CDC Services General A

60 Questions | Total Attempts: 60

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CDC Services General A

Practice test services general


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) who ensures all personnel have a safe and healthful work environment where recognized standards are eliminated or controlled at acceptable levels?
    • A. 

      Installation Commander

    • B. 

      Force support squadron commander

    • C. 

      Public health official

    • D. 

      Supervisor

  • 2. 
    (001) Who provides safe and healthful workplaces, and conducts periodic self-inspections for hazards or deficiencies?
    • A. 

      Commanders, resource management flight chief, and supervisors

    • B. 

      Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors

    • C. 

      Commanders, public health, and supervisors

    • D. 

      Commanders and supervisors only

  • 3. 
    (001) Who should promptly report safety, fire, and health hazards and deficiencies?
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Force support squadron commander

    • C. 

      Installation commander

    • D. 

      All air force personnel

  • 4. 
    (002) What enables air force personnel to meet their Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program responsibilities?
    • A. 

      Commanders

    • B. 

      Supervisors

    • C. 

      Training

    • D. 

      Instructions

  • 5. 
    (002) detecting unsafe or unhealthful working conditions at the earliest possible time and abating hazards at the lowest possible working level are essential elements of what program?
    • A. 

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Air Force Occupational Safety and Health

    • B. 

      Osha and Afosh only when on military base

    • C. 

      AFOSH

    • D. 

      OSHA

  • 6. 
    (003) How is the decision to train specific task and knowledge items in an initial skills course made?
    • A. 

      Subject matter experts inputs only

    • B. 

      A review of the occupational survey report (OSR) data only

    • C. 

      By the career field manager based on his or her expieriences

    • D. 

      A review of the OSR data and subject matter experts inputs

  • 7. 
    (003) Training for the services journeyman (5) level primarily consists of
    • A. 

      Fitness specialist course

    • B. 

      On-the-job training (OJT)

    • C. 

      Shift leader mobile training

    • D. 

      Journeyman Leadership course

  • 8. 
    (003) how many months do individuals in journeyman (5-skill) upgrade training (UGT) have to complete their entire career development course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      18

    • D. 

      24

  • 9. 
    (004) the career field education and training plan (CFETP) provides all of the following except 
    • A. 

      Comprehensive education and training document that identifies life cycle education/training requirments

    • B. 

      Clear career path to success and instills rigor in all aspects of career field training

    • C. 

      Clear path to instill a sense of industry in career field training

    • D. 

      Clear and comprehensive document that identifies all job objectives and skills needed to complete the job

  • 10. 
    (004) the career field education and training plan (CFETP) is made up of how many parts?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 11. 
    (004) the specialty training standards (STS) serves as a contract between what major command (MAJCOM) and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an air force specialty code (AFSC) are taight in formal schools and correspondence courses?
    • A. 

      Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • B. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC)

    • C. 

      Air Force Material Command (AFMC

    • D. 

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

  • 12. 
    (004) what is not designed to let trainees train themselves?
    • A. 

      Career field education and training plan (CFET)

    • B. 

      Services training aids (STA)

    • C. 

      Career field standard (CFS)

    • D. 

      Specialty training standard (STS)

  • 13. 
    (004) how many category lists do you prepare when prioritizing work?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 14. 
    (004) Which is not a factor that affects objective assessment?
    • A. 

      Odd ball effect

    • B. 

      I-did-it-better effect

    • C. 

      Leveling effect

    • D. 

      It wasn't me effect

  • 15. 
    (005) people in what ranks are eligible to fill various special experience identifier (SEI)-coded positions?
    • A. 

      Airman First Class (A1C)- technical sergeant (TSgt)

    • B. 

      A1C- master sergeant (MSgt)

    • C. 

      Senior Airman (SrA)-MSgt

    • D. 

      SrA- senior master sergeant (SMSgt)

  • 16. 
    (005) the 2 track rotation program is mandatory for people with ranks of airman basic (AB) to
    • A. 

      Senior airman (SrA)

    • B. 

      Staff sergeant (SSgt)

    • C. 

      Technical sergeant (TSgt)

    • D. 

      Master sergeant (MSgt)

  • 17. 
    (005) a person is automatically entered into Track 2 when he or she rotates into what core function?
    • A. 

      Food

    • B. 

      Fitness

    • C. 

      Lodging

    • D. 

      Readiness

  • 18. 
    (006) when developing a master task listing (MTL), who determines which tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) apply to their specific mission?
    • A. 

      Individual

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Flight chief

    • D. 

      Activity Manager

  • 19. 
    (006) which is NOT an advantage of developing a master training plan (MTP)?
    • A. 

      Listing all task requirements in one place

    • B. 

      The task requirements have to be memerized

    • C. 

      Promotes program continuity by allowing everyone to know what the requirements are

    • D. 

      The master task listing (MTL) can be broken down to show what tasks and skill level are required fr specific duty positions

  • 20. 
    (007) what are the two types of manpower requiements?
    • A. 

      Military and civilian

    • B. 

      Funded and unfunded

    • C. 

      Department of Defense (DOD) and contractor

    • D. 

      Appropriated fund (APF) and non appropriated fund (NAF)

  • 21. 
    (007) what shows the number of people and the rank structure required for each work center to complete their mission?
    • A. 

      Alpha roster

    • B. 

      Manpower authorization

    • C. 

      Unit manpower document (UMD)

    • D. 

      Unit personnel management roster (UPRM)

  • 22. 
    (007) what do positions termed military essential on our unit manpower document (UMD) indicate?
    • A. 

      Must be filled by military members

    • B. 

      Can be filled by in service civilians

    • C. 

      Required by the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)

    • D. 

      A position that is vital to the success of the department of defense (DOD)

  • 23. 
    (007) what does "double billeted" refer to?
    • A. 

      A unit manpower document (UMD) that will cause a permanent change of station (PCS) move

    • B. 

      A condition that usually causes a shortage

    • C. 

      Two people assigned to the same UMD position

    • D. 

      Someone promoted to SMSgt or Chief, and their unit does not have an authorization for that grade

  • 24. 
    (008) after how many day will major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations to keep essential activities operational?
    • A. 

      The first 30

    • B. 

      The first 60

    • C. 

      The first 90

    • D. 

      The first 120

  • 25. 
    (008) which organization is responsible for determining strategic mission support requirements for the Air reserve Component (ARC) installations?
    • A. 

      Unit

    • B. 

      Squadron

    • C. 

      Base

    • D. 

      Major Command (MAJCOM)