EMT I Exam Practice - Medical Emergencies - Part I
PRACTICE TEST FOR EMT-I SEMESTER EXAM
- 1.CNS depression would lead to a problem with:
- A.
perfusion
- B.
Oxygenation
- C.
Diffusion
- D.
Ventilation
- 2.Pulmonary edema would lead to a problem with:
- A.
Perfusion
- B.
Oxygenation
- C.
Diffusion
- D.
Ventilation
- 3.While you are gathering a history of an asthma patient she tells you, "they had to intubate me last time this happened" this information is:
- A.
An accurate indicator of severe pulmonary disease
- B.
Not related to future ventilation needs
- C.
Pertinent to theis event; you should intubate this patient immediately
- D.
Important to the hospital staff but not important in the prehospital environment
- 4.The term "blue bloater" is used to describe which of the following conditions:
- A.
Asthma
- B.
Emphysema
- C.
Chronic bronchitis
- D.
Pneumonia
- 5.Drugs like albuterol help asthma patients by:
- A.
Increasing mucus production
- B.
Preventing atelectasis
- C.
Increasing surfactant production
- D.
Dilating the bronchi
- 6.While treating a patient with COPD, she advises you not to adminsiter oxygen because she breathes on the basis of her "hypoxic drive". Her pulse oximety reading is 85%. You should:
- A.
Administer oxygen via a simple mask at 4 to 6 L per minute
- B.
Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula at 2 L per minute
- C.
Adminsiter high-flow oxygen and be prepared to ventilate if neccessary
- D.
Withhold oxygen therapy
- 7.Excessive positive intrathoracic pressure during an asthma attack may lead to:
- A.
Hypertension
- B.
Excessively increased preload
- C.
Hypocapnia
- D.
Pulsus paradoxus
- 8.Which adventitious lung sounds are most commonly associated with asthma?
- A.
Rales (crackles)
- B.
Rhonchi
- C.
Stridor
- D.
Wheezes
- 9.One factor that may help differentiate pneumonia from COPD is the presence of:
- A.
Productive cough
- B.
Fever
- C.
Rhonchi
- D.
Rales
- 10.PEEP is used to:
- A.
Keep alveoli open
- B.
Ventilate patients with pneumothorax
- C.
Overcome upper airway obstruction
- D.
Open constricted bronchi
- 11.Air entering the pleural space that is not related to trauma is known as:
- A.
Tension pneumothorax
- B.
Medical pneumothorax
- C.
Simple pneumothorax
- D.
Spontaneous pneumothorax
- 12.Blood supply to the brain is supplied by the:
- A.
Facial arteries
- B.
Subclavian atreries
- C.
External carotid arteries
- D.
Internal carotid arteries
- 13.Cerebral perfusion pressure is determined by:
- A.
Mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure
- B.
Diastolic blood pressure and intracranial pressure
- C.
Intracranial pressure and cerebral blood flow
- D.
Cerebral blood flow and systolic blood pressure
- 14.If a patient is hyperventilating, you would expect blood flow to the brain to:
- A.
Not be affected
- B.
Moderately increase
- C.
Decrease
- D.
Not be affected
- 15.A suspected stroke patient is exhibiting decorticate posturing and sluggish pupil reaction time. Ventilation for this patient should be:
- A.
Aimed at maintaining a PCO2 of 30mm Hg
- B.
Withheld, allowing the carbon dioxide levels to return to normal
- C.
Increased until the patient stops posturing
- D.
Continued at a rate of more than 40 breaths per minute
- 16.Cushings triad consists of:
- A.
Decreased blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate
- B.
Elevated blood pressure, decreased pulse and respiratory rate
- C.
Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse and respiratory rate
- D.
Elevated blood pressure, pulse and respiratory rate
- 17.The single best indicator of a serious neurological condition is:
- A.
Retrograde amnesia
- B.
Increased intracranial pressure
- C.
Hypoxia
- D.
Rapidly worsening level of consciousness
- 18.Which of the following carries the worst prognosis?
- A.
Spastic rigidity
- B.
Flaccidity
- C.
Decerebrate posturing
- D.
Decorticate posturing
- 19.Which of the floowing assessment tools is most helpful when trying to differentiate metabolic causes from structural causes of coma?
- A.
Motor response
- B.
Cranial nerve evaluation
- C.
Level of consciousness
- D.
Pupillary response
- 20.Adminstration of thiamine should be considered if the cause of coma is suspected to be:
- A.
Metabolic
- B.
Alcoholic
- C.
Structural
- D.
Hypoglycemic
- 21.Why would a comatose patient regain consciousness after the administration of naloxone?
- A.
I competes with narcotics at the receptor sites
- B.
It stimulates the brain stem
- C.
It depresses seizure activity
- D.
It stimulates teh sympathetic nervous system
- 22.Naloxone is effective in reversing teh effects of:
- A.
Injectable drugs
- B.
Barbituates and narcotics
- C.
Opiates
- D.
Sedatives and narcotics
- 23.The two major events that occur to cause a stroke are:
- A.
Hemorrhage and sepsis
- B.
Occlusion and hemorrhage
- C.
Occlusion and neoplasm
- D.
Neoplasm and sepsis
- 24.Your patient complains of the abrubt onset of the worst headache she has ever felt in her life. this is indicative of:
- A.
Hemorrhagic stroke
- B.
Transient ischemic attack
- C.
Cerebral embolism
- D.
Cerebral thrombosis
- 25.A TIA differs from a stroke in that:
- A.
The only mechanism of a TIA is occlusive injury
- B.
Patients undergoing a TIA exhibit only weakness and paralysis
- C.
Patients undergoing a TIA have no real risk for having a stroke
- D.
The signs and symptoms of a TIA resolve within 24 hours
Related Topics
Recent Quizzes
Featured Quizzes
Back to top