EMT I Exam Practice - Medical Emergencies - Part I

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  • 1/50 Questions

    CNS depression would lead to a problem with:

    • Perfusion
    • Oxygenation
    • Diffusion
    • Ventilation
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About This Quiz

This EMT I Exam Practice focuses on medical emergencies, assessing critical skills like oxygenation, ventilation, and management of severe pulmonary diseases. It's designed for EMTs to refine their response strategies in emergency medical scenarios.

EMT I Exam Practice - Medical Emergencies - Part I - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Pulmonary edema would lead to a problem with:

    • Perfusion

    • Oxygenation

    • Diffusion

    • Ventilation

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventilation
    Explanation
    Pulmonary edema refers to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to difficulty in breathing. This condition affects the ventilation process, as the excess fluid can impair the movement of air in and out of the lungs. It can cause the airways to narrow, making it harder for the individual to inhale and exhale effectively. Therefore, pulmonary edema would indeed lead to a problem with ventilation.

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  • 3. 

    While you are gathering a history of an asthma patient she tells you, "they had to intubate me last time this happened" this information is:

    • An accurate indicator of severe pulmonary disease

    • Not related to future ventilation needs

    • Pertinent to theis event; you should intubate this patient immediately

    • Important to the hospital staff but not important in the prehospital environment

    Correct Answer
    A. An accurate indicator of severe pulmonary disease
    Explanation
    The patient's statement that they had to be intubated during a previous asthma episode indicates that their condition was severe enough to require this intervention. Intubation is a procedure used to secure the airway and provide mechanical ventilation, suggesting that the patient experienced significant respiratory distress. This information is important for healthcare providers as it suggests that the patient may have a history of severe pulmonary disease and may require closer monitoring and intervention during future episodes. However, it does not necessarily mean that immediate intubation is required in the current situation.

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  • 4. 

    The term "blue bloater" is used to describe which of the following conditions:

    • Asthma

    • Emphysema

    • Chronic bronchitis

    • Pneumonia

    Correct Answer
    A. Chronic bronchitis
    Explanation
    The term "blue bloater" is used to describe chronic bronchitis. This term refers to a specific type of chronic bronchitis characterized by symptoms such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin), obesity, and fluid retention. This condition is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is caused by long-term inflammation and irritation of the airways. It is called "blue bloater" due to the bluish skin color caused by inadequate oxygenation of the blood and the bloating caused by fluid retention.

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  • 5. 

    Drugs like albuterol help asthma patients by:

    • Increasing mucus production

    • Preventing atelectasis

    • Increasing surfactant production

    • Dilating the bronchi

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilating the bronchi
    Explanation
    Albuterol is a bronchodilator medication commonly used to treat asthma. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the airways, specifically the bronchi, which are the main passageways in the lungs. By dilating the bronchi, albuterol helps to open up the airways, making it easier for individuals with asthma to breathe. This can effectively relieve symptoms such as wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.

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  • 6. 

    While treating a patient with COPD, she advises you not to adminsiter oxygen because she breathes on the basis of her "hypoxic drive". Her pulse oximety reading is 85%. You should:

    • Administer oxygen via a simple mask at 4 to 6 L per minute

    • Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula at 2 L per minute

    • Adminsiter high-flow oxygen and be prepared to ventilate if neccessary

    • Withhold oxygen therapy

    Correct Answer
    A. Adminsiter high-flow oxygen and be prepared to ventilate if neccessary
    Explanation
    In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the hypoxic drive becomes the primary stimulus for breathing rather than the normal respiratory drive. This means that their breathing is triggered by low levels of oxygen rather than high levels of carbon dioxide. In this case, the patient's pulse oximetry reading is 85%, indicating hypoxemia. Administering high-flow oxygen and being prepared to ventilate if necessary is the appropriate action to correct the low oxygen levels while monitoring the patient closely.

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  • 7. 

    Excessive positive intrathoracic pressure during an asthma attack may lead to:

    • Hypertension

    • Excessively increased preload

    • Hypocapnia

    • Pulsus paradoxus

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessively increased preload
    Explanation
    During an asthma attack, excessive positive intrathoracic pressure can lead to excessively increased preload. This occurs because the increased pressure in the thoracic cavity restricts venous return to the heart, causing blood to accumulate in the veins. As a result, the amount of blood returning to the heart (preload) increases, leading to an increased workload on the heart. This can potentially lead to complications such as heart failure or cardiac arrhythmias.

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  • 8. 

    Which adventitious lung sounds are most commonly associated with asthma?

    • Rales (crackles)

    • Rhonchi

    • Stridor

    • Wheezes

    Correct Answer
    A. Wheezes
    Explanation
    Wheezes are the most commonly associated adventitious lung sounds with asthma. Wheezing is a high-pitched, musical sound that occurs when air flows through narrowed airways in the lungs. In asthma, the airways become inflamed and narrowed, leading to difficulty in breathing and wheezing. Wheezes are typically heard during expiration and can be heard without a stethoscope in severe cases. They are a key characteristic of asthma and can help in diagnosing and monitoring the condition. Rales (crackles), rhonchi, and stridor are also adventitious lung sounds but are not specifically associated with asthma.

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  • 9. 

    One factor that may help differentiate pneumonia from COPD is the presence of:

    • Productive cough

    • Fever

    • Rhonchi

    • Rales

    Correct Answer
    A. Fever
    Explanation
    Fever can help differentiate pneumonia from COPD because it is a common symptom of pneumonia but not typically seen in COPD. Pneumonia is an infection in the lungs that often leads to an inflammatory response, resulting in fever. On the other hand, COPD is a chronic lung disease characterized by airflow limitation and is not typically associated with fever. Therefore, the presence of fever can be a useful clue in distinguishing between these two conditions.

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  • 10. 

    PEEP is used to:

    • Keep alveoli open

    • Ventilate patients with pneumothorax

    • Overcome upper airway obstruction

    • Open constricted bronchi

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep alveoli open
    Explanation
    PEEP stands for positive end-expiratory pressure and is used to keep alveoli open. Alveoli are small air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs. PEEP is applied during mechanical ventilation by maintaining a positive pressure in the airways at the end of expiration. This helps to prevent the collapse of alveoli, especially in patients with conditions like acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) or atelectasis. By keeping the alveoli open, PEEP improves oxygenation and helps to recruit collapsed lung units, improving overall lung function.

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  • 11. 

    Air entering the pleural space that is not related to trauma is known as:

    • Tension pneumothorax

    • Medical pneumothorax

    • Simple pneumothorax

    • Spontaneous pneumothorax

    Correct Answer
    A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
    Explanation
    Spontaneous pneumothorax refers to the entry of air into the pleural space without any external trauma. This condition typically occurs due to the rupture of small air sacs called blebs on the surface of the lung. It is often seen in young, tall, thin individuals and can cause sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. Unlike tension pneumothorax, which is a medical emergency, spontaneous pneumothorax is not immediately life-threatening and can resolve on its own or with medical intervention.

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  • 12. 

    Blood supply to the brain is supplied by the:

    • Facial arteries

    • Subclavian atreries

    • External carotid arteries

    • Internal carotid arteries

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal carotid arteries
    Explanation
    The internal carotid arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the brain. These arteries are located in the neck and are a major source of blood flow to the brain. They branch off from the common carotid arteries and enter the skull through the carotid canal. Once inside the skull, they further divide into smaller branches that supply different regions of the brain. The internal carotid arteries are essential for providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain cells, ensuring proper brain function.

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  • 13. 

    Cerebral perfusion pressure is determined by:

    • Mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure

    • Diastolic blood pressure and intracranial pressure

    • Intracranial pressure and cerebral blood flow

    • Cerebral blood flow and systolic blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure
    Explanation
    Cerebral perfusion pressure refers to the pressure gradient that drives blood flow to the brain. It is determined by the difference between mean arterial pressure (MAP), which is the average pressure in the arteries during one cardiac cycle, and intracranial pressure (ICP), which is the pressure inside the skull. MAP represents the driving force for blood flow, while ICP represents the resistance to blood flow within the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure.

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  • 14. 

    If a patient is hyperventilating, you would expect blood flow to the brain to:

    • Not be affected

    • Moderately increase

    • Decrease

    • Not be affected

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease
    Explanation
    When a patient is hyperventilating, it means they are breathing rapidly and taking in more oxygen than necessary, causing a decrease in the levels of carbon dioxide in their blood. This decrease in carbon dioxide can lead to constriction of blood vessels in the brain, reducing blood flow to the brain. Therefore, it is expected that blood flow to the brain would decrease in a patient who is hyperventilating.

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  • 15. 

    A suspected stroke patient is exhibiting decorticate posturing and sluggish pupil reaction time. Ventilation for this patient should be:

    • Aimed at maintaining a PCO2 of 30mm Hg

    • Withheld, allowing the carbon dioxide levels to return to normal

    • Increased until the patient stops posturing

    • Continued at a rate of more than 40 breaths per minute

    Correct Answer
    A. Aimed at maintaining a PCO2 of 30mm Hg
    Explanation
    The correct answer is aimed at maintaining a PCO2 of 30mm Hg. In a suspected stroke patient exhibiting decorticate posturing and sluggish pupil reaction time, maintaining a PCO2 of 30mm Hg is important. This is because high levels of carbon dioxide can cause cerebral vasodilation, leading to increased intracranial pressure and potentially worsening the patient's condition. By aiming to maintain a PCO2 of 30mm Hg, ventilation can help prevent further neurological damage and support the patient's recovery.

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  • 16. 

    Cushings triad consists of:

    • Decreased blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate

    • Elevated blood pressure, decreased pulse and respiratory rate

    • Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse and respiratory rate

    • Elevated blood pressure, pulse and respiratory rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Elevated blood pressure, decreased pulse and respiratory rate
    Explanation
    Cushing's triad refers to a set of symptoms that occur in response to increased intracranial pressure. The correct answer states that Cushing's triad consists of elevated blood pressure, decreased pulse, and respiratory rate. This is because the increased pressure in the brain leads to a reflexive increase in blood pressure. However, the brain's ability to regulate heart rate and breathing is compromised, resulting in a decrease in pulse and respiratory rate.

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  • 17. 

    The single best indicator of a serious neurological condition is:

    • Retrograde amnesia

    • Increased intracranial pressure

    • Hypoxia

    • Rapidly worsening level of consciousness

    Correct Answer
    A. Rapidly worsening level of consciousness
    Explanation
    A rapidly worsening level of consciousness is the single best indicator of a serious neurological condition because it suggests a significant decline in brain function. This could be due to various causes such as a traumatic brain injury, stroke, or brain infection. As the level of consciousness worsens, it indicates that the brain is unable to function properly, which can be a life-threatening situation requiring immediate medical attention. Other symptoms such as confusion, disorientation, and inability to respond to stimuli may accompany the worsening level of consciousness, further supporting the diagnosis of a serious neurological condition.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following carries the worst prognosis?

    • Spastic rigidity

    • Flaccidity

    • Decerebrate posturing

    • Decorticate posturing

    Correct Answer
    A. Flaccidity
    Explanation
    Flaccidity refers to a state of limpness or loss of muscle tone, often caused by damage to the nerves or muscles. In the context of the question, flaccidity carries the worst prognosis because it suggests a complete loss of voluntary muscle control. This can indicate severe damage to the central nervous system, such as spinal cord injury or brain damage, which may result in permanent paralysis or other long-term impairments.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the flowing assessment tools is most helpful when trying to differentiate metabolic causes from structural causes of coma?

    • Motor response

    • Cranial nerve evaluation

    • Level of consciousness

    • Pupillary response

    Correct Answer
    A. Pupillary response
    Explanation
    The pupillary response is the most helpful assessment tool when trying to differentiate between metabolic causes and structural causes of coma. Changes in the size and reactivity of the pupils can provide valuable information about the functioning of the brainstem and the integrity of the cranial nerves. In cases of metabolic causes, such as drug overdose or electrolyte imbalances, the pupillary response may be normal. However, in cases of structural causes, such as brainstem lesions or increased intracranial pressure, the pupillary response may be abnormal, indicating a more serious condition. Therefore, assessing the pupillary response can help in determining the underlying cause of the coma.

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  • 20. 

    Adminstration of thiamine should be considered if the cause of coma is suspected to be:

    • Metabolic

    • Alcoholic

    • Structural

    • Hypoglycemic

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcoholic
    Explanation
    Thiamine administration should be considered if the cause of coma is suspected to be alcoholic. Alcohol abuse can lead to thiamine deficiency, which can result in a condition called Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. This syndrome can cause neurological symptoms such as confusion, memory loss, and coma. Administering thiamine can help reverse the deficiency and potentially improve the patient's condition.

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  • 21. 

    Why would a comatose patient regain consciousness after the administration of naloxone?

    • I competes with narcotics at the receptor sites

    • It stimulates the brain stem

    • It depresses seizure activity

    • It stimulates teh sympathetic nervous system

    Correct Answer
    A. I competes with narcotics at the receptor sites
    Explanation
    Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist, meaning it competes with narcotics for binding to the opioid receptors in the brain. When administered to a comatose patient who has overdosed on narcotics, naloxone can displace the narcotics from the receptor sites and reverse the effects of the overdose. This can lead to the patient regaining consciousness as the opioids are no longer binding to the receptors and causing sedation.

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  • 22. 

    Naloxone is effective in reversing teh effects of:

    • Injectable drugs

    • Barbituates and narcotics

    • Opiates

    • Sedatives and narcotics

    Correct Answer
    A. Opiates
    Explanation
    Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of opioids, which are a class of drugs that include opiates. Opiates are derived from the opium poppy plant and include substances like heroin, morphine, and codeine. Naloxone works by binding to the same receptors in the brain that opioids bind to, effectively blocking their effects and reversing the respiratory depression and sedation caused by opioid overdose. Therefore, naloxone is specifically effective in reversing the effects of opiates.

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  • 23. 

    The two major events that occur to cause a stroke are:

    • Hemorrhage and sepsis

    • Occlusion and hemorrhage

    • Occlusion and neoplasm

    • Neoplasm and sepsis

    Correct Answer
    A. Occlusion and neoplasm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is occlusion and neoplasm. A stroke occurs when there is a disruption in blood flow to the brain. Occlusion refers to the blockage or narrowing of a blood vessel, which can lead to reduced blood flow to the brain and cause a stroke. Neoplasm refers to the presence of a tumor, which can also disrupt blood flow and increase the risk of a stroke. Therefore, both occlusion and neoplasm are major events that can cause a stroke.

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  • 24. 

    Your patient complains of the abrubt onset of the worst headache she has ever felt in her life. this is indicative of:

    • Hemorrhagic stroke

    • Transient ischemic attack

    • Cerebral embolism

    • Cerebral thrombosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemorrhagic stroke
    Explanation
    The abrupt onset of the worst headache a patient has ever experienced is indicative of a hemorrhagic stroke. Hemorrhagic strokes occur when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures, causing bleeding and increased pressure on the brain. This sudden and severe headache is a common symptom of a hemorrhagic stroke, along with other signs such as neurological deficits, nausea, vomiting, and loss of consciousness. It is important to seek immediate medical attention in such cases as hemorrhagic strokes can be life-threatening and require urgent treatment.

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  • 25. 

    A TIA differs from a stroke in that:

    • The only mechanism of a TIA is occlusive injury

    • Patients undergoing a TIA exhibit only weakness and paralysis

    • Patients undergoing a TIA have no real risk for having a stroke

    • The signs and symptoms of a TIA resolve within 24 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. The signs and symptoms of a TIA resolve within 24 hours
    Explanation
    A TIA differs from a stroke because the signs and symptoms of a TIA resolve within 24 hours. Unlike a stroke, where the effects are long-lasting or permanent, a TIA is a temporary episode that typically lasts for a few minutes to a few hours. This is due to the temporary disruption of blood flow to the brain, which resolves on its own. However, it is important to note that a TIA is still a warning sign of a potential stroke and should not be ignored.

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  • 26. 

    The arm drift in the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is abnormal if:

    • Gripping an object in the hands causes the arms to drift

    • One arm drifts down compared to the other

    • The patient cannot hold his or her arms in front of the body for 3 minutes

    • Pressure applied against outstretched arms causes them to drift

    Correct Answer
    A. One arm drifts down compared to the other
    Explanation
    In the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale, arm drift is considered abnormal if one arm drifts down compared to the other. This means that when both arms are extended and held in place, if one arm starts to lower or drift downward while the other remains in its original position, it indicates a potential abnormality. This could be a sign of weakness or loss of muscle control in one side of the body, which may be indicative of a stroke or other neurological condition.

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  • 27. 

    The most important action a paramedic can take in the treatment of a stroke patient is to:

    • Rapidly transport the patient to an appropriate facility

    • Determine whether the stroke is hemorrhagic or occlusive

    • Administer glucose

    • Control seizure activity

    Correct Answer
    A. Rapidly transport the patient to an appropriate facility
    Explanation
    The most important action a paramedic can take in the treatment of a stroke patient is to rapidly transport the patient to an appropriate facility. Time is crucial in treating a stroke, as the longer it takes for the patient to receive medical intervention, the higher the risk of permanent damage or even death. By quickly transporting the patient to a specialized stroke center, they can receive timely and appropriate treatment, such as clot-busting medication or surgical intervention, which can significantly improve their chances of recovery.

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  • 28. 

    Epilepsy is a seizure disorder

    • Caused by metabolic abnormalities

    • Secondary to infection

    • That occurs primarily in febrile children

    • With no known correctable or avoidable causes

    Correct Answer
    A. With no known correctable or avoidable causes
    Explanation
    The given correct answer states that epilepsy is a seizure disorder with no known correctable or avoidable causes. This means that there are no specific actions or treatments that can completely prevent or cure epilepsy. It suggests that the disorder may be caused by metabolic abnormalities secondary to infection, but there is no way to correct or avoid these abnormalities. Additionally, it mentions that epilepsy primarily occurs in febrile children, indicating that it is more common in children who have a fever.

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  • 29. 

    Your partner suddenly falls to th efloor and becomes very rigid, withoccasional relaxation of the muscles. His temperature is normal. He is apneic and incontinent of urine. This type of seizure activity is best described as:

    • Clonic

    • Tonic

    • Tonic-clonic

    • Petit mal

    Correct Answer
    A. Tonic-clonic
    Explanation
    The given scenario describes a tonic-clonic seizure. This type of seizure is characterized by sudden loss of consciousness, rigidity (tonic phase), followed by rhythmic jerking movements (clonic phase). The partner's normal temperature, apnea, and urinary incontinence are consistent with the features of a tonic-clonic seizure. Petit mal seizures are typically brief and involve a temporary loss of awareness without convulsions. Clonic seizures involve only rhythmic jerking movements without initial rigidity. Tonic seizures involve sustained muscle contractions without the jerking movements.

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  • 30. 

    Your 4 year old son stares off into space and doesn't respond to y our repeated questioning about whether he's all right. he displays no movement and remains in a standing position. this type of seizure activity is best defined as:

    • Petit mal

    • Clonic

    • Tonic-clonic

    • Tonic

    Correct Answer
    A. Petit mal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is petit mal. Petit mal seizures, also known as absence seizures, are characterized by a brief loss of consciousness or awareness. During these seizures, the person may appear to stare off into space and not respond to external stimuli. They may also exhibit no movement and maintain their current position, as described in the scenario with the 4-year-old son.

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  • 31. 

    Status epilepticus is defined as:

    • A period of abnormal perception prior to a seizure

    • Seizure activitiy on only one side of the body

    • Repetitive seizures without any period of awakening

    • The medical term for psychogenic epilepsy

    Correct Answer
    A. Repetitive seizures without any period of awakening
    Explanation
    Status epilepticus is defined as repetitive seizures without any period of awakening. This means that a person experiencing status epilepticus will have continuous or frequent seizures without regaining consciousness in between. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention as it can be life-threatening. Prompt medical attention is necessary to control the seizures and prevent further complications.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is typical of syncope?

    • The patient is tachycardic

    • Tonic-clonic movements are observed

    • Unconsciousness last for several minutes

    • A feeling of lightheadedness before an episode

    Correct Answer
    A. A feeling of lightheadedness before an episode
    Explanation
    Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a temporary reduction in blood flow to the brain. A feeling of lightheadedness before an episode is typical of syncope because it often precedes the loss of consciousness. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate), tonic-clonic movements, and unconsciousness lasting for several minutes are not typical of syncope.

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  • 33. 

    Endocrine glands secreete their hormones into the:

    • Lymphatic system

    • Target tissues

    • Blood stream

    • Effector organs

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood stream
    Explanation
    Endocrine glands secrete their hormones directly into the bloodstream. This allows the hormones to be transported throughout the body, reaching their target tissues and organs. The bloodstream acts as a distribution system, carrying the hormones to their specific destinations where they can exert their effects. The lymphatic system is not involved in the transportation of hormones secreted by endocrine glands. Effector organs are the organs or tissues that respond to the hormones, but they do not receive the hormones directly from the endocrine glands. Therefore, the correct answer is the blood stream.

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  • 34. 

    Diabetes is cased primarily by a disorder of the:

    • Pancreas

    • Liver

    • Stomach

    • Gallbladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Pancreas
    Explanation
    Diabetes is primarily caused by a disorder of the pancreas. The pancreas plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels by producing insulin, a hormone that helps transport glucose from the bloodstream into cells for energy. In diabetes, the pancreas either produces insufficient insulin or the body becomes resistant to its effects, leading to elevated blood sugar levels. This dysfunction in the pancreas is the main underlying cause of diabetes.

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  • 35. 

    The primary function of insulin is to:

    • Decrease glucose matabolism

    • Eliminate pancreatic glycogen stores

    • Transport glucose into the cells

    • Increase blood glucose concentration

    Correct Answer
    A. Transport glucose into the cells
    Explanation
    Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. Its primary function is to transport glucose from the bloodstream into the cells of the body. This allows the cells to use glucose as a source of energy and helps to lower blood glucose concentration. Insulin also promotes the storage of glucose as glycogen in the liver and muscles for later use. Therefore, the correct answer is that the primary function of insulin is to transport glucose into the cells.

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  • 36. 

    When testing a patient's blood glucose level, you obtain a reading of 12 mg/dL. this reading is

    • Normal

    • The high end of normal

    • Extremely elevated

    • Abnormally low

    Correct Answer
    A. The high end of normal
    Explanation
    A blood glucose level reading of 12 mg/dL is considered to be at the high end of the normal range. Normal blood glucose levels typically range between 70-140 mg/dL, so a reading of 12 mg/dL falls within this range. It is important to note that blood glucose levels can vary depending on various factors such as time of day, recent meals, and individual health conditions. Therefore, it is always recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for a comprehensive evaluation and interpretation of blood glucose levels.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following hormones is secreted when serum glucose levels rise?

    • Glucogen

    • Insulin

    • Epinephrine

    • Cortisol

    Correct Answer
    A. Insulin
    Explanation
    Insulin is secreted when serum glucose levels rise. This hormone is released by the pancreas in response to high blood sugar levels. Insulin helps regulate glucose by allowing cells to take in and use glucose for energy, thereby reducing blood sugar levels. It also promotes the storage of excess glucose as glycogen in the liver for later use.

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  • 38. 

    Type I diabetes is caused by

    • Inappropriate carbohydrate metabolism

    • Excessive prodution of glucagon

    • The liver's inability to break down glucose

    • Inadequate production of insulin

    Correct Answer
    A. Inadequate production of insulin
    Explanation
    Type I diabetes is caused by inadequate production of insulin. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate blood sugar levels. In Type I diabetes, the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Without enough insulin, the body is unable to properly regulate blood sugar levels, resulting in high blood sugar. This can lead to various complications if not managed properly, such as damage to organs and tissues.

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  • 39. 

    Type II diabetes is caused by:

    • Excessive carbohydrate intake

    • The liver's inability to store glycogen

    • Decreased production of insulin

    • Poor protein breakdown

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased production of insulin
    Explanation
    Type II diabetes is caused by decreased production of insulin. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate blood sugar levels. In Type II diabetes, the body either doesn't produce enough insulin or becomes resistant to its effects. This leads to elevated blood sugar levels, which can cause a range of health problems. Excessive carbohydrate intake can contribute to the development of Type II diabetes, but it is not the direct cause. The liver's inability to store glycogen and poor protein breakdown are not primary causes of Type II diabetes.

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  • 40. 

    A diabetic patient exhibits Kussmaul breathing to

    • Create a metabolic alkalosis

    • Compensate for metabolic acidosis

    • Create a repiratory alkalosis

    • Reverse respiratory acidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Compensate for metabolic acidosis
    Explanation
    Kussmaul breathing is a deep and rapid breathing pattern that is commonly seen in diabetic patients with metabolic acidosis. Metabolic acidosis is a condition characterized by an excess of acid in the blood, which can occur in diabetes due to the accumulation of ketones. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for this acidosis by increasing the elimination of carbon dioxide through the respiratory system. This helps to restore the acid-base balance in the body and bring the pH back to normal. Therefore, the diabetic patient exhibits Kussmaul breathing to compensate for metabolic acidosis.

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  • 41. 

    You are called to treat a 13 year old girl with a history of diabetes. her mother said she began acting strange and then lapsed into unconsciousness. you treat her by administering:

    • Thiamine

    • Dextrose

    • Insulin

    • Large boluses of normal saline

    Correct Answer
    A. Dextrose
    Explanation
    The correct answer is dextrose. When a person with diabetes experiences a sudden drop in blood sugar levels, they can develop a condition called hypoglycemia, which can lead to unconsciousness. Administering dextrose, a form of glucose, helps to quickly raise the blood sugar levels and reverse the symptoms of hypoglycemia. Thiamine is not the appropriate treatment for this situation, as it is used to prevent or treat thiamine deficiency. Insulin is used to lower blood sugar levels in individuals with high blood sugar, so it would not be appropriate in this case. Large boluses of normal saline would not effectively treat hypoglycemia.

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  • 42. 

    Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia may include:

    • Combative behavior

    • Warm, moist skin

    • Bradycardia

    • Flaccidity

    Correct Answer
    A. Combative behavior
    Explanation
    Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels. When blood sugar levels drop too low, it can lead to various signs and symptoms. One of these symptoms is combative behavior, which refers to being aggressive, irritable, or confrontational. This can occur because the brain is not receiving enough glucose, which can affect mood and behavior. The other listed signs and symptoms, such as warm, moist skin, bradycardia (slow heart rate), and flaccidity (muscle weakness), are not typically associated with hypoglycemia.

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  • 43. 

    Signs and symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis include:

    • Cool, moist skin and kussmaul respirations

    • Wam, moist skin and hypertension

    • Warm, dry skin and kussmaul respirations

    • Cool dry skin and hypertension

    Correct Answer
    A. Warm, dry skin and kussmaul respirations
  • 44. 

    Administration of dextrose 50% can precipitate neurological complications in:

    • Unresponsive patients

    • Teenage patients

    • Type I diabetics

    • Alcoholic patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcoholic patients
    Explanation
    Administration of dextrose 50% can precipitate neurological complications in alcoholic patients because they may have developed thiamine deficiency, also known as Wernicke's encephalopathy. Alcohol interferes with the absorption and utilization of thiamine, which is essential for proper brain function. When dextrose is administered to these patients, it can worsen the thiamine deficiency and lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, ataxia, and memory problems. Therefore, caution should be exercised when giving dextrose to alcoholic patients to prevent these complications.

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  • 45. 

    You are called to treat a patient with a known history of diabetes and alcoholism. the patient's friend reports that he didn't eat all day while they were attending a tailgate party. thate patient ingested mixed drinks. the patient is currently unresponsive. you note that he has an insulin pump in place. befoer adminstering dextrose, you should consider the following:

    • Insulin

    • Glucagon

    • Thiamine

    • Flumazenil

    Correct Answer
    A. Thiamine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is thiamine. Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, is important in glucose metabolism and is often deficient in patients with alcoholism. In this case, the patient's history of alcoholism and lack of food intake, combined with the presence of an insulin pump, suggests the possibility of Wernicke's encephalopathy, a condition caused by thiamine deficiency. Administering thiamine before dextrose is important to prevent or treat this condition. Insulin, glucagon, and flumazenil would not be appropriate in this situation.

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  • 46. 

    Glucogen should be considered when:

    • An IV line cannot be established

    • The patient is known to have liver disease

    • You suspect DKA

    • Blood glucose levels are below 100 mg/L

    Correct Answer
    A. An IV line cannot be established
    Explanation
    In situations where an IV line cannot be established, administering glucogen can be considered as an alternative method to quickly increase blood glucose levels. Glucogen is a hormone produced by the liver that helps raise blood sugar levels. When an IV line cannot be established, it may be necessary to administer glucogen to prevent hypoglycemia or to provide immediate glucose support to the body. This option becomes particularly important in emergency situations where time is of the essence and there is a need for rapid glucose administration.

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  • 47. 

    Glocagon is effective in treating hypoglcemia because it stimulates the:

    • Excretion of ketones

    • Breakdown of liver glycogen

    • Transport of glucose into the cells

    • Production of insulin

    Correct Answer
    A. Breakdown of liver glycogen
    Explanation
    Glucagon is effective in treating hypoglycemia because it stimulates the breakdown of liver glycogen. When blood sugar levels drop too low, the pancreas releases glucagon, which signals the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose and release it into the bloodstream. This process helps to raise blood sugar levels and restore normal glucose levels in the body. Therefore, the breakdown of liver glycogen is an important mechanism by which glucagon treats hypoglycemia.

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  • 48. 

    Localized allergic reactions ar best managed with

    • Topical steriods

    • Antihistamines

    • Hot packs and elevation

    • Beta blockers

    Correct Answer
    A. Antihistamines
    Explanation
    Antihistamines are the most effective treatment for localized allergic reactions. Antihistamines work by blocking the effects of histamine, a chemical released by the body during an allergic reaction. This helps to relieve symptoms such as itching, redness, and swelling. Topical steroids may also be used to reduce inflammation, but they are not as effective as antihistamines in managing allergic reactions. Hot packs and elevation may provide temporary relief, but they do not address the underlying allergic response. Beta blockers are not typically used to treat allergic reactions.

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  • 49. 

    The chemical released ain an anaphylactic reaction that causes rapidly increased vascular permeability and capillary and venule dilation is:

    • Kinin

    • Heparin

    • Histamine

    • Leukotriene

    Correct Answer
    A. Histamine
    Explanation
    Histamine is the correct answer because it is a chemical released during an anaphylactic reaction that causes increased vascular permeability and dilation of capillaries and venules. It plays a key role in the inflammatory response, leading to symptoms such as swelling, redness, and itching. Histamine is released by mast cells and basophils in response to allergens or other triggers, and it acts on specific receptors to produce these effects.

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  • Current Version
  • Nov 10, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 05, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    BBHAGAN

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