CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 3)

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1. When attempting to understand a problem the technician should ask the:

Explanation

When attempting to understand a problem, it is important for the technician to ask the user to explain the problem and listen without interrupting the user. This allows the technician to gather all the necessary information about the issue at hand and understand it from the user's perspective. Interrupting the user may prevent the technician from getting a complete understanding of the problem and potentially miss important details. By actively listening and allowing the user to explain the problem fully, the technician can better diagnose and resolve the issue.

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About This Quiz
A Plus Essential Quizzes & Trivia

This CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test (Part 3) assesses key IT skills, focusing on system troubleshooting, RAID configurations, and Windows operating systems. It prepares learners for essential... see moreIT support tasks and certification. see less

2. A customer has a 12 laptop computer. In the office they want to use a 24 LCD monitor, full size keyboard, and a regular mouse without having to connect all of the devices each time. Which of the following will allow this functionality?

Explanation

The Docking station is a platform that allows you to host desktop components permanently. It provides slots for expansion cards, connectors for peripheral devices, and bays for storage devices. Once a portable computer is inserted in a docking station it behaves like a desktop computer.

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3. Which of the following devices would enable a user to use multiple computers with a single monitor?

Explanation

A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch is a device that allows a user to control multiple computers with a single keyboard, monitor, and mouse. It enables the user to switch between different computers without the need to physically disconnect and reconnect the peripherals. Therefore, a KVM switch is the correct answer as it provides the functionality of using multiple computers with a single monitor.

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4. Which of the following is used to control access to a network based on the address hard coded into the NIC?

Explanation

MAC filtering is used to control access to a network based on the address hard coded into the NIC. MAC filtering allows or denies network access based on the MAC address of the device. The MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to the network interface card (NIC) of a device. By configuring MAC filtering, only devices with specific MAC addresses are allowed to connect to the network, providing an additional layer of security.

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5. After the problem is resolved, which of the following should be the NEXT action according to the troubleshooting theory?

Explanation

After resolving the problem, the next action should be to verify that all other parts of the system are working properly. This step is important to ensure that the problem resolution did not cause any new issues or disruptions in the system. By checking the functionality of all other components, it helps to ensure the overall stability and reliability of the system.

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6. A client receives an email stating that their online auction has been compromised. It says that they need to login and change their old username, password along with all of their account information. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This scenario is an example of phishing. Phishing is a type of cyber attack where attackers impersonate a trustworthy entity to trick individuals into revealing sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, or credit card details. In this case, the client receives an email pretending to be from their online auction and is asked to login and update their account information. However, the email is actually sent by the attacker who aims to steal the client's credentials and gain unauthorized access to their account.

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7. In which of the following situations would a voltage switch on a power supply need to be changed?

Explanation

When traveling to other countries, the voltage switch on a power supply may need to be changed. This is because different countries have different electrical systems and use different voltage standards. For example, in the United States, the standard voltage is 120 volts, while in many other countries, it is 220-240 volts. Therefore, when traveling to a country with a different voltage standard, the voltage switch on the power supply needs to be adjusted to match the local voltage in order to prevent damage to the electronic devices.

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8. Which of the following is assigned to broadcast on a wireless network?

Explanation

The SSID (Service Set Identifier) is assigned to broadcast on a wireless network. It is a unique name that identifies a specific wireless network. When devices search for available networks, they can see the SSID being broadcasted and use it to connect to the desired network. The SSID acts as a network identifier and helps devices differentiate between different wireless networks in the vicinity.

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9. Which of the following is the BitLocker utility used for?

Explanation

BitLocker is a utility used for encrypting hard drives. It provides a security feature that helps protect data by encrypting the entire drive. This encryption ensures that the data stored on the hard drive is protected and cannot be accessed by unauthorized users. By encrypting the hard drive, BitLocker helps to safeguard sensitive information and prevent data breaches in case the device is lost or stolen. It is commonly used in organizations and individuals who require a high level of data security.

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10. Which of the following connectors would plug into a 56K dial-up modem?

Explanation

The RJ-11 connector is the correct answer because it is commonly used for telephone connections and is specifically designed to plug into a 56K dial-up modem. The BNC connector is typically used for coaxial cables in video applications, the RJ-45 connector is used for Ethernet connections, and the ST connector is used for fiber optic cables. Therefore, the RJ-11 connector is the most appropriate choice for a dial-up modem.

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11. Which of the following BEST describes a worm?

Explanation

A worm is a type of malicious software that is able to replicate itself and spread to other computers or devices without any action from the user. Unlike viruses, worms do not need to attach themselves to other files or programs in order to spread. They can exploit vulnerabilities in computer networks and use various methods such as email, instant messaging, or file sharing to propagate themselves. The main characteristic of a worm is its ability to independently replicate and spread, making it a self-replicating and self-propagating form of malware.

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12. Which of the following utilities is used to remove programs from startup in Windows XP?

Explanation

MSCONFIG is the correct answer because it is a utility in Windows XP that allows users to manage the startup programs. It provides a simple interface where users can enable or disable programs that automatically start when the computer boots up. This utility is commonly used to troubleshoot startup issues and improve the overall performance of the system by preventing unnecessary programs from running at startup.

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13. A user calls and reports that after the cleaning crew left they started hearing beeping from under their desk. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

Explanation

The most likely cause for the beeping sound after the cleaning crew left is that the UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is disconnected from the wall. UPS devices are used to provide backup power to electronic devices in case of power outages or fluctuations. If the UPS is disconnected, it may start beeping to indicate that it is not receiving power or is not properly connected. This would explain why the user started hearing the beeping sound after the cleaning crew left.

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14. Which of the following slot types has the GREATEST peak bandwidth?

Explanation

PCIe has the greatest peak bandwidth among the given slot types. PCIe stands for Peripheral Component Interconnect Express and it is a high-speed serial computer expansion bus standard. It offers significantly higher bandwidth compared to other slot types such as ISA, AGP, and PCI-X. PCIe is commonly used for connecting graphics cards, network cards, and other high-performance devices to the motherboard, providing faster data transfer rates and improved overall system performance.

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15. In a Windows machine, which of the following locations can a programs executable file be typed in and launched from?

Explanation

The correct answer is "From the start command window". In a Windows machine, the start command window allows users to type in and launch executable files. This can be done by opening the start menu, typing "cmd" or "command prompt" in the search bar, and then using the command prompt window to navigate to the location of the executable file and launch it.

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16. Before returning a repaired system to a user, which of the following should be done? (Select TWO).

Explanation

Before returning a repaired system to a user, it is important to document the system findings, actions, and outcomes. This helps to keep a record of the troubleshooting process and can be useful for future reference. Additionally, verifying full system functionality ensures that all the issues have been resolved and the system is working properly. Implementing preventative measures helps to minimize the chances of similar problems occurring in the future, improving the overall reliability of the system.

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17. Which of the following slots will support the fastest video card?

Explanation

PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is the correct answer because it is the latest and fastest slot for connecting video cards to a computer's motherboard. PCIe offers higher bandwidth and faster data transfer rates compared to other slots such as ISA, PCMCIA, and AGP. ISA (Industry Standard Architecture) is an older slot that does not support modern video cards. PCMCIA (Personal Computer Memory Card International Association) is a slot primarily used for laptop expansion cards and does not provide the necessary speed for high-performance video cards. AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port) is an older slot specifically designed for graphics cards but has been largely replaced by PCIe for faster performance.

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18. Which of the following BEST describes the function of ECC in a RAM module?

Explanation

ECC stands for Error Correcting Code, which is a feature in RAM modules that allows them to detect and correct single bit errors in memory. This means that if there is a bit flip or error in the data stored in a memory cell, ECC can identify and fix it automatically, ensuring the integrity and accuracy of the stored information. By detecting and correcting these errors, ECC helps to improve the reliability and stability of the RAM module.

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19. Which of the following is part of the TCP/IP network configuration? (Select TWO).

Explanation

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is part of the TCP/IP network configuration as it allows for automatic assignment of IP addresses to devices on a network. DNS (Domain Name System) is also part of the TCP/IP network configuration as it translates domain names into IP addresses, enabling communication between devices using human-readable addresses.

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20. Which of the following components should be in contact with thermal compound? (Select TWO).

Explanation

The correct answer is Heatsink and CPU. Thermal compound is used to improve heat transfer between the CPU and the heatsink. The CPU generates heat during operation, and the heatsink is responsible for dissipating that heat. By applying thermal compound between the CPU and heatsink, it fills in any microscopic gaps and improves the contact between the two components, allowing for better heat transfer. This helps to keep the CPU cool and prevent overheating. The motherboard, fan, and capacitors do not typically require direct contact with thermal compound.

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21. A corporate office user reports that they are unable to print to a locally connected printer. Which of the following is the BEST response from the technician?

Explanation

The technician's response of asking if they can redirect the user's computer to a network printer until the problem is fixed suggests a temporary solution to the printing issue. This response indicates that the technician is willing to find an alternative way for the user to continue printing while waiting for the printer to be repaired.

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22. Which of the following hardware features controls power management?

Explanation

To define power management in laptop computers, you need to use ACPI standard. It was introduced in 1996 and is an extension of the system BIOS.

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23. On which of the following interfaces should a technician expect to see status light indicators? (Select TWO).

Explanation

A technician should expect to see status light indicators on the NIC (Network Interface Card) and Modem interfaces. These status lights indicate the current status of the network connection and modem activity respectively. The lights can provide information such as whether the connection is active, if there is any data transmission or reception, and if there are any connection issues. This allows the technician to quickly diagnose and troubleshoot network or modem problems.

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24. A customer connects a projector to their laptop, but no display shows on the screen. The projector is turned on. Which of the following could the technician do to send the display to the projector?

Explanation

The technician can use the appropriate function toggle key to switch the display mode. This key combination allows the user to toggle between different display options, such as extending the display to the projector or duplicating the display on both the laptop screen and the projector. By using this key combination, the technician can select the desired display mode and send the display to the projector.

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25. In which of the following locations can a browser pull files in order to avoid pulling them from the Internet?

Explanation

Temporary Internet Files is a location where a browser can pull files in order to avoid pulling them from the Internet. When a user visits a website, the browser stores certain elements of that website, such as images, scripts, and HTML files, in the Temporary Internet Files folder. This allows the browser to retrieve those files from the local cache instead of downloading them again from the Internet, which can improve loading times and reduce data usage.

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26. An external hard drive installation has caused a system to crash. Which of the following would be the BEST startup selection?

Explanation

The best startup selection in this scenario would be "Last Known Good Configuration." This option allows the system to start using the most recent settings that were known to work properly before the crash occurred. By selecting this option, the system can revert back to a stable state and potentially resolve any issues caused by the external hard drive installation. Safe Mode with Command Prompt and Debugging Mode are more suitable for troubleshooting purposes, while Active Directory Restore Mode is specific to domain controllers and not relevant in this situation.

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27. Which of the following tools can protect a workstation against ESD? (Select TWO).

Explanation

An anti-static wrist strap and an anti-static mat are both tools that can protect a workstation against ESD (electrostatic discharge). An anti-static wrist strap is worn by the technician and is connected to a grounded surface, allowing any built-up static electricity to be safely discharged. An anti-static mat is placed on the work surface and provides a conductive surface that helps to prevent the buildup of static electricity. Both of these tools are essential in preventing damage to sensitive electronic components from ESD.

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28. Which of the following stores information for faster access on a CPU?

Explanation

Cache is a type of memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions for faster access by the CPU. It is located closer to the CPU than main memory (RAM) and has faster access times. The purpose of cache is to reduce the latency between the CPU and main memory, improving overall system performance. Therefore, cache is the correct answer as it stores information for faster access on a CPU.

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29. Which of the following devices must be terminated at the last device or none of the devices will work?

Explanation

SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a type of interface used to connect various peripheral devices to a computer. In a SCSI chain, termination is required at the last device in order to prevent signal reflections and ensure proper communication between devices. If termination is not present at the last device, the signal may bounce back and cause data corruption or communication failures. Therefore, termination is crucial for the proper functioning of SCSI devices.

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30. Which of the following Windows XP system files would a technician edit to change which operating system loads by default when multiple operating systems are installed?

Explanation

To configure dual-boot computers, you need to edit the boot.ini that is loaded by the ntldr file that loads the bootstrap process in a system. The boot.ini file is an editable text file with one or more lines that reference partitions to boot to.

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31. Which of the following is the proper way to enter the Windows Advanced options menu?

Explanation

To access the advanced startup options in Windows Vista and Windows XP you need to press F8 during the first phase of the boot process.

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32. Which of the following is the proper technique for cleaning the inside of a desktop computer with a can of compressed air?

Explanation

The proper technique for cleaning the inside of a desktop computer with a can of compressed air is to first unplug the power cable to ensure safety. Then, remove the cover of the computer case to access the internal components. Holding the can of compressed air upright, spray the air onto the components to remove dust and debris. This technique ensures that the computer is powered off and components are accessible for thorough cleaning.

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33. A technician needs to increase the paging file size on a Windows XP system. Where would they find this setting?

Explanation

To increase the paging file size on a Windows XP system, the technician would need to go to System Properties, then navigate to the Advanced tab. From there, they would click on the Performance Settings button, and then go to the Advanced tab within the Performance Options window. In this tab, they would find the setting to adjust the paging file size.

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34. Which of the following BEST describes digital signatures?

Explanation

Digital signatures are a cryptographic mechanism that ensures the authenticity and integrity of a message. They use a combination of public and private keys to verify the identity of the sender and to guarantee that the message has not been tampered with during transmission. This technology provides a secure way to verify the origin and integrity of digital documents, ensuring that they have not been altered or forged.

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35. Which of the following components prevents a motherboard from making electrical contact with the case it is in?

Explanation

Plastic and metal standoffs are used to mount the motherboard and to prevent it from touching the metal portions of the case. You should install only the standoffs that align with the holes in the motherboard. Installing any additional standoffs may prevent the motherboard from being seated properly in the computer case.

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36. Which of the following will BEST prevent theft of monitors and laptops?

Explanation

Cable locks are the best option for preventing theft of monitors and laptops. These locks physically secure the devices by attaching them to a fixed object, such as a desk or table, using a steel cable. This makes it difficult for thieves to simply grab and run with the devices. Cable locks provide a visible deterrent and offer a level of protection against opportunistic theft. They are often used in office or public settings where devices need to be left unattended for short periods of time.

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37. Which of the following should be plugged into a UPS located at a users desk? (Select THREE).

Explanation

The monitor, laptop AC adapter, and computer should be plugged into a UPS located at a user's desk. A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is designed to provide backup power in case of a power outage or fluctuation. Plugging the monitor, laptop AC adapter, and computer into the UPS ensures that these devices will continue to receive power during such events, allowing the user to save their work and safely shut down their devices. The laser printer, portable heater, and vacuum cleaner do not require backup power and therefore do not need to be plugged into the UPS.

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38. Which of the following methods can a technician use to find the IP address of a computer? (Select TWO).

Explanation

A technician can find the IP address of a computer by opening Network Connections from the control panel, right-clicking the Local Area Connection, selecting Status, and then selecting the Support tab. They can also open a command window and run ipconfig from the command line.

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39. The fan on a power supply is not working. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Explanation

The best course of action is to replace the entire power supply. If the fan on the power supply is not working, it indicates a potential issue with the power supply itself. Continuing to use the power supply may lead to further problems or failure. Verifying the voltage powering the fan or replacing just the fan may not address the underlying issue with the power supply. Therefore, replacing the entire power supply is the most effective solution.

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40. After a technician repairs a printer problem, the customer asks for an explanation the cause of the problem. Which of the following is MOST appropriate?

Explanation

The paper jam was caused by moisture in the paper tray. This is the most appropriate answer because it directly addresses the cause of the problem that the customer asked for an explanation for. It explains that the presence of moisture in the paper tray led to the paper jam.

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41. A system is malfunctioning and the technician has asked the user about any recent changes to the system. Before the technician performs any diagnostics which of the following actions should the technician take?

Explanation

Before performing any diagnostics, the technician should run a backup routine. This is important because running a backup will ensure that the user's data is safely stored in case any further issues occur during the diagnostic process. It is a precautionary measure to prevent any potential data loss.

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42. Which of the following BEST describes how an impact printer works?

Explanation

An impact printer works by using small wires that strike against an ink ribbon, transferring ink onto the paper. This method creates the desired text or image on the paper through physical contact and impact. It is different from other options mentioned, such as heat-based methods or toner-based methods.

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43. Which of the following is a benefit of using STP cable?

Explanation

STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) cable provides a benefit of decreased EMI (Electromagnetic Interference). EMI refers to the disturbance caused by electromagnetic radiation from external sources, which can negatively affect the performance of electronic devices and data transmission. By using STP cable, the electromagnetic shielding helps to reduce the impact of external interference, ensuring a more reliable and stable signal transmission. This makes STP cable a preferred choice in environments where EMI is a concern, such as industrial settings or areas with high levels of electromagnetic radiation.

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44. Which of the following describes the random access memory limitations with Vista 32-bit operating system?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4GB. The random access memory (RAM) limitations with the Vista 32-bit operating system is that it can only support a maximum of 4GB of RAM. This is because a 32-bit operating system can only address up to 4GB of memory. If more than 4GB of RAM is installed, the excess memory will not be utilized by the system. To fully utilize more than 4GB of RAM, a 64-bit operating system is required.

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45. Which of the following BEST describes how a thermal transfer printer works?

Explanation

A thermal transfer printer works by using heat from the print head to transfer an image onto the paper. This process involves the print head heating up and melting the ink on a ribbon. The melted ink is then transferred onto the paper, creating the desired image or text. This method ensures that the image is transferred accurately and with high resolution onto the paper.

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46. Which of the following is the MOST likely power source for a desktop computer?

Explanation

A switching-mode power supply is the most likely power source for a desktop computer because it is commonly used in modern computer systems. It is efficient, compact, and provides a stable power output, making it ideal for powering the various components of a desktop computer. Linear power supplies are less efficient and larger in size, making them less suitable for desktop computers. Nickel cadmium and lithium ion cells are rechargeable batteries, which are not typically used as the primary power source for desktop computers.

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47. A technician is upgrading a computer for a customer that wishes to have faster than 54MB/s wireless LAN connection. Which of the following standards should the technician upgrade to?

Explanation

The technician should upgrade to an 802.11n wireless card. This is because 802.11n is capable of providing faster data transfer speeds than 54MB/s, which is the requirement of the customer. The other options, 802.11g, 802.11a, and 802.11b, do not meet the customer's requirement for a faster wireless LAN connection.

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48. Which of the following is a benefit of using a password generator?

Explanation

Using a password generator eliminates a user's tendency to create passwords that can be a security liability. This is because password generators create strong, random passwords that are harder for hackers to guess or crack. Users often tend to create weak passwords that are easy to remember, such as using common words or personal information, which can be easily exploited by attackers. By using a password generator, users can ensure that their passwords are strong and secure, reducing the risk of unauthorized access to their accounts.

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49. Which of the following wireless technologies has a maximum range of 30 feet (9 meters)?

Explanation

Bluetooth 2.0 has a maximum range of 30 feet (9 meters). Bluetooth technology is commonly used for short-range wireless communication between devices, such as smartphones, tablets, and headphones. It operates on the 2.4 GHz frequency band and has a limited range compared to other wireless technologies like 802.11b and 802.11a, which have longer ranges and are used for Wi-Fi connections. Infrared is also a short-range wireless technology, but it typically has a shorter range than Bluetooth.

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50. Which of the following BEST describes the function of a firewall?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Provides security for a network through the use of ACLs." A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. Access Control Lists (ACLs) are one of the main features of a firewall, allowing administrators to define specific rules and filters for network traffic. These rules determine which packets are allowed to pass through the firewall and which are blocked, providing security by preventing unauthorized access and protecting against various network threats.

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51. A customer receives a bluescreen message. The customer asks the technician, What is a bluescreen message? How should the technician respond?

Explanation

The technician should respond by explaining that a bluescreen message is a message that assists in identifying problems based on the error code. This means that when a bluescreen message appears, it provides information about the specific error that occurred, helping to pinpoint the cause of the problem. By analyzing the error code, the technician can then troubleshoot and resolve the issue more effectively.

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52. Which of the following BEST describes what a VPN is?

Explanation

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a secured line of communication between two points through a public network. It allows users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their devices were directly connected to a private network. By encrypting the data and creating a secure tunnel, a VPN ensures that the information transmitted between the two points remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access. This makes it an effective solution for remote workers, businesses, and individuals who want to enhance their online privacy and security.

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53. When performing a Windows installation on a computer that has its hard drives connected to a new SATA card, which of the following must be performed for the installation to be successful?

Explanation

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54. Which of the following BEST describes a Trojan horse?

Explanation

A Trojan horse is a type of malware that appears to be legitimate software but actually contains malicious code. It is often disguised as a harmless or useful program and is attached to another piece of software. Once the infected software is installed, the Trojan horse can perform various malicious activities, such as stealing personal information, damaging files, or allowing unauthorized access to the system. Unlike viruses or worms, Trojan horses do not self-replicate or self-propagate.

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55. A user reports that their laptop has frozen up and will not shut down or log off. The technician removed the external power adapter and held the power button down for ten seconds but the problem still exists. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

Explanation

Removing the internal main battery is the next step the technician should take. This will completely cut off power to the laptop and force a shutdown, which may resolve the freezing issue. Disconnecting all external devices could also be a valid step, but it is not as effective as removing the internal main battery. Removing the CMOS battery is not necessary in this situation, as it is responsible for storing BIOS settings and does not directly affect the laptop's power. Waiting until the main battery is exhausted and then removing it is not recommended, as it may take a long time and is not guaranteed to resolve the issue.

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56. Where can a technician find information relating to common problems or concerns on a Windows XP computer?

Explanation

A technician can find information relating to common problems or concerns on a Windows XP computer by navigating to the Start menu and selecting Help and Support. This option provides access to a comprehensive knowledge base and troubleshooting resources that can assist in resolving issues on the computer.

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57. Which of the following addresses would be assigned by APIPA?

Explanation

APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) is a feature in Windows operating systems that automatically assigns IP addresses to computers when a DHCP server is not available. The range of IP addresses assigned by APIPA is from 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254. Therefore, the IP address 169.254.0.15 would be assigned by APIPA.

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58. Which of the following is the maximum cable length of a CAT5e?

Explanation

The correct answer is 328 feet (100 meters). CAT5e is a type of Ethernet cable commonly used for networking. It has a maximum cable length of 100 meters, which is equivalent to 328 feet. This length limitation is due to the signal degradation that occurs over longer distances. Beyond 100 meters, the quality of the signal may deteriorate, leading to slower data transmission or loss of connection. Therefore, it is important to consider the cable length when setting up a network using CAT5e cables.

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59. Which of the following Windows operating systems has a different user folder path than the rest?

Explanation

Windows Vista Ultimate has a different user folder path than the rest. This could be due to changes in the file system or directory structure in Windows Vista compared to the other operating systems listed. Without further information, it is not possible to provide a more specific explanation.

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60. Which of the following uses multiple disks to create one functional drive with parity spanning all the disks?

Explanation

RAID 5 uses multiple disks to create one functional drive with parity spanning all the disks. In RAID 5, data is distributed across all the disks in the array, along with parity information that is also distributed across the disks. This allows for both data redundancy and improved performance. If one disk fails, the parity information can be used to reconstruct the data on that disk. RAID 5 is commonly used in situations where both data protection and performance are important.

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61. Which of the following Windows XP Control Panel applets could a technician use to change a local workstation password? (Select TWO).

Explanation

A technician could use the "User Accounts" Control Panel applet to change a local workstation password. This applet allows the technician to manage user accounts and make changes to passwords. Additionally, the "Administrative Tools" Control Panel applet can also be used to change a local workstation password. This applet provides access to various administrative tools, including the "Computer Management" tool which allows the technician to manage user accounts and passwords.

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62. Which of the following cable types would be used in a 10BaseT network?

Explanation

UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cable would be used in a 10BaseT network. This type of cable is commonly used in Ethernet networks and is suitable for transmitting data at speeds up to 10 Mbps. UTP cable consists of pairs of twisted copper wires, which helps to reduce electromagnetic interference. It is cost-effective, easy to install, and widely available, making it a popular choice for networking. ThinNet and Coaxial cables are not typically used in 10BaseT networks, while Fiber cables are used for higher-speed networks.

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63. Which of the following is the maximum speed at which a standard CD.ROM can be read?

Explanation

A standard CD-ROM can be read at a maximum speed of 52x. The "x" in the speed indicates the multiple of the original CD-ROM speed, which is 150 KB/s. Therefore, 52x means the CD-ROM can be read at a speed of 52 times 150 KB/s, which equals 7,800 KB/s or 7.8 MB/s. This high speed allows for faster data transfer and quicker access to information stored on the CD-ROM.

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64. Which of the following adapter cards should be installed so a PC can use RAID? (Select TWO).

Explanation

To use RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) on a PC, two adapter cards should be installed: SATA and SCSI. SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment) is a popular interface used for connecting storage devices like hard drives and solid-state drives. SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is another interface commonly used for connecting storage devices and is often used in RAID setups for high-performance and fault-tolerant storage solutions. The other options, USB, Serial, and IEEE 1394, are not typically used for RAID configurations.

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65. Which of the following is used to control access to a broadcasted wireless network based on a user supplied key?

Explanation

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is used to control access to a broadcasted wireless network based on a user supplied key. WEP is a security protocol that encrypts data transmitted over a wireless network to prevent unauthorized access. It uses a shared key authentication method where users must enter a pre-determined key to connect to the network. This key is used to encrypt and decrypt data, ensuring that only authorized users can access the network.

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66. Which of the following commands will automatically reconnect a network drive as F: after a reboot in Windows XP?

Explanation

The correct answer is "net use F: \\ComputerName\ShareName /persistent:YES". This command will map the network drive as F: and set it to persistently reconnect after a reboot in Windows XP. The "/persistent:YES" parameter ensures that the mapping remains even after a system restart.

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67. Which of the following describes the S-video mini-DIN connector on laptops?

Explanation

The S-video mini-DIN connector on laptops allows analog video output to a variety of devices. This means that you can connect your laptop to different devices such as TVs, projectors, or monitors that support analog video input using the S-video mini-DIN connector. It does not support digital video or audio output, and it does not specifically allow a LCD projector's output to display on a laptop screen.

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68. Which of the following uses data striping to distribute data across multiple disks with no fault tolerance?

Explanation

RAID 0 uses data striping to distribute data across multiple disks without providing any fault tolerance. In RAID 0, data is divided into blocks and each block is written to a different disk simultaneously, which allows for faster read and write speeds. However, since there is no redundancy or mirroring of data, if one disk fails, all data is lost. Therefore, RAID 0 is used for performance improvement rather than data protection.

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69. A user reports that they have not heard from the help desk since calling in a problem two days ago. Which of the following is the BEST response?

Explanation

The best response in this situation is to inform the user that the problem will be escalated to a supervisor for resolution. This acknowledges the user's concern and assures them that their issue will be given priority and handled by a higher level of support. It also indicates that steps are being taken to address the problem and provide a solution.

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70. A user calls stating that they are missing icons from the Windows desktop and that the My Documents folder is empty. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?

Explanation

The missing icons on the Windows desktop and the empty My Documents folder suggest that there may be an issue with the local user profile. When a user profile becomes corrupt, it can lead to various problems, including missing icons and empty folders. This can happen due to software conflicts, system errors, or improper shutdowns. To resolve this issue, the user may need to create a new user profile or repair the existing one.

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71. Which of the following interfaces supports only one device per port?

Explanation

RS-232 is a serial communication interface that supports only one device per port. It is commonly used for connecting devices such as modems, printers, and mice to a computer. Unlike other interfaces like USB 1.1, SCSI, and Bluetooth, which support multiple devices per port, RS-232 is designed to establish a direct connection between a single device and a computer. This limitation makes it less versatile in terms of connecting multiple devices simultaneously, but it is still widely used in various applications that require a simple and reliable serial communication interface.

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72. Which of the following Internet connectivity methods MOST commonly uses the PPPoE authentication method?

Explanation

DSL, or Digital Subscriber Line, is the Internet connectivity method that most commonly uses the PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet) authentication method. PPPoE is a protocol that allows the creation of a point-to-point connection over an Ethernet network. DSL connections use PPPoE authentication to establish a secure connection between the user's device and the Internet service provider's network. This method is commonly used in DSL connections to ensure secure and reliable communication between the user and the ISP.

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73. In Windows XP, which of the following can the technician use to stop a program from loading at startup? (Select TWO).

Explanation

The technician can use the Registry and MSCONFIG to stop a program from loading at startup in Windows XP. The Registry is a database that stores configuration settings for the operating system and applications, and by modifying the relevant entries, the technician can prevent a program from starting automatically. MSCONFIG is a utility that allows the technician to manage startup programs and services, and they can use it to disable a program from loading at startup.

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74. Which of the following media can be MOST affected by magnets and should therefore be kept away from all magnetic fields? (Select THREE).

Explanation

Magnets can affect the data stored in magnetic media, such as backup tapes, IDE hard drives, and 1.44MB floppy disks. These media use magnetic fields to store information, and exposure to strong magnetic fields can cause data corruption or loss. Therefore, it is important to keep these media away from magnets to ensure the integrity of the stored data. Compact discs, digital video discs, and solid-state drives do not rely on magnetic fields for data storage, so they are not as susceptible to magnetic interference.

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75. Which of the following copper cabling is BEST to use if data rate speed is not an issue and the segment length must be 1640 feet (500 meters) long?

Explanation

RG-8 ThickNet is the best copper cabling to use in this scenario because it has a longer segment length capability compared to CAT6 and RG-58 ThinNet. While CAT6 is a high-performance cable, it is limited to a maximum segment length of 328 feet (100 meters). RG-58 ThinNet also has a shorter segment length capability and is typically used for shorter distances. RG-8 ThickNet, on the other hand, can support segment lengths of up to 500 meters (1640 feet), making it the most suitable choice for this specific requirement.

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76. Which of the following are valid installation methods for Windows XP? (Select THREE).

Explanation

The correct answer is Factory recovery partition, Windows CD installation, and Network installation. Factory recovery partition is a valid installation method for Windows XP as it allows users to restore the computer to its original factory settings. Windows CD installation is another valid method where users can install Windows XP using a CD/DVD. Network installation is also a valid method where users can install Windows XP over a network connection. XCOPY all files from another computer, Installation from Microsoft.com, and Purchase a fully configured hard drive are not valid installation methods for Windows XP.

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77. A technician has asked a user about any recent changes to a system and was able to backup all the important data prior to troubleshooting. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

Explanation

After backing up the important data, the technician should create a checklist of the most likely issues. This will help the technician to systematically identify and troubleshoot potential problems in the system. By having a checklist, the technician can ensure that no possible issue is overlooked and can efficiently work towards resolving the problem. Updating software, checking security logs, or restoring the backup to a new hard drive can be considered as subsequent steps in the troubleshooting process, but creating a checklist is the immediate next step to organize the troubleshooting process effectively.

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78. Memory was added to a Windows laptop and upon booting up, the BIOS only reports the original memory amount. Which of the following are the MOST likely issues? (Select TWO).

Explanation

The most likely issues in this scenario are memory mismatch and memory being defective. Memory mismatch refers to the possibility that the newly added memory is not compatible with the existing memory in terms of capacity, speed, or type. This can result in the BIOS not recognizing the additional memory. The second likely issue is that the memory itself is defective, meaning it is not functioning properly and therefore not being detected by the BIOS.

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79. A customer states they want a new hard drive that is resistant to shock. Which of the following can be installed to accommodate the customers request?

Explanation

A PATA hard drive can be installed to accommodate the customer's request for a new hard drive that is resistant to shock. PATA hard drives use parallel ATA technology, which typically have more robust construction and are better able to withstand shock compared to other types of hard drives.

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80. Starting Windows XP in Safe Mode will cause which of the following to occur? (Select TWO).

Explanation

When starting Windows XP in Safe Mode, two things will occur. Firstly, Windows prevents successful boot and logon from updating the Last Known Good Configuration. This means that any changes made during Safe Mode will not be saved as the Last Known Good Configuration will remain unchanged. Secondly, Windows XP uses the minimum set of drivers and services to start the GUI. This allows for a basic and safe startup, without loading unnecessary drivers and services that may cause issues.

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