CompTIA Security+ (Sy0-201) Quiz 2 Of 4

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1. A user complains that the color laser printer continuously gives an access denied message while attempting to print a text document. The administrator logs onto the PC and prints successfully. Which of the following should the administrator check FIRST?

Explanation

The administrator should first check if the user has sufficient rights to print to the printer. This is because the access denied message suggests that the user may not have the necessary permissions to use the printer. By verifying the user's rights, the administrator can ensure that the issue is not related to permissions before investigating other possible causes such as paper size, toner, or printer tray.

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About This Quiz
Security Plus Quizzes & Trivia

Patience folks, I'm still building this one. Should have it finished this afternoon.

CompTIA Security+ (SY0-201) Practice Exam #2
There will be four tests total (as the method of... see moreproducing these tests seems to die after about 170 questions are loaded). Goal is four separate test with randomly selected questions so each attempt has a different set of 50 questions per attempt.
There will be roughly 700 questions between all four practice exams. . .
Disclaimer: I have been told from those that have gone to take the actual test that these questions are dissimilar. However, the basic disciplines are covered and should help considerably to pick out key associations between questions and answers see less

2. A user is denied access to a file. The user had access to the file yesterday. Which of the following is the FIRST action for the technician to take?

Explanation

The first action for the technician to take is to verify that the user's permissions are correct. This is because the user had access to the file yesterday, indicating that there might be an issue with their permissions. By checking and ensuring that the user has the necessary permissions to access the file, the technician can troubleshoot and resolve any permission-related issues that may have caused the denial of access.

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3. Which of the following usually applies specifically to a web browser?

Explanation

A pop-up blocker is a feature that is typically found in web browsers. It is designed to block or prevent pop-up windows from appearing while browsing the internet. These pop-up windows often contain advertisements or other unwanted content, and can be disruptive to the user's browsing experience. By having a pop-up blocker, web browsers can provide a more seamless and uninterrupted browsing experience by blocking these unwanted pop-up windows.

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4. Which of the following allows a person to find public wireless access points?

Explanation

SSID broadcast allows a person to find public wireless access points. When a wireless access point broadcasts its SSID (Service Set Identifier), it becomes visible to nearby devices. This allows users to easily identify and connect to the network. While disabling SSID broadcast can enhance security by making the network less visible, it can also make it more difficult for users to find and connect to the network. Therefore, enabling SSID broadcast is commonly used for public wireless access points to ensure easy accessibility for users.

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5. Which of the following exploits is only triggered by a specific date or time key?

Explanation

A logic bomb is a type of malicious code that is specifically designed to execute a harmful action when a certain date or time condition is met. It remains dormant until the trigger event occurs, at which point it can delete files, corrupt data, or cause other disruptive actions. Unlike trojans, worms, and botnets, which can be triggered by various events or actions, a logic bomb relies solely on a specific date or time key to activate its malicious payload.

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6. A DMZ has a fake network that a hacker is attacking. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

A honeypot is a security mechanism that sets up a fake network or system to attract hackers and gather information about their techniques and intentions. In this scenario, the DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) is acting as a honeypot by creating a decoy network that the hacker is attacking. By luring the hacker to the honeypot, security professionals can study the hacker's methods, identify vulnerabilities, and enhance their overall security posture.

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7. Which of the following would a password cracker help an administrator to find?

Explanation

A password cracker is a tool used by administrators to test the strength and security of passwords. It helps identify weak passwords that can be easily guessed or cracked by attackers. By using various techniques such as brute-force attacks or dictionary attacks, a password cracker can systematically attempt different combinations of characters and uncover passwords that are vulnerable to unauthorized access.

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8. Which of the following allows for notification when a hacking attempt is discovered?

Explanation

NIDS (Network-Intrusion Detection System) Passive Response Options:
Notification communicates intrusion event-related information to the appropriate personnel when an event has occurred. This includes relaying any relevant data about the event to help evaluate the situation. If the IDS is manned full-time, messages can be displayed on the manager's console to indicate that the situation is occurring. (Domain 2.4)

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9. Which of the following security threats is MOST commonly associated with a targeted distributed denial of service (DDoS)?

Explanation

A targeted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack involves overwhelming a target's network or website with a massive amount of traffic, rendering it inaccessible. Botnets, which are networks of compromised computers controlled by a single entity, are commonly associated with DDoS attacks. The attacker can use the botnet to send a flood of traffic to the target, amplifying the impact of the attack. This makes botnets the most commonly associated security threat with targeted DDoS attacks.

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10. Which of the following BEST applies in the secure disposal of computers?

Explanation

In the secure disposal of computers, it is important to ensure that computer media is sanitized. This means that all data on the media, such as hard drives or flash drives, must be completely erased or destroyed to prevent any sensitive information from being accessed by unauthorized individuals. Sanitizing the media helps to protect against data breaches and identity theft.

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11. A developer added code to a financial system designed to transfer money to a foreign bank
account on a specific time and date. The code would activate only if human resources processed the developers termination papers. The developer implemented which of the following security threats?

Explanation

The developer implemented a logic bomb in the financial system. A logic bomb is a malicious code that is inserted into a software system and is triggered by a specific event or condition, in this case, the processing of the developer's termination papers by human resources. Once triggered, the logic bomb would activate and initiate the unauthorized transfer of money to a foreign bank account. This represents a security threat as it could result in financial loss and unauthorized access to sensitive information.

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12. Which of the following media is the LEAST likely to be successfully tapped into?

Explanation

Fiber, as a media, is relatively secure because it can't be tapped easily. Most known methods of tapping fiber are easily detectable by an IDS. (Domain 2.6)

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13. The service provided by message authentication code (MAC) hash is:

Explanation

The service provided by message authentication code (MAC) hash is integrity. A MAC hash is used to verify the integrity of a message by generating a unique tag or code that is appended to the message. This tag is calculated using a secret key and the message itself, and it ensures that the message has not been tampered with during transmission. By comparing the calculated tag with the received tag, the recipient can verify the integrity of the message and ensure that it has not been modified or corrupted.

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14. Which of the following is a collection of fixes for an application or operating system that has been tested by the vendor?

Explanation

A service pack is a collection of fixes for an application or operating system that has been tested by the vendor. It typically includes updates, enhancements, and patches to address known issues and vulnerabilities. Service packs are released periodically to provide users with a consolidated and reliable set of updates that can be applied to their systems. They ensure that the software remains up-to-date, secure, and stable, while also improving its performance and functionality.

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15. Which of the following is a risk associated with a virtual server?

Explanation

If the physical server crashes, all of the local virtual servers go offline immediately. This is a risk associated with a virtual server because virtual servers rely on a physical server to host them. If the physical server fails, all of the virtual servers running on it will also fail and become unavailable. This can result in downtime and disruption of services for the virtual servers' users.

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16. A company decides that the purchasing agent and the accounts receivable agent should exchange positions in order to allow for more oversight of past transactions. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

Job rotation is the correct answer because it involves employees switching roles or positions within a company. In this scenario, the purchasing agent and accounts receivable agent are exchanging positions, which allows for a fresh perspective and increased oversight of past transactions. Job rotation can help prevent fraud, increase employee skills and knowledge, and promote a more well-rounded workforce.

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17. Which of the following is a mechanism that prevents electromagnetic emanations from being
captured?

Explanation

A Faraday cage is a mechanism that prevents electromagnetic emanations from being captured. It is a sealed enclosure made of conductive material, such as metal, that blocks external electromagnetic fields. The conductive material absorbs and redistributes the electromagnetic energy, preventing it from escaping or entering the cage. This helps to protect sensitive electronic devices from electromagnetic interference and prevents unauthorized access to electromagnetic signals.

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18. An anti virus server keeps flagging an approved application that the marketing department has
installed on their local computers as a threat. This is an example of:

Explanation

This scenario is an example of a false positive. A false positive occurs when a system or software incorrectly identifies something as a threat or error when it is actually safe or valid. In this case, the anti-virus server is flagging an approved application as a threat, which is a false positive because the application is not actually harmful.

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19. Which of the following allows for the highest level of security at time of login?

Explanation

Two-factor authentication involves an additional step beyond the normal password (one-factor) entry. Your CAC +PIN is a good example of two-factor method. (Domain 3.7)

SIDE STUDY
Single sign-on - passes authentication information to trusted systems after the initial logon by the user.
One factor-authentication - normally a username and password are all that is required for access.
NTLMv2 - NTLM (NT LAN Manager) is a suite of Microsoft security protocols that offers authentication, integrity, and confidentiality to users. NTLM is the successor to Microsoft LAN Manager (LANMAN).

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20. Which of the following would use a group of bots to stop a web server from accepting new requests?

Explanation

DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) - a derivative of a DoS attack in which multiple hosts in multiple locations all focus on one target to reduce its availability to the public. (Domain 2.1)

SIDE STUDY:
DoS (Denial of Service) - a type of attack that prevents any users - even legitimate ones - from using a system.
MAC (Media Access Control) - A sublayer of the Data Link layer of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model that controls the way multiple devices use the same media channel. This is a communication protocol, not an attack.
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) used to map known IP addresses to unknown physical addresses. This is a communication protocol commonly used by routers.

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21. Which of the following physical threats is prevented with mantraps?

Explanation

Mantraps are physical security devices designed to prevent unauthorized access to a secure area. They consist of a small enclosed space with two doors, where the first door must close and lock before the second door can open. This prevents multiple people from entering the secure area by piggybacking, which is when an unauthorized person follows closely behind an authorized person to gain access. Therefore, mantraps are specifically used to prevent piggybacking.

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22. Which of the following allows for a secure connection to be made through a web browser?

Explanation

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) allows for a secure connection to be made through a web browser. It provides encryption and authentication, ensuring that the data transmitted between the web browser and the server is protected from unauthorized access or tampering. SSL is commonly used for secure online transactions, such as e-commerce websites, online banking, and secure login pages. It establishes a secure connection by encrypting the data and verifying the identity of the server, providing a secure and trustworthy communication channel.

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23. Which of the following is the quickest method to create a secure test server for a programmer?

Explanation

Creating a virtual server on existing equipment is the quickest method to create a secure test server for a programmer. This option utilizes the existing equipment, which saves time and resources compared to installing a network operating system on new equipment or existing equipment. Additionally, a virtual server provides a secure environment for testing without affecting the main server or network.

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24. A user needs to verify that a patch file downloaded from a third party has not been modified since the time that the original manufacturer released the patch. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify that the file has not been modified?

Explanation

Comparing the final MD5 hash with the original is the best way to verify that the patch file has not been modified. MD5 is a widely used cryptographic hash function that generates a unique hash value for a given file. By comparing the final MD5 hash of the downloaded patch file with the original MD5 hash provided by the manufacturer, any changes or modifications to the file can be detected. If the hashes match, it ensures the integrity and authenticity of the file, indicating that it has not been tampered with since the manufacturer released it.

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25. A number of unauthorized staff has been entering the data center by piggybacking authorized
staff. The CIO has mandated that this behavior stops. Which of the following is the BEST
technology to install at the data center to prevent piggybacking?

Explanation

A mantrap is a security device that consists of two interlocking doors or gates. It allows only one person to pass through at a time, preventing unauthorized individuals from piggybacking or following authorized staff into the data center. By installing a mantrap at the data center, the CIO can ensure that only one person is allowed entry at a time, effectively stopping the unauthorized access. This technology provides a physical barrier and enhances the overall security of the data center.

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26. Which of the following allows a technician to scan for missing patches on a device without actually attempting to exploit the security problem?

Explanation

A TCP/IP network makes many of the ports available to outside users through the router. These ports respond in a predictable way. A port scanner can identify which ports are open and the data collected can be fed to a vulnerability scanner, whose job is to identify the known exploits attackers may use on that open port and re-mediate them with patches. (Domain 2.1)

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27. Sending continuous TCP requests to a device and ignoring the return information until the device ceases to accept new connections is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

DoS (Denial of Service) - a type of attack that prevents any users - even legitimate ones - from using a system. (Domain 2.1)

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28. Which of the following practices should be implemented to harden workstations and servers?

Explanation

Installing only needed software is a recommended practice to harden workstations and servers. By installing only necessary software, the attack surface is reduced, minimizing the potential vulnerabilities that can be exploited by malicious actors. Unnecessary software increases the risk of security breaches as it may contain vulnerabilities or provide additional avenues for attackers to gain unauthorized access. Therefore, installing only needed software helps to enhance the security posture of workstations and servers.

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29. An administrator notices that a PC is sending an unusual amount of email at odd times of the day. Which of the following should the administrator check for FIRST?

Explanation

The administrator should check for a SMTP open relay first. An open relay is a misconfigured mail server that allows anyone to use it to send emails, which can be exploited by spammers. If the PC is sending an unusual amount of email at odd times, it could be an indication that it is using an open relay to send spam emails. Checking for an open relay would help identify and resolve this issue.

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30. When is the correct time to discuss the appropriate use of electronic devices with a new
employee?

Explanation

The correct time to discuss the appropriate use of electronic devices with a new employee is at the time of hire. This is because it is important to set expectations and guidelines regarding the use of electronic devices from the very beginning of the employment relationship. By discussing this topic at the time of hire, the employer can ensure that the new employee understands the company's policies and expectations regarding the appropriate use of electronic devices in the workplace. This can help to prevent any potential issues or misunderstandings in the future.

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31. All of the following are where backup tapes should be kept EXCEPT:

Explanation

Backup tapes should not be kept near a power line because it poses a risk of electrical interference or damage to the tapes. Power lines can generate electromagnetic fields that can corrupt or erase the data stored on the tapes. Therefore, it is important to keep backup tapes away from any potential sources of electromagnetic interference to ensure the integrity and reliability of the backup data.

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32. Which of the following allows for proof that a certain person sent a particular email?

Explanation

Non-repudiation prevents one party from denying actions they carried out. In cryptography, you need non-repudiation to verify that someone is who they report to be.
Third party organizations called CAs (Certificate Authorities) manage public keys and issue certificates verifying the validity of the sender's message. The verifying aspect serves as non-repudiation' a respected third party vouches for the individual. The goal of any effective cryptography system must include non-repudiation. (Domain 5.1)

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33. Sending a patch through a testing and approval process is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

Change Management - the structured approach that is followed to secure the company's assets. Details here should include the controls that are in place to prevent unauthorized access to, and changes of, all IT assets. (Domain 6.4)

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34. A technician is working on an end users desktop which has been having performance issues. The technician notices there seems to be a lot of activity on the NIC. A good tool to quickly check the current network connections of the desktop would be:

Explanation

Netstat is a command-line tool that displays active network connections and listening ports on a computer. It provides information about the current network connections, including the protocol, local and remote IP addresses, and the state of the connection. By using netstat, the technician can quickly identify any suspicious or excessive network activity on the desktop, which could be causing the performance issues. This tool allows the technician to diagnose and troubleshoot network-related problems efficiently.

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35. When dealing with a 10BASE5 network, which of the following is the MOST likely security risk?

Explanation

10BASE5 network uses coaxial wire (similar to cable co. wire)as the infrastructure. Although this configuration is mostly phased out in networks, the primary security risk was the use of Vampire Taps. These taps are named based on their physical design, which resembles how a vampire would bite into a wire - using two teeth of different sizes. One taps the braided outer shielding while another longer prong taps the center conductor. Once in place, all data on the net can be stolen with no indication the device is in place. (Domain 2.6)

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36. Using an asymmetric key cryptography system, where can a technician generate the key pairs?

Explanation

CAs are responsible for maintaining certificates in the PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) environment. (Domain 3.7)

SIDE STUDY:
IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) establishes standards and protocols for the Internet.

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37. After a system risk assessment was performed it was found that the cost to mitigate the risk was higher than the expected loss if the risk was actualized. In this instance, which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Explanation

In this scenario, accepting the risk is the best course of action because the cost to mitigate the risk is higher than the expected loss if the risk occurs. This means that attempting to mitigate the risk would be more expensive than the potential harm caused by the risk itself. By accepting the risk, the organization acknowledges the potential consequences but decides not to take any further action to prevent or reduce it. This decision is based on a cost-benefit analysis, where it is more cost-effective to accept the risk rather than investing resources in mitigation measures.

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38. Three generally accepted activities of patch management are: determining which patches are
needed, applying the patches and which of the following?

Explanation

After determining which patches are needed and applying them, the next step in patch management is to audit for the successful application of the patches. This involves verifying that the patches were installed correctly and have effectively resolved the vulnerabilities they were intended to address. This auditing process ensures that the system is secure and protected against potential threats.

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39. If an administrator does not have a NIDS examining network traffic, which of the following could be used to identify an active attack?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer can be used to identify an active attack if an administrator does not have a NIDS examining network traffic. A protocol analyzer is a tool that captures and analyzes network traffic, allowing the administrator to inspect packets and detect any suspicious or malicious activity. By analyzing the network traffic, the administrator can identify any unusual patterns or behaviors that may indicate an active attack. Therefore, a protocol analyzer can be a useful tool in detecting and investigating potential security breaches in the absence of a NIDS.

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40. An administrator is backing up all server data nightly to a local NAS device. Which of the following additional steps should the administrator take for protection from disaster in the case the primary site is permanently lost?

Explanation

Storing the backup tapes at a sister site in another city provides protection from disaster in the case the primary site is permanently lost. This ensures that even if the primary site is completely destroyed, the backup data is safely stored in a different location, minimizing the risk of data loss. Storing the tapes in another city also reduces the chances of both sites being affected by the same disaster event, such as a natural disaster or fire.

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41. An intrusion has been detected on a company's network from the Internet. Which of the following should be checked FIRST?

Explanation

The firewall logs should be checked first because they provide information about all incoming and outgoing network traffic. By analyzing the firewall logs, the company can identify any suspicious or unauthorized activity that may have occurred during the intrusion. This can help in understanding the nature of the attack and taking appropriate measures to mitigate it. DNS logs, access logs, and performance logs may also be useful in investigating the intrusion, but checking the firewall logs is the most crucial initial step.

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42. An administrator notices on the monthly firewall log that many of the internal PCs are sending
packets on a routine basis to a single external PC. Which of the following BEST describes what is occurring?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the remote PC has a zombie master application running and the local PCs have a zombie slave application running. This means that the remote PC is controlling the local PCs and using them to send packets to a single external PC. This is a common tactic used in botnets, where a network of compromised computers is controlled by a central command server. The local PCs have been infected with a zombie slave application, which allows the remote PC to control their actions without the user's knowledge.

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43. A user reports that a web based application is not working after a browser upgrade. Before the
upgrade, a login box would appear on the screen and disappear after login. The login box does
not appear after the upgrade. Which of the following BEST describes what to check FIRST?

Explanation

The most likely reason for the login box not appearing after a browser upgrade is that the pop-up blocker application is blocking it. Pop-up blockers are designed to prevent unwanted pop-up windows from appearing, but sometimes they can mistakenly block legitimate ones. Therefore, the first thing to check would be if the pop-up blocker application is configured to allow pop-ups from the specific website.

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44. Which of the following describes the difference between a secure cipher and a secure hash?

Explanation

A secure cipher is a cryptographic algorithm that can be reversed or decrypted to obtain the original plaintext from the ciphertext. In contrast, a secure hash function is a one-way function that generates a fixed-size output (hash value) for any input size. The hash function cannot be reversed or decrypted to obtain the original input from the hash value. Therefore, the difference between a secure cipher and a secure hash is that a cipher can be reversed, while a hash cannot.

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45. All of the following require periodic updates to stay accurate EXCEPT:

Explanation

Pop-up blocker applications do not require periodic updates to stay accurate. Once installed, they can effectively block pop-up ads without the need for regular updates. On the other hand, signature-based HIDS, antivirus applications, and rootkit detection applications need to be updated regularly to stay effective against new threats and vulnerabilities. These updates ensure that the software has the latest virus definitions, signatures, and detection techniques to identify and protect against emerging threats.

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46. Configuration baselines should be taken at which of the following stages in the deployment of a
new system?

Explanation

Configuration baselines should be taken after the initial configuration of a new system. This is because the initial configuration involves setting up the system with the necessary hardware, software, and settings. Once this initial configuration is complete, taking a configuration baseline helps establish a reference point for the system's configuration. It allows for future comparisons to identify any changes or deviations from the established baseline. Taking the baseline after the initial configuration ensures that the system is in a stable and functional state before capturing its configuration.

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47. Which of the following is the MOST intrusive on a network?

Explanation

Penetration testing is the most intrusive on a network compared to the other options. Penetration testing involves actively attempting to exploit vulnerabilities in a network or system to identify potential security weaknesses. This testing simulates real-world attacks and can involve various techniques like exploiting software vulnerabilities, brute-force attacks, or social engineering. In contrast, protocol analyzers, port scanners, and vulnerability testing are less intrusive methods used to analyze network traffic, identify open ports, and assess system vulnerabilities respectively, without actively attempting to exploit them.

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48. Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to benefit from using a personal software firewall on a laptop?

Explanation

Using a personal software firewall on an office laptop connected to a home user's network is most likely to benefit because home networks typically have less security measures in place compared to enterprise LANs. The personal software firewall can provide an additional layer of protection by monitoring and controlling incoming and outgoing network traffic, preventing unauthorized access and potential attacks from the home network.

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49. To evaluate the security compliance of a group of servers against best practices, which of the
following BEST applies?

Explanation

To evaluate the security compliance of a group of servers against best practices, the best approach would be to run a vulnerability assessment tool. This tool will scan the servers and identify any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in their security measures. By running a vulnerability assessment, organizations can proactively identify and address potential security risks before they are exploited by attackers. This helps in ensuring that the servers are in line with the best security practices and helps in maintaining a secure environment. Conducting a penetration test would also be beneficial, but it is more focused on actively exploiting vulnerabilities to assess the effectiveness of the security measures.

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50. Which of the following is a problem MOST often associated with UTP cable?

Explanation

Crosstalk is a common problem associated with UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cable. It occurs when signals from one wire interfere with signals in adjacent wires, leading to signal degradation and data errors. This interference can be caused by electromagnetic fields or electrical noise. Crosstalk can result in poor signal quality, reduced bandwidth, and an increased error rate in data transmission. To minimize crosstalk, techniques like proper cable spacing, twisted pair design, and shielding can be used.

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51. Which of the following could BEST assist in the recovery of a crashed hard drive?

Explanation

Forensics software could best assist in the recovery of a crashed hard drive because it is specifically designed to analyze and recover data from damaged or corrupted storage devices. This software can help identify and repair any errors or issues that caused the crash, allowing the user to retrieve their data. Additionally, forensics software often includes advanced data recovery tools and techniques, such as file carving and disk imaging, which can greatly increase the chances of successfully recovering data from a crashed hard drive.

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52. A company needs to have multiple servers running low CPU utilization applications. Which of the following is the MOST cost efficient method for accomplishing this?

Explanation

Installing a single high-end server and running multiple virtual servers is the most cost-efficient method for the company. This approach allows for the consolidation of resources, reducing the need for multiple physical servers. By utilizing virtualization technology, the company can maximize the utilization of the high-end server's resources, effectively running multiple applications on a single machine. This not only saves on hardware costs but also reduces power consumption, cooling requirements, and maintenance efforts.

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53. Which of the following is a security threat that hides its processes and files from being easily
detected?

Explanation

A rootkit is a type of security threat that hides its processes and files from being easily detected. It is designed to gain unauthorized access to a computer system and remain undetected for a long period of time. By hiding its presence, a rootkit can enable malicious activities such as stealing sensitive information, modifying system settings, or installing additional malware. This makes it a serious threat to the security and integrity of a computer system.

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54. Which of the following allows a technician to view the security permissions of a file?

Explanation

The access control list allows a technician to view the security permissions of a file. The access control list is a list of permissions attached to an object, such as a file or folder, that specifies which users or groups are granted or denied access to that object. By viewing the access control list, a technician can see the specific permissions assigned to the file and determine who has access to it.

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55. User logs into their network with a smart card. Which of the following keys is used?

Explanation

When a user logs into their network with a smart card, the private key is used. A smart card typically contains a microprocessor chip that securely stores the user's private key. This private key is used for authentication and encryption purposes. It ensures that only the user with the corresponding smart card can access the network and decrypt the encrypted data. The private key is kept secret and is not shared with others, making it an ideal choice for secure authentication and data protection.

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56. A user is convinced that someone is attempting to use their user account at night. Which of the following should an administrator check FIRST in order to prove or disprove this claim?

Explanation

To prove or disprove the claim that someone is attempting to use the user account at night, the administrator should check the local security logs first. The local security logs contain information about login attempts, failed login attempts, and other security-related events on the user's system. By examining these logs, the administrator can identify any suspicious activity during the night and determine if someone is indeed trying to access the user account. The IDS logs, security application logs, and firewall logs may also provide valuable information, but the local security logs are the most direct and relevant source of evidence in this scenario.

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57. Some examples of hardening techniques include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Running weekly spyware applications is not a hardening technique because spyware applications are used to detect and remove malicious software that has already infected a system, rather than preventing the initial infection. Hardening techniques focus on proactively securing a system by implementing measures such as applying security templates, network-based patch management, and disabling non-required services to reduce vulnerabilities and fortify the system against potential attacks.

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58. Virtualized applications, such as virtualized browsers, are capable of protecting the underlying
operating system from which of the following?

Explanation

Virtualized applications, such as virtualized browsers, can protect the underlying operating system from malware installation from suspicious internet sites. By running the browser in a virtualized environment, any potential malware or malicious code that may be encountered while browsing is isolated from the underlying operating system. This prevents the malware from infecting or compromising the operating system, ensuring its security and integrity.

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59. Which of the following uses a sandbox to manage a programs ability to access system resources?

Explanation

Java uses a sandbox to manage a program's ability to access system resources. The sandbox is a security mechanism that restricts the actions of a program, preventing it from accessing certain system resources or performing potentially harmful operations. This helps to ensure the safety and security of the system by limiting the program's capabilities and preventing it from causing any damage or unauthorized access.

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60. A user does not understand why the domain password policy is so stringent. Which of the
following BEST demonstrates the security basis for the password policy?

Explanation

Explaining how easy it is for a hacker to crack weak passwords would demonstrate the security basis for the password policy. By highlighting the vulnerabilities and risks associated with weak passwords, the user can better understand the need for a stringent password policy to protect against unauthorized access and potential data breaches. This explanation helps the user comprehend the importance of strong passwords and the potential consequences of using weak ones.

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61. A CEO is concerned about staff browsing inappropriate material on the Internet via HTTPS. It has been suggested that the company purchase a product which could decrypt the SSL session, scan the content and then repackage the SSL session without staff knowing.Which of the following type of attacks is similar to this product?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Man-in-the-middle." This is because a man-in-the-middle attack involves an attacker intercepting communication between two parties without their knowledge and then relaying the information between them. In this scenario, the product suggested by the CEO would act as a man-in-the-middle by intercepting the SSL session, decrypting it, scanning the content for inappropriate material, and then repackaging the session without the staff knowing.

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62. An administrator is running a network monitoring application that looks for behaviors on the
network outside the standard baseline that has been established. This is typical of a(n):

Explanation

An anomaly-based tool is the correct answer because it is described as a network monitoring application that looks for behaviors outside the standard baseline. This means that it identifies and alerts the administrator about any abnormal or unusual activities on the network, rather than relying on predefined signatures or patterns. This type of tool is effective in detecting new or unknown threats that may not be covered by signature-based tools. A protocol analyzer is a different type of tool that captures and analyzes network traffic, while a honeynet is a network of decoy systems used to trap and study attackers.

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63. Frequent signature updates are required by which of the following security applications? (Select TWO).

Explanation

Antivirus and IDS (Intrusion Detection System) are the security applications that require frequent signature updates. Antivirus software needs regular updates to stay up-to-date with the latest virus definitions and protect against new threats. IDS systems also rely on signature updates to detect and prevent new types of attacks by comparing network traffic against known attack patterns. PGP (Pretty Good Privacy), Firewall, and PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) do not typically require frequent signature updates for their functionality.

Submit
64. When choosing an anti-virus product, which of the following are the MOST important security
considerations? (Select TWO).

Explanation

The frequency of signature updates is important because it determines how quickly the anti-virus software can recognize and protect against new and emerging threats. The more frequently the signatures are updated, the more effective the software will be in detecting and preventing infections.

The number of viruses the software can detect is also important as it indicates the software's ability to identify and remove a wide range of malware and viruses. A higher number of viruses detected means that the software has a larger database of known threats, increasing the chances of detecting and eliminating malicious software.

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65. In which of the following situations would it be appropriate to install a hotfix?

Explanation

If a patch is not available and workarounds do not correct the problem, it would be appropriate to install a hotfix. A hotfix is a software update specifically designed to address a particular issue or bug that is causing problems. In this situation, since there is no patch available and the workarounds are not effective, installing a hotfix would be the best course of action to resolve the problem.

Submit
66. Which of the following authentication mechanisms performs better in a secure environment?

Explanation

TACACS performs better in a secure environment because it encrypts client-server negotiation dialogs. This means that the communication between the client and server is protected and cannot be easily intercepted or tampered with by unauthorized individuals. Encryption adds an extra layer of security to the authentication process, making it more difficult for attackers to gain access to sensitive information.

Submit
67. Threats to a network could include: (Select TWO)

Explanation

Threats to a network can come from both internal and external sources. Disgruntled employees can pose a threat by intentionally causing harm to the network or leaking sensitive information. Dial-up access can also be a threat as it can provide an entry point for unauthorized individuals to gain access to the network. Network audits and penetration testing, on the other hand, are security measures taken to identify vulnerabilities in the network and ensure its protection, so they are not considered threats. Disabled user accounts, while they may pose some security risks, are not explicitly mentioned as threats to the network in this question.

Submit
68. Which of the following would BEST allow an administrator to quickly find a rogue server on the
network?

Explanation

A network mapper would be the best tool for an administrator to quickly find a rogue server on the network. A network mapper is a software that scans and maps the network, identifying all the devices connected to it. By using a network mapper, the administrator can easily detect any unauthorized or unknown servers that may be present on the network, helping them to identify and address any potential security risks or breaches.

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69. Security templates are used for which of the following purposes? (Select TWO).

Explanation

Security templates are used to ensure that all servers start from a common security configuration and to ensure that servers are in compliance with the corporate security policy. By applying a security template, organizations can enforce consistent security settings and configurations across all servers, reducing the risk of vulnerabilities and ensuring that all servers meet the required security standards.

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70. A vendor releases an application update to a recent service pack that addresses problems being experienced by some end users. This update would be considered a:

Explanation

The given correct answer is "hotfix." A hotfix is a small software update that is released to address specific issues or bugs experienced by some users. It is typically released quickly and separately from regular updates or service packs. In this scenario, the vendor releases an application update specifically to address problems faced by some end users, indicating that it is a hotfix rather than a patch or service pack.

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71. A technician suspects that one of the network cards on the internal LAN is causing a broadcast storm. Which of the following would BEST diagnose which NIC is causing this problem?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer would be the best tool to diagnose which NIC is causing a broadcast storm. A protocol analyzer captures and analyzes network traffic, allowing the technician to identify the source of excessive broadcast traffic. By examining the packets and analyzing their source and destination addresses, the technician can pinpoint the network card that is generating the excessive broadcasts. The NIDS log file, local security log file, and local firewall log file may provide some information about network activity, but they would not provide the detailed packet-level analysis needed to identify the specific NIC causing the broadcast storm.

Submit
72. Social engineering, password cracking and vulnerability exploitation are examples of which of the following?

Explanation

Social engineering, password cracking, and vulnerability exploitation are all techniques used in penetration testing. Penetration testing involves simulating real-world attacks on a system or network to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses. By using these techniques, a penetration tester can assess the security posture of the target and provide recommendations for improvement.

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73. Which of the following is the BEST order in which crucial equipment should draw power?

Explanation

The best order in which crucial equipment should draw power is UPS line conditioner, UPS battery, and backup generator. This order ensures that the power is first conditioned by the UPS line conditioner, which protects against power surges and voltage fluctuations. Then, the UPS battery provides backup power in case of an outage. Finally, the backup generator can be used as a last resort if the battery power is depleted. This sequence ensures that the equipment receives clean and stable power, with backup options available if needed.

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74. Which of the following would require a pre-sharing of information before a home user could attach to a neighbors wireless adapter?

Explanation

SSID broadcasting is the process by which a wireless network's name is made visible to other devices. When SSID broadcasting is disabled, the network's name is hidden, and users must manually enter the network name to connect. In this case, a home user would need to pre-share the network's name with their neighbor in order to connect to their wireless adapter. This is because the neighbor's network is not visible to the home user's device due to the disabled SSID broadcasting.

Submit
75. Which of the following would BEST allow an administrator to quickly find a PC with a blank
database administrator password?

Explanation

A vulnerability scanner is a tool used by administrators to identify security weaknesses in computer systems. It scans the network and identifies any vulnerabilities that could be exploited by hackers. In this case, the administrator can use a vulnerability scanner to quickly find a PC with a blank database administrator password. The scanner will detect the vulnerability and provide a report, allowing the administrator to take necessary actions to secure the system.

Submit
76. A single sign-on requires which of the following?

Explanation

A unified trust model is required for a single sign-on. This means that there is a consistent and standardized way of establishing trust between different systems or applications. With a unified trust model, users can access multiple systems or applications with just one set of credentials, eliminating the need for multiple logins. This ensures a seamless and efficient user experience while maintaining security and authentication protocols.

Submit
77. Pre-shared keys apply to which of the following?

Explanation

PGP stands for Pretty Good Privacy, which is a data encryption and decryption program used for email encryption and signing, as well as securing data on computer systems. Pre-shared keys refer to a method of key exchange where both parties share a common secret key beforehand. In the context of PGP, pre-shared keys can be used to encrypt and decrypt messages, ensuring secure communication between the sender and the recipient. Therefore, the correct answer is PGP.

Submit
78. A small call center business decided to install an email system to facilitate communications in the office.
As part of the upgrade the vendor offered to supply anti-malware software for a cost of $5,000 per year. The IT manager read there was a 90% chance each year that workstations would be compromised if not adequately protected . If workstations are compromised it will take three hours to restore services for the 30 staff. Staff members in the call center are paid $90 per hour. If determining the risk, which of the following is the annual loss expectancy (ALE)?

Explanation

ALE (Annual Loss Expectancy) only calculates the loss associated with the risk. It does not factor in the cost associated with remediation.
FORMULA:
$90 per hour * 3 hours labor per incident = $270
$270 * 30 staff = $8100
$8100 * 0.9 (90%) = $7,290

Submit
79. A flat or simple role-based access control (RBAC) embodies which of the following principles?

Explanation

In a flat or simple role-based access control (RBAC), users are assigned to roles. Permissions are then assigned to roles, and users acquire those permissions by being a member of the role. This means that instead of directly assigning permissions to users or groups, permissions are assigned to roles, and users gain those permissions by being assigned to the corresponding roles. This approach simplifies access control management by centralizing permissions at the role level and allowing for easier assignment and revocation of permissions based on user roles.

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80. Which of the following would BEST allow for fast, highly secure encryption of a USB flash drive?

Explanation

AES256 (Advanced Encryption Standard with a key size of 256 bits) would be the best option for fast, highly secure encryption of a USB flash drive. AES is a widely used symmetric encryption algorithm that provides a high level of security and efficiency. With a key size of 256 bits, AES256 offers a larger key space, making it more resistant to brute-force attacks compared to SHA-1, MD5, and 3DES. It is the recommended encryption standard for protecting sensitive data and is widely adopted by industries and organizations for secure data storage and transmission.

Submit
81. An administrator wants to block users from accessing a few inappropriate websites as soon as
possible. The existing firewall allows blocking by IP address. To achieve this goal the
administrator will need to:

Explanation

To block users from accessing inappropriate websites, the administrator will need to upgrade to a URL based filter. This type of filter allows blocking websites based on their URLs or domain names. By using a URL based filter, the administrator can specify the inappropriate websites that need to be blocked, regardless of their IP addresses. This upgrade will provide a more effective solution for blocking access to the desired websites as soon as possible.

Submit
82. CRL contains a list of which of the following type of keys?

Explanation

CRL stands for Certificate Revocation List, which is a list of digital certificates that have been revoked or no longer valid. These certificates include both public and private keys. Public keys are used for encryption and verifying digital signatures, while private keys are used for decryption and creating digital signatures. Therefore, the correct answer is that CRL contains both public and private keys.

Submit
83. Which of the following uses a key ring?

Explanation

PGP (Pretty Good Privacy)is the freeware e-mail security encryption system that uses both symmetrical and asymmetrical systems in a key-ring configuration.(Domain 5.3)

SIDE STUDY
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) DES (Data Encryption Standard) RSA (Rivest, Shamir, Adleman)

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84. Which of the following BEST describes the differences between RADIUS and TACACS?

Explanation

TACACS is a remote access authentication service that separates authentication, authorization, and auditing capabilities. This means that TACACS provides distinct functions for each of these processes, allowing for more flexibility and control in managing user access to network resources. On the other hand, RADIUS is also a remote access authentication service but it does not separate these capabilities, meaning that it does not provide the same level of granularity and control as TACACS.

Submit
85. Which of the following is setup within a router?

Explanation

A DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) is a setup within a router that acts as a buffer zone between the internal network and the external network (usually the internet). It allows for the hosting of publicly accessible services, such as web servers, while providing an added layer of security by isolating the internal network from potential threats. By placing these services in the DMZ, any potential attacks or breaches are limited to the DMZ network and do not directly impact the internal network.

Submit
86. Which of the following BEST describes the differences between RADIUS and TACACS?

Explanation

TACACS encrypts client-server negotiation dialog, which means that the communication between the client and server is secured and protected from unauthorized access or interception. This ensures the confidentiality and integrity of the dialog, making it more secure compared to RADIUS. RADIUS, on the other hand, is a remote access authentication service, but it does not specifically mention encrypting the client-server negotiation dialog. Therefore, TACACS is the better option for ensuring secure communication.

Submit
87. A company has an issue with field users logging into VPN to connect to the mail server, and
leaving their computers connected while in public places. The administrator needs to prevent both unauthorized access to the company email and data, and limit the impact on the VPN server. Which of the following BEST achieves this goal?

Explanation

Setting group policy to lock computers after five minutes of inactivity and limiting VPN connections to one hour would be the best solution to achieve the goal of preventing unauthorized access to company email and data while limiting the impact on the VPN server. By automatically locking the computers after a short period of inactivity, it ensures that even if the field users leave their computers connected, they would still require authentication to access any sensitive information. Additionally, limiting the VPN connections to one hour prevents prolonged exposure of the company's network to potential threats.

Submit
88. A technician is deciding between implementing a HIDS on the database server or implementing a NIDS. Which of the following are reasons why a NIDS may be better to implement? (Select TWO)

Explanation

HIDS (Host Intrusion Detection System)
NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System)

Submit
89. Which of the following is the MOST likely to generate static electricity?

Explanation

Static electricity thrives in hot, dry air. Humidity

Submit
90. Which of the following BEST describes the differences between SHA-1 and MD5?

Explanation

SHA-1 produces fewer collisions than MD5. Collisions occur when two different inputs produce the same hash value. While both SHA-1 and MD5 can produce collisions, SHA-1 has a larger hash size and a more complex algorithm, making it less likely for collisions to occur compared to MD5. Therefore, SHA-1 is considered to have a higher level of collision resistance than MD5.

Submit
91. Which of the following allows a file to have different security permissions for users that have the same roles or user groups?

Explanation

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) allows a file to have different security permissions for users that have the same roles or user groups. In DAC, the owner of a file has the discretion to determine who can access the file and what level of access they have. This means that even if multiple users have the same roles or belong to the same user group, the file owner can assign different permissions to each individual user based on their specific needs or trust levels.

Submit
92. Which of the following facilitates the creation of an unencrypted tunnel between two devices?

Explanation

L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) facilitates the creation of an unencrypted tunnel between two devices. It is a protocol that allows the creation of virtual private networks (VPNs) and enables the secure transmission of data over an untrusted network. L2TP does not provide encryption itself, but it can be used in combination with other encryption protocols such as IPsec to create a secure and private connection between devices. Unlike AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) and HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which are encryption methods, L2TP focuses on creating the tunnel for secure communication rather than the encryption itself. PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) is another tunneling protocol but is considered less secure than L2TP.

Submit
93. A programmer creates an application to accept data from a website. A user places more
information than the program expects in the input field resulting in the back end database placing the extra information into the database. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This is an example of SQL injection. SQL injection occurs when a user input is not properly validated or sanitized, allowing an attacker to insert malicious SQL code into a query. In this case, the user input with extra information is being directly inserted into the database, which can lead to unauthorized access, data manipulation, or other malicious activities.

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Frequent signature updates are required by which of the following...
When choosing an anti-virus product, which of the following are the...
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Which of the following authentication mechanisms performs better in a...
Threats to a network could include: (Select TWO)
Which of the following would BEST allow an administrator to quickly...
Security templates are used for which of the following purposes?...
A vendor releases an application update to a recent service pack that...
A technician suspects that one of the network cards on the internal...
Social engineering, password cracking and vulnerability exploitation...
Which of the following is the BEST order in which crucial equipment...
Which of the following would require a pre-sharing of information...
Which of the following would BEST allow an administrator to quickly...
A single sign-on requires which of the following?
Pre-shared keys apply to which of the following?
A small call center business decided to install an email system to...
A flat or simple role-based access control (RBAC) embodies which of...
Which of the following would BEST allow for fast, highly secure...
An administrator wants to block users from accessing a few...
CRL contains a list of which of the following type of keys?
Which of the following uses a key ring?
Which of the following BEST describes the differences between RADIUS...
Which of the following is setup within a router?
Which of the following BEST describes the differences between RADIUS...
A company has an issue with field users logging into VPN to connect to...
A technician is deciding between implementing a HIDS on the database...
Which of the following is the MOST likely to generate static...
Which of the following BEST describes the differences between SHA-1...
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Which of the following facilitates the creation of an unencrypted...
A programmer creates an application to accept data from a website. A...
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