Command Post CDC Vol. 2.

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| By Leehalo33

Leehalo33

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 514

| Attempts: 227

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1/70 Questions

The authority a military commander lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment is
- Control
- Direction
- Command
- Jurisdiction

About This Quiz

Command Post CDC Vol. 2 is a specialized quiz designed to assess knowledge in military command structures and control mechanisms. It covers the operational and administrative chains of command, roles of high-ranking military advisors, and command center functions, essential for military professionals.

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2.

The authority a commander exercises over part of the activities of subordinates or other organizations is
- Control.
- Direction
- Command
- Jurisdiction
Correct Answer

A. Control.

Explanation

Control refers to the authority a commander has over the activities of subordinates or other organizations. It involves the power to regulate, manage, and oversee these activities, ensuring they align with the commander's objectives and instructions. Control allows the commander to maintain order, make decisions, and enforce compliance, ultimately ensuring the effective and efficient execution of tasks.

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3.

What resource provides the commander of an Air Force installation (home station or expeditionary) with a command and control (C2) structure to monitor, assess, plan, and execute the full range of installation activities?
- Emergency operations center (EOC).
- Contingency response wing (CRW)
- Contigency response group (CRG)
- Installation control center
Correct Answer

A. Installation control center

Explanation

The installation control center provides the commander of an Air Force installation with a command and control structure to monitor, assess, plan, and execute the full range of installation activities. It serves as a central hub for coordinating and overseeing various functions such as security, logistics, facilities management, and personnel support. The installation control center ensures efficient and effective operations on the installation, allowing the commander to have a comprehensive view of all activities and make informed decisions.

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4.

The operational chain of command runs from the president, through the
- Secretary of Defense (SecDef), to the commanders of combatant commands.
- Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS), to the commanders of the combatant commands.
- SecDef, to the secretaries of the military departments, to the service components.
- CJCS, to the secretaries of the military departments, to the service components.
Correct Answer

A. Secretary of Defense (SecDef), to the commanders of combatant commands.

Explanation

The correct answer is Secretary of Defense (SecDef), to the commanders of combatant commands. The operational chain of command starts with the President and goes through the Secretary of Defense, who is responsible for overseeing the military. The Secretary of Defense then delegates authority to the commanders of combatant commands, who are in charge of specific geographic or functional areas of responsibility. This ensures a clear and efficient flow of command and control within the military hierarchy.

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5.

The administrative chain of command runs from the president, through the
- Secretary of Defense (SecDef), to the commanders of combatant commands.
- Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS), to the commanders of the combatant commands.
- SecDef, to the secretaries of the military departments, to the service components.
- CJCS, to the secretaries of the military departments, to the service components/forces of Combatant commands.
Correct Answer

A. SecDef, to the secretaries of the military departments, to the service components.

Explanation

The correct answer is SecDef, to the secretaries of the military departments, to the service components. This answer accurately describes the administrative chain of command. The Secretary of Defense (SecDef) is the head of the Department of Defense and is responsible for overseeing the military departments. The secretaries of the military departments, in turn, are responsible for the service components, which are the branches of the military (e.g., Army, Navy, Air Force). This hierarchical structure ensures clear lines of authority and accountability within the military organization.

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6.

The principal military advisor to the president and Secretary of Defense (SecDef) is the
- National Security Council
- Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
- Secretaries of the military departments.
- Commander of the combatant commands.
Correct Answer

A. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

Explanation

The correct answer is Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff serves as the principal military advisor to the president and the Secretary of Defense. This position is responsible for providing advice and recommendations on military matters, coordinating military operations, and ensuring the readiness and effectiveness of the armed forces. The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is the highest-ranking military officer in the United States and plays a crucial role in shaping national security policy and decision-making.

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7.

A unified command is composed of significant forces from
- One military department under a single commander.
- One military department under multiple commanders.
- Two or more military departments under a single commander.
- Two or more military departments under multiple commanders.
Correct Answer

A. Two or more military departments under a single commander.

Explanation

A unified command refers to a structure where two or more military departments operate together under the leadership of a single commander. This allows for efficient coordination and integration of forces from different departments, ensuring a unified approach to achieving objectives. By having a single commander overseeing multiple departments, decision-making and operational control can be streamlined, enhancing effectiveness and reducing potential conflicts or inefficiencies that may arise from having multiple commanders.

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8.

The levels in which joint forces are established are unified commands, subordinate unified command, and
- Combatant command
- Combined command
- Major command
- Joint task forces.
Correct Answer

A. Joint task forces.

Explanation

The levels in which joint forces are established are unified commands, subordinate unified command, and joint task forces. Joint task forces are temporary organizations formed to carry out specific missions or operations. They are composed of units from different services and are led by a designated commander. Joint task forces are created when a situation requires a combined effort and coordination among multiple military branches.

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9.

How are joint forces established?
- On a functional or command basis.
- On a geographic or command basis.
- On a geographic or functional basis.
- On a geographic, functional, or limited basis.
Correct Answer

A. On a geographic or functional basis.

Explanation

Joint forces can be established either on a geographic or functional basis. Geographically, joint forces are formed by combining military units from different services in a specific area or region. Functionally, joint forces are created by integrating military units from different services based on their specialized capabilities or mission requirements. This allows for flexibility and adaptability in organizing and deploying joint forces to effectively address various operational needs and challenges.

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10.

Which treaty was originally proposed to reduce fears of a surprise attack and attempt to control nuclear weapons?
- Chemical Weapons Convention.
- Conventional Forces in Europe.
- Strategic Arms Reduction.
- Open Skies.
Correct Answer

A. Open Skies.

Explanation

The Open Skies treaty was originally proposed to reduce fears of a surprise attack and attempt to control nuclear weapons. This treaty allows participating countries to conduct unarmed aerial surveillance flights over each other's territories, providing transparency and building trust among nations. By allowing countries to observe and verify each other's military activities, the treaty aims to reduce the risk of a surprise attack and promote stability. The Chemical Weapons Convention, Conventional Forces in Europe, and Strategic Arms Reduction treaties are not specifically aimed at reducing fears of a surprise attack or controlling nuclear weapons.

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11.

Which major command researches, develops, tests, acquires and supports every Air Forces weapons system?
- Air Combat Command
- Air Mobility Command
- Air Force Material Command
- Air Force Special Operations Command
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Material Command

Explanation

The Air Force Material Command is responsible for researching, developing, testing, acquiring, and supporting every Air Force weapons system. This command ensures that the Air Force has the necessary resources and capabilities to effectively operate and maintain its weapons systems. They are involved in the entire lifecycle of these systems, from initial development to sustainment and modernization. Their work is crucial in keeping the Air Force technologically advanced and capable of fulfilling its mission.

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12.

Which type of wing performs a support function rather than an operational mission?
- Space
- Air Base
- Specialized
- Operational
Correct Answer

A. Air Base

Explanation

An air base is a type of wing that performs a support function rather than an operational mission. Air bases provide support services such as maintenance, logistics, and administrative functions to enable operational wings to carry out their missions. While operational wings are directly involved in combat or other missions, air bases play a crucial role in supporting these operations by providing the necessary infrastructure and resources. Therefore, the correct answer is Air Base.

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13.

The president of the United States' 1979 executive order merged many of the separate disaster related responsibilities into the
- National Incident Management System (NIMS)
- Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
- Homeland Security Presidential Directives (HSPD)
- National Emergency Management Agency (NEMA)
Correct Answer

A. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

Explanation

In 1979, the president of the United States issued an executive order that combined various disaster-related responsibilities into one organization. The correct answer, Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), is the agency that was created as a result of this executive order. FEMA is responsible for coordinating and responding to emergencies and disasters within the United States.

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14.

What Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD) describes the way federal departments and agencies will prepare for an emergency?
- 3
- 5
- 8
- 9
Correct Answer

A. 8

Explanation

Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD) 8 describes the way federal departments and agencies will prepare for an emergency.

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15.

Within the National Incident Management System, which key organizational system defines the operating characteristics and structure of incident management?
- Public informations systems.
- Incident command system (ICS)
- Multi-agency coordination systems
- Air Force incident management system
Correct Answer

A. Multi-agency coordination systems

Explanation

The correct answer is Multi-agency coordination systems. Within the National Incident Management System, multi-agency coordination systems are responsible for defining the operating characteristics and structure of incident management. These systems facilitate coordination and communication among multiple agencies and organizations involved in incident response, ensuring a unified approach and effective management of resources.

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16.

What plan is an all-discipline, all-hazard plan for the management of domestic incidents?
- National Response Plan
- Emergency Management Plan
- USAF War and Mobilization
- National Oil and Hazardous Substance Pollution Contingency Plan
Correct Answer

A. National Response Plan

Explanation

The National Response Plan is an all-discipline, all-hazard plan for the management of domestic incidents. It provides a framework for federal coordination and support to state, local, and tribal incident response efforts. The plan outlines the roles and responsibilities of various government agencies and organizations, as well as the coordination mechanisms and processes for effective response and recovery operations. It is designed to facilitate a unified and coordinated response to incidents such as natural disasters, terrorist attacks, and other emergencies.

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17.

What Act authorizes the president to issue a major disaster declaration to speed a wide range of federal aid to states overwhelmed by hurricanes or other catastrophes?
- Powell Act
- Stafford Act
- National Response Act of 2002
- Homeland Security Ac of 2002
Correct Answer

A. Stafford Act

Explanation

The correct answer is the Stafford Act. The Stafford Act is a federal law that authorizes the president to issue a major disaster declaration in order to provide assistance to states that are facing overwhelming circumstances due to hurricanes or other catastrophes. This declaration allows for the mobilization of various federal resources and aid to support the affected states in their recovery efforts.

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18.

Which plan or system has the Air Force's department-specific implementation of National Incident Management System (NIMS)?
- Air National Response Plan
- Air Force Management System
- Air Force Incident Management System
- Air Force National Incident Management System
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Incident Management System

Explanation

The Air Force Incident Management System is the plan or system that has the Air Force's department-specific implementation of the National Incident Management System (NIMS). This system is specifically designed and tailored for the Air Force's needs and requirements in managing and responding to incidents. It ensures that the Air Force is able to effectively coordinate and integrate with other agencies and organizations during emergency situations.

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19.

Which department is responsible for minimizing the damage and assist in the recovery from terrorist attacks, natural disasters, and other emergencies?
- Department of State
- Department of Justice
- Department of Homeland Security
- Federal Emergency Management Agency
Correct Answer

A. Department of Homeland Security

Explanation

The Department of Homeland Security is responsible for minimizing the damage and assisting in the recovery from terrorist attacks, natural disasters, and other emergencies. This department was created after the 9/11 attacks to coordinate and unify efforts to protect the United States from various threats. It works closely with other federal, state, local, tribal, and territorial agencies to prevent and respond to emergencies, ensuring the safety and security of the nation and its citizens.

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20.

What agency has the primary mision to reduce the loss of life and property and protect the nation from natural disaster, acts of terrorism, and other man-made disasters?
- Department of State
- Department of Justice
- Department of Homeland Security
- Federal Emergency Management Agency
Correct Answer

A. Federal Emergency Management Agency

Explanation

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has the primary mission to reduce the loss of life and property and protect the nation from natural disasters, acts of terrorism, and other man-made disasters. FEMA is responsible for coordinating and providing assistance during emergencies and disasters, including disaster response, recovery, and mitigation efforts. They work closely with other federal, state, local, tribal, and territorial agencies, as well as non-profit organizations, to ensure effective disaster management and support the affected communities.

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21.

What agency has the responsibility of coordinating international activities related to chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear incidents and events that pose transborder threats?
- Department of State
- Department of Justice
- Department of Homeland Security
- Federal Emergency Management Agency
Correct Answer

A. Department of State

Explanation

The Department of State has the responsibility of coordinating international activities related to chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear incidents and events that pose transborder threats. This is because the Department of State is primarily responsible for the United States' foreign policy and international relations. In the case of transborder threats involving chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear incidents, the Department of State would be the appropriate agency to coordinate and collaborate with other countries and international organizations to address and mitigate these threats.

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22.

Within the National Response Plan, the commander of state military forces is the
- President
- Governor
- State emergency manager
- Emergency preparedness liaison officer
Correct Answer

A. Governor

Explanation

Within the National Response Plan, the commander of state military forces is the governor. The governor is the highest-ranking official in a state and has the authority to command and deploy state military forces in times of emergency or disaster. This includes coordinating with federal agencies and other states to ensure an effective response and recovery effort. The governor plays a crucial role in managing and directing state resources to protect the lives and property of the state's residents during emergencies.

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23.

What organization is the primary installation level emergency response and provides immediate response to support the local authorities?
- Installation disaster response force (DRF).
- Installation control center (ICC).
- The local command post.
- The fire department.
Correct Answer

A. Installation disaster response force (DRF).

Explanation

The correct answer is Installation disaster response force (DRF). The DRF is the primary installation level emergency response organization that provides immediate support to local authorities during disasters. They are trained and equipped to handle various emergency situations and work alongside local authorities to ensure a coordinated and effective response. The DRF plays a crucial role in mitigating the impact of emergencies and safeguarding the installation and its personnel.

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24.

What agency provides expertise to the emergency operations center (EOC) or the incident commander and leverages unit resources to respond to an incident?
- Installation disaster response force (DRF).
- Emergency operations center (EOC).
- The local command post (CP).
- Unit control center (UCC).
Correct Answer

A. Unit control center (UCC).

Explanation

The Unit Control Center (UCC) provides expertise to the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) or the Incident Commander and leverages unit resources to respond to an incident. The UCC is responsible for coordinating and managing the overall response efforts, ensuring effective communication and coordination among different units, and making strategic decisions to address the incident. It serves as a central command post for managing resources, providing situational awareness, and implementing response strategies.

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25.

Which base support agency/group provides the key function that includes analyzing threats and providing recommendations to the commander concerning potential force protection (FPCON) changes?
- Emergency management working group (EMWG)
- Force protection working group (FPWG)
- Threat working group (TWG)
- Command support staff
Correct Answer

A. Threat working group (TWG)

Explanation

The Threat Working Group (TWG) provides the key function of analyzing threats and providing recommendations to the commander regarding potential force protection (FPCON) changes. This group is responsible for assessing the level of threat and determining the appropriate measures to ensure the safety and security of the base. They analyze intelligence, monitor current threats, and make informed recommendations to the commander, enabling the implementation of effective force protection measures. The TWG plays a crucial role in safeguarding the base and its personnel from potential threats.

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26.

Which phase of emergency response consists of firefighting, security, and medical treatment forces?
- Notification phase
- Withdrawl phase
- Recovery phase
- Response phase
Correct Answer

A. Response phase

Explanation

The response phase of emergency response consists of firefighting, security, and medical treatment forces. This phase involves immediate actions taken to address the emergency situation and mitigate its impact. Firefighting forces are responsible for extinguishing fires and preventing their spread. Security forces ensure the safety and security of affected areas and individuals. Medical treatment forces provide immediate medical care and assistance to those injured or affected by the emergency. Overall, the response phase focuses on taking immediate and necessary actions to address the emergency and protect lives and property.

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27.

Which phase of a major accident or natural disaster consists of actions taken after emergency actions have been implemented and lifesaving actions have been completed?
- Response
- Recovery
- Evacuation
- Notification
Correct Answer

A. Recovery

Explanation

The phase of a major accident or natural disaster that consists of actions taken after emergency actions have been implemented and lifesaving actions have been completed is called the recovery phase. During this phase, efforts are focused on restoring normalcy, repairing damages, providing support and assistance to affected individuals, and rebuilding the affected area.

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28.

What phase is the most important of the emergency management cycle?
- Response
- Recovery
- Mitigation
- Prepardness
Correct Answer

A. Mitigation

Explanation

Mitigation is the most important phase of the emergency management cycle because it focuses on preventing or reducing the impact of disasters. It involves identifying potential risks, developing strategies to minimize their effects, and implementing measures to mitigate the risks. By addressing vulnerabilities and implementing preventive measures, mitigation helps to save lives, protect property, and reduce the overall impact of disasters. It is considered the most important phase as it aims to prevent or minimize the need for response and recovery efforts, ultimately leading to a more resilient and sustainable community.

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29.

What agency monitors a crew memeber's training and proficiency?
- Maintenance
- Ground Control
- Base operations
- Aircrew operations
Correct Answer

A. Aircrew operations

Explanation

Aircrew operations is the agency responsible for monitoring a crew member's training and proficiency. They ensure that crew members receive the necessary training and maintain their proficiency in order to perform their duties effectively and safely. This agency oversees the training programs, evaluates crew members' performance, and ensures compliance with regulations and standards. By monitoring training and proficiency, aircrew operations helps to maintain the highest level of competence and readiness among crew members.

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30.

Controllers should request that the weather section take an aircraft mishap full-element local weather observation immediately following an aircraft accident in order to
- Pass existing conditions to emergency response units
- Aid an accident investigation team in its investigation
- Aid the commander in establishing future weather minimums
- Determine the prevailing visibility at the time of the accident
Correct Answer

A. Aid an accident investigation team in its investigation

Explanation

Controllers should request that the weather section take an aircraft mishap full-element local weather observation immediately following an aircraft accident in order to aid an accident investigation team in its investigation. This is because having accurate and detailed weather information at the time of the accident can provide valuable insights into the circumstances surrounding the accident. It can help investigators understand if weather conditions played a role in the accident and can assist in determining factors such as visibility, wind speed, and any other weather-related factors that may have contributed to the mishap.

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31.

What base agency would you contact for aircraft clearance and dispatch service?
- Maintenance
- Control tower
- Command post
- Airfield management operations
Correct Answer

A. Airfield management operations

Explanation

Airfield management operations is the correct answer because they are responsible for coordinating and managing activities related to the operation and use of an airfield. This includes aircraft clearance and dispatch services, ensuring the safe and efficient movement of aircraft. They handle tasks such as runway inspections, airfield lighting, and coordinating with air traffic control. Contacting airfield management operations would be the appropriate course of action for any aircraft clearance and dispatch service needs.

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32.

What agency would you contact for information about the initial and terminal phases of flight?
- Command post
- Base operations
- Air Traffic control tower
- Air route traffic control center
Correct Answer

A. Air Traffic control tower

Explanation

The correct answer is the Air Traffic control tower. The air traffic control tower is responsible for providing information and guidance to pilots during the initial and terminal phases of flight. They ensure the safe and efficient movement of aircraft in and around the airport, including takeoff and landing procedures. They communicate with pilots, provide weather updates, and coordinate aircraft movements to prevent collisions and maintain proper spacing.

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33.

The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is a part of the
- North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
- Organization of American States (OAS)
- National Security Council (NSC)
- United Nations (UN)
Correct Answer

A. United Nations (UN)

Explanation

The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN). It was established to promote the safe and orderly development of international civil aviation. As a part of the UN, the ICAO works towards the standardization of aviation practices and procedures, facilitates cooperation between member states, and sets global aviation standards to ensure the safety, efficiency, and sustainability of international air travel.

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34.

What agency would you contact for positioning an aircraft for landing?
- Control tower
- Radar approach control (RAPCON)
- Flight information service
- Air route traffic control center (ARTCC
Correct Answer

A. Radar approach control (RAPCON)

Explanation

Radar approach control (RAPCON) is the correct answer because it is the agency responsible for providing radar control and guidance to aircraft during the approach and landing phases of flight. They work closely with the control tower to ensure safe and efficient aircraft positioning for landing. The control tower primarily handles ground operations, while RAPCON focuses on radar surveillance and communication with the aircraft. The flight information service provides general flight information, and the air route traffic control center (ARTCC) is responsible for en-route air traffic control.

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35.

What organization must you contact to handle small or large aircraft emergencies and crashes?
- The fire station
- Base operations
- Aircraft maintenance
- Disaster response force.
Correct Answer

A. The fire station

Explanation

In case of small or large aircraft emergencies and crashes, the fire station must be contacted. Fire stations are equipped with trained firefighters who are prepared to handle such situations. They have the necessary equipment and expertise to respond quickly and effectively to emergencies, including aircraft crashes. Their primary role is to provide fire suppression and rescue services, making them the appropriate organization to handle such incidents.

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36.

WHich system would you use if you require a continuous, rapid, two-way communication between all Department of Defense (DOD) ground agencies and aircraft?
- Global high frequency (HF)
- Global very high frequency (VHF)
- Global ultrahigh frequency (UHF)
- Global extremely high frequency (EHF)
Correct Answer

A. Global high frequency (HF)

Explanation

Global high frequency (HF) would be the system to use for continuous, rapid, two-way communication between all Department of Defense (DOD) ground agencies and aircraft. HF radio waves have the ability to travel long distances and penetrate obstacles, making it suitable for global communication. VHF, UHF, and EHF have shorter ranges and may not provide the necessary coverage for global communication.

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37.

The 0 degree line of latitude is known as
- The equator
- The prime meridian
- The international date line
- Universal coordinated time
Correct Answer

A. The equator

Explanation

The 0 degree line of latitude is known as the equator. The equator is an imaginary line that divides the Earth into the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere. It is located halfway between the North Pole and the South Pole and is the longest line of latitude on Earth. It is called the equator because it is equidistant from both poles and experiences the most direct sunlight, resulting in a warm climate.

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38.

How many nautical miles do each degree of latitude represent?
- 10
- 30
- 60
- 120
Correct Answer

A. 60

Explanation

Each degree of latitude represents 60 nautical miles. This is because the Earth is divided into 360 degrees of latitude, and the circumference of the Earth at the equator is approximately 21,600 nautical miles. Therefore, dividing 21,600 by 360 gives us 60 nautical miles per degree of latitude.

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39.

The 180 degree line of longitude is known as
- The equator
- The prime meridian
- The international date line
- Universal coordinated time
Correct Answer

A. The international date line

Explanation

The 180 degree line of longitude is known as the international date line. It is an imaginary line on the Earth's surface that separates two consecutive calendar days. When you cross this line from east to west, you advance the calendar by one day, and when you cross it from west to east, you go back one day. It roughly follows the 180th meridian of longitude, although it deviates to avoid splitting countries into two separate days. The international date line helps to maintain a consistent and standardized system for measuring time and dates across different regions of the world.

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40.

The reference line on an aeronautical chart normally identified with Zulu (universal coordinated) time is the
- International date line
- Tropic of Cancer
- Prime meridian
- Equator
Correct Answer

A. Prime meridian

Explanation

The prime meridian is the reference line on an aeronautical chart that is normally identified with Zulu (universal coordinated) time. It is the line of longitude that passes through the Royal Observatory in Greenwich, London, and is used as the starting point for measuring longitude. Since Zulu time is based on the prime meridian, it is commonly associated with it on aeronautical charts.

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41.

Turbulence that causes a washboard-like bumpiness that sometimes buffets an aircraft we know as
- Thermal turbulence
- Clear-air turbulence
- Convective turbulence
- Mountain wave turbulence
Correct Answer

A. Clear-air turbulence

Explanation

Clear-air turbulence refers to turbulence that occurs in the absence of any visible clouds or weather disturbances. It is caused by variations in wind speed and direction within the atmosphere. This type of turbulence is often unpredictable and can occur at high altitudes, causing a bumpy ride for aircraft. It is known as clear-air turbulence because it occurs in clear skies, making it difficult to detect or avoid.

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42.

What intensity of turbulence can cause an aircraft to be momentarily out of control?
- Moderate
- Meduim
- Severe
- Light
Correct Answer

A. Severe

Explanation

Severe turbulence can cause an aircraft to be momentarily out of control. This level of turbulence is characterized by sudden and violent updrafts and downdrafts, which can result in significant changes in altitude and airspeed. The strong and unpredictable air currents can cause the aircraft to experience sudden and extreme movements, making it difficult for the pilot to maintain control.

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43.

Which type of ice is formed by the instantaneous freezing of small, super-cooled water droplets as they strike an aircraft?
- Frost
- Rime Ice
- Clear Ice
- Black Ice
Correct Answer

A. Rime Ice

Explanation

Rime ice is formed when super-cooled water droplets instantly freeze upon contact with an aircraft. This type of ice is characterized by its rough and opaque appearance, often resembling a white frost. Rime ice is commonly formed in cold, moist conditions where the water droplets in the air are super-cooled below freezing point. It can quickly accumulate on the surfaces of an aircraft, posing a risk to its performance and aerodynamics.

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44.

Which vision obstruction is caused by the exhaust gases of aircraft when the temperature is -20 degrees F or colder and winds are calm?
- Fog
- Haze
- Smoke
- Ice Fog
Correct Answer

A. Ice Fog

Explanation

Ice fog is caused by the exhaust gases of aircraft when the temperature is -20 degrees F or colder and winds are calm. In these conditions, the water vapor in the exhaust gases rapidly freezes, forming tiny ice crystals that remain suspended in the air. This creates a dense fog-like condition known as ice fog, which can significantly reduce visibility. Unlike regular fog, ice fog is specifically caused by the freezing of water vapor in the exhaust gases of aircraft.

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45.

What resource provides operational and tactical direction for air operations throughout the range of military operations, as well as establishing the timing, priority, and desired effects from supporting forces?
- Air task order (ATO)
- Air Operation center (ACO)
- Special Instructions (SPINS)
- Intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance division (ISRD)
Correct Answer

A. Air task order (ATO)

Explanation

The correct answer is Air task order (ATO). An ATO is a resource that provides operational and tactical direction for air operations. It establishes the timing, priority, and desired effects from supporting forces. It helps coordinate and synchronize air operations throughout the range of military operations. An ATO is an essential tool for commanders to effectively manage and control air operations.

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46.

What resource provides airspace control and air defense instructions in detail to allow components to plan and execute all missions listed in the air tasking order (ATO)?
- Intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance division (ISRD)
- Special instructions (SPINS)
- Air operation center (ACO)
- Air task order (ATO)
Correct Answer

A. Special instructions (SPINS)

Explanation

Special instructions (SPINS) provide airspace control and air defense instructions in detail to allow components to plan and execute all missions listed in the air tasking order (ATO). They provide specific guidelines and procedures for various missions, including rules of engagement, airspace coordination measures, and target information. SPINS ensure that all units involved in the mission have a clear understanding of their roles and responsibilities, enhancing coordination and effectiveness in executing the mission. The other options, such as the intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance division (ISRD), air operation center (ACO), and air task order (ATO), may play important roles in the overall air operations, but they do not specifically provide detailed airspace control and air defense instructions like SPINS.

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47.

What action must you take when you receive weather information that could affect flying operations?
- Update the system reports
- Advise the commander and staff of changes
- Advise only key personnel and interested agencies.
- Update the status display and advise all interested agencies
Correct Answer

A. Update the status display and advise all interested agencies

Explanation

When receiving weather information that could affect flying operations, it is important to update the status display and advise all interested agencies. This ensures that all relevant parties are informed about the potential impact of the weather on flying operations. By updating the status display, other personnel can easily access the latest information and make informed decisions. Additionally, advising all interested agencies allows for coordinated efforts and communication regarding any necessary adjustments or precautions that need to be taken.

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48.

When monitoring preflight operations, you use the alternate and emergency airfield status display to provide information needed to recover aircraft at alternate fields.
- During airborne exercises
- During emergency situations
- After completion of training flights
- After completion of cross country flights
Correct Answer

A. During emergency situations

Explanation

The alternate and emergency airfield status display is used to provide information necessary for recovering aircraft at alternate fields. This suggests that it is utilized during emergency situations when the original landing field is unavailable or unsafe. It allows for efficient decision-making and planning to ensure the safe recovery of the aircraft.

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49.

For exercises and war operations, how do you obtain detailed and comprehensive weather coverage?
- From a command post controller assigned to the contingency support staff team.
- From an aircraft pilot or copilot assigned to the contigency support staff team.
- From a weather forecaster that is assigned to the crisis action team (CAT).
- From an aircrew member assigned to the command post team.
Correct Answer

A. From a weather forecaster that is assigned to the crisis action team (CAT).

Explanation

The correct answer is from a weather forecaster that is assigned to the crisis action team (CAT). This is because the crisis action team is responsible for coordinating and managing responses to emergencies and contingencies. A weather forecaster assigned to the CAT would have access to the most up-to-date and comprehensive weather information, which is crucial for exercises and war operations.

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Jan 02, 2013

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Command Post CDC Vol. 2.

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