones are important for supporting the weight of the body and allowing for movement and mobility in the legs. The other options listed do not include the correct combination of bones that make up the lower extremities.

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  • 35. 

    The type of muscle tissue that controls the flow of materials through the gastrointestinal system  is:

    • A.

      Vo/untary.

    • B.

      Involuntary.

    • C.

      Cardiac.

    • D.

      Skeletal

    Correct Answer
    B. Involuntary.
    Explanation
    Involuntary muscle tissue is the correct answer because it is responsible for controlling the flow of materials through the gastrointestinal system. This type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of the digestive organs and works automatically without conscious control. It contracts and relaxes to push food through the digestive tract, allowing for the movement and absorption of nutrients.

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  • 36. 

    Involuntary or smooth muscles are found in the:

    • A.

      Arms and legs.

    • B.

      Blood vessels

    • C.

      Forehead

    • D.

      Heart

    Correct Answer
    B. Blood vessels
    Explanation
    Involuntary or smooth muscles are found in the blood vessels. These muscles are not under conscious control and are responsible for controlling the diameter of blood vessels, which regulates blood flow and blood pressure. They help in the process of vasodilation (widening of blood vessels) and vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels) to maintain proper blood flow throughout the body. The smooth muscles in the blood vessels are essential for the proper functioning of the circulatory system.

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  • 37. 

    The type of muscle controlling movement as you walk is called:

    • A.

      Voluntary.

    • B.

      Involuntary

    • C.

      Cardiac.

    • D.

      Smooth.

    Correct Answer
    A. Voluntary.
    Explanation
    The type of muscle controlling movement as you walk is called voluntary because it is under conscious control. Voluntary muscles are attached to the bones and are responsible for movement and locomotion. When you walk, you consciously control the contraction and relaxation of these muscles to move your legs and body.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following represents the correct sequence of passage of oxygen from room air tothe lungs?

    • A.

      Nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, lung.

    • B.

      Larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli.

    • C.

      Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli.

    • D.

      Epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, brachi, alveoli

    Correct Answer
    C. Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli.
  • 39. 

    A leaf-shape: valve that prevents food from entering the trachea is the:

    • A.

      Pharynx.

    • B.

      Epiglottis.

    • C.

      Larynx.

    • D.

      Bronchi

    Correct Answer
    B. Epiglottis.
    Explanation
    The epiglottis is a leaf-shaped valve that prevents food from entering the trachea. It is located at the base of the tongue and covers the opening of the trachea during swallowing, ensuring that food goes down the esophagus and into the stomach instead of entering the respiratory system. This mechanism prevents choking and allows for the smooth passage of food and air. The other options listed, such as the pharynx, larynx, and bronchi, are not specifically designed to prevent food from entering the trachea.

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  • 40. 

    The structure containing the voice box is the:

    • A.

      Larynx

    • B.

      Pharynx.

    • C.

      Trachea.

    • D.

      Sternum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Larynx
    Explanation
    The larynx is the structure that contains the voice box. It is located in the throat and is responsible for producing sound by vibrating the vocal cords. The larynx also plays a role in protecting the airway during swallowing and preventing food and liquids from entering the lungs. The pharynx is the passage that connects the nasal and oral cavities to the esophagus and trachea. The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a tube that carries air to and from the lungs. The sternum is the breastbone and is not directly involved in the structure of the voice box.

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  • 41. 

    As the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, the chest cavity decreases in size, causing:

    • A.

      Inhalation.

    • B.

      Exhalation.

    • C.

      Palpation.

    • D.

      Respiratory arrest

    Correct Answer
    B. Exhalation.
    Explanation
    When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, the chest cavity decreases in size. This decrease in size creates pressure within the chest cavity, which forces air out of the lungs. This process is known as exhalation.

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  • 42. 

    Pediatric airways differ from adult airways in that:

    • A.

      The child's tongue takes up proportionately less space.

    • B.

      The trachea is more rigid.

    • C.

      AII structures are smaller and more easily obstructed.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. AII structures are smaller and more easily obstructed.
    Explanation
    Pediatric airways differ from adult airways in multiple ways. One difference is that all structures in a child's airway are smaller compared to an adult's airway. This includes the size of the tongue, trachea, and other structures. Additionally, due to their smaller size, pediatric airways are more easily obstructed, making it more challenging for air to flow freely. Therefore, the correct answer is that all structures in pediatric airways are smaller and more easily obstructed.

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  • 43. 

    The left atrium:

    • A.

      Receives blood full of oxygen from the lungs

    • B.

      Receives deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins.

    • C.

      Pumps blood to the lungs.

    • D.

      Pumps blood to the body.

    Correct Answer
    A. Receives blood full of oxygen from the lungs
    Explanation
    The left atrium of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. Oxygenated blood is rich in oxygen because it has been oxygenated in the lungs during the process of respiration. The left atrium then pumps this oxygen-rich blood into the left ventricle, which, in turn, pumps it out to the rest of the body to supply oxygen to the body's tissues and organs.

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  • 44. 

    All of the following are true about the aorta EXCEPT it:

    • A.

      Is the major artery originating from the heart.

    • B.

      Divides at the level of the navel into the iliac arteries.

    • C.

      Supplies all other vessals with blood.

    • D.

      Is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood.

    Correct Answer
    B. Divides at the level of the navel into the iliac arteries.
    Explanation
    The aorta is the major artery originating from the heart and supplies all other vessels with blood. However, it does not divide at the level of the navel into the iliac arteries.

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  • 45. 

    The major artery in the thigh is called the:

    • A.

      Carotid

    • B.

      Femoral.

    • C.

      Radial.

    • D.

      Brachial.

    Correct Answer
    B. Femoral.
    Explanation
    The major artery in the thigh is called the femoral artery. This artery is responsible for supplying blood to the lower extremities. It is one of the largest arteries in the body and is located in the groin area. The femoral artery carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the thigh and then branches out to supply blood to the rest of the leg.

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  • 46. 

    The vessel that carries oxygen-poor blood to the right atrium is the:

    • A.

      Posterior tibia.

    • B.

      Internal jugular

    • C.

      Vena cava.

    • D.

      Aorta.

    Correct Answer
    C. Vena cava.
    Explanation
    The vena cava is the correct answer because it is the largest vein in the body and carries deoxygenated blood from the body back to the heart. The posterior tibia is a bone in the lower leg and is not involved in carrying blood. The internal jugular is a vein in the neck, but it carries blood from the head and neck to the heart. The aorta is the largest artery in the body and carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body.

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  • 47. 

    The fluid that carries blood cells and nutrients is:

    • A.

      Platelets,

    • B.

      Hemoglobin.

    • C.

      Lymph.

    • D.

      Plasma.

    Correct Answer
    D. Plasma.
    Explanation
    Plasma is the correct answer because it is the fluid component of blood that carries blood cells and nutrients throughout the body. It makes up about 55% of the total blood volume and contains various substances such as water, electrolytes, proteins, hormones, and waste products. Platelets are cell fragments involved in blood clotting, hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen, and lymph is a clear fluid that circulates in the lymphatic system.

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  • 48. 

    The blood component that is essential for the formation of blood clots is called:

    • A.

      Plasma,

    • B.

      Platelets.

    • C.

      Vvhite blood cells.

    • D.

      Red blood cells.

    Correct Answer
    B. Platelets.
    Explanation
    Platelets are the blood component that is essential for the formation of blood clots. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, platelets are activated and form a plug at the site of injury, preventing excessive bleeding. They also release chemicals that help in the formation of a fibrin mesh, which further strengthens the clot. Without platelets, blood clotting would be impaired, leading to prolonged bleeding and difficulty in wound healing.

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  • 49. 

    The pressure on the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is the _______ pressure.

    • A.

      Systolic

    • B.

      Arterial

    • C.

      Diastolic

    • D.

      Residual

    Correct Answer
    A. Systolic
    Explanation
    During the contraction of the left ventricle, blood is forcefully pumped into the arteries, causing an increase in pressure. This maximum pressure exerted on the walls of the artery during ventricular contraction is known as systolic pressure.

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  • 50. 

    The nervous system is subdivided into:

    • A.

      Central and peripheral systems.

    • B.

      Bones and muscles.

    • C.

      Brain and skin.

    • D.

      Spine and vertebral column.

    Correct Answer
    A. Central and peripheral systems.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is central and peripheral systems. The nervous system is divided into two main parts: the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS). The CNS consists of the brain and spinal cord, while the PNS includes all the nerves that extend from the CNS to the rest of the body. This division allows for the coordination and communication between the brain and the rest of the body, allowing for the control of bodily functions and responses to stimuli.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 02, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Mpulley911
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