CompTIA Security+ Sy0-501 Practice Test 01

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  • 1/75 Questions

    You are troubleshooting an intermittent connectivity issue with a webserver. After examining the logs, you identify repeated connection attempts from various IP addresses. You realize these connection attempts are overloading the server, preventing it from responding to other connections. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?

    • DDoS attack
    • DoS attack
    • Amplification attack
    • Salting attack
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About This Quiz

This CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 Practice Test assesses key cybersecurity skills, focusing on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information systems. It evaluates knowledge in implementing preventive controls, maintaining service availability, and the secure management of PII.

CompTIA Security+ Sy0-501 Practice Test 01 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    An outside security auditor recently completed an in-depth security audit on your network. One of the issues he reported was related to passwords. Specifically, he found the following passwords used on the network: Pa$$, 1@W2, and G7bT3. Which of the following should be changed to avoid the problem shown with these passwords?

    • Password complexity

    • Password length

    • Password history

    • Password reuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Password length
    Explanation
    The password policy should be changed to increase the minimum password length of passwords. These passwords are only four and five characters long, which is too short to provide adequate security. They are complex because they include a mixture of at least three of the following character types: uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. Password history and password reuse should be addressed if users are reusing the same passwords, but the scenario doesn’t indicate this is a problem.

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  • 3. 

    After Marge turned on her computer, she saw a message indicating that unless she made a payment, her hard drive would be formatted. What does this indicate?

    • Keylogger

    • Ransomware

    • Backdoor

    • Trojan

    Correct Answer
    A. Ransomware
    Explanation
    Ransomware attempts to take control of the user’s system or data and then demands a ransom to return control. Keyloggers capture a user’s keystrokes and store them in a file. This file can be automatically sent to an attacker or manually retrieved depending on the keylogger. It’s possible that Marge’s computer was infected with a Trojan, which created a backdoor. However, not all Trojans or backdoor accounts demand payment as ransom.

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  • 4. 

    An organization’s security policy requires employees to place all discarded paper documents in containers for temporary storage. These papers are later burned in an incinerator. Which of the following attacks are these actions MOST likely trying to prevent?

    • Shoulder surfing

    • Tailgating

    • Vishing

    • Dumpster diving

    Correct Answer
    A. Dumpster diving
    Explanation
    Dumpster diving is the practice of looking for documents in the trash dumpsters, but shredding or incinerating documents ensures dumpster divers cannot retrieve any paper documents. Shoulder surfers attempt to view something on a monitor or other screen, not papers. Tailgating refers to entering a secure area by following someone else. Vishing is a form of phishing using the phone.

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  • 5. 

    You need to send several large files containing proprietary data to a business partner. Which of the following is the BEST choice for this task?

    • FTP

    • SNMPv3

    • SFTP

    • SRTP

    Correct Answer
    A. SFTP
    Explanation
    Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is the best choice. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the best choice to send large files if they don’t contain sensitive data. These files contain proprietary data so they should be encrypted and SFTP encrypts the files using Secure Shell (SSH). Simple Network Management Protocol version 3 (SNMPv3) is used to manage network devices, not transfer files. The Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP) provides encryption, message authentication, and integrity for streaming media.

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  • 6. 

    Management within your organization has defined a use case to support the confidentiality of PII stored in a database. Which of the following solutions will BEST meet this need?

    • Hashing

    • Digital signature

    • Encryption

    • Smart card

    Correct Answer
    A. Encryption
    Explanation
    Encryption is the best choice to provide confidentiality of any type of information, including Personally Identifiable Information (PII) stored in a database. Hashing will support a use case of supporting integrity. Digital signatures will support the use of supporting non-repudiation. A smart card will support a use case of supporting authentication.

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  • 7. 

    Your organization recently implemented two servers that act as failover devices for each other. Which security goal is your organization pursuing?

    • Obfuscation

    • Integrity

    • Confidentiality

    • Availability

    Correct Answer
    A. Availability
    Explanation
    Failover devices increase availability. A failover cluster uses redundant servers to ensure services will continue to operate even if one of the servers fails. Obfuscation methods attempt to make something unclear or difficult to understand and are not related to failover devices. Integrity methods ensure that data has not been modified. Confidentiality methods such as encryption prevent the unauthorized disclosure of data.

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  • 8. 

    An IT department recently had its hardware budget reduced, but the organization still expects them to maintain the availability of services. Which of the following choices would BEST help them maintain availability with a reduced budget?

    • Failover clusters

    • Virtualization

    • Bollards

    • Hashing

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtualization
    Explanation
    Virtualization provides increased availability because it is much easier to rebuild a virtual server than a physical server after a failure. Virtualization supports a reduced budget because virtual servers require less hardware, less space in a data center, less power, and less heating and air conditioning. Failover clusters are more expensive. Bollards are physical barriers that block vehicles. Hashing provides integrity, not availability.

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  • 9. 

    You are tasked with configuring a switch so that it separates VoIP and data traffic. Which of the following provides the BEST solution?

    • NAC

    • DMZ

    • SRTP

    • VLAN

    Correct Answer
    A. VLAN
    Explanation
    A virtual local area network (VLAN) provides separation for traffic and can be configured to separate Voice over IP (VoIP) traffic and data traffic. Network access control (NAC) solutions inspect clients for health after they connect to a network. A demilitarized zone (DMZ) provides a layer of protection for Internet-facing systems, while also allowing clients to connect to them. Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP) provides encryption and authentication for Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) traffic. RTP is used for audio/video streaming, such as in video teleconferencing applications.

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  • 10. 

    An organization wants to provide protection against malware attacks. Administrators have installed antivirus software on all computers. Additionally, they implemented a firewall and an IDS on the network. Which of the following BEST identifies this principle?

    • Implicit deny

    • Layered security

    • Least privilege

    • Flood guard

    Correct Answer
    A. Layered security
    Explanation
    Layered security (or defense in depth) implements multiple controls to provide several layers of protection. In this case, the antivirus software provides one layer of protection while the firewall and the intrusion detection system (IDS) provide additional layers. Implicit deny blocks access unless it has been explicitly allowed. Least privilege ensures that users are granted only the access they need to perform their jobs, and no more. A flood guard attempts to block SYN flood attacks.

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  • 11. 

    The Retirement Castle uses groups for ease of administration and management. They recently hired Jasper as their new accountant. Jasper needs access to all the files and folders used by the Accounting department. Which of the following should the administrator do to give Jasper appropriate access?

    • Create an account for Jasper and add the account to the Accounting group.

    • Give Jasper the password for the Guest account.

    • Create an account for Jasper and use rule-based access control for accounting.

    • Create an account for Jasper and add the account to the Administrators group.

    Correct Answer
    A. Create an account for Jasper and add the account to the Accounting group.
    Explanation
    The administrator should create an account for Jasper and add it to the Accounting group. Because the organization uses groups, it makes sense that they have an Accounting group. The Guest account should be disabled to prevent the use of generic accounts. This scenario describes role-based access control, not rule-based access control. Jasper does not require administrator privileges, so his account should not be added to the Administrators group.

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  • 12. 

    Your company’s web site experiences a large number of client requests during certain times of the year. Which of the following could your company add to ensure the web site’s availability during these times?

    • Fail-open cluster

    • Certificates

    • Web application firewall

    • Load balancing

    Correct Answer
    A. Load balancing
    Explanation
    Load balancing shifts the load among multiple systems and can increase the site’s availability by adding additional nodes when necessary. A failover cluster also provides high availability, but there is no such thing as a fail-open cluster. Certificates help ensure confidentiality and integrity but do not assist with availability. A web application firewall helps protect a web server against attacks, but it does not increase availability from normal client requests.

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  • 13. 

    You want to test new security controls before deploying them. Which of the following technologies provides the MOST flexibility to meet this goal?

    • Baselines

    • Hardening techniques

    • Virtualization technologies

    • Patch management programs

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtualization technologies
    Explanation
    Virtualization provides a high degree of flexibility when testing security controls because testers can easily rebuild virtual systems or revert them using a snapshot. Baselines provide a known starting point but aren’t flexible because they stay the same. Hardening techniques make systems more secure than their default configuration. Patch management programs ensure patches are deployed but do not test security controls.

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  • 14. 

    Management suspects that employees have been sending proprietary data out of the network via email. They want to implement a solution that will detect and block similar incidents in the future. Which of the following is the BEST choice to meet this need?

    • Mail gateway

    • UTM appliance

    • Forward proxy

    • Reverse proxy

    Correct Answer
    A. Mail gateway
    Explanation
    A mail gateway is placed between an email server and the Internet and mail gateways typically include data loss prevention (DLP) capabilities. They can inspect the contents of outgoing traffic looking for keywords and block any traffic containing proprietary data. A unified threat management (UTM) device includes content inspection, but this most often blocks specific types of traffic or specific file types. A mail gateway is more focused on email. Proxy servers are typically used for web traffic. They don’t include the ability to filter email.

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  • 15. 

    Security analysts recently discovered that users in your organization are inadvertently installing malware on their systems after visiting the comptai.org web site. Users have a legitimate requirement to visit the comptia.org web site. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this activity?

    • Smurf

    • Typo squatting

    • Fuzzing

    • Replay

    Correct Answer
    A. Typo squatting
    Explanation
    Typo squatting (or URL hijacking) uses a similar domain name to redirect traffic. In this scenario, the last two letters in comptia are swapped in the malicious domain name, and that site is attempting to download malware onto the user systems. A smurf attack is unrelated to web sites. Fuzzing tests an application’s ability to handle random data. A replay attack attempts to replay data with the intent of impersonating one of the parties.

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  • 16. 

    Management asks you if you can modify the wireless network to prevent users from easily discovering it. Which of the following would you modify to meet this goal?

    • CCMP

    • WPA2 Enterprise

    • SSID broadcast

    • MAC address filter

    Correct Answer
    A. SSID broadcast
    Explanation
    You can disable the service set identifier (SSID) broadcasting to prevent users from easily discovering the wireless networks. None of the other methods hide the network. Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) provides stronger security for Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2) and WPA2 Enterprise adds authentication for a wireless network. Media access control (MAC) address filtering can restrict access to the wireless network.

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  • 17. 

    You suspect that traffic in your network is being rerouted to an unauthorized router within your network. Which of the following command-line tools would help you narrow down the problem?

    • Ping

    • Tracert

    • Ipconfig

    • Netstat

    Correct Answer
    A. Tracert
    Explanation
    You can use tracert to track packet flow through a network and if an extra router has been added to your network, tracert will identify it. You can use ping to check connectivity with a remote system, but it doesn’t show the route. The ipconfig command will show the network settings on a Windows computer, but it doesn’t identify failed routers. Netstat shows active connections and other network statistics on a local system, but it doesn’t identify network paths.

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  • 18. 

    When you log on to your online bank account, you are also able to access a partner’s credit card site, check-ordering services, and a mortgage site without entering your credentials again. Which of the following does this describe?

    • SSO

    • Same sign-on

    • SAML

    • Kerberos

    Correct Answer
    A. SSO
    Explanation
    This is an example of single sign-on (SSO) capabilities because you can log on once and access all the resources without entering your credentials again. The same sign-on requires you to reenter your credentials for each new site, but you use the same credentials. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is an SSO solution used for web-based applications and the bank might be using SAML, but other SSO solutions are also available. Kerberos is used in an internal network.

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  • 19. 

    Your organization is hosting a wireless network with an 802.1x server using PEAP. On Thursday, users report they can no longer access the wireless network, but they could access it on the previous day. Administrators verified the network configuration matches the baseline, there aren’t any hardware outages, and the wired network is operational. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this problem?

    • The RADIUS server certificate expired.

    • DNS is providing incorrect host names.

    • DHCP is issuing duplicate IP addresses.

    • MAC filtering is enabled.

    Correct Answer
    A. The RADIUS server certificate expired.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause is that the Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) server certificate expired. An 802.1x server is implemented as a RADIUS server and Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol (PEAP) requires a certificate, which is a key clue in this question. If the Domain Name System (DNS) or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) failed, it would affect both wired and wireless users. Media access control (MAC) address filtering might cause this symptom if all MAC addresses were blocked, but the scenario states that there weren’t any network configuration changes.

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  • 20. 

    Lisa needs to identify if a risk exists within a web application and identify potential misconfigurations on the server. However, she should passively test the security controls. Which of the following is the BEST choice to meet her needs?

    • Perform a penetration test.

    • Perform a port scan.

    • Perform a vulnerability scan.

    • Perform traffic analysis with a sniffer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform a vulnerability scan.
    Explanation
    A vulnerability scan identifies vulnerabilities that attackers can potentially exploit, and vulnerability scanners perform passive testing. A penetration test actively tests the application and can potentially compromise the system. A port scan only identifies open ports. A sniffer can capture traffic for analysis, but it doesn’t check for security controls.

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  • 21. 

    Your organization recently purchased some laptops that include a TPM. Which of the following BEST identifies what the TPM provides?

    • Detection of unauthorized data transfers

    • A hardware root of trust

    • Sandboxing

    • An external security device used to store cryptographic keys

    Correct Answer
    A. A hardware root of trust
    Explanation
    A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) includes an encryption key burned into the chip, and this key provides a hardware root of trust. Data loss prevention (DLP) systems detect unauthorized data transfers. Sandboxing provides an isolated area on a system, typically used for testing. A hardware security module (HSM) is an external security device used to store cryptographic keys, but a TPM is a chip within the system.

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  • 22. 

    An attacker recently attacked a web server hosted by your company. After investigation, security professionals determined that the attacker used a previously unknown application exploit. Which of the following BEST identifies this attack?

    • Buffer overflow

    • Zero-day attack

    • Man-in-the-browser

    • Session hijacking

    Correct Answer
    A. Zero-day attack
    Explanation
    A zero-day attack takes advantage of an undocumented exploit or an exploit that is unknown to the public. A buffer overflow attack sends unexpected data to a system to access system memory or cause it to crash. Although some buffer overflow attacks are unknown, others are known. If the server isn’t kept up to date with patches, it can be attacked with a known buffer overflow attack. A man-in-the-browser attack is a type of proxy Trojan horse that takes advantage of vulnerabilities in web browsers, not web servers. Session hijacking takes over a user’s session and isn’t related to an attack on a server.

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  • 23. 

    The First Bank of Springfield has been experiencing widespread fraud recently. Attackers are transferring funds out of customer accounts to other banks. The bank began requiring customers to obtain credentials in person at the bank. However, this hasn’t reduced the number of fraudulent transactions. After reviewing available logs, investigators determined that these fraudulent transactions are conducted with the customer’s actual credentials. Which of the following security controls should be strengthened to reduce these incidents?

    • Authentication

    • Identification

    • Accounting

    • Authorization

    Correct Answer
    A. Authentication
    Explanation
    Authentication should be increased, such as by forcing users to use stronger passwords. The scenario indicates that attackers are somehow obtaining customer credentials and using them to conduct fraudulent transactions. Identification is simply claiming an identity, and having customers come into the bank to obtain their credentials increases identification, but this didn’t help. Accounting is typically performed by reviewing logs, but the current logs are documenting the fraud. Authorization indicates what customers can do, but there isn’t any indication that authorization is a problem.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is the LOWEST cost solution for fault tolerance?

    • Load balancing

    • Round-robin scheduling

    • RAID

    • Warm site

    Correct Answer
    A. RAID
    Explanation
    A redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) subsystem is a relatively low-cost solution for fault tolerance for disks. RAID also increases data availability. Load balancing adds in additional servers, which are significantly more expensive than RAID. Round robin scheduling is one of the methods used in load balancing. A warm site is a separate location, which can be expensive.

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  • 25. 

    You are helping your organization create a security policy for incident response. Which of the following choices is the BEST choice to include when an incident requires confiscation of a physical asset?

    • Ensure hashes are taken first.

    • Ensure witnesses sign an AUP.

    • Maintain the order of volatility.

    • Keep a record of everyone who took possession of the physical asset.

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep a record of everyone who took possession of the physical asset.
    Explanation
    It’s important to keep a chain of custody for any confiscated physical items and the chain of custody is a record of everyone who took possession of the asset after it was first confiscated. Hashes should be taken before capturing an image, but they are not required before confiscating equipment. Users, not witnesses, sign an acceptable use policy (AUP). Security personnel should be aware of the order of volatility, but there isn’t any way to maintain the order.

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  • 26. 

    You are tasked with improving the overall security for a database server. Which of the following is a preventive control that will assist with this goal?

    • Disabling unnecessary services

    • Identifying the initial baseline configuration

    • Monitoring logs for trends

    • Implementing a backup and restoration plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Disabling unnecessary services
    Explanation
    Disabling unnecessary services is one of several steps you can take to harden a server. It is a preventive control because it helps prevent an incident. Identifying the initial baseline configuration is useful to determine the security posture of the system, but by itself, it doesn’t prevent attacks. Monitoring logs and trend analysis are detective controls, not preventive controls. A backup and restoration plan is a corrective control.

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  • 27. 

    Your organization wants to prevent employees from accessing file sharing web sites. Which of the following choices will meet this need?

    • Content inspection

    • Malware inspection

    • URL filter

    • Web application firewall

    Correct Answer
    A. URL filter
    Explanation
    A URL filter blocks access to specific web sites based on their URLs. Proxy servers and unified threat management (UTM)
    devices include URL filters. UTM devices also include a content inspection to identify and filter out different types of files and traffic, and malware inspection to identify and block malware. A web application firewall (WAF) protects a web server from incoming attacks.

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  • 28. 

    A tech company recently discovered an attack on its organization, resulting in a significant data breach of customer data. After investigating the attack, they realized it was very sophisticated and likely originated from a foreign country. Which of the following identifies the MOST likely threat actor in this attack?

    • Hacktivist

    • APT

    • Competitors

    • Insiders

    Correct Answer
    A. APT
    Explanation
    This was most likely an advanced persistent threat (APT) because it was a sophisticated attack and originated from a foreign country. A hacktivist launches attacks to further a cause, but the scenario didn’t mention any cause. Competitors might launch attacks, but they would typically focus on proprietary data rather than customer data. An insider would not launch attacks from a foreign country.

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  • 29. 

    Employees access a secure area by entering a cipher code, but this code does not identify individuals. After a recent security incident, management has decided to implement a key card system that will identify individuals who enter and exit this secure area. However, the installation might take six months or longer. Which of the following choices can the organization install immediately to identify individuals who enter or exit the secure area?

    • Mantrap

    • Access list

    • CCTV

    • Bollards

    Correct Answer
    A. CCTV
    Explanation
    Closed-circuit television (CCTV) or a similar video surveillance system can monitor the entrance and record who enters and exits the area. A mantrap prevents tailgating, but it doesn’t necessarily identify individuals. An access list is useful if a guard is identifying users and allowing access based on the access list, but the access list does not identify users. Bollards are a type of barricade that protects building entrances.

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  • 30. 

    A security auditor discovered that several employees in the Accounting department can print and sign checks. In her final report, she recommended restricting the number of people who can print checks and the number of people who can sign them. She also recommended that no one should be authorized to print and sign checks. Which security policy does this describe?

    • Discretionary access control

    • Rule-based access control

    • Separation of duties

    • Job rotation

    Correct Answer
    A. Separation of duties
    Explanation
    This recommendation is enforcing separation of duties principle, which prevents any single person from performing multiple job functions that might allow the person to commit fraud. Discretionary access control specifies that every object has an owner, but doesn’t separate duties. Devices such as routers use a rule-based access control model, but it doesn’t separate duties. Job rotation policies rotate employees into different jobs, but they don’t necessarily separate job functions.

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  • 31. 

    You are configuring a file server used to share files and folders among employees within your organization. However, employees should not be able to access all folders on this server. Which of the following choices is the BEST method to manage security for these folders?

    • Assign permissions to each user as needed.

    • Wait for users to request permission and then assign the appropriate permissions.

    • Delegate authority to assign these permissions.

    • Use security groups with appropriate permissions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use security groups with appropriate permissions.
    Explanation
    You can create security groups, place users into these groups, and grant access to the folders by assigning appropriate permissions to the security groups. For example, the security groups might be Sales, Marketing, and HR, and you place users into the appropriate group based on their job. This is an example of using group-based privileges. Assigning permissions to each user individually has a high administrative overhead. Waiting for users to ask will also increase administrative overhead. Although delegating authority to assign permissions might work, it doesn’t provide the same level of security as centrally managed groups, and without groups, it will still have a high administrative overhead for someone.

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  • 32. 

    Security personnel confiscated a user’s workstation after a security incident. Administrators removed the hard drive for forensic analysis, but left it unattended for several hours before capturing an image. Which of the following could prevent the company from taking the employee to court over this incident?

    • Witnesses were not identified.

    • A chain of custody was not maintained.

    • An order of volatility was not maintained.

    • A hard drive analysis was not complete.

    Correct Answer
    A. A chain of custody was not maintained.
    Explanation
    A chain of custody was not maintained because the hard drive was left unattended for several hours before capturing an image. Witnesses were not mentioned, but are not needed if the chain of custody was maintained. The order of volatility does not apply here, but the hard drive is not volatile. The analysis would occur after capturing an image, but there isn’t any indication it wasn’t done or wasn’t complete.

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  • 33. 

    A recent antivirus scan on a server detected a Trojan. A technician removed the Trojan, but a security administrator expressed concern that unauthorized personnel might be able to access data on the server. The security administrator decided to check the server further. Of the following choices, what is the administrator MOST likely looking for on this server?

    • Backdoor

    • Logic bomb

    • Rootkit

    • Botnet

    Correct Answer
    A. Backdoor
    Explanation
    The security administrator is most likely looking for a backdoor because Trojans commonly create backdoors, and a backdoor allows unauthorized personnel to access data on the system. Logic bombs and rootkits can create backdoor accounts, but Trojans don’t create logic bombs and would rarely install a rootkit. The computer might be joined to a botnet, but a botnet is a group of computers.

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  • 34. 

    You work as a help-desk professional in a large organization. You have begun to receive an extraordinary number of calls from employees related to malware. Using common incident response procedures, which of the following should be your FIRST response?

    • Preparation

    • Identification

    • Eradication

    • Recovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Identification
    Explanation
    At this stage, the first response is incident identification. The preparation phase is performed before an incident and includes steps to prevent incidents. After identifying this as a valid incident (malware infection), the next steps are containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.

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  • 35. 

    Management has implemented a policy stating that messages sent between upper-level executives must arrive without any changes. The IT department is tasked with implementing technical controls to meet this need. Which security goal does this policy address?

    • Confidentiality

    • Integrity

    • Availability

    • Authentication

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrity
    Explanation
    Integrity provides assurances that data has not been modified and integrity is commonly enforced with hashing. Confidentiality prevents unauthorized disclosure of data but doesn't address modifications of data. Availability ensures systems are up and operational when needed and uses fault tolerance and redundancy methods. Authentication provides proof that users are who they claim to be.

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  • 36. 

    Interns from a local college frequently work at your company. Some interns work with the database developers, some interns work with the web application developers, and some interns work with both developers. Interns working with the database developers require specific privileges, and interns working with the web application developers require different privileges. Which of the following is the simplest method to meet these requirements?

    • Use generic accounts.

    • Create user-based privileges.

    • Use group-based privileges.

    • Grant the interns access to the Guest account.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use group-based privileges.
    Explanation
    Using group-based privileges is the best choice to meet the needs of this scenario. For example, you can create a DB_Group and a Web_Group, assign appropriate privileges to the groups, and add intern accounts to the groups based on their assignments. Generic accounts such as the Guest account should not be used. User-based privileges take too much time to manage because you’d have to implement them separately.

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  • 37. 

    Bart is adding a DMZ into his organization’s network. Which of the following is the BEST description of why he would do so?

    • To increase security for servers accessed from public networks

    • To provide a secure physical location for networking equipment

    • To lure attackers to a fake server or fake network

    • To cache data retrieved from a web server

    Correct Answer
    A. To increase security for servers accessed from public networks
    Explanation
    A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a logical buffer zone for servers accessed from public networks such as the Internet, and it provides a layer of security for servers in the DMZ. A wiring closet or server room provides physical security for networking equipment. A honeypot is a fake server used to lure attackers and a honeynet is a fake network. Proxy servers cache data retrieved from web servers.

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  • 38. 

    Homer noticed that several generators within the nuclear power plant have been turning on without user interaction. Security investigators discovered that an unauthorized file was installed, causing these generators to start at timed intervals. Further, they determined this file was installed during a visit by external engineers. What should Homer recommend to mitigate this threat in the future?

    • Create an internal CA.

    • Implement WPA2 Enterprise.

    • Implement patch management processes.

    • Configure the SCADA within a VLAN.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure the SCADA within a VLAN.
    Explanation
    The generators are likely controlled within a supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system and isolating them within a virtual local area network (VLAN) will protect them from unauthorized access. An internal Certificate Authority (CA) issues and manages certificates within a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), but there aren’t any indication certificates are in use. Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2) secures wireless networks but doesn’t protect SCADA networks. Patch management processes help ensure systems are kept up to date with patches, but this doesn’t apply in this scenario.

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  • 39. 

    Management wants to ensure that employees do not print any documents that include customer or employee PII. Which of the following solutions would meet this goal?

    • HSM

    • TPM

    • VLAN

    • DLP

    Correct Answer
    A. DLP
    Explanation
    A data loss prevention (DLP) solution can detect documents sent to a printer that contain Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and prevent them from printing. A hardware security module (HSM) and a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) both provide full disk encryption, but cannot block documents sent to a printer. A virtual local area network (VLAN) segments traffic and can help protect a supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system, but isn’t selective about documents sent to a printer.

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  • 40. 

    Of the following choices, what can you use to divert malicious attacks on your network away from valuable data to worthless, fabricated data?

    • IPS

    • Proxy server

    • Web application firewall

    • Honeypot

    Correct Answer
    A. Honeypot
    Explanation
    A honeypot can divert malicious attacks to a harmless area of your network, such as away from production servers holding valid data. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) can block attacks, but it doesn’t divert them. A proxy server can filter and cache content from web pages, but it doesn’t divert attacks. A web application firewall (WAF) is an additional firewall designed to protect a web application.

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  • 41. 

    You want to identify all the services running on a server in your network. Which of the following tools is the BEST choice to meet this goal?

    • Penetration test

    • Protocol analyzer

    • Sniffer

    • Port scanner

    Correct Answer
    A. Port scanner
    Explanation
    A port scanner identifies open ports on a system and is commonly used to determine what services are running on the system. A penetration test attempts to exploit a vulnerability. A protocol analyzer (also called a sniffer) could analyze traffic and discover protocols in use, but this would be much more difficult than using a port scanner.

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  • 42. 

    Your organization includes a software development division within the IT department. One developer writes and maintains applications for the Sales and Marketing departments. A second developer writes and maintains applications for the Payroll department. Once a year, they have to switch roles for at least a month. What is the purpose of this practice?

    • To enforce a separation of duties policy

    • To enforce a mandatory vacation policy

    • To enforce a job rotation policy

    • To enforce an acceptable use policy

    Correct Answer
    A. To enforce a job rotation policy
    Explanation
    This practice enforces a job rotation policy where employees rotate into different jobs and are designed to reduce potential incidents. A separation of duties policy prevents any single person from performing multiple job functions to help prevent fraud, but it doesn’t force users to switch roles. A mandatory vacation policy requires employees to take time away from their job. An acceptable use policy informs users of their responsibilities when using an organization’s equipment.

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  • 43. 

    Management is concerned about malicious activity and wants to implement a security control that will detect unusual traffic on the network. Which of the following is the BEST choice to meet this goal?

    • Network-based firewall

    • Signature-based IDS

    • Anomaly-based IDS

    • Honeynet

    Correct Answer
    A. Anomaly-based IDS
    Explanation
    An anomaly-based (also called heuristic-based or behavior-based) intrusion detection system (IDS) compares current activity with a previously created baseline to detect any anomalies or unusual traffic on a network. A network-based firewall will block and allow traffic, but it does not detect unusual traffic. Signature-based IDS systems use signatures similar to antivirus software. A honeynet is a group of servers configured as honeypots. A honeynet is designed to look valuable to an attacker and can divert attacks.

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  • 44. 

    Marge, a security administrator, is tasked with ensuring that all devices have updated virus definition files before they can access network resources. Which of the following technologies would help her accomplish this goal?

    • NIDS

    • NAC

    • DLP

    • DMZ

    Correct Answer
    A. NAC
    Explanation
    Network access control (NAC) inspects clients for health, including having up-to-date virus definition files and can restrict network access to unhealthy clients to a remediation network. A network intrusion detection system (NIDS) can detect incoming attacks, but doesn’t inspect internal clients. A data loss prevention (DLP) system typically examines outgoing traffic looking for confidential data. A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a buffer zone between the Internet and an internal network.

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  • 45. 

    A security professional needs to identify a physical security control that will identify and authenticate individuals before allowing them to pass, and restrict passage to only a single person at a time. Which of the following should the professional recommend?

    • Tailgating

    • Smart cards

    • Biometrics

    • Mantrap

    Correct Answer
    A. Mantrap
    Explanation
    A mantrap controls access to a secure area and only allows a single person to pass at a time. The scenario describes the social engineering tactic of tailgating, not the control to prevent it. Some sophisticated mantraps include identification and authorization systems, such as biometric systems or smart cards and PINs. However, biometrics and smart cards used for physical security do not restrict passage to one person at a time unless they are combined with a mantrap.

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  • 46. 

    Users within an organization frequently access public web servers using HTTPS. Management wants to ensure that users can verify that certificates are valid even if the public CAs are temporarily unavailable. Which of the following should be implemented to meet this need?

    • OCSP

    • CRL

    • Private CA

    • CSR

    Correct Answer
    A. CRL
    Explanation
    A certificate revocation list (CRL) can meet this need because CRLs are cached. If the public Certificate Authority (CA) is not reachable due to any type of connection outage or CA outage, the cached CRL can be used as long as the cache time has not expired. The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) works in real-time where the client queries the CA with the serial number of the certificate. If the CA is unreachable, the certificate cannot be validated. A private CA is used within an organization and cannot validate certificates from a public CA. You request a certificate with a certificate signing request (CSR), but the CSR doesn’t validate an issued certificate.

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  • 47. 

    Your organization is considering the storage of sensitive data with a cloud provider. Your organization wants to ensure the data is encrypted while at rest and while in transit. Which type of interoperability agreement can your organization use to ensure the data is encrypted while in transit?

    • SLA

    • BPA

    • MOU

    • ISA

    Correct Answer
    A. ISA
    Explanation
    An interconnection security agreement (ISA) specifies technical and security requirements for secure connections and can ensure data is encrypted while in transit. None of the other agreements address the connection. A service level agreement (SLA) stipulates the performance expectations of a vendor. A business partner agreement (BPA) is a written agreement for business partners. A memorandum of understanding (MOU) expresses an understanding between two parties to work together.

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  • 48. 

    Lisa has been hired as a penetration tester by your organization to test the security of a web server. She wants to identify the operating system and get some information on services and applications used by the server. Which of the following tools will BEST meet this need?

    • SIEM

    • Netcat

    • Tcpdump

    • Gray box test

    Correct Answer
    A. Netcat
    Explanation
    Netcat can easily be used for banner grabbing and banner grabbing will provide her information on the operating system and get some information on services and applications used by the server. Security information and event management (SIEM) system provides a centralized solution for collecting, analyzing, and managing data from multiple sources. Tcpdump is a command-line tool used to capture packets, but it doesn’t query systems for data. A gray box test indicates the tester has some knowledge of the target, but it doesn’t indicate the type of test used by a tester.

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  • 49. 

    Your organization frequently has guests visiting in various conference rooms throughout the building. These guests need access to the Internet via the wireless network, but should not be able to access internal network resources. Employees need access to both the internal network and the Internet. Which of the following would BEST meet this need?

    • NAT

    • DMZ

    • VPN

    • 802.1x

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.1x
    Explanation
    An 802.1x server provides port-based authentication and can authenticate clients. Clients that cannot authenticate (the guests in this scenario) can be redirected to the guest network, which grants them Internet access but not access to the internal network. None of the other solutions provides port security or adequate network separation. Network Address Translation (NAT) translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses. A demilitarized zone (DMZ) provides a buffer zone between a public network and a private network for public-facing servers. A virtual private network (VPN) provides access to a private network via a public network.

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  • Current Version
  • Aug 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 19, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Paul
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