CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 3)

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A Plus Essential Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Starting Windows XP in Safe Mode will cause which of the following to occur? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      Windows will not save any file changes while is Safe Mode.

    • B.

      Windows prevents successful boot and logon from updating Last Known Good Configuration.

    • C.

      Windows XP will scan all drivers and services to make sure they are all approved and safe to run during boot.

    • D.

      Windows XP starts basic networking to allow for updating of drivers from the Internet.

    • E.

      Windows XP uses the minimum set of drivers and services to start the GUI.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Windows prevents successful boot and logon from updating Last Known Good Configuration.
    E. Windows XP uses the minimum set of drivers and services to start the GUI.
    Explanation
    When starting Windows XP in Safe Mode, two things will occur. Firstly, Windows prevents successful boot and logon from updating the Last Known Good Configuration. This means that any changes made during Safe Mode will not be saved as the Last Known Good Configuration will remain unchanged. Secondly, Windows XP uses the minimum set of drivers and services to start the GUI. This allows for a basic and safe startup, without loading unnecessary drivers and services that may cause issues.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following Windows operating systems has a different user folder path than the rest?

    • A.

      Windows XP Media Center Edition

    • B.

      Windows XP Home

    • C.

      Windows Vista Ultimate

    • D.

      Windows 2000 Professional

    Correct Answer
    C. Windows Vista Ultimate
    Explanation
    Windows Vista Ultimate has a different user folder path than the rest. This could be due to changes in the file system or directory structure in Windows Vista compared to the other operating systems listed. Without further information, it is not possible to provide a more specific explanation.

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  • 3. 

    Before returning a repaired system to a user, which of the following should be done? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      Document the system findings, actions, and outcomes.

    • B.

      Verify full system functionality and implement preventative measures.

    • C.

      Inform the user every step that was performed throughout the entire troubleshooting process.

    • D.

      Inform the user that the computer may not function as it did before the problem occurred.

    • E.

      Change the users permissions so that they cannot create any potential problems in the future.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Document the system findings, actions, and outcomes.
    B. Verify full system functionality and implement preventative measures.
    Explanation
    Before returning a repaired system to a user, it is important to document the system findings, actions, and outcomes. This helps to keep a record of the troubleshooting process and can be useful for future reference. Additionally, verifying full system functionality ensures that all the issues have been resolved and the system is working properly. Implementing preventative measures helps to minimize the chances of similar problems occurring in the future, improving the overall reliability of the system.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following uses data striping to distribute data across multiple disks with no fault tolerance?

    • A.

      RAID 0

    • B.

      RAID 1

    • C.

      RAID 5

    • D.

      RAID 10

    Correct Answer
    A. RAID 0
    Explanation
    RAID 0 uses data striping to distribute data across multiple disks without providing any fault tolerance. In RAID 0, data is divided into blocks and each block is written to a different disk simultaneously, which allows for faster read and write speeds. However, since there is no redundancy or mirroring of data, if one disk fails, all data is lost. Therefore, RAID 0 is used for performance improvement rather than data protection.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following uses multiple disks to create one functional drive with parity spanning all the disks?

    • A.

      RAID 0

    • B.

      RAID 1

    • C.

      RAID 5

    • D.

      RAID 10

    Correct Answer
    C. RAID 5
    Explanation
    RAID 5 uses multiple disks to create one functional drive with parity spanning all the disks. In RAID 5, data is distributed across all the disks in the array, along with parity information that is also distributed across the disks. This allows for both data redundancy and improved performance. If one disk fails, the parity information can be used to reconstruct the data on that disk. RAID 5 is commonly used in situations where both data protection and performance are important.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following interfaces supports only one device per port?

    • A.

      RS-232

    • B.

      USB 1.1

    • C.

      SCSI

    • D.

      Bluetooth

    Correct Answer
    A. RS-232
    Explanation
    RS-232 is a serial communication interface that supports only one device per port. It is commonly used for connecting devices such as modems, printers, and mice to a computer. Unlike other interfaces like USB 1.1, SCSI, and Bluetooth, which support multiple devices per port, RS-232 is designed to establish a direct connection between a single device and a computer. This limitation makes it less versatile in terms of connecting multiple devices simultaneously, but it is still widely used in various applications that require a simple and reliable serial communication interface.

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  • 7. 

    On which of the following interfaces should a technician expect to see status light indicators? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      IEEE 1394

    • B.

      PS/2

    • C.

      Parallel

    • D.

      NIC

    • E.

      Modem

    • F.

      Serial

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. NIC
    E. Modem
    Explanation
    A technician should expect to see status light indicators on the NIC (Network Interface Card) and Modem interfaces. These status lights indicate the current status of the network connection and modem activity respectively. The lights can provide information such as whether the connection is active, if there is any data transmission or reception, and if there are any connection issues. This allows the technician to quickly diagnose and troubleshoot network or modem problems.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is used to control access to a network based on the address hard coded into the NIC?

    • A.

      802.11n

    • B.

      MAC filtering

    • C.

      Channel 11

    • D.

      SSID

    Correct Answer
    B. MAC filtering
    Explanation
    MAC filtering is used to control access to a network based on the address hard coded into the NIC. MAC filtering allows or denies network access based on the MAC address of the device. The MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to the network interface card (NIC) of a device. By configuring MAC filtering, only devices with specific MAC addresses are allowed to connect to the network, providing an additional layer of security.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is used to control access to a broadcasted wireless network based on a user supplied key?

    • A.

      NAT

    • B.

      WEP

    • C.

      SSID

    • D.

      MAC

    Correct Answer
    B. WEP
    Explanation
    WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is used to control access to a broadcasted wireless network based on a user supplied key. WEP is a security protocol that encrypts data transmitted over a wireless network to prevent unauthorized access. It uses a shared key authentication method where users must enter a pre-determined key to connect to the network. This key is used to encrypt and decrypt data, ensuring that only authorized users can access the network.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is assigned to broadcast on a wireless network?

    • A.

      WPA key

    • B.

      SSID

    • C.

      MAC filtering

    • D.

      WEP key

    Correct Answer
    B. SSID
    Explanation
    The SSID (Service Set Identifier) is assigned to broadcast on a wireless network. It is a unique name that identifies a specific wireless network. When devices search for available networks, they can see the SSID being broadcasted and use it to connect to the desired network. The SSID acts as a network identifier and helps devices differentiate between different wireless networks in the vicinity.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following Windows XP Control Panel applets could a technician use to change a local workstation password? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      System

    • B.

      User Accounts

    • C.

      Administrative Tools

    • D.

      Security Center

    • E.

      Accessibility Options

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. User Accounts
    C. Administrative Tools
    Explanation
    A technician could use the "User Accounts" Control Panel applet to change a local workstation password. This applet allows the technician to manage user accounts and make changes to passwords. Additionally, the "Administrative Tools" Control Panel applet can also be used to change a local workstation password. This applet provides access to various administrative tools, including the "Computer Management" tool which allows the technician to manage user accounts and passwords.

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  • 12. 

    A customer connects a projector to their laptop, but no display shows on the screen. The projector is turned on. Which of the following could the technician do to send the display to the projector?

    • A.

      Use appropriate function toggle key to switch display mode

    • B.

      Press F1 to shift display to the projector

    • C.

      Reboot the computer, the system will auto-select the projector on restart.

    • D.

      Go into Device Manager and enable the projector

    Correct Answer
    A. Use appropriate function toggle key to switch display mode
    Explanation
    The technician can use the appropriate function toggle key to switch the display mode. This key combination allows the user to toggle between different display options, such as extending the display to the projector or duplicating the display on both the laptop screen and the projector. By using this key combination, the technician can select the desired display mode and send the display to the projector.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following BEST describes the function of a firewall?

    • A.

      Resolves queries for resolution of host names to IP addresses.

    • B.

      Secures network Internet traffic through shared key encryption.

    • C.

      Provides security for a network through the use of ACLs.

    • D.

      Dynamically assigns IP addresses for easy client configuration.

    Correct Answer
    C. Provides security for a network through the use of ACLs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Provides security for a network through the use of ACLs." A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. Access Control Lists (ACLs) are one of the main features of a firewall, allowing administrators to define specific rules and filters for network traffic. These rules determine which packets are allowed to pass through the firewall and which are blocked, providing security by preventing unauthorized access and protecting against various network threats.

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  • 14. 

    After the problem is resolved, which of the following should be the NEXT action according to the troubleshooting theory?

    • A.

      Return the system to the user.

    • B.

      Recreate the problem and reapply the solution to ensure it worked properly

    • C.

      Verify that all other parts of the system are working properly

    • D.

      Inform the user of every step that was taken so the user can self-repair if the problem occurs again.

    Correct Answer
    C. Verify that all other parts of the system are working properly
    Explanation
    After resolving the problem, the next action should be to verify that all other parts of the system are working properly. This step is important to ensure that the problem resolution did not cause any new issues or disruptions in the system. By checking the functionality of all other components, it helps to ensure the overall stability and reliability of the system.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following media can be MOST affected by magnets and should therefore be kept away from all magnetic fields? (Select THREE).

    • A.

      Digital Video Disc

    • B.

      Backup Tape

    • C.

      Compact Disc

    • D.

      IDE Hard Drive

    • E.

      Solid State Drive

    • F.

      1.44MB Floppy Disk

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Backup Tape
    D. IDE Hard Drive
    F. 1.44MB Floppy Disk
    Explanation
    Magnets can affect the data stored in magnetic media, such as backup tapes, IDE hard drives, and 1.44MB floppy disks. These media use magnetic fields to store information, and exposure to strong magnetic fields can cause data corruption or loss. Therefore, it is important to keep these media away from magnets to ensure the integrity of the stored data. Compact discs, digital video discs, and solid-state drives do not rely on magnetic fields for data storage, so they are not as susceptible to magnetic interference.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following methods can a technician use to find the IP address of a computer? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      Right click on My Computer, select Properties, select the Hardware tab, and then click on Device Manager.

    • B.

      Open a command window and run net /? from the command line.

    • C.

      Run the System Configuration Utility from the run line and click on the Services tab.

    • D.

      Open Network Connections from the control panel, right click the Local Area Connection, select Status, and then select the Support tab.

    • E.

      Open a command window and run ipconfig from the command line.

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. Open Network Connections from the control panel, right click the Local Area Connection, select Status, and then select the Support tab.
    E. Open a command window and run ipconfig from the command line.
    Explanation
    A technician can find the IP address of a computer by opening Network Connections from the control panel, right-clicking the Local Area Connection, selecting Status, and then selecting the Support tab. They can also open a command window and run ipconfig from the command line.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following are valid installation methods for Windows XP? (Select THREE).

    • A.

      Factory recovery partition

    • B.

      XCOPY all files from another computer

    • C.

      Installation from Microsoft.com

    • D.

      Windows CD installation

    • E.

      Network installation

    • F.

      Purchase a fully configured hard drive

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Factory recovery partition
    D. Windows CD installation
    E. Network installation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Factory recovery partition, Windows CD installation, and Network installation. Factory recovery partition is a valid installation method for Windows XP as it allows users to restore the computer to its original factory settings. Windows CD installation is another valid method where users can install Windows XP using a CD/DVD. Network installation is also a valid method where users can install Windows XP over a network connection. XCOPY all files from another computer, Installation from Microsoft.com, and Purchase a fully configured hard drive are not valid installation methods for Windows XP.

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  • 18. 

    A user calls stating that they are missing icons from the Windows desktop and that the My Documents folder is empty. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?

    • A.

      The local user profile is corrupt.

    • B.

      The user saved the files to a different location.

    • C.

      The user selected an alternate hardware profile.

    • D.

      The user accidentally deleted the files.

    Correct Answer
    A. The local user profile is corrupt.
    Explanation
    The missing icons on the Windows desktop and the empty My Documents folder suggest that there may be an issue with the local user profile. When a user profile becomes corrupt, it can lead to various problems, including missing icons and empty folders. This can happen due to software conflicts, system errors, or improper shutdowns. To resolve this issue, the user may need to create a new user profile or repair the existing one.

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  • 19. 

    When attempting to understand a problem the technician should ask the:

    • A.

      Users coworker to confirm what the user said and verify there is a problem.

    • B.

      User to move so the technician can check the computer for problems.

    • C.

      User to state the issue and stop the user when the technician has an idea of how to fix the problem.

    • D.

      User to explain the problem and listen without interrupting the user.

    Correct Answer
    D. User to explain the problem and listen without interrupting the user.
    Explanation
    When attempting to understand a problem, it is important for the technician to ask the user to explain the problem and listen without interrupting the user. This allows the technician to gather all the necessary information about the issue at hand and understand it from the user's perspective. Interrupting the user may prevent the technician from getting a complete understanding of the problem and potentially miss important details. By actively listening and allowing the user to explain the problem fully, the technician can better diagnose and resolve the issue.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is the maximum cable length of a CAT5e?

    • A.

      100 feet (30 meters)

    • B.

      328 feet (100 meters)

    • C.

      492 feet (150 meters)

    • D.

      1076 feet (328 meters)

    Correct Answer
    B. 328 feet (100 meters)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 328 feet (100 meters). CAT5e is a type of Ethernet cable commonly used for networking. It has a maximum cable length of 100 meters, which is equivalent to 328 feet. This length limitation is due to the signal degradation that occurs over longer distances. Beyond 100 meters, the quality of the signal may deteriorate, leading to slower data transmission or loss of connection. Therefore, it is important to consider the cable length when setting up a network using CAT5e cables.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following cable types would be used in a 10BaseT network?

    • A.

      UTP

    • B.

      ThinNet

    • C.

      Fiber

    • D.

      Coaxial

    Correct Answer
    A. UTP
    Explanation
    UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cable would be used in a 10BaseT network. This type of cable is commonly used in Ethernet networks and is suitable for transmitting data at speeds up to 10 Mbps. UTP cable consists of pairs of twisted copper wires, which helps to reduce electromagnetic interference. It is cost-effective, easy to install, and widely available, making it a popular choice for networking. ThinNet and Coaxial cables are not typically used in 10BaseT networks, while Fiber cables are used for higher-speed networks.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is a benefit of using STP cable?

    • A.

      Increased RFI

    • B.

      Decreased ESD

    • C.

      Decreased EMI

    • D.

      Increased transfer rate

    Correct Answer
    C. Decreased EMI
    Explanation
    STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) cable provides a benefit of decreased EMI (Electromagnetic Interference). EMI refers to the disturbance caused by electromagnetic radiation from external sources, which can negatively affect the performance of electronic devices and data transmission. By using STP cable, the electromagnetic shielding helps to reduce the impact of external interference, ensuring a more reliable and stable signal transmission. This makes STP cable a preferred choice in environments where EMI is a concern, such as industrial settings or areas with high levels of electromagnetic radiation.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following utilities is used to remove programs from startup in Windows XP?

    • A.

      MSCONFIG

    • B.

      ASR

    • C.

      Task Manager

    • D.

      Computer Management

    Correct Answer
    A. MSCONFIG
    Explanation
    MSCONFIG is the correct answer because it is a utility in Windows XP that allows users to manage the startup programs. It provides a simple interface where users can enable or disable programs that automatically start when the computer boots up. This utility is commonly used to troubleshoot startup issues and improve the overall performance of the system by preventing unnecessary programs from running at startup.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following devices must be terminated at the last device or none of the devices will work?

    • A.

      SCSI

    • B.

      Serial

    • C.

      IDE

    • D.

      Parallel

    Correct Answer
    A. SCSI
    Explanation
    SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a type of interface used to connect various peripheral devices to a computer. In a SCSI chain, termination is required at the last device in order to prevent signal reflections and ensure proper communication between devices. If termination is not present at the last device, the signal may bounce back and cause data corruption or communication failures. Therefore, termination is crucial for the proper functioning of SCSI devices.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following commands will automatically reconnect a network drive as F: after a reboot in Windows XP?

    • A.

      Net use \\ComputerName\ShareName /persistent:NO :F

    • B.

      Net use F: \\ComputerName\ShareName /persistent:NO

    • C.

      Net use \\ComputerName\ShareName /persistent:YES :F

    • D.

      Net use F: \\ComputerName\ShareName /persistent:YES

    Correct Answer
    D. Net use F: \\ComputerName\ShareName /persistent:YES
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "net use F: \\ComputerName\ShareName /persistent:YES". This command will map the network drive as F: and set it to persistently reconnect after a reboot in Windows XP. The "/persistent:YES" parameter ensures that the mapping remains even after a system restart.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following Windows XP system files would a technician edit to change which operating system loads by default when multiple operating systems are installed?

    • A.

      Ntbtlog.txt

    • B.

      Sysprep.inf

    • C.

      Bootsect.dos

    • D.

      Boot.ini

    Correct Answer
    D. Boot.ini
    Explanation
    To configure dual-boot computers, you need to edit the boot.ini that is loaded by the ntldr file that loads the bootstrap process in a system. The boot.ini file is an editable text file with one or more lines that reference partitions to boot to.

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  • 27. 

    A technician needs to increase the paging file size on a Windows XP system. Where would they find this setting?

    • A.

      System Properties>Advanced>Performance Settings>Advanced

    • B.

      System Properties>General

    • C.

      System Properties>Advanced>Environment Variables

    • D.

      System Properties>Advanced>Startup and Recovery Settings

    Correct Answer
    A. System Properties>Advanced>Performance Settings>Advanced
    Explanation
    To increase the paging file size on a Windows XP system, the technician would need to go to System Properties, then navigate to the Advanced tab. From there, they would click on the Performance Settings button, and then go to the Advanced tab within the Performance Options window. In this tab, they would find the setting to adjust the paging file size.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following slots will support the fastest video card?

    • A.

      ISA

    • B.

      PCIe

    • C.

      PCMCIA

    • D.

      AGP

    Correct Answer
    B. PCIe
    Explanation
    PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is the correct answer because it is the latest and fastest slot for connecting video cards to a computer's motherboard. PCIe offers higher bandwidth and faster data transfer rates compared to other slots such as ISA, PCMCIA, and AGP. ISA (Industry Standard Architecture) is an older slot that does not support modern video cards. PCMCIA (Personal Computer Memory Card International Association) is a slot primarily used for laptop expansion cards and does not provide the necessary speed for high-performance video cards. AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port) is an older slot specifically designed for graphics cards but has been largely replaced by PCIe for faster performance.

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  • 29. 

    A user calls and reports that after the cleaning crew left they started hearing beeping from under their desk. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

    • A.

      A new security update is available for download.

    • B.

      The default printer is out of paper or offline.

    • C.

      The speaker wires were disconnected while cleaning.

    • D.

      The UPS is disconnected from the wall.

    Correct Answer
    D. The UPS is disconnected from the wall.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause for the beeping sound after the cleaning crew left is that the UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is disconnected from the wall. UPS devices are used to provide backup power to electronic devices in case of power outages or fluctuations. If the UPS is disconnected, it may start beeping to indicate that it is not receiving power or is not properly connected. This would explain why the user started hearing the beeping sound after the cleaning crew left.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is the BitLocker utility used for?

    • A.

      Storing passwords

    • B.

      Blocking harmful network traffic

    • C.

      Securing wireless access points

    • D.

      Encrypting hard drives

    Correct Answer
    D. Encrypting hard drives
    Explanation
    BitLocker is a utility used for encrypting hard drives. It provides a security feature that helps protect data by encrypting the entire drive. This encryption ensures that the data stored on the hard drive is protected and cannot be accessed by unauthorized users. By encrypting the hard drive, BitLocker helps to safeguard sensitive information and prevent data breaches in case the device is lost or stolen. It is commonly used in organizations and individuals who require a high level of data security.

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  • 31. 

    Where can a technician find information relating to common problems or concerns on a Windows XP computer?

    • A.

      Right-click My Computer > Help and Support

    • B.

      Start > Help and Support

    • C.

      Start > Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Help and Support

    • D.

      Right-click Taskbar > Help and Support

    Correct Answer
    B. Start > Help and Support
    Explanation
    A technician can find information relating to common problems or concerns on a Windows XP computer by navigating to the Start menu and selecting Help and Support. This option provides access to a comprehensive knowledge base and troubleshooting resources that can assist in resolving issues on the computer.

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  • 32. 

    After a technician repairs a printer problem, the customer asks for an explanation the cause of the problem. Which of the following is MOST appropriate?

    • A.

      The paper jam was caused by moisture in the paper tray.

    • B.

      The process of removal is so complex that only those certified for repair should attempt to resolve.

    • C.

      The situation was caused by irresponsible users that spilled coffee in the bottom tray.

    • D.

      Due to condensation within the lower tray assembly, the functionality of the rollers was impaired and therefore ceased to transfer properly.

    Correct Answer
    A. The paper jam was caused by moisture in the paper tray.
    Explanation
    The paper jam was caused by moisture in the paper tray. This is the most appropriate answer because it directly addresses the cause of the problem that the customer asked for an explanation for. It explains that the presence of moisture in the paper tray led to the paper jam.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following copper cabling is BEST to use if data rate speed is not an issue and the segment length must be 1640 feet (500 meters) long?

    • A.

      CAT6

    • B.

      CAT6

    • C.

      RG-58ThinNet

    • D.

      RG-8ThickNet

    Correct Answer
    D. RG-8ThickNet
    Explanation
    RG-8 ThickNet is the best copper cabling to use in this scenario because it has a longer segment length capability compared to CAT6 and RG-58 ThinNet. While CAT6 is a high-performance cable, it is limited to a maximum segment length of 328 feet (100 meters). RG-58 ThinNet also has a shorter segment length capability and is typically used for shorter distances. RG-8 ThickNet, on the other hand, can support segment lengths of up to 500 meters (1640 feet), making it the most suitable choice for this specific requirement.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following BEST describes digital signatures?

    • A.

      Cryptographic mechanism that identifies the sender as well as the message integrity

    • B.

      Email applicationadD.in which adds the signature block to all email messages

    • C.

      An infallible method which binds a signature to a message

    • D.

      An infallible method which binds a signature to a message

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryptographic mechanism that identifies the sender as well as the message integrity
    Explanation
    Digital signatures are a cryptographic mechanism that ensures the authenticity and integrity of a message. They use a combination of public and private keys to verify the identity of the sender and to guarantee that the message has not been tampered with during transmission. This technology provides a secure way to verify the origin and integrity of digital documents, ensuring that they have not been altered or forged.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is a benefit of using a password generator?

    • A.

      Generators create new passwords every time a user signs in to prevent social engineering.

    • B.

      Generators eliminate the requirement to establish log-in attempt limitations.

    • C.

      Generators extend the requirement to periodically change passwords.

    • D.

      Generators eliminate a users tendency to create passwords that can be a security liability.

    Correct Answer
    D. Generators eliminate a users tendency to create passwords that can be a security liability.
    Explanation
    Using a password generator eliminates a user's tendency to create passwords that can be a security liability. This is because password generators create strong, random passwords that are harder for hackers to guess or crack. Users often tend to create weak passwords that are easy to remember, such as using common words or personal information, which can be easily exploited by attackers. By using a password generator, users can ensure that their passwords are strong and secure, reducing the risk of unauthorized access to their accounts.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following describes the random access memory limitations with Vista 32-bit operating system?

    • A.

      2GB

    • B.

      4GB

    • C.

      8GB

    • D.

      128GB

    Correct Answer
    B. 4GB
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4GB. The random access memory (RAM) limitations with the Vista 32-bit operating system is that it can only support a maximum of 4GB of RAM. This is because a 32-bit operating system can only address up to 4GB of memory. If more than 4GB of RAM is installed, the excess memory will not be utilized by the system. To fully utilize more than 4GB of RAM, a 64-bit operating system is required.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following describes the S-video mini-DIN connector on laptops?

    • A.

      Allows a LCD projectors output to display on a laptops screen

    • B.

      Allows analog video output to a variety of devices

    • C.

      Allows digital video to a variety of devices

    • D.

      Allows digital video and audio to a variety of devices

    Correct Answer
    B. Allows analog video output to a variety of devices
    Explanation
    The S-video mini-DIN connector on laptops allows analog video output to a variety of devices. This means that you can connect your laptop to different devices such as TVs, projectors, or monitors that support analog video input using the S-video mini-DIN connector. It does not support digital video or audio output, and it does not specifically allow a LCD projector's output to display on a laptop screen.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following components should be in contact with thermal compound? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      Motherboard

    • B.

      Fan

    • C.

      Heatsink

    • D.

      CPU

    • E.

      Capacitors

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Heatsink
    D. CPU
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Heatsink and CPU. Thermal compound is used to improve heat transfer between the CPU and the heatsink. The CPU generates heat during operation, and the heatsink is responsible for dissipating that heat. By applying thermal compound between the CPU and heatsink, it fills in any microscopic gaps and improves the contact between the two components, allowing for better heat transfer. This helps to keep the CPU cool and prevent overheating. The motherboard, fan, and capacitors do not typically require direct contact with thermal compound.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following components prevents a motherboard from making electrical contact with the case it is in?

    • A.

      Riser cards

    • B.

      Standoffs

    • C.

      Screws

    • D.

      Daughterboard

    Correct Answer
    B. Standoffs
    Explanation
    Plastic and metal standoffs are used to mount the motherboard and to prevent it from touching the metal portions of the case. You should install only the standoffs that align with the holes in the motherboard. Installing any additional standoffs may prevent the motherboard from being seated properly in the computer case.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following Internet connectivity methods MOST commonly uses the PPPoE authentication method?

    • A.

      Dial-up

    • B.

      Cable

    • C.

      DSL

    • D.

      Satellite

    Correct Answer
    C. DSL
    Explanation
    DSL, or Digital Subscriber Line, is the Internet connectivity method that most commonly uses the PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet) authentication method. PPPoE is a protocol that allows the creation of a point-to-point connection over an Ethernet network. DSL connections use PPPoE authentication to establish a secure connection between the user's device and the Internet service provider's network. This method is commonly used in DSL connections to ensure secure and reliable communication between the user and the ISP.

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  • 41. 

    In which of the following locations can a browser pull files in order to avoid pulling them from the Internet?

    • A.

      Temporary Internet Files

    • B.

      Browser Plug-Ins

    • C.

      Downloaded Program Files

    • D.

      Windows Temporary Files

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporary Internet Files
    Explanation
    Temporary Internet Files is a location where a browser can pull files in order to avoid pulling them from the Internet. When a user visits a website, the browser stores certain elements of that website, such as images, scripts, and HTML files, in the Temporary Internet Files folder. This allows the browser to retrieve those files from the local cache instead of downloading them again from the Internet, which can improve loading times and reduce data usage.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following addresses would be assigned by APIPA?

    • A.

      169.254.0.15

    • B.

      10.0.0.25

    • C.

      172.16.1.15

    • D.

      192.168.0.15

    Correct Answer
    A. 169.254.0.15
    Explanation
    APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) is a feature in Windows operating systems that automatically assigns IP addresses to computers when a DHCP server is not available. The range of IP addresses assigned by APIPA is from 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254. Therefore, the IP address 169.254.0.15 would be assigned by APIPA.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following BEST describes a Trojan horse?

    • A.

      Malicious software that monitors Internet surfing habits

    • B.

      Malicious software that is self-replicating and self-propagating

    • C.

      Malicious software attached to another piece of software

    • D.

      Malicious software attached to an incoming email

    Correct Answer
    C. Malicious software attached to another piece of software
    Explanation
    A Trojan horse is a type of malware that appears to be legitimate software but actually contains malicious code. It is often disguised as a harmless or useful program and is attached to another piece of software. Once the infected software is installed, the Trojan horse can perform various malicious activities, such as stealing personal information, damaging files, or allowing unauthorized access to the system. Unlike viruses or worms, Trojan horses do not self-replicate or self-propagate.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following BEST describes a worm?

    • A.

      Malicious software that is self-replicating and self-propagating

    • B.

      Malicious software that changes the users home page

    • C.

      Malicious software attached to another piece of software

    • D.

      Malicious software that monitors Internet surfing habits

    Correct Answer
    A. Malicious software that is self-replicating and self-propagating
    Explanation
    A worm is a type of malicious software that is able to replicate itself and spread to other computers or devices without any action from the user. Unlike viruses, worms do not need to attach themselves to other files or programs in order to spread. They can exploit vulnerabilities in computer networks and use various methods such as email, instant messaging, or file sharing to propagate themselves. The main characteristic of a worm is its ability to independently replicate and spread, making it a self-replicating and self-propagating form of malware.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following BEST describes the function of ECC in a RAM module?

    • A.

      Ability to bypass the IRQ channels to work directly with the CPU

    • B.

      Ability to detect hardware incompatibilities and resolve them

    • C.

      Ability to detect and correct single bit errors in memory

    • D.

      Ability to use varying levels of voltage for power saving

    Correct Answer
    C. Ability to detect and correct single bit errors in memory
    Explanation
    ECC stands for Error Correcting Code, which is a feature in RAM modules that allows them to detect and correct single bit errors in memory. This means that if there is a bit flip or error in the data stored in a memory cell, ECC can identify and fix it automatically, ensuring the integrity and accuracy of the stored information. By detecting and correcting these errors, ECC helps to improve the reliability and stability of the RAM module.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following devices would enable a user to use multiple computers with a single monitor?

    • A.

      KVM

    • B.

      USB hub

    • C.

      Graphics adaptor

    • D.

      Capture card

    Correct Answer
    A. KVM
    Explanation
    A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch is a device that allows a user to control multiple computers with a single keyboard, monitor, and mouse. It enables the user to switch between different computers without the need to physically disconnect and reconnect the peripherals. Therefore, a KVM switch is the correct answer as it provides the functionality of using multiple computers with a single monitor.

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  • 47. 

    An external hard drive installation has caused a system to crash. Which of the following would be the BEST startup selection?

    • A.

      Debugging Mode

    • B.

      Safe Mode with Command Prompt

    • C.

      Last Known Good Configuration

    • D.

      Active Directory Restore Mode

    Correct Answer
    C. Last Known Good Configuration
    Explanation
    The best startup selection in this scenario would be "Last Known Good Configuration." This option allows the system to start using the most recent settings that were known to work properly before the crash occurred. By selecting this option, the system can revert back to a stable state and potentially resolve any issues caused by the external hard drive installation. Safe Mode with Command Prompt and Debugging Mode are more suitable for troubleshooting purposes, while Active Directory Restore Mode is specific to domain controllers and not relevant in this situation.

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  • 48. 

    A technician is upgrading a computer for a customer that wishes to have faster than 54MB/s wireless LAN connection. Which of the following standards should the technician upgrade to?

    • A.

      802.11g wireless card

    • B.

      802.11n wireless card

    • C.

      802.11a wireless card

    • D.

      802.11b wireless card

    Correct Answer
    B. 802.11n wireless card
    Explanation
    The technician should upgrade to an 802.11n wireless card. This is because 802.11n is capable of providing faster data transfer speeds than 54MB/s, which is the requirement of the customer. The other options, 802.11g, 802.11a, and 802.11b, do not meet the customer's requirement for a faster wireless LAN connection.

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  • 49. 

    A system is malfunctioning and the technician has asked the user about any recent changes to the system. Before the technician performs any diagnostics which of the following actions should the technician take?

    • A.

      Run a power supply test.

    • B.

      Run a backup routine.

    • C.

      Apply the latest service pack.

    • D.

      Boot into Safe Mode.

    Correct Answer
    B. Run a backup routine.
    Explanation
    Before performing any diagnostics, the technician should run a backup routine. This is important because running a backup will ensure that the user's data is safely stored in case any further issues occur during the diagnostic process. It is a precautionary measure to prevent any potential data loss.

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  • 50. 

    A technician has asked a user about any recent changes to a system and was able to backup all the important data prior to troubleshooting. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

    • A.

      Create a checklist of the most likely issues.

    • B.

      Update all software to determine if this corrects the problem.

    • C.

      Check the security log for error codes.

    • D.

      Restore the backup to a new hard drive.

    Correct Answer
    A. Create a checklist of the most likely issues.
    Explanation
    After backing up the important data, the technician should create a checklist of the most likely issues. This will help the technician to systematically identify and troubleshoot potential problems in the system. By having a checklist, the technician can ensure that no possible issue is overlooked and can efficiently work towards resolving the problem. Updating software, checking security logs, or restoring the backup to a new hard drive can be considered as subsequent steps in the troubleshooting process, but creating a checklist is the immediate next step to organize the troubleshooting process effectively.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 11, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Freddyoca
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