Clinical Chemistry Trivia Questions

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1. Which of the following agencies is involved in protecting the safety of employees in the workplace?

Explanation

OSHA, or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, is the correct answer. OSHA is an agency under the United States Department of Labor that is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees. They enforce standards and regulations, conduct inspections, and provide training and education to employers and employees to prevent workplace injuries and illnesses. OSHA plays a crucial role in protecting the safety and well-being of employees in the workplace.

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Clinical Chemistry Trivia Questions - Quiz

Do you want to know more about clinical chemistry? Take this quiz now and learn more about it!

2. A 46 year old male with pain in his feet and joints has just been diagnosed wtih gout, which of the following analytes were elevated on his lab report?

Explanation

Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid in the body, leading to inflammation and pain in the joints. Therefore, in a patient diagnosed with gout, it is expected that the uric acid levels would be elevated on the lab report. Creatinine, ammonia, and BUN are not directly related to gout and would not be expected to be elevated in this case.

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3. Respirator fittings are performed to protect employees against what airborne pathogen?

Explanation

Respirator fittings are performed to protect employees against Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is the correct answer. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a bacterium that causes tuberculosis, a highly contagious airborne disease. Respirator fittings ensure that the respirator masks fit properly on employees' faces, creating a seal that prevents the inhalation of airborne pathogens such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Staph aureus, Human immunodeficiency virus, and Hepatitis B virus are not airborne pathogens that require respirator fittings for protection.

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4. Which of the following is NOT considered presonal protective equipment

Explanation

Eyeglasses are not considered personal protective equipment because they do not provide protection against physical hazards or hazardous materials. While they may offer some level of eye protection from dust or debris, they are not specifically designed to protect against chemical splashes, impact, or other workplace hazards. Personal protective equipment is intended to minimize the risk of injury or illness in the workplace, and eyeglasses do not meet the criteria for this classification.

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5. An elevated quantitative beta-hCG will be seen in which of the following conditions?

Explanation

An elevated quantitative beta-hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) level is commonly seen in pregnancy. Beta-hCG is a hormone produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It can be detected in the blood or urine and is used as a marker to confirm pregnancy. Elevated levels of beta-hCG indicate the presence of a developing fetus. Therefore, pregnancy is the correct answer in this case.

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6. Which of the following is found in the highest concentration in bone?

Explanation

Calcium is found in the highest concentration in bones. Calcium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure and strength of bones. It is the main component of hydroxyapatite, which is the mineralized matrix in bones. Calcium is necessary for bone formation, growth, and remodeling. It also helps in muscle contraction, blood clotting, and nerve function. Magnesium, phosphorous, and iron are also important for bone health, but calcium is present in the highest concentration in bones.

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7. What liver enzymes are most useful in the detection of hepatocelluar damage of the liver?

Explanation

ALT (alanine aminotransferase) and AST (aspartate aminotransferase) are liver enzymes that are most useful in the detection of hepatocellular damage of the liver. Elevated levels of ALT and AST in the blood indicate liver cell injury or damage. ALT is primarily found in the liver and is more specific to liver damage, while AST is found in several tissues including the liver, heart, and muscles. Therefore, the combination of ALT and AST provides a comprehensive assessment of liver function and helps in the diagnosis and monitoring of liver diseases such as hepatitis, cirrhosis, and liver cancer.

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8. According to the NFPA hazards identification system, what does the red quadrant indicate?

Explanation

The red quadrant in the NFPA hazards identification system indicates a flammable hazard. This means that the substance or material being identified has the potential to catch fire easily and can pose a significant risk of fire if not handled properly. It is important to take appropriate precautions when dealing with substances in the red quadrant to prevent accidents and ensure safety.

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9. What is the mechanism of EDTA?

Explanation

EDTA is a chelating agent that forms stable complexes with metal ions, including calcium. It binds to the calcium ions, preventing them from participating in chemical reactions or forming insoluble precipitates. This property makes EDTA useful in various applications, such as in medicine to treat lead poisoning, in food preservation, and in laboratory settings to remove trace metals from solutions. Therefore, the correct answer is that EDTA chelates calcium.

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10. Which of the following is a postanalytical error?

Explanation

A calculation error on a patient report is considered a postanalytical error because it occurs after the analysis of the specimen has taken place. This error refers to mistakes made in calculating and recording the results of the analysis, which can lead to incorrect information being reported to the healthcare provider or patient. It is important to ensure accuracy in the calculation and reporting of results to avoid any potential harm or misdiagnosis.

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11. What serum analyte is light sensitive?

Explanation

Bilirubin is a serum analyte that is light sensitive. When exposed to light, bilirubin can undergo a chemical reaction called photoisomerization, which can alter its structure and affect its measurement. This is why it is important to protect samples containing bilirubin from light during storage and analysis.

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12. The highest concentrations of serum amylase and lipase are seen in which of the following conditions?

Explanation

In acute pancreatitis, there is inflammation of the pancreas, causing the release of amylase and lipase enzymes into the bloodstream. These enzymes are normally found in the pancreas and are responsible for the digestion of carbohydrates and fats. Therefore, the highest concentrations of serum amylase and lipase are seen in acute pancreatitis.

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13. Which of the following provide information on how to clean up a chemical spill?

Explanation

The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) provides detailed information on how to clean up a chemical spill. It includes instructions on the proper handling, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances. The MSDS also provides information on the potential hazards associated with the chemical, as well as recommended personal protective equipment to be used during cleanup. This document is an essential resource for anyone working with or around hazardous chemicals, as it ensures the safe and effective cleanup of spills to minimize risks to human health and the environment.

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14. Which of the following proteins binds and transports iron in the blood?

Explanation

Transferrin is a protein that binds and transports iron in the blood. It plays a crucial role in iron homeostasis by binding to iron and delivering it to cells throughout the body. Transferrin is responsible for transporting iron from sites of absorption or storage to sites of utilization or storage, ensuring that iron is distributed appropriately and efficiently. Hemopexin, ferritin, and hemosiderin are also involved in iron metabolism but do not specifically bind and transport iron in the blood like transferrin does.

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15. Which is the storage form of glucose in muscle and liver?

Explanation

Glycogen is the storage form of glucose in both muscle and liver. It is a highly branched polysaccharide that serves as a readily available source of energy when glucose levels are low. Glycogen is synthesized and stored in the liver and muscle cells, where it can be broken down into glucose molecules when needed for energy. Starch, pentose, and dextrose are not the storage forms of glucose in muscle and liver.

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16. EDTA-K3 is not an acceptable specimen for most chemistry tests.  What color tube would be recieved in the lab if it was drawn in error?

Explanation

EDTA-K3 is a commonly used anticoagulant that is added to blood specimens to prevent clotting. However, EDTA can interfere with certain chemistry tests by binding to metal ions and affecting the accuracy of the results. Therefore, if a specimen is drawn using EDTA-K3 in error, it would be received in a purple tube. The purple top tube contains EDTA as the anticoagulant and is used for hematology tests, such as complete blood count (CBC), blood typing, and blood smear examination.

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17. Which one of the following enzymes is NOT a transferase?

Explanation

LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) is not a transferase enzyme. Transferases are enzymes that catalyze the transfer of functional groups between molecules. ALT (alanine transaminase), AST (aspartate transaminase), and GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase) are all transferase enzymes involved in various metabolic processes. However, LDH is an oxidoreductase enzyme that catalyzes the interconversion of lactate and pyruvate. Therefore, LDH does not belong to the transferase enzyme class.

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18. Which of the following are bloodborne pathogens?

Explanation

The correct answer is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis B (hep B). These are both bloodborne pathogens, meaning they can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or other bodily fluids. TB and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) are not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets and direct contact with infected wounds or skin. Hepatitis C (hep C) and vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) are also not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through contact with contaminated needles or sexual contact. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) and hepatitis A (hep A) are not bloodborne pathogens either, as they are primarily transmitted through other routes such as ingestion or direct contact with infected tissues.

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19. The heart is primarily composed of what type of muscle tissue?

Explanation

The correct answer is cardiac because the heart is primarily composed of cardiac muscle tissue. Cardiac muscle tissue is a specialized type of muscle tissue that is found only in the heart. It is responsible for the contraction and relaxation of the heart, allowing it to pump blood throughout the body. Unlike skeletal muscle tissue, which is under voluntary control, cardiac muscle tissue is involuntary and contracts rhythmically to maintain the heart's pumping action.

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20. Which tissue has the highest distribution of CK-BB

Explanation

The brain has the highest distribution of CK-BB. CK-BB, also known as creatine kinase-brain, is an enzyme primarily found in the brain tissue. It plays a crucial role in maintaining energy metabolism and neuronal function. Due to its high concentration in the brain, CK-BB is often used as a biomarker in diagnosing and monitoring various neurological disorders, such as brain injury, stroke, and brain tumors.

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21. Using expired reagents to assay patient samples will result in an error in what phase of lab testing?

Explanation

Using expired reagents during lab testing can result in an error in the analytical phase. The analytical phase of lab testing involves the actual testing and analysis of patient samples using various reagents and instruments. If the reagents used are expired, they may not provide accurate results, leading to errors in the analysis of the samples. Therefore, using expired reagents can significantly affect the accuracy and reliability of the analytical phase of lab testing.

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22. What optical technique measures metal ions in a solution based on ground state atoms absorbing light at defined wavelengths for the element being measured?

Explanation

Atomic absorption spectrophotometry is an optical technique that measures metal ions in a solution by using ground state atoms that absorb light at specific wavelengths for the element being measured. This technique involves passing light through the sample solution and measuring the amount of light absorbed by the atoms of the metal ions. By comparing the absorption of light at specific wavelengths, the concentration of the metal ions in the solution can be determined.

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23. Due to the diurnal variation of cortisol, a patient that is being worked up for Adrenal insufficiency should have their blood drawn at what time of the day?

Explanation

Cortisol levels follow a diurnal variation, meaning they are highest in the morning and gradually decrease throughout the day. Therefore, to accurately assess cortisol levels in a patient being worked up for Adrenal insufficiency, it is recommended to draw their blood in the morning around 8:00. This timing ensures that the cortisol levels are at their peak, providing the most reliable results for diagnosis.

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24. Which of the following is the most important buffer in the bloodstream that regulated pH?

Explanation

Bicarbonate-carbonic acid is the most important buffer in the bloodstream that regulates pH. This buffer system helps maintain the blood pH within a narrow range by accepting or donating hydrogen ions. Carbonic acid can dissociate into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions, while bicarbonate ions can combine with hydrogen ions to form carbonic acid. This buffer system is crucial in preventing drastic changes in blood pH, as it can quickly adjust to either increase or decrease the concentration of hydrogen ions in the blood.

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25. What is the most commonly analyzed specimen in chemistry?

Explanation

Serum is the most commonly analyzed specimen in chemistry because it is the clear, yellowish fluid that remains after blood has clotted and the blood cells have been removed. It contains various proteins, electrolytes, hormones, and other substances that can provide valuable information about a person's health and diagnose diseases. Serum is easily obtained through a simple blood draw, making it a convenient and widely used specimen for chemical analysis in clinical laboratories.

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26. What electrolyte is the major extracellular cation in plasma

Explanation

Sodium is the major extracellular cation in plasma. It plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction. Sodium ions are found in higher concentrations outside the cell, making it the major cation in the extracellular fluid. It helps regulate blood pressure and osmotic balance.

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27. What hormone synthesized by the pituitary gland promotes function of the thyroid gland?

Explanation

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is synthesized by the pituitary gland and promotes the function of the thyroid gland. It stimulates the production and release of thyroxine and triiodothyronine, which are hormones produced by the thyroid gland. Thyroxine and triiodothyronine play a crucial role in regulating metabolism, growth, and development in the body. Therefore, TSH is essential for maintaining the proper function of the thyroid gland and ensuring the appropriate levels of thyroxine and triiodothyronine in the body.

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28. Urine, an ultrafiltrate of plasma, is formed by the kidneys and primarily consists of which of the following analytes?

Explanation

Urine is formed by the kidneys through the process of ultrafiltration of plasma. It primarily consists of water, salt, and urea. Water is the main component of urine, while salt and urea are waste products that are filtered out by the kidneys. Protein, uric acid, glucose, bilirubin, and creatinine are not the primary analytes found in urine.

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29. Which of the following best describes universal precautions?

Explanation

Universal precautions refer to a set of guidelines that are followed in order to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. This includes treating all specimens as potentially biohazardous, regardless of whether or not they are known to be infected. By assuming that all specimens are potentially hazardous, healthcare workers can take the necessary precautions to protect themselves and others from potential infections. This may include wearing personal protective equipment, such as gloves and masks, and properly disposing of contaminated materials. Testing all patient specimens for anti-HIV-1/2 and washing hands immediately after removing gloves are important practices, but they do not encompass the concept of universal precautions.

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30. Which of teh following is characterized by hyperbilirubinemia and deposition of bile prigment in the skin and sclera?

Explanation

Jaundice is characterized by hyperbilirubinemia, which refers to an elevated level of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is formed when red blood cells break down. In jaundice, there is an accumulation of bilirubin, leading to the yellowing of the skin and sclera (the white part of the eyes). This condition can occur due to various reasons such as liver disease, hepatitis, or obstruction of the bile ducts. Myxedema refers to severe hypothyroidism, cholestasis is a condition where bile flow is impaired, and kernicterus is a neurological condition caused by high levels of bilirubin in newborns.

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31. Chemistry analytes such as glucose and cholesterol are an example of which of the following?

Explanation

Glucose and cholesterol are substances that can be dissolved in a solvent, such as water, to form a solution. In this case, they would be considered solutes, as they are the substances being dissolved. A solute is a substance that is dissolved in a solvent to form a solution.

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32. What specimen is unacceptable for the analysis of carbon dioxide?

Explanation

Urine is the specimen that is unacceptable for the analysis of carbon dioxide. This is because urine does not directly reflect the current levels of carbon dioxide in the body. Carbon dioxide levels are typically measured in blood samples, such as serum or plasma, as they provide a more accurate representation of the body's carbon dioxide levels. Urine analysis is usually used to assess other substances and waste products in the body, but not specifically for carbon dioxide levels.

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33. The precipitin curve, where does the optimal ratio of antibody to antigen occur?

Explanation

The optimal ratio of antibody to antigen occurs in the zone of equivalence. In this zone, the amount of antibody and antigen is balanced, resulting in the formation of immune complexes. This is the point where the highest level of precipitation occurs, indicating the optimal binding between the antibody and antigen. The prozone refers to a situation where there is an excess of antibody, leading to a lack of precipitation. The postzone occurs when there is an excess of antigen, resulting in incomplete precipitation. The end zone is not a term commonly used in relation to the precipitin curve.

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34. In a spectrophotometric analysis what is the purpose of the reagent blank?

Explanation

The purpose of the reagent blank in a spectrophotometric analysis is to correct for the color contribution of the reagents. This is necessary because the reagents used in the analysis can have their own inherent color that can interfere with the measurement of the sample. By measuring the absorbance of the reagents alone, without the sample, and subtracting this value from the absorbance of the sample with reagents, the color contribution of the reagents can be eliminated, allowing for a more accurate measurement of the sample's absorbance.

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35. A fire that is cuased by discarding a lit cigarette in a trash can is an example of what type of fire?

Explanation

A fire that is caused by discarding a lit cigarette in a trash can is an example of a Class A fire. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, fabric, and plastics. In this case, the cigarette ignites the trash, which is made up of combustible materials, resulting in a Class A fire.

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36. What are the normal ranges for arterial blood gases at 37 C?  (pH, pO2, and pCO2, respectively).

Explanation

The normal ranges for arterial blood gases at 37 C are a pH range of 7.35-7.45, a pO2 range of 80-110%, and a pCO2 range of 35-45. These ranges indicate the acceptable levels of acidity (pH), oxygenation (pO2), and carbon dioxide levels (pCO2) in the arterial blood. The given answer falls within these normal ranges, making it the correct choice.

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37. The following results are avilable from a patient seen in the ER. Amylase---elevated Lipase---elevated What is the most probably cause of these test results?

Explanation

The most probable cause of elevated amylase and lipase levels in this patient seen in the ER is acute pancreatitis. Elevated levels of amylase and lipase are commonly observed in cases of acute pancreatitis, which is inflammation of the pancreas. This condition can be caused by various factors such as gallstones, alcohol abuse, or trauma to the pancreas. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, Crohn's disease, and cystic fibrosis are not typically associated with elevated amylase and lipase levels.

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38. Bence Jones proteins are associated with what disease?

Explanation

Bence Jones proteins are abnormal proteins found in the urine of patients with multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to the overproduction of these abnormal proteins. The presence of Bence Jones proteins can be detected through urine tests and is a characteristic feature of multiple myeloma. Wilson's disease, inflammation, and Down's syndrome are not specifically associated with the presence of Bence Jones proteins.

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39. What is the function of transferrin?

Explanation

Transferrin is a protein responsible for transporting iron in the plasma. Iron is an essential element for many biological processes, including oxygen transport and energy production. Transferrin binds to iron and carries it through the bloodstream to cells that require it. Once inside the cells, iron is released from transferrin and used for various biochemical reactions. Therefore, the function of transferrin is to facilitate the transport of iron throughout the body.

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40. What tumor marker is routinely used to monitor patients with prostate cancer??

Explanation

Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a tumor marker that is routinely used to monitor patients with prostate cancer. PSA is a protein produced by the cells of the prostate gland, and its levels in the blood can be elevated in patients with prostate cancer. Monitoring PSA levels can help assess the effectiveness of treatment, detect recurrence of the cancer, and determine the need for further interventions. Therefore, PSA is an important marker in the management and follow-up of patients with prostate cancer.

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41. Which of the following hormones is a glucocorticoid?

Explanation

Cortisol is a glucocorticoid hormone produced by the adrenal glands. It plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism, immune response, and stress response. Glucocorticoids, including cortisol, help to increase blood sugar levels, suppress inflammation, and inhibit the immune system. Aldosterone, on the other hand, is a mineralocorticoid hormone that regulates electrolyte and water balance in the body. Androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone are androgens, which are sex hormones involved in the development of male characteristics.

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42. A patient had a specimen drawn for iron determination at 8 am and another one drawn for the same test at 4 pm. The results were higher in the am than the pm.  This is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

Diurnal variation refers to the natural fluctuations in a person's biological processes over a 24-hour period. In this case, the patient's iron levels were higher in the morning (8 am) compared to the afternoon (4 pm). This can be attributed to diurnal variation, as iron levels tend to be higher in the morning and decrease throughout the day. Therefore, the correct answer is diurnal variation.

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43. Cholesterol functions as the backbone structure for which of the following?

Explanation

Cholesterol functions as the backbone structure for steroidal hormones. Steroidal hormones are a class of hormones that are derived from cholesterol and include hormones such as cortisol, estrogen, and testosterone. Cholesterol serves as the starting material for the synthesis of these hormones, and it provides the structural framework upon which other molecules are added to form the final hormone molecules. Therefore, cholesterol is essential for the production of steroidal hormones in the body.

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44. What is the first test usually ordered in the evaluation of male fertility?

Explanation

This question was in a debate for a bit but the general classmate consensus was semen analysis, since this is a very easy test. Testosterone can be ordered not just for fertility, but also other testosterone complications.

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45. Which of teh following refers to the way in which the twisted amino acid chain folds back on itself to form a 3-dimensional structure?

Explanation

The term "tertiary" refers to the way in which the twisted amino acid chain folds back on itself to form a 3-dimensional structure. This folding is crucial for the protein to acquire its functional shape and allows for the interaction of different amino acid residues within the chain. The tertiary structure is stabilized by various bonds and interactions, such as hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, hydrophobic interactions, and electrostatic interactions. It is important for the proper functioning of proteins and determines their specific properties and functions.

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46. What is serum?

Explanation

Serum is the liquid component of blood that does not contain fibrinogen. Fibrinogen is a protein involved in blood clotting, so the absence of fibrinogen in serum allows it to remain in a liquid state. Serum contains other components such as electrolytes, hormones, antibodies, and waste products. It is often used in medical tests and research to analyze the levels of various substances in the blood.

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47. Which of the following is an example of a noncontrollable preanalytical error?

Explanation

Age is an example of a noncontrollable preanalytical error because it is a factor that cannot be controlled or changed. Preanalytical errors refer to mistakes or variations that occur before the actual analysis of a sample, and in this case, age is not something that can be altered or controlled in the context of a laboratory test. Therefore, it is considered a noncontrollable preanalytical error.

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48. Which of the following is an example of an analytical error?

Explanation

Using an outdated calibration curve is an example of an analytical error because it can lead to inaccurate results. Calibration curves are used to relate the signal produced by an analytical instrument to the concentration of a substance being measured. If the calibration curve is outdated, it may not accurately reflect the relationship between the signal and the concentration, resulting in incorrect measurements.

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49. What is the optimal pH of most enzymatic reactions?

Explanation

The optimal pH of most enzymatic reactions is 7.4. Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in the body, and their activity is highly dependent on the pH of their environment. Each enzyme has an optimal pH range at which it functions most efficiently. This is because the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme, which is crucial for its activity, is affected by pH. A pH of 7.4 is close to neutral, which is the optimal pH for many enzymes found in the human body.

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50. Which of the following is in the metal component of ceruloplasium?

Explanation

Ceruloplasmin is a copper-containing protein found in the blood. It plays a crucial role in iron metabolism and antioxidant defense. Copper is an essential component of ceruloplasmin, and it is responsible for its enzymatic activity. Therefore, copper is the correct answer as it is a part of the metal component of ceruloplasmin.

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51. Osteomalacia in post-menopausal females is characteristic of a deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

Explanation

Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by softening of the bones, which can lead to fractures and deformities. It is commonly caused by a deficiency of vitamin D. Vitamin D plays a crucial role in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus, which are essential for maintaining strong and healthy bones. Post-menopausal females are particularly at risk for vitamin D deficiency due to hormonal changes and decreased sun exposure. Therefore, a deficiency of vitamin D is the most likely cause of osteomalacia in post-menopausal females.

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52. What serum protein electrophoresis fraction contains only one protein?

Explanation

Albumin is the correct answer because it is the only protein that is found in the serum protein electrophoresis fraction. Alpha 1-globulins, beta-globulins, and gammaglobulins are all groups of proteins that are present in the serum, but albumin is the only protein that is found in its own distinct fraction.

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53. Which of the following is used to measure the light transmitted by a solution to determine the concentration of the light-absorbing substance in the solution

Explanation

Spectrophotometry is used to measure the light transmitted by a solution to determine the concentration of the light-absorbing substance in the solution. This technique involves passing a beam of light through the solution and measuring the amount of light that is absorbed by the substance. By comparing the absorbance of the solution to a calibration curve, the concentration of the substance can be determined. Fluorometry measures the fluorescence emitted by a substance, turbidometry measures the scattering of light by particles in a solution, and nephelometry measures the scattering of light by suspended particles.

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54. What is the most common method used in the clinical lab to measure electrolytes?

Explanation

Ion selective electrodes are the most common method used in the clinical lab to measure electrolytes. These electrodes work by selectively detecting and measuring the concentration of specific ions in a sample. They are highly accurate and sensitive, allowing for precise measurements of electrolyte levels in various biological samples. This method is preferred over other options like flame photometry, enzymatically, and atomic absorption spectrophotometry due to its ease of use, quick results, and ability to measure multiple electrolytes simultaneously.

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55. What is the mean of the following BUN control values           19.9, 20.0, 20.2, 21.9

Explanation

The mean is calculated by adding up all the values and then dividing the sum by the number of values. In this case, the sum of the BUN control values is 19.9 + 20.0 + 20.2 + 21.9 = 82.0. Since there are 4 values, the mean is 82.0 divided by 4, which equals 20.5.

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56. When a myocardial infarction occurs, what enzyme becomes elevated first?

Explanation

When a myocardial infarction occurs, the enzyme CK (creatine kinase) becomes elevated first. CK is found in various tissues, including the heart, and is released into the bloodstream when there is damage to these tissues. Therefore, an increase in CK levels can indicate cardiac muscle damage, making it a useful marker for diagnosing a myocardial infarction. AST (aspartate aminotransferase), LD (lactate dehydrogenase), and ALP (alkaline phosphatase) are also enzymes found in the body, but they are not specific to cardiac muscle damage and may not be elevated immediately after a heart attack.

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57. What plasma protein is increased in spina bifida

Explanation

Alpha-fetoprotein is a plasma protein that is increased in spina bifida. Spina bifida is a birth defect that occurs when the spine and spinal cord do not form properly. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein in the mother's blood can indicate a neural tube defect, such as spina bifida, in the developing fetus. Therefore, alpha-fetoprotein is a biomarker used in prenatal screening to detect spina bifida and other neural tube defects.

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58. When doing electrophoresis the migration of the zwiterion depends on what?

Explanation

The migration of the zwiterion during electrophoresis depends on the pH of the buffer. The pH of the buffer affects the charge of the zwiterion, which in turn determines its movement towards the anode or cathode. If the pH of the buffer is not optimal for the zwiterion, it may not migrate properly and the results of the electrophoresis may be inaccurate. Therefore, controlling the pH of the buffer is crucial for successful electrophoresis.

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59. A round bottomed glass tube with only 1 marking of 500 mL volume is called a 

Explanation

A round bottomed glass tube with only 1 marking of 500 mL volume is called a volumetric flask. Volumetric flasks are used in laboratories for precise measurement and preparation of solutions. They have a narrow neck and a flat bottom, which allows for accurate measurement of a specific volume of liquid. The single marking of 500 mL indicates that the flask is specifically designed to hold that volume. The other options, such as Erylynmeyer beaker, graduated flask, and measuring beaker, do not accurately describe the specific features of a round bottomed glass tube with only 1 marking of 500 mL volume.

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60. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a closed system?

Explanation

A closed system refers to a system that is designed to work exclusively with specific components or reagents from a particular manufacturer. The disadvantage of a closed system is that it restricts the user from adding reagents from other manufacturers. This limits the flexibility and options available for the user, as they are limited to using only the specific reagents provided by the manufacturer of the system. This can be a disadvantage in situations where the user may prefer or have access to reagents from other manufacturers that could potentially offer better performance or cost-effectiveness.

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61. A physician's office tests pre-diabetic patients for a fasting blood glucose level using a glucometer when these pateints arrive for an office visit.  What type of testing is this referred to as?

Explanation

This type of testing is referred to as point of care testing because it is conducted at the physician's office when the patients arrive for an office visit. Point of care testing refers to medical tests that are performed near the patient, providing immediate results and allowing for prompt diagnosis and treatment decisions.

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62. What condition is defined as decreased blood pH caused by an excess of CO2?

Explanation

Respiratory acidosis is a condition characterized by a decrease in blood pH due to an excess of carbon dioxide (CO2). This occurs when the lungs are unable to remove enough CO2 from the body, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream. As CO2 combines with water in the blood, it forms carbonic acid, which lowers the pH. This condition can be caused by various factors such as lung diseases, respiratory muscle weakness, or impaired breathing. Symptoms may include shortness of breath, confusion, and fatigue. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause and improving ventilation.

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63. Acute phase reactants are elevated in which of the following disorders?

Explanation

Acute phase reactants are proteins produced by the liver in response to inflammation. These proteins help to regulate the immune response and promote tissue repair. Therefore, in disorders characterized by inflammation, such as infections or autoimmune diseases, the levels of acute phase reactants are elevated. This includes conditions like cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, and alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, as mentioned in the options.

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64. What type of diabetes is cuased by cell-mediated immune destruction of pancreatic B-cells?

Explanation

Diabetes mellitus, type 1 is caused by cell-mediated immune destruction of pancreatic B-cells. In this type of diabetes, the body's immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. This results in a lack of insulin production, leading to high blood sugar levels. Unlike type 2 diabetes, which is often caused by lifestyle factors such as obesity and lack of exercise, type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition that cannot be prevented or cured. It typically develops in childhood or adolescence and requires lifelong insulin therapy for management.

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65. A common cause of falsely elevated LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) is:

Explanation

A hemolyzed specimen refers to a blood sample that has undergone the breakdown of red blood cells, causing the release of LDH into the plasma. This can result in falsely elevated LDH levels. LDH is an enzyme found in various tissues, including the liver, heart, and red blood cells. Therefore, liver disease, drug toxicity, and congestive heart failure can also cause elevated LDH levels, but in this case, the correct answer is a hemolyzed specimen.

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66. Which of the following is the most common symptom of an individual having a heart attack?

Explanation

Chest pain is the most common symptom of an individual having a heart attack. This is because during a heart attack, there is a blockage in the blood vessels that supply the heart, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients. This can cause severe pain or discomfort in the chest, often described as a squeezing or pressure sensation. Chest pain during a heart attack may radiate to the arm, jaw, or back. It is important to note that not all heart attacks present with chest pain, and symptoms can vary between individuals.

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67. A 25 year old female took a home pregnancy test 2 weeks after she missed her period.  She made an appointment to see her physician 2 weeks after that.  The doctor ordered a quantitative serum HCG and it came back as 2678 IU/L.  The physician questioned the results and asked that it be repeated.  IT was repeated with the same results.  What could be the reason for this occurrence?

Explanation

The reason for the repeated high levels of quantitative serum HCG could be an ectopic pregnancy. In an ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. This can cause the HCG levels to rise, as the embryo is still producing the hormone. The physician questioned the results and asked for a repeat test to confirm the diagnosis. Ectopic pregnancies can be dangerous and require medical intervention, so it is important to accurately diagnose and treat them.

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68. What percentage of body mass is attributed to water alone?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30%. This is because water makes up a significant portion of our body mass. It is essential for various bodily functions such as digestion, circulation, and temperature regulation. On average, the human body is composed of about 60% water, with some variations depending on factors such as age, sex, and body composition. Therefore, attributing 30% of body mass to water alone is a reasonable estimate.

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69. The use of galvanic and electrolytic cells for chemical analysis is the prinicple of which of the following?

Explanation

Electrochemistry is the correct answer because it involves the study of chemical reactions that involve the transfer of electrons between substances. Galvanic and electrolytic cells are both types of electrochemical cells that are commonly used in chemical analysis. Galvanic cells generate electrical energy from spontaneous redox reactions, while electrolytic cells use an external power source to drive non-spontaneous redox reactions. The principle behind both types of cells is the same, which is the transfer of electrons to analyze and understand chemical processes.

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70. Which one of the following analytes is NOT measured by electrochemical methods?

Explanation

Electrochemical methods are used to measure the concentration of ions or molecules that can undergo oxidation or reduction reactions. pH, pCO2, and chloride ions can all be measured using electrochemical methods because they can participate in such reactions. However, amylase is an enzyme and cannot undergo oxidation or reduction reactions, so it cannot be measured using electrochemical methods.

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71. A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased neuromuscular irrability (tetany).  Which of the following tests should be ordered immediately?

Explanation

Calcium levels should be ordered immediately because increased neuromuscular irritability, or tetany, can be a symptom of hypocalcemia (low calcium levels). Calcium plays a crucial role in muscle contraction and nerve function, so any abnormalities in its levels can lead to neuromuscular irritability. Ordering a calcium test will help determine if the patient's symptoms are due to low calcium levels and guide appropriate treatment.

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72. Which of teh following enzymes is considered a sensative marker for chronic alcholism resulting in liver disease?

Explanation

GGT, or gamma-glutamyl transferase, is considered a sensitive marker for chronic alcoholism resulting in liver disease. GGT levels are elevated in the blood of individuals who consume excessive amounts of alcohol over a prolonged period. This enzyme is primarily found in the liver, and its increased levels indicate liver damage or dysfunction caused by alcohol abuse. Therefore, GGT is commonly used as a diagnostic tool to assess alcohol-related liver disease.

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73. Aspirating wash solution between samples is a means of preventing which of the following?

Explanation

Aspirating wash solution between samples helps to prevent carryover. Carryover refers to the contamination or transfer of substances from one sample to another, which can lead to inaccurate results. By aspirating wash solution, any residual sample or reagent is removed from the system, reducing the chances of carryover and ensuring the integrity of subsequent samples.

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74. Which of the following is a condition of excessive fat in the feces?

Explanation

Steatorrhea is a condition characterized by excessive fat in the feces. It occurs when the body is unable to properly digest and absorb fats from the diet. This can be caused by various underlying conditions such as celiac disease, Crohn's syndrome, or ulcerative colitis. In these conditions, the digestive system is unable to break down and absorb fats, leading to their presence in the stool. Therefore, steatorrhea is a symptom of these conditions rather than a separate condition itself.

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75. What condition causes females to develop excessive facial hair?

Explanation

Hirsutism is the correct answer because it refers to the condition in which females develop excessive facial hair. This condition is typically caused by an excess of male hormones called androgens, leading to the growth of hair in areas where men typically have hair, such as the face, chest, and back. It can be a result of underlying medical conditions such as polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) or adrenal gland disorders.

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76. A STAT order was received from the emergency department.  The following patient results interface into the lab information system: Sodium 144 mEq/L Potassium 6.3 Eq/L Chloride 101 Eq/L Bicarbonate 25 Eq/L Magnesium 2.2 Eq/L Calcium 9.9 Eq/L Which of the following is the most probably explanation of these results?

Explanation

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77. What type of sample is used most commonly for POC chemistry tests?

Explanation

Whole blood is the most commonly used sample for POC (Point of Care) chemistry tests because it contains all the components of blood, including red and white blood cells, platelets, and plasma. This allows for a comprehensive analysis of various biomarkers and analytes present in the blood, providing a more accurate assessment of a patient's health status. Additionally, whole blood samples are relatively easy to collect and handle compared to other types of samples like plasma or serum, making them more practical for POC testing.

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78. All of the following are benefits of POC testing EXCEPT which one?

Explanation

The benefits of POC testing include testing at the patient's bedside, obtaining and analyzing specimens immediately, and providing results to caregivers immediately. However, patient identification is not always 100% accurate, as there can be errors or discrepancies in identifying the patient.

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79. Which of the following is NOT a SI unit of measurement?

Explanation

Celsius is not a SI unit of measurement because it is a unit of temperature, which is not one of the base quantities in the International System of Units (SI). The SI unit for temperature is Kelvin (K), which is based on the absolute zero point. Celsius is commonly used in everyday life and in some scientific contexts, but it is not part of the SI system.

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80. An increase in CSF protein can be found in what disease state?

Explanation

In multiple sclerosis, there is damage to the protective covering of nerve fibers in the central nervous system. This damage leads to leakage of proteins, including CSF protein, into the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Therefore, an increase in CSF protein can be found in multiple sclerosis.

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81. Which of the following defines anion gap?

Explanation

The anion gap is a measure of the difference between the concentration of positively charged ions (sodium and potassium) and the concentration of negatively charged ions (chloride and bicarbonate) in the blood. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium. Therefore, the correct answer is (Na+K)-(Cl+CO2).

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82. Which of the following is a protein molecule that catalyzes chemical reactions without itself being destroyed or altered?

Explanation

Enzymes are protein molecules that act as catalysts, meaning they speed up chemical reactions without being consumed or altered in the process. They work by lowering the activation energy required for a reaction to occur, allowing it to happen more quickly. Enzymes are highly specific and typically only catalyze one type of reaction. They play crucial roles in various biological processes, such as digestion, metabolism, and DNA replication. Therefore, the correct answer is enzyme.

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83. What statement is true concerning the relationship between light absorbance and light transmittance?

Explanation

The statement that the concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbed means that as the concentration of a substance increases, more light is absorbed. This relationship suggests that the more concentrated a substance is, the higher its absorbance of light will be.

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84. What is the single, most useful test for assessing thyroid function?

Explanation

TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is the most useful test for assessing thyroid function. TSH is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones. An elevated TSH level indicates an underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism), while a low TSH level suggests an overactive thyroid (hyperthyroidism). TSH is often the initial test performed to evaluate thyroid function, as it provides valuable information about the overall functioning of the thyroid gland. Therefore, TSH is considered the single, most useful test for assessing thyroid function.

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85. Which of the following concentrations is expressed in moles/liter?

Explanation

Molarity is the concentration of a solution expressed in moles of solute per liter of solution. It is a commonly used unit in chemistry to measure the concentration of a solution. Molality, normality, and percent concentration are all different ways of expressing concentration, but they are not expressed in moles per liter. Therefore, the correct answer is molarity.

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86. Premature atherosclerosis can occur when which of the following becomes elevated?

Explanation

Premature atherosclerosis can occur when low-density lipoproteins (LDL) become elevated. LDL is often referred to as "bad" cholesterol because high levels of LDL can lead to the buildup of plaque in the arteries, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke. This buildup of plaque can cause the arteries to become narrow and hardened, restricting blood flow and potentially leading to premature atherosclerosis. Therefore, elevated levels of LDL are a significant risk factor for the development of premature atherosclerosis.

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87. Which of the following is a precursor of the steroid hormones, estrogen and testosterone?

Explanation

Cholesterol is a precursor of the steroid hormones estrogen and testosterone. It is converted into these hormones through a series of enzymatic reactions in the body. Estrogen and testosterone play important roles in sexual development and reproduction. Cholesterol is a type of lipid that is found in cell membranes and is also obtained through the diet. It is an essential component for the synthesis of various hormones and is therefore necessary for proper hormone function in the body.

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88. What is the most common method for measuring total protein in which cupric ions complex with peptide bonds?

Explanation

Biuret is the most common method for measuring total protein in which cupric ions complex with peptide bonds. In this method, the cupric ions react with the peptide bonds in proteins to form a purple-colored complex known as the biuret complex. The intensity of this color is directly proportional to the concentration of proteins present in the sample, allowing for the quantification of total protein content. This method is widely used due to its simplicity, sensitivity, and compatibility with a wide range of protein samples.

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89. What lab test is used to screen for neural tube defects during pregnancy?

Explanation

Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) is a lab test used to screen for neural tube defects during pregnancy. Neural tube defects are birth defects that occur when the neural tube, which forms the baby's brain and spinal cord, does not close properly. AFP is a protein produced by the fetus and can be detected in the mother's blood. Elevated levels of AFP may indicate the presence of a neural tube defect, such as spina bifida or anencephaly. This test is a non-invasive way to assess the risk of these defects and can help guide further diagnostic testing or interventions.

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90. The use of point of care testing devices for cardiac markers is not recommended because of which of the following?

Explanation

The use of point of care testing devices for cardiac markers is not recommended due to the lack of analytical sensitivity. This means that these devices may not be able to accurately detect and measure low levels of cardiac markers in a patient's blood sample. As a result, they may not provide reliable results, leading to potential misdiagnosis or missed diagnoses. It is important to use highly sensitive laboratory-based tests for cardiac markers to ensure accurate and timely diagnosis and treatment of cardiac conditions.

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91. The following results are from a patient seen in the ER: Glucose.....500 mg/dL BUN           12 mg/dL Creatinine   1.1 mg/dL Sodium       145 mmoles/L Potassium   6.0 mmoles/L Chloride      105 mmoles/L Carbon dioxide....10 mmoles/L These results are indicative of what disorder?

Explanation

The high glucose level (500 mg/dL) in the patient's blood indicates that they have diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder characterized by high blood sugar levels due to the body's inability to produce or effectively use insulin. The other lab results (BUN, creatinine, sodium, potassium, chloride, and carbon dioxide) do not directly indicate any specific disorder and are within normal ranges. Therefore, the high glucose level is the key indicator for diabetes mellitus in this case.

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92. Cortisol is transported through the blood bound to what protein?

Explanation

Cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, is transported in the blood bound to corticosteroid-binding globulin (CBG). CBG is a protein that specifically binds to cortisol and helps to transport it throughout the body. This binding is important as it protects cortisol from being broken down too quickly and allows for its controlled release and distribution to target tissues. Transferrin, ceruloplasmin, and alpha1-lipoprotein are not involved in the transport of cortisol.

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93. Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?

Explanation

Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin because it dissolves in water and can be easily excreted by the body through urine. Water-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body for long periods of time and need to be replenished regularly through the diet. Vitamin C is essential for the growth and repair of tissues, the production of collagen, and the functioning of the immune system. It is commonly found in fruits and vegetables such as oranges, strawberries, and bell peppers.

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94. At a physiological pH of 7.4, what is the bicarb-carbonic acid ratio?

Explanation

At a physiological pH of 7.4, the bicarb-carbonic acid ratio is 20:1. This means that there is 20 times more bicarbonate (HCO3-) than carbonic acid (H2CO3) in the body at this pH level. This ratio is important for maintaining the acid-base balance in the body and is regulated by the respiratory and renal systems.

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95. What category of sugars is composed of polymers of pentoses or hexoses?

Explanation

Polysaccharides are a category of sugars that are composed of polymers of pentoses or hexoses. These are complex carbohydrates that consist of long chains of monosaccharide units. Examples of polysaccharides include starch, glycogen, and cellulose. They serve as energy storage molecules in plants and animals, and they also have structural functions.

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96. Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus

Explanation

The fasting glucose of >126 mg/dL, random glucose of >200 mg/dL, and two hour PP glucose of >200 mg/dL are all diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus. However, the statement "fasting glucose of" is incomplete and does not provide a specific value, making it not a valid diagnostic criteria.

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97. The level of bicarbonate is regulated by what organ?

Explanation

The kidney is responsible for regulating the level of bicarbonate in the body. Bicarbonate is an important electrolyte that helps maintain the body's acid-base balance. The kidney filters the blood and reabsorbs or excretes bicarbonate as needed to maintain the appropriate levels. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the pH balance of the body by regulating the levels of bicarbonate ions. The liver, lungs, and hypothalamus do not have a direct role in regulating bicarbonate levels.

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98. What are the expected lab results for a female with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

Explanation

In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, there is a deficiency in the production or release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland. FSH and LH are responsible for stimulating the production of estrogen and testosterone in females, respectively. Therefore, in hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, the levels of FSH and LH would be decreased, leading to a decrease in estrogen and testosterone production.

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99. The most frequent "in born error of metabolism" found in newborns is

Explanation

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is the most common "inborn error of metabolism" found in newborns. It is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down an amino acid called phenylalanine. Without proper treatment, phenylalanine can build up to harmful levels in the blood and cause intellectual disability and other health problems. PKU is typically detected through newborn screening, allowing early intervention and dietary management to prevent complications.

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100. In bilirubin determinations, what is the purpose of caffeine-benzoate-acetate?

Explanation

Caffeine-benzoate-acetate is used in bilirubin determinations to accelerate the coupling of bilirubin with the color reagent. This means that it helps to speed up the reaction between bilirubin and the color reagent, resulting in a faster and more accurate measurement of bilirubin levels.

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101. The liver converts ammonia into which of the following non-protein nitrogen compounds?

Explanation

The liver converts ammonia into blood urea nitrogen. Ammonia is a toxic waste product that is produced during the breakdown of proteins. The liver plays a crucial role in detoxifying ammonia by converting it into a less toxic compound called urea. Urea is then transported to the kidneys and excreted in the urine. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a measure of the amount of urea present in the bloodstream and is commonly used as an indicator of kidney function. Uric acid, creatinine, and bilirubin are also nitrogen compounds, but they are not directly involved in the conversion of ammonia in the liver.

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102. Which of the following hormones are produced by the kidney?

Explanation

Erythropoietin and rennin are hormones produced by the kidney. Erythropoietin is responsible for stimulating the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow, while rennin plays a role in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance by controlling the release of aldosterone. These hormones are essential for maintaining homeostasis in the body and are produced specifically by the kidney.

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103. Which of the following is NOT a desirable characteristic of the ideal cardiac marker?

Explanation

Cross-reactivity with similar molecules is not a desirable characteristic of the ideal cardiac marker. This means that the marker should not react with other molecules in the body that are similar to the target molecule. If there is cross-reactivity, it can lead to false positive results and make it difficult to accurately diagnose and assess myocardial damage. Therefore, a cardiac marker with high specificity for myocardial damage, high sensitivity to detect minor heart damage, and the ability to perform with rapid turn around time would be more desirable.

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104. Antihuman globulin that is used in indirect immunoassays is an example of which of the following

Explanation

Antihuman globulin is a type of antibody that is used in indirect immunoassays. Antibodies are proteins produced by the immune system in response to the presence of antigens. In this case, the antihuman globulin antibody is used to detect and bind to human antibodies that may be present in a patient's sample. It helps in the identification and diagnosis of certain diseases or conditions. Therefore, antihuman globulin is an example of an antibody.

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105. What analyte may be increased in patients with pancreatic beta cell tumors?

Explanation

Patients with pancreatic beta cell tumors, also known as insulinomas, experience an excessive production of insulin by the tumor cells. This leads to an increased level of insulin in the bloodstream. Therefore, the correct answer is insulin.

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106. What is the best indicator for an acute myocardial infarction?

Explanation

Troponin I is the best indicator for an acute myocardial infarction. Troponin I is a protein that is released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle. It is a highly specific marker for cardiac injury and can be detected within a few hours of the onset of symptoms. Troponin I levels remain elevated for a longer duration compared to other cardiac markers, making it a reliable indicator for diagnosing a heart attack. Therefore, troponin I is considered the gold standard for diagnosing acute myocardial infarction.

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107. After eating, what process converts excess glucose to glycogen for storage?

Explanation

Glycogenesis is the process that converts excess glucose into glycogen for storage. This process occurs in the liver and muscles when blood glucose levels are high, typically after consuming a meal. Glycogen is a complex carbohydrate that serves as a storage form of glucose. Through glycogenesis, glucose molecules are added to a growing glycogen chain, allowing the body to store excess glucose for later use when blood glucose levels drop. Glycogenesis helps maintain stable blood glucose levels and provides a readily available energy source when needed.

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108. All adrenal steroids are synthesized from what precursor substance?

Explanation

Adrenal steroids are hormones produced by the adrenal glands, and they are synthesized from cholesterol. Cholesterol is a type of lipid that is present in the cell membranes of all animal cells and is a precursor for the synthesis of various hormones, including adrenal steroids. The adrenal glands convert cholesterol into different types of steroids, such as cortisol, aldosterone, and testosterone, which play important roles in regulating various physiological processes in the body.

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109. You have 100 helathy normal individuals.  Creatinine is measured on each on all 100 individuals.  How many of the results would you expect to be within the referecnce interval for creatinine?

Explanation

Since the question states that the individuals are healthy and normal, it can be assumed that their creatinine levels would fall within the normal range. The reference interval is a range of values within which the creatinine levels are considered normal. Therefore, it is expected that the majority of the results, approximately 95 out of 100, would fall within this reference interval.

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110. The following results are from an outpatient who has scheduled for an intraoperative PTH procedure: PTH             82.9 pg/mL (15.0-65.0) Calcium       11.1 mg/dL (8.9-10.1) Phosphorous 2.0 mg/dL (2.5-4.5) BUN             12.0 mg/dL (8-23) Creatinine    1.0 mg/dL (0.8-1.3) LD               190 U/L     (180-360) What is the most likely cause of the lab findings?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the lab findings is hyperparathyroidism. This is indicated by the elevated levels of PTH and calcium. Hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone, leading to increased levels of calcium in the blood. The low levels of phosphorous and normal BUN, creatinine, and LD further support this diagnosis. Hypoparathyroidism would result in low levels of PTH, while renal failure and cancer would not typically cause these specific lab abnormalities.

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111. Which of the following facilitates the absoprtion of vitamin B12 in the ileum?

Explanation

Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum. It binds to vitamin B12 and helps protect it from degradation in the acidic environment of the stomach. Once in the ileum, intrinsic factor binds to receptors on the surface of cells, allowing for the absorption of vitamin B12 into the bloodstream. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be efficiently absorbed, leading to a deficiency. Secretin, pepsin, and gastrin are not directly involved in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum.

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112. Turbidity in the serum suggests elevation of?

Explanation

Turbidity in the serum suggests elevation of chylomicrons. Chylomicrons are large particles that transport dietary triglycerides from the intestines to various tissues in the body. When there is an increase in chylomicrons, the serum becomes turbid or cloudy due to the presence of these particles. This can be indicative of conditions such as familial hyperlipoproteinemia type I or type V, where there is impaired clearance of chylomicrons from the bloodstream.

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113. What type of compensation is involved when the lungs compensate by hyperventilation in metabolic acidosis?

Explanation

In metabolic acidosis, the lungs compensate by hyperventilation, which means they increase the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate more carbon dioxide from the body. This helps to restore the acid-base balance by reducing the levels of carbonic acid in the blood. Since this compensation occurs directly in response to the acidosis, it is considered primary compensation.

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114. The analytical process for the quantitative measurement of elements through the absorption of optical radiation by free atoms in the gas phase is called?

Explanation

Atomic absorption spectrophotometry is the correct answer because it involves the measurement of elements by analyzing the absorption of optical radiation by free atoms in the gas phase. This technique is commonly used in analytical chemistry to determine the concentration of various elements in a sample. It works by passing a beam of light through a sample containing the element of interest, and measuring the amount of light absorbed by the atoms. The amount of absorption is directly proportional to the concentration of the element in the sample, allowing for quantitative analysis.

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115. Which of the following lipoproteins is primary composed of exogenous triglycerides?

Explanation

Chylomicrons are the lipoproteins primarily composed of exogenous triglycerides. Chylomicrons are formed in the intestine after the absorption of dietary fats. They transport these triglycerides from the intestine to various tissues in the body. Once they reach the tissues, chylomicrons are broken down by lipoprotein lipase, releasing fatty acids for energy or storage. Therefore, chylomicrons play a crucial role in the transport and utilization of dietary fats in the body. VLDL, DLD, and HDL are lipoproteins that have different compositions and functions.

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116. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

Explanation

Iron sequestration is not a function of the liver. The liver is responsible for many important functions, including protein synthesis, detoxification of ammonia, and excretion of bilirubin. However, iron sequestration is primarily carried out by other organs, such as the spleen and bone marrow. These organs play a key role in regulating iron levels in the body by storing and releasing iron as needed. The liver does not have a major role in iron sequestration, making it the correct answer.

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117. What hormone acts on the distal convoluted tubule to increase water reabsorption?

Explanation

Antidiuretic hormone acts on the distal convoluted tubule to increase water reabsorption. This hormone is released by the pituitary gland in response to low blood volume or increased blood osmolality. It increases the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts to water, allowing more water to be reabsorbed back into the bloodstream. This helps to conserve water and prevent dehydration.

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118. A dialysis patient will most likely present with which of the following?

Explanation

A dialysis patient will most likely present with increased BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) and increased creatinine. BUN is a waste product that builds up in the blood when the kidneys are not functioning properly, and creatinine is a waste product produced by the muscles that is normally filtered out by the kidneys. In dialysis patients, the kidneys are not able to effectively remove these waste products, leading to their accumulation in the blood. Therefore, increased BUN and increased creatinine levels are commonly observed in dialysis patients.

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119. What is the principle estrogen produced in the ovary?

Explanation

Estradiol (E2) is the principle estrogen produced in the ovary. Estrogens are hormones that play a crucial role in the development and regulation of the female reproductive system. Estradiol is the most potent and abundant form of estrogen, and it is primarily produced in the ovaries. It is responsible for various physiological processes, including the development of secondary sexual characteristics, regulation of the menstrual cycle, and maintenance of pregnancy. Estrone (E1) and estriol (E3) are also estrogens, but they are produced in smaller quantities and have different functions in the body. Progesterone, on the other hand, is a hormone involved in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but is not an estrogen.

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120. What component of the IgG antibody molecule binds to the antigen?

Explanation

The Fab region of the IgG antibody molecule is responsible for binding to the antigen. This region is composed of both the heavy and light chains of the antibody. The Fab region contains the antigen binding site, which allows the antibody to specifically recognize and bind to the antigen. The Fc region, on the other hand, is responsible for other functions of the antibody, such as activating the immune response.

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121. Posthepatic jaundice characterized by increased concentration of total and direct bilirubin may be caused by which of the following?

Explanation

Posthepatic jaundice is characterized by an increased concentration of total and direct bilirubin. Biliary obstruction refers to a blockage in the bile ducts, which prevents the flow of bile from the liver to the intestines. This obstruction can lead to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, causing jaundice. Hemolytic anemia, Gilbert disease, and Crigler-Najjar syndrome are not typically associated with biliary obstruction and would not result in the same pattern of jaundice.

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122. Which of the following does NOT cause a chronic infection?

Explanation

Hepatitis A does not cause a chronic infection. Unlike Hepatitis B, C, and D, which can lead to long-term liver problems and chronic infections, Hepatitis A typically resolves on its own within a few months without causing chronic liver disease.

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123. Which of the following lipoproteins transports excess cholesterol back to the liver?

Explanation

HDL, or high-density lipoprotein, is responsible for transporting excess cholesterol from the peripheral tissues back to the liver. This process is known as reverse cholesterol transport and helps to prevent the buildup of cholesterol in the bloodstream. HDL is often referred to as the "good" cholesterol because it helps to remove cholesterol from the arteries, reducing the risk of heart disease. Chylomicrons, VLDL, and LDL are all lipoproteins involved in transporting cholesterol, but they do not primarily transport excess cholesterol back to the liver like HDL does.

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124. What organ is responsible for the secretion of HCl, enzymes, mucus, and intrinsic factor?

Explanation

The stomach is responsible for the secretion of HCl, enzymes, mucus, and intrinsic factor. HCl helps in the breakdown of food, enzymes aid in the digestion of proteins, mucus protects the stomach lining from the acidic environment, and intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. The small intestine is responsible for the absorption of nutrients, the large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes, and the pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate to help with digestion in the small intestine.

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125. Which of the following causes lipemic serum?

Explanation

Increased triglycerides can cause lipemic serum. Triglycerides are a type of fat found in the blood that provide energy to the body. When the levels of triglycerides are increased, it can lead to the appearance of a milky or turbid appearance in the serum, known as lipemic serum. This can occur due to various reasons such as a high-fat diet, obesity, uncontrolled diabetes, or certain medical conditions. Lipemic serum can interfere with laboratory tests and make it difficult to obtain accurate results.

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126. The limit of detection for most qualitative urine hCG test kits is <25 mIU/mL.  This lower limit of linearity is referred to as what term?

Explanation

The term that refers to the lower limit of linearity in qualitative urine hCG test kits is analytical sensitivity. This term indicates the ability of the test to detect low levels of the analyte, in this case, hCG, in a sample. In other words, it represents the lowest concentration of the analyte that can be reliably detected by the test.

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127. To determine the concentration of an unknown using Beer's Law, which of the following formulas should be used?

Explanation

The correct formula to determine the concentration of an unknown using Beer's Law is C u = A u/ A s x C s. This formula involves the absorbance of the unknown (A u), the absorbance of the standard (A s), and the concentration of the standard (C s). By comparing the absorbance of the unknown to the absorbance of the standard, and considering the concentration of the standard, the concentration of the unknown can be calculated.

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128. What endocrine gland is involved in the regulation of serum phosphate levels?

Explanation

The parathyroid gland is involved in the regulation of serum phosphate levels. It secretes parathyroid hormone (PTH), which helps to regulate the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. PTH acts on the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of calcium and decrease the reabsorption of phosphate, thus increasing serum calcium levels and decreasing serum phosphate levels. This hormone also acts on the bones to release calcium and phosphate into the blood when needed. Therefore, the parathyroid gland plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of serum phosphate levels in the body.

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129. The pituitary gland has a close anatomical relationship to which of the following?

Explanation

The pituitary gland is closely connected to the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus produces hormones that regulate the release of hormones from the pituitary gland. These hormones travel through a network of blood vessels called the hypothalamic-pituitary portal system, which connects the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland. This close anatomical relationship allows for communication and coordination between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland in regulating various bodily functions.

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130. A molecule with both a positive and negative charge is a 

Explanation

A molecule with both a positive and negative charge is called a zwitterion. This occurs when a molecule has both acidic and basic functional groups, allowing it to exist in a neutral form with a positive charge on one part of the molecule and a negative charge on another part. This unique property of zwitterions allows them to have both acidic and basic characteristics, making them important in various biological processes and chemical reactions. Cations and anions, on the other hand, only have a single positive or negative charge, respectively. Isoelectric ions are electrically neutral species with equal numbers of positive and negative charges, which is not the case for a zwitterion.

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131. In electrophoresis the anion always migrates

Explanation

In electrophoresis, the movement of charged particles is determined by their charge. Anions are negatively charged particles, and according to the principle of electrophoresis, they migrate towards the anode, which is the positive electrode. This is because opposite charges attract each other. Therefore, in electrophoresis, anions will always migrate towards the anode.

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132. In an electrochemical cell, what is the positive electrode called?

Explanation

In an electrochemical cell, the positive electrode is called the anode. The anode is where oxidation takes place, meaning it loses electrons and becomes positively charged. It is the site of the oxidation half-reaction in the cell. This is in contrast to the cathode, which is the negative electrode where reduction takes place, gaining electrons and becoming negatively charged. The anode and cathode work together to allow the flow of electrons and the generation of an electric current in the cell.

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133. Carotenoids are the chief precursor of what vitamin?

Explanation

Carotenoids are organic pigments found in plants that are responsible for their vibrant colors. They are converted into vitamin A in the body, making it the chief precursor of this vitamin. Vitamin A is essential for maintaining healthy vision, supporting the immune system, and promoting proper growth and development. Therefore, carotenoids play a crucial role in ensuring the body has an adequate supply of vitamin A.

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134. Bar code labels are generated when the patient's orders are manually entered into the LIS system. In an automated lab workstation with a bidirectional LIS interferance, the lab's bar-coded label on an individual specimen contains information regarding identification and the lab tests requested. The processor reads the barcode and the analyzer performs the analyses.  Which of the following may cause a preanalytical error in this automated system?

Explanation

An order entry error by a newly hired healthcare practitioner may cause a preanalytical error in the automated system. This error could result in incorrect patient information or incorrect tests being ordered, leading to inaccurate results.

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135. The CLS student lab swinging bucket centrifuge is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

The CLS student lab swinging bucket centrifuge is an example of a horizontal centrifuge. This type of centrifuge is designed to spin samples horizontally, with the buckets swinging outwards as the centrifuge spins. This allows for the separation of substances based on their density, with the heavier components settling towards the bottom of the buckets. The horizontal design also allows for easy loading and unloading of samples.

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136. In a serial dilution, if tube 1 is undiluted and twofold dilutions are used thereafter, what is the titer in tube #10?

Explanation

In a serial dilution, each tube is diluted by a certain factor compared to the previous tube. In this case, the dilution factor is twofold, meaning that each tube is diluted by a factor of 2. Since tube 1 is undiluted, tube #10 would have undergone a dilution of 2^9 (2 raised to the power of 9) because there are 9 twofold dilutions between tube 1 and tube #10. Therefore, the titer in tube #10 would be 512 (2^9 = 512).

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137. How is 100 degrees F recorded in Celcius?

Explanation

To convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, you can use the formula: Celsius = (Fahrenheit - 32) * 5/9. Plugging in the given temperature of 100 degrees Fahrenheit into the formula, we get: Celsius = (100 - 32) * 5/9 = 68 * 5/9 = 340/9 ≈ 37.78. Rounding this to the nearest whole number, we get 38 degrees Celsius. Therefore, the correct answer is 38.

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138. In an Enzyme-linked ImmunoSorbant Assay (ELISA) the wells of the plate are coated with which of the following?

Explanation

In an Enzyme-linked ImmunoSorbant Assay (ELISA), the wells of the plate are coated with the antigen. This is because ELISA is a technique used to detect and measure the presence of specific antibodies or antigens in a sample. The antigen is immobilized onto the wells of the plate, allowing for the binding of specific antibodies present in the sample. This binding is then detected using an enzyme-linked secondary antibody, which produces a color change that can be measured. Therefore, the correct answer is the antigen.

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139. What is the primary reagent in the Jaffe method for creatinine?

Explanation

The primary reagent in the Jaffe method for creatinine is alkaline picrate. This method is used to measure the levels of creatinine in a sample, typically in urine. Alkaline picrate reacts with creatinine to form a colored complex, and the intensity of the color is directly proportional to the concentration of creatinine in the sample. This allows for the quantification of creatinine levels. The other reagents listed, phosphotungstic acid, sodium nitroprusside, and copper sulfate, are not typically used in the Jaffe method for creatinine measurement.

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140. What hormone is regulated by the concentration of free, ionized calcium?

Explanation

Parathyroid hormone is regulated by the concentration of free, ionized calcium. When the calcium levels in the blood decrease, the parathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone, which acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium levels. This hormone stimulates the release of calcium from bones, enhances the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys, and promotes the absorption of calcium in the intestines. Therefore, parathyroid hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of calcium in the body.

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141. Which of the following is a heme protein found in skeletal and cardiac muscle and when damage to heart muscle occurs often results in elevated levels in the serum and urine?

Explanation

Myoglobin is a heme protein found in skeletal and cardiac muscle. When damage to heart muscle occurs, such as during a heart attack, myoglobin is released into the bloodstream, leading to elevated levels in the serum and urine. This is because myoglobin is released from damaged muscle cells and acts as a marker for cardiac muscle injury. BNP, CKMB, and troponin I are also markers used to detect heart muscle damage, but myoglobin is specifically known for its presence in skeletal and cardiac muscle and its release during muscle injury.

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142. A patient's blood gas results are as follows: pH 7.32 pCO2 79 mmHg HC03 24 mmol/L What acid-base order is associated with these results?

Explanation

The given blood gas results indicate a low pH (7.32) and an elevated pCO2 (79 mmHg), which are consistent with respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood due to inadequate ventilation, leading to an accumulation of carbonic acid and a decrease in pH. The bicarbonate level (HCO3) is within the normal range (24 mmol/L), suggesting that the primary disturbance is respiratory in nature. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory acidosis.

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143. What is a substance that can yield a hydrogen ion called?

Explanation

An acid is a substance that can release or donate a hydrogen ion (H+) when dissolved in water. This characteristic of acids is what gives them their sour taste and ability to react with metals and other substances. Acids have a pH value less than 7 and can neutralize bases. Therefore, in the context of the question, an acid is the correct answer as it is the substance that can yield a hydrogen ion.

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144. Using thin layer chromatopgraphy, the distance of the drug divided by the distance of the solvent is used to calculate what value?

Explanation

In thin layer chromatography, Rf (retention factor) is used to calculate the distance traveled by the drug in comparison to the distance traveled by the solvent. This value helps in determining the relative affinity of the drug for the stationary phase compared to the mobile phase.

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145. What is the function of progesterone?

Explanation

Progesterone is a hormone that plays a crucial role in preparing the uterus for pregnancy. It helps to thicken and maintain the uterine lining, creating a suitable environment for the implantation of a fertilized egg. Additionally, progesterone inhibits the contraction of the uterine muscles, preventing premature contractions that could potentially disrupt pregnancy. Therefore, the function of progesterone is to prepare the uterus for pregnancy and support the successful implantation and development of an embryo.

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146. Specimens for analysis of trace metals must be collected with scrupulous attention to detail for which of the following reasons?

Explanation

Specimens for analysis of trace metals must be collected with scrupulous attention to detail in order to prevent contamination from the environment. This is important because any contamination from the environment can introduce additional trace metals into the sample, leading to inaccurate results. By taking precautions to prevent contamination, such as using clean collection containers and avoiding contact with surfaces, the integrity of the sample is maintained and the accuracy of the analysis is ensured.

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147. Corticotropin-releasing hormone is secreted from the hypothalamus causing release of what hormone from the pituitary gland?

Explanation

Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) is secreted from the hypothalamus and stimulates the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. ACTH then acts on the adrenal glands to promote the synthesis and secretion of cortisol, a stress hormone. Therefore, the correct answer is adrenocorticotropic hormone.

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148. The absorbance of the patient's unknown sample is 0.360nm.  The absorbance of the 10 mg/dL standard is 400.  What is the concentration of the unknown using a standard curve?

Explanation

The concentration of the unknown sample can be determined by using a standard curve. The absorbance of the unknown sample is given as 0.360nm. By comparing this absorbance value with the absorbance of the 10 mg/dL standard (400), it can be determined that the concentration of the unknown sample is 9 mg/dL. This is because the absorbance of the unknown sample falls between the absorbance values of the 10 mg/dL standard and the next highest standard.

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149. Which of the following is the most common method used to measure bilirubin?

Explanation

Jendrassik Grof is the most common method used to measure bilirubin. This method involves the addition of caffeine and methanol to the sample, which helps in the formation of a colored complex. The intensity of the color is then measured using a spectrophotometer, and the concentration of bilirubin in the sample can be determined based on this measurement. This method is widely used due to its accuracy and reliability in measuring bilirubin levels in various clinical settings.

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150. What type of analyzer allows a STAT to be loaded after several rack of routine samples but then aspirates the STAT specimen before completing the routine samples?

Explanation

A random access analyzer allows a STAT specimen to be loaded after several racks of routine samples. It then aspirates the STAT specimen before completing the routine samples. This means that the analyzer can prioritize and process urgent STAT samples without interrupting the routine sample testing. It offers flexibility and efficiency by allowing samples to be processed in any order, rather than following a fixed sequence.

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151. Which of the following pipets is the most accurate and is used to reconstitute controls and calibratons?

Explanation

Volumetric pipets are the most accurate and precise type of pipets. They are designed to deliver a specific volume of liquid with high accuracy and precision. Volumetric pipets are commonly used in laboratories to prepare solutions, such as reconstituting controls and calibrations, where precise volume measurements are crucial. They have a single graduation mark and are calibrated to deliver a specific volume at that mark. This makes them ideal for tasks that require accurate and precise measurements. Serological pipets, measuring pipets, and graduated pipets are also commonly used in laboratories but are less accurate and precise compared to volumetric pipets.

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152. Which of the following is a negative risk factor for coronary heart disease?

Explanation

Elevated HDL cholesterol is a negative risk factor for coronary heart disease because HDL cholesterol is considered "good" cholesterol. Higher levels of HDL cholesterol are associated with a lower risk of developing coronary heart disease. HDL cholesterol helps remove excess cholesterol from the blood vessels, preventing the buildup of plaque and reducing the risk of heart disease. Therefore, having elevated levels of HDL cholesterol is beneficial and reduces the risk of coronary heart disease.

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153. Iron is the most important trace metal in human physiology.  What is the second most important?

Explanation

Zinc is the second most important trace metal in human physiology after iron. It plays a crucial role in various biological processes such as immune function, DNA synthesis, and wound healing. Zinc is essential for proper growth and development, and it is involved in the function of over 300 enzymes in the body. It also plays a role in maintaining healthy skin, hair, and nails. Therefore, zinc is considered an essential nutrient for overall health and well-being.

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154. How does ISE methods differ from indirect ISE methods?

Explanation

Indirect ISE methods require a dilution because these methods involve measuring the concentration of an analyte indirectly by using a chemical reaction or a physical property that is related to the analyte concentration. This dilution step is necessary to ensure that the analyte concentration falls within the range of the measurement technique. On the other hand, direct ISE methods also require a dilution, but they additionally involve a separation step to isolate the analyte from interfering substances before the measurement is made.

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155. Which of the following enzymes is commonly used in the enzymatic method for determining serum bilirubin levels?

Explanation

In clinical chemistry, bilirubin dehydrogenase is an enzyme often used in the enzymatic method for determining serum bilirubin levels. It catalyzes the conversion of bilirubin to a more water-soluble form, facilitating its measurement. This method is highly accurate for diagnosing liver conditions, including jaundice and other disorders related to bilirubin metabolism.

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156. Smoking cigarettes or breathing second hand cigarette smoke can increase exposure to what toxic metal?

Explanation

Smoking cigarettes or breathing secondhand cigarette smoke can increase exposure to arsenic, a toxic metal. Arsenic is present in tobacco and can be released into the air when cigarettes are burned. Inhaling this toxic metal can lead to various health problems, including an increased risk of lung cancer, skin lesions, cardiovascular diseases, and respiratory issues. Therefore, individuals who smoke or are exposed to secondhand smoke are at a higher risk of being exposed to arsenic and its harmful effects.

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157. Carcinoembryonic antigen is elevated in which of the following diseases?

Explanation

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a protein that is normally produced during fetal development, but its levels decrease after birth. Elevated levels of CEA can be found in various types of cancers, including colorectal cancer. This is because cancer cells can produce CEA, and it can be released into the bloodstream. Therefore, measuring CEA levels can be useful in the diagnosis and monitoring of colorectal cancer. However, it is important to note that CEA levels can also be elevated in other conditions, such as liver and breast cancer, but colorectal cancer is most commonly associated with elevated CEA levels.

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158. What is the function of enzymes?

Explanation

Enzymes function by decreasing the amount of activation energy required for a reaction to occur. Activation energy is the energy needed to start a chemical reaction, and enzymes lower this energy barrier, making it easier for the reaction to proceed. By reducing the activation energy, enzymes increase the rate of reaction, allowing it to occur more quickly. Enzymes do not shift the equilibrium position of a reaction or cause thermodynamically incomplete reactions to occur. Additionally, enzymes can catalyze reactions in both directions, not just one.

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159. The determination of what analyte is used to assess the difference between a patient's protein intake versus their nitrogen excretion?

Explanation

The analyte used to assess the difference between a patient's protein intake versus their nitrogen excretion is urinary urea nitrogen. Urea is a waste product formed in the liver from the breakdown of proteins. It is excreted in the urine, and the level of urinary urea nitrogen can be measured to determine the amount of nitrogen being excreted. By comparing this with the patient's protein intake, it is possible to assess if there is a balance or imbalance between protein intake and nitrogen excretion.

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160. What is the main gastric enzyme that breaks proteins into smaller peptide fragments?

Explanation

Pepsin is the main gastric enzyme that breaks proteins into smaller peptide fragments. It is produced in the stomach and functions in the acidic environment to hydrolyze peptide bonds, breaking down proteins into smaller fragments called peptides. Pepsin plays a crucial role in the digestion of proteins, as it helps to break them down into smaller, more easily absorbable units for further digestion and absorption in the small intestine. Amylase is an enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates, lipase breaks down fats, and gastrin is a hormone that stimulates the release of gastric acid.

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161. Which of the following hormones promotes secondary sex characteristic development in females?

Explanation

Estrogen is the hormone that promotes secondary sex characteristic development in females. It is responsible for the development of breasts, widening of hips, and the growth of pubic and underarm hair. Estrogen also plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle and maintaining reproductive health in females.

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162. Most pancreatic tumors are which of the following?

Explanation

Pancreatic tumors are most commonly adenocarcinomas. Adenocarcinomas are a type of cancer that originates in the glandular cells of an organ. In the case of pancreatic tumors, these malignant growths typically develop in the exocrine cells of the pancreas. Adenocarcinomas are known for their aggressive nature and poor prognosis, often spreading to nearby organs and tissues. They account for the majority of pancreatic cancer cases, making them the most common type of pancreatic tumor.

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163. Which of the following disaccharides is composed of two glucose molecules?

Explanation

Maltose is composed of two glucose molecules. It is a disaccharide formed by the condensation of two glucose molecules, resulting in the formation of a glycosidic bond. This bond connects the two glucose molecules together, forming maltose.

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164. Bowman's capsule is located in what portion of the kidney?

Explanation

Bowman's capsule is located in the cortex of the kidney. The cortex is the outermost layer of the kidney and contains various structures including the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule. Bowman's capsule is a cup-like structure that surrounds the glomerulus and is responsible for the initial filtration of blood in the kidney. It plays a crucial role in the formation of urine by filtering waste products and excess water from the blood. The medulla, calyx, and pelvis are other parts of the kidney, but they do not contain Bowman's capsule.

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165. Ammonia is produced from which of the following

Explanation

Ammonia is produced from the catabolism of proteins. When proteins are broken down, ammonia is released as a byproduct. This occurs through a process called deamination, where the amino group (-NH2) of an amino acid is removed, resulting in the formation of ammonia. This ammonia is then further processed and eventually converted into urea in the liver, which is excreted in urine. Therefore, the catabolism of proteins is the correct source of ammonia production.

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166. Which of the following is a limitation of Beer's Law?

Explanation

Beer's Law states that the absorbance of a solution is directly proportional to the concentration of the solute. This means that as the concentration of the solute increases, the absorbance also increases in a linear relationship. Therefore, the correct answer is that the absorbance and concentration must have a linear relationship.

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167. What is the reference range for total bilirubin in adults?

Explanation

The reference range for total bilirubin in adults is 0.1-1.2 mg/dL. This range indicates the normal levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells break down. It is processed by the liver and excreted in the bile. Elevated levels of bilirubin can indicate liver or gallbladder dysfunction, while low levels can indicate anemia or other blood disorders. Therefore, the normal range of 0.1-1.2 mg/dL is important in assessing liver and blood health.

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168. In the clinical lab, the osmolality of a specimen is most commonly measured by a change in which of the following?

Explanation

In the clinical lab, the osmolality of a specimen is most commonly measured by a change in freezing point. Osmolality refers to the concentration of solutes in a solution, and it is related to the number of particles in the solution. When solutes are present in a solution, they lower the freezing point of that solution. Therefore, by measuring the freezing point of a specimen, the osmolality can be determined. This method is commonly used because it is a direct and accurate way to measure osmolality.

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169. Which of the following represents the Henderson-Hasselbach equation?

Explanation

The Henderson-Hasselbach equation is used to calculate the pH of a solution based on the ratio of the concentration of the conjugate base ([A-]) to the concentration of the acid ([HA]). The equation is pH = pK + log([A-]/[HA]). This equation is derived from the equilibrium constant expression for the dissociation of an acid, and it allows us to determine the pH of a solution when the concentrations of the acid and its conjugate base are known.

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170. In which of the following chromatographic techniques is the mobile phase a liquid that is passed over a stationary phase of the column?

Explanation

High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) is a chromatographic technique in which the mobile phase is a liquid that is passed over a stationary phase of the column. In HPLC, the sample is dissolved in a liquid solvent and injected into the column. The liquid mobile phase carries the sample through the stationary phase, where separation occurs based on the interactions between the sample components and the stationary phase. This technique is commonly used for the separation and analysis of complex mixtures in various industries, including pharmaceuticals, food, and environmental analysis.

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171. Hydrochloric acid secretion is regulated by what hormone?

Explanation

Gastrin is the hormone that regulates the secretion of hydrochloric acid in the stomach. It is released by the G cells in the stomach lining in response to the presence of food. Gastrin stimulates the release of hydrochloric acid from the parietal cells in the stomach, helping in the digestion of proteins. Pepsin is an enzyme that breaks down proteins, not a hormone. Secretin is a hormone that regulates the secretion of bicarbonate in the pancreas, not hydrochloric acid. Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide is a hormone that regulates various functions in the digestive system, but not specifically the secretion of hydrochloric acid.

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172. What is the confirmatory method for measuring durgs of abuse?

Explanation

Gas chromatography/mass spectrometry (GC/MS) is a confirmatory method for measuring drugs of abuse. This technique combines gas chromatography, which separates the components of a mixture, with mass spectrometry, which identifies and quantifies the separated components. GC/MS is highly sensitive and specific, allowing for accurate identification and quantification of drugs in a sample. It is commonly used in forensic and clinical toxicology laboratories for drug testing purposes.

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173. A solution contains 300 g/L of NaCl (GMW=58.5).  What is the molarity of the solution?

Explanation

The molarity of a solution is calculated by dividing the moles of solute by the volume of the solution in liters. In this case, the solution contains 300 g/L of NaCl. To find the moles of NaCl, we divide the given mass by the molar mass of NaCl. The molar mass of NaCl is 58.5 g/mol. Therefore, the moles of NaCl in the solution can be calculated as (300 g/L) / (58.5 g/mol) = 5.1 mol/L. This means that the molarity of the solution is 5.1 M.

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174. What method used to measure glucose catalyzof glucose catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose by ATP?

Explanation

Hexokinase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose by ATP. This process is the first step in glucose metabolism and is essential for glucose utilization in cells. Hexokinase adds a phosphate group to glucose, forming glucose-6-phosphate, which can then be further metabolized. Clinitest, glucose oxidase, and glucose dehydrogenase are not involved in this specific reaction and do not catalyze the phosphorylation of glucose.

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175. A patient has the following electrolytes.  What is the calculated anion gap? Sodium = 165 mmoles/L Potassium 4.0 mmoles/L Chloride= 125 mmoles/L Carbon dioxide= 24 mmoles/L

Explanation

The anion gap is calculated by subtracting the sum of the measured cations (sodium and potassium) from the sum of the measured anions (chloride and bicarbonate). In this case, the calculated anion gap would be 19 (125 + 24 - 165 - 4 = 19).

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176. Which of teh following lab results increases a patient's risk of coronary heart disease?

Explanation

A total cholesterol level of 250 mg/dL increases a patient's risk of coronary heart disease. High levels of total cholesterol are associated with the buildup of plaque in the arteries, which can lead to the narrowing and blockage of blood vessels. This can increase the risk of developing coronary heart disease, which is characterized by reduced blood flow to the heart. It is important to note that while high total cholesterol is a risk factor, other factors such as HDL cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and triglyceride levels also play a role in determining an individual's risk of coronary heart disease.

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177. If a growth hormone producing tumor occurs after epiphyseal closure, the patient develops which of the following?

Explanation

Acromegaly is the correct answer because it is a condition caused by the overproduction of growth hormone in adulthood, after the closure of the epiphyseal plates. This excess growth hormone leads to the enlargement of bones and tissues, resulting in characteristic symptoms such as enlarged hands, feet, and facial features. Gigantism occurs when the overproduction of growth hormone occurs before epiphyseal closure, leading to excessive growth in height. Dwarfism is caused by a deficiency in growth hormone, while cretinism is a condition caused by congenital hypothyroidism, not related to growth hormone.

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178. Hyperlipidemia and/or hyperporteinemia can cause which of these errors in indirect ISE measurement?

Explanation

Hyperlipidemia and/or hyperproteinemia can cause dilutional error in indirect ISE measurement. This is because the presence of high levels of lipids or proteins in the blood can affect the dilution of the sample, leading to inaccurate results. These substances can interfere with the measurement process and cause dilutional errors, resulting in incorrect readings of electrolyte levels.

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179. In what condition is a decrease in serum albumin and an increase in alpha2-macroglobin seen?

Explanation

A decrease in serum albumin and an increase in alpha2-macroglobin are seen in nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by the leakage of large amounts of protein, including albumin, into the urine. This leads to a decrease in serum albumin levels. Alpha2-macroglobin is a protein that is produced in response to inflammation, and its levels increase in nephrotic syndrome due to the ongoing kidney damage and inflammation. Therefore, nephrotic syndrome is the condition in which both of these changes are observed.

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180. Cardiovascular system failure and consequent hypovolemia can cause what type of renal failure?

Explanation

Cardiovascular system failure and hypovolemia can lead to prerenal failure. Prerenal failure occurs when there is a decrease in blood flow to the kidneys, which can be caused by conditions such as heart failure or severe dehydration. This decrease in blood flow results in a reduced filtration rate and impaired kidney function. Therefore, prerenal failure is the appropriate type of renal failure that can occur in this scenario.

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181. According to CLSI recommendations what is the minimum number of subjects required, to establish a reference range?

Explanation

According to CLSI recommendations, a minimum of 120 subjects is required to establish a reference range. This is because a larger sample size provides more reliable and accurate results, reducing the potential for errors or outliers. With a larger sample size, the reference range can be determined with greater confidence, ensuring that it represents the true range for the population being studied.

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182. Elevated ammonia levels are associated with which of the following liver disorders?

Explanation

Reye's syndrome is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children and teenagers who are recovering from a viral infection, such as the flu or chickenpox. Elevated ammonia levels are commonly observed in patients with Reye's syndrome due to liver dysfunction. This disorder is not typically associated with cirrhosis, hepatoma, or chronic alcoholism.

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183. What electrochemical technique measures the voltage difference between two half-cells immersed in solution?

Explanation

Potentiometry is an electrochemical technique that measures the voltage difference between two half-cells immersed in a solution. This technique is used to determine the concentration of ions or the activity of species in a solution by measuring the potential difference between an indicator electrode and a reference electrode. By measuring the voltage, potentiometry provides information about the chemical equilibrium and the electrochemical potential of the system.

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184. Chylomicrons are present in which of the followig dyslipidemias?

Explanation

Chylomicrons are large lipoproteins that transport dietary triglycerides from the intestines to the rest of the body. In dyslipidemias, there are abnormalities in the levels or composition of lipoproteins. Type I dyslipidemia, also known as familial lipoprotein lipase deficiency, is characterized by extremely high levels of chylomicrons due to a deficiency in lipoprotein lipase enzyme. Type V dyslipidemia, also known as mixed hypertriglyceridemia, is characterized by elevated levels of both chylomicrons and very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL). Therefore, chylomicrons are present in Type I and V dyslipidemias.

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185. Which of the following lab results are most consistent with Hashimoto's thyroiditis?  (TSH, FT4, TPO Ab, respecitively)

Explanation

The lab results that are most consistent with Hashimoto's thyroiditis are increased TSH, decreased FT4, and positive TPO Ab. In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, the immune system attacks the thyroid gland, leading to inflammation and decreased production of thyroid hormones (FT4). As a compensatory response, the pituitary gland releases more TSH to stimulate the thyroid gland, resulting in increased TSH levels. TPO Ab refers to thyroid peroxidase antibodies, which are commonly found in individuals with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, indicating an autoimmune reaction against the thyroid gland. Therefore, the lab results of increased TSH, decreased FT4, and positive TPO Ab are consistent with Hashimoto's thyroiditis.

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186. What is the primary compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis?

Explanation

In metabolic acidosis, there is an excess of acid in the body. To compensate for this, the primary mechanism is hyperventilation. Hyperventilation increases the rate and depth of breathing, leading to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. This helps to restore the acid-base balance by reducing the concentration of acid in the body. Bicarbonate re-absorption and secretion are not primary compensatory mechanisms for metabolic acidosis. Hypoventilation would actually worsen the condition by further increasing carbon dioxide levels.

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187. An enzyme result is 1530 U/L but is flagged out of instrument linearity.  Using 0.1 mL of patient sample and 0.2 mL of dilutent, the laboratorian makes a dilution and repeats the analysis.  What dilution factor should the diluted result be multiplied by?

Explanation

The dilution factor should be multiplied by 3. This is because the laboratorian used a dilution of 0.1 mL patient sample and 0.2 mL of dilutent, resulting in a total volume of 0.3 mL. The original enzyme result of 1530 U/L was flagged out of instrument linearity, so the laboratorian made a dilution to bring the result within the instrument's range. Since the total volume of the diluted sample is 0.3 mL, the dilution factor would be 1/0.3 = 3. Therefore, the diluted result should be multiplied by 3 to obtain the correct enzyme concentration.

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188. What is the principal androgen in the blood?

Explanation

Testosterone is the principal androgen in the blood. Androgens are a group of hormones responsible for the development and maintenance of male characteristics. Testosterone is produced primarily in the testes and is essential for the development of male reproductive tissues, such as the prostate and testes, as well as secondary sexual characteristics like muscle mass and body hair. It plays a crucial role in regulating libido, mood, and bone density. While dehydroepiandrosterone and dihydrotestosterone are also androgens, testosterone is considered the primary and most potent androgen in the blood. Inhibin is not an androgen but a hormone involved in the regulation of the reproductive system.

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189. What cancer antigen is used to monitor patients receiving treatment for breast cancer?

Explanation

CA 27-29/15-3 is used to monitor patients receiving treatment for breast cancer. This antigen is a protein that is produced by breast cancer cells. Monitoring the levels of CA 27-29/15-3 in the blood can help determine the effectiveness of the treatment and detect any recurrence or progression of the cancer. It is a specific marker for breast cancer and is commonly used in combination with other diagnostic tests to track the progress of the disease and guide treatment decisions. CA 125 and CA 19-9 are not specific to breast cancer and are used to monitor other types of cancer.

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190. What enzyme is responsible for the digestion of starch into maltose?

Explanation

Amylase is the correct answer because it is the enzyme responsible for the digestion of starch into maltose. Amylase breaks down the long chains of starch molecules into smaller maltose molecules, which can be further broken down into glucose for absorption and use by the body. Amylase is produced in the salivary glands and pancreas and plays a crucial role in the digestion of carbohydrates.

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191. The colligative property of a substance depends on which of these things?

Explanation

The colligative property of a substance depends on the number of dissolved particles. Colligative properties, such as boiling point elevation and freezing point depression, are affected by the presence of solute particles in a solution. The more particles that are dissolved, the greater the impact on these properties. The identity, size, and number of undissolved particles do not directly affect the colligative properties.

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192. Which of the following would not be considered a POC testing device?

Explanation

A stand alone analyzer would not be considered a POC (Point of Care) testing device because POC testing devices are typically designed to be portable and used at or near the patient's bedside. Stand alone analyzers, on the other hand, are larger and more stationary devices that are typically used in laboratory settings for more complex and specialized testing. Therefore, a stand alone analyzer does not fit the criteria of being a POC testing device.

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193. Which of the following lab tests is elevated in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

Explanation

Serum gastrin is elevated in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a rare condition characterized by the presence of gastrin-secreting tumors, called gastrinomas, in the pancreas or duodenum. These tumors cause excessive production of gastrin, a hormone that stimulates the secretion of gastric acid. As a result, individuals with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome have abnormally high levels of serum gastrin. Measuring serum gastrin levels can help in the diagnosis and monitoring of this condition.

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194. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of POC devices?

Explanation

Rapid turn around times is not a limitation of POC devices. POC devices are designed to provide quick and immediate results, allowing for rapid diagnosis and treatment decisions. However, the other options listed are limitations of POC devices. Sample integrity refers to the risk of sample contamination or degradation during testing. Inexperienced operators may struggle to correctly use and interpret the results of POC devices. System design of POC devices can also be a limitation if it is not user-friendly or lacks necessary features for accurate testing.

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195. Which of the following is NOT a source of error when measuring electrolytes by the use of ion-selective electrodes?

Explanation

Icteric specimens are not a source of error when measuring electrolytes using ion-selective electrodes. Icteric specimens refer to samples that are discolored or have a yellowish tint due to high levels of bilirubin, which is a pigment produced by the breakdown of red blood cells. While icteric specimens may affect the accuracy of certain laboratory tests, such as those related to liver function, they do not interfere with the measurement of electrolytes using ion-selective electrodes.

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196. Hypoproteinemia can be found in which of these disease states?

Explanation

Hypoproteinemia refers to abnormally low levels of protein in the blood. Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by damage to the kidneys, leading to excessive loss of protein in the urine. This loss of protein causes hypoproteinemia. Therefore, nephrotic syndrome can be associated with hypoproteinemia. Multiple myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells that can lead to hyperproteinemia, the opposite of hypoproteinemia. Sarcoidosis is a systemic inflammatory disease that typically does not cause significant protein abnormalities. Addison's disease is a hormonal disorder affecting the adrenal glands and is not directly associated with hypoproteinemia.

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197. The following lab results were obtained from amniotic fluid FLM II    25 mg/g (>55 mg/g) Which of the following poses the greatest risk if the baby is delivered early?

Explanation

The lab result of FLM II being 25 mg/g, which is less than the normal range of >55 mg/g, suggests that the baby's lungs may not be fully developed. This indicates a higher risk of respiratory distress syndrome if the baby is delivered early.

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198. The following results are consistant with what condition? BUN 15 mg/dL Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL Uric acid 5.0 mg/dL Ammonia  5 mg/dL

Explanation

The given results of BUN, creatinine, uric acid, and ammonia levels fall within the normal range. This suggests that the person does not have any abnormalities or conditions affecting their renal function, such as renal failure. Similarly, the normal levels of uric acid indicate that the person does not have gout, a condition characterized by elevated uric acid levels. The normal levels of ammonia suggest that there is no hepatoma present, as this condition is associated with elevated ammonia levels. Therefore, the correct answer is "normal."

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199. In the endocrine feedback loop of the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroidal axis the hypothalamus produces?

Explanation

The correct answer is thyroid releasing hormone. In the endocrine feedback loop of the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroidal axis, the hypothalamus produces thyroid releasing hormone (TRH). TRH stimulates the pituitary gland to release thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), which then acts on the thyroid gland to stimulate the production and release of thyroid hormones. This feedback loop helps regulate the levels of thyroid hormones in the body, which are important for metabolism, growth, and development.

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200. What term is used to describe when the reaction rate is directly proportional to the substrate concentration

Explanation

First-order kinetics is the term used to describe when the reaction rate is directly proportional to the substrate concentration. In this type of kinetics, the rate of the reaction increases linearly with an increase in substrate concentration. This means that a doubling of the substrate concentration will result in a doubling of the reaction rate. The other options mentioned, zero-order kinetics and Michaelis-Menton constant, do not describe this relationship between reaction rate and substrate concentration. International unit is not relevant to the given question.

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Respirator fittings are performed to protect employees against what...
Which of the following is NOT considered presonal protective equipment
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Which of the following is found in the highest concentration in bone?
What liver enzymes are most useful in the detection of hepatocelluar...
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What is the mechanism of EDTA?
Which of the following is a postanalytical error?
What serum analyte is light sensitive?
The highest concentrations of serum amylase and lipase are seen in...
Which of the following provide information on how to clean up a...
Which of the following proteins binds and transports iron in the...
Which is the storage form of glucose in muscle and liver?
EDTA-K3 is not an acceptable specimen for most chemistry tests....
Which one of the following enzymes is NOT a transferase?
Which of the following are bloodborne pathogens?
The heart is primarily composed of what type of muscle tissue?
Which tissue has the highest distribution of CK-BB
Using expired reagents to assay patient samples will result in an...
What optical technique measures metal ions in a solution based on...
Due to the diurnal variation of cortisol, a patient that is being...
Which of the following is the most important buffer in the bloodstream...
What is the most commonly analyzed specimen in chemistry?
What electrolyte is the major extracellular cation in plasma
What hormone synthesized by the pituitary gland promotes function of...
Urine, an ultrafiltrate of plasma, is formed by the kidneys and...
Which of the following best describes universal precautions?
Which of teh following is characterized by hyperbilirubinemia and...
Chemistry analytes such as glucose and cholesterol are an example of...
What specimen is unacceptable for the analysis of carbon dioxide?
The precipitin curve, where does the optimal ratio of antibody to...
In a spectrophotometric analysis what is the purpose of the reagent...
A fire that is cuased by discarding a lit cigarette in a trash can is...
What are the normal ranges for arterial blood gases at 37 C?...
The following results are avilable from a patient seen in the ER....
Bence Jones proteins are associated with what disease?
What is the function of transferrin?
What tumor marker is routinely used to monitor patients with prostate...
Which of the following hormones is a glucocorticoid?
A patient had a specimen drawn for iron determination at 8 am and...
Cholesterol functions as the backbone structure for which of the...
What is the first test usually ordered in the evaluation of male...
Which of teh following refers to the way in which the twisted amino...
What is serum?
Which of the following is an example of a noncontrollable...
Which of the following is an example of an analytical error?
What is the optimal pH of most enzymatic reactions?
Which of the following is in the metal component of ceruloplasium?
Osteomalacia in post-menopausal females is characteristic of a...
What serum protein electrophoresis fraction contains only one protein?
Which of the following is used to measure the light transmitted by a...
What is the most common method used in the clinical lab to measure...
What is the mean of the following BUN control values...
When a myocardial infarction occurs, what enzyme becomes elevated...
What plasma protein is increased in spina bifida
When doing electrophoresis the migration of the zwiterion depends on...
A round bottomed glass tube with only 1 marking of 500 mL volume is...
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a closed system?
A physician's office tests pre-diabetic patients for a fasting...
What condition is defined as decreased blood pH caused by an excess of...
Acute phase reactants are elevated in which of the following...
What type of diabetes is cuased by cell-mediated immune destruction of...
A common cause of falsely elevated LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) is:
Which of the following is the most common symptom of an individual...
A 25 year old female took a home pregnancy test 2 weeks after she...
What percentage of body mass is attributed to water alone?
The use of galvanic and electrolytic cells for chemical analysis is...
Which one of the following analytes is NOT measured by electrochemical...
A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased neuromuscular...
Which of teh following enzymes is considered a sensative marker for...
Aspirating wash solution between samples is a means of preventing...
Which of the following is a condition of excessive fat in the feces?
What condition causes females to develop excessive facial hair?
A STAT order was received from the emergency department.  The...
What type of sample is used most commonly for POC chemistry tests?
All of the following are benefits of POC testing EXCEPT which one?
Which of the following is NOT a SI unit of measurement?
An increase in CSF protein can be found in what disease state?
Which of the following defines anion gap?
Which of the following is a protein molecule that catalyzes chemical...
What statement is true concerning the relationship between light...
What is the single, most useful test for assessing thyroid function?
Which of the following concentrations is expressed in moles/liter?
Premature atherosclerosis can occur when which of the following...
Which of the following is a precursor of the steroid hormones,...
What is the most common method for measuring total protein in which...
What lab test is used to screen for neural tube defects during...
The use of point of care testing devices for cardiac markers is not...
The following results are from a patient seen in the ER:...
Cortisol is transported through the blood bound to what protein?
Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
At a physiological pH of 7.4, what is the bicarb-carbonic acid ratio?
What category of sugars is composed of polymers of pentoses or...
Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criteria for diabetes...
The level of bicarbonate is regulated by what organ?
What are the expected lab results for a female with hypogonadotropic...
The most frequent "in born error of metabolism" found in...
In bilirubin determinations, what is the purpose of...
The liver converts ammonia into which of the following non-protein...
Which of the following hormones are produced by the kidney?
Which of the following is NOT a desirable characteristic of the ideal...
Antihuman globulin that is used in indirect immunoassays is an example...
What analyte may be increased in patients with pancreatic beta cell...
What is the best indicator for an acute myocardial infarction?
After eating, what process converts excess glucose to glycogen for...
All adrenal steroids are synthesized from what precursor substance?
You have 100 helathy normal individuals.  Creatinine is measured...
The following results are from an outpatient who has scheduled for an...
Which of the following facilitates the absoprtion of vitamin B12 in...
Turbidity in the serum suggests elevation of?
What type of compensation is involved when the lungs compensate by...
The analytical process for the quantitative measurement of elements...
Which of the following lipoproteins is primary composed of exogenous...
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
What hormone acts on the distal convoluted tubule to increase water...
A dialysis patient will most likely present with which of the...
What is the principle estrogen produced in the ovary?
What component of the IgG antibody molecule binds to the antigen?
Posthepatic jaundice characterized by increased concentration of total...
Which of the following does NOT cause a chronic infection?
Which of the following lipoproteins transports excess cholesterol back...
What organ is responsible for the secretion of HCl, enzymes, mucus,...
Which of the following causes lipemic serum?
The limit of detection for most qualitative urine hCG test kits is...
To determine the concentration of an unknown using Beer's Law,...
What endocrine gland is involved in the regulation of serum phosphate...
The pituitary gland has a close anatomical relationship to which of...
A molecule with both a positive and negative charge is a 
In electrophoresis the anion always migrates
In an electrochemical cell, what is the positive electrode called?
Carotenoids are the chief precursor of what vitamin?
Bar code labels are generated when the patient's orders are...
The CLS student lab swinging bucket centrifuge is an example of which...
In a serial dilution, if tube 1 is undiluted and twofold dilutions are...
How is 100 degrees F recorded in Celcius?
In an Enzyme-linked ImmunoSorbant Assay (ELISA) the wells of the plate...
What is the primary reagent in the Jaffe method for creatinine?
What hormone is regulated by the concentration of free, ionized...
Which of the following is a heme protein found in skeletal and cardiac...
A patient's blood gas results are as follows:...
What is a substance that can yield a hydrogen ion called?
Using thin layer chromatopgraphy, the distance of the drug divided by...
What is the function of progesterone?
Specimens for analysis of trace metals must be collected with...
Corticotropin-releasing hormone is secreted from the hypothalamus...
The absorbance of the patient's unknown sample is 0.360nm....
Which of the following is the most common method used to measure...
What type of analyzer allows a STAT to be loaded after several rack of...
Which of the following pipets is the most accurate and is used to...
Which of the following is a negative risk factor for coronary heart...
Iron is the most important trace metal in human physiology.  What...
How does ISE methods differ from indirect ISE methods?
Which of the following enzymes is commonly used in the enzymatic...
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What is the function of enzymes?
The determination of what analyte is used to assess the difference...
What is the main gastric enzyme that breaks proteins into smaller...
Which of the following hormones promotes secondary sex characteristic...
Most pancreatic tumors are which of the following?
Which of the following disaccharides is composed of two glucose...
Bowman's capsule is located in what portion of the kidney?
Ammonia is produced from which of the following
Which of the following is a limitation of Beer's Law?
What is the reference range for total bilirubin in adults?
In the clinical lab, the osmolality of a specimen is most commonly...
Which of the following represents the Henderson-Hasselbach equation?
In which of the following chromatographic techniques is the mobile...
Hydrochloric acid secretion is regulated by what hormone?
What is the confirmatory method for measuring durgs of abuse?
A solution contains 300 g/L of NaCl (GMW=58.5).  What is the...
What method used to measure glucose catalyzof glucose catalyzes the...
A patient has the following electrolytes.  What is the calculated...
Which of teh following lab results increases a patient's risk of...
If a growth hormone producing tumor occurs after epiphyseal closure,...
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In what condition is a decrease in serum albumin and an increase in...
Cardiovascular system failure and consequent hypovolemia can cause...
According to CLSI recommendations what is the minimum number of...
Elevated ammonia levels are associated with which of the following...
What electrochemical technique measures the voltage difference between...
Chylomicrons are present in which of the followig dyslipidemias?
Which of the following lab results are most consistent with...
What is the primary compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis?
An enzyme result is 1530 U/L but is flagged out of instrument...
What is the principal androgen in the blood?
What cancer antigen is used to monitor patients receiving treatment...
What enzyme is responsible for the digestion of starch into maltose?
The colligative property of a substance depends on which of these...
Which of the following would not be considered a POC testing device?
Which of the following lab tests is elevated in Zollinger-Ellison...
Which of the following is NOT a limitation of POC devices?
Which of the following is NOT a source of error when measuring...
Hypoproteinemia can be found in which of these disease states?
The following lab results were obtained from amniotic fluid...
The following results are consistant with what condition?...
In the endocrine feedback loop of the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroidal...
What term is used to describe when the reaction rate is directly...
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