CDC Services General A
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Practice test services general
- 1.
(001) who ensures all personnel have a safe and healthful work environment where recognized standards are eliminated or controlled at acceptable levels?
- A.
Installation Commander
- B.
Force support squadron commander
- C.
Public health official
- D.
Supervisor
Correct Answer
A. Installation CommanderExplanation
The Installation Commander is responsible for ensuring that all personnel have a safe and healthful work environment where recognized standards are eliminated or controlled at acceptable levels. As the highest-ranking official at the installation, the commander has the authority to implement and enforce safety and health regulations, policies, and procedures. They are responsible for conducting regular inspections, identifying hazards, and taking appropriate measures to eliminate or mitigate them. The Installation Commander plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe and healthy workplace for all personnel.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(001) Who provides safe and healthful workplaces, and conducts periodic self-inspections for hazards or deficiencies?
- A.
Commanders, resource management flight chief, and supervisors
- B.
Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors
- C.
Commanders, public health, and supervisors
- D.
Commanders and supervisors only
Correct Answer
B. Commanders, functional managers, and supervisorsExplanation
Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors are responsible for providing safe and healthful workplaces and conducting periodic self-inspections for hazards or deficiencies. This means that they have the authority and duty to ensure that the workplace is free from hazards and that employees are working in a safe environment. They are also responsible for regularly inspecting the workplace to identify any potential hazards or deficiencies and taking appropriate actions to address them. This includes implementing safety measures, providing training to employees, and enforcing safety policies and procedures.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(001) Who should promptly report safety, fire, and health hazards and deficiencies?
- A.
Supervisor
- B.
Force support squadron commander
- C.
Installation commander
- D.
All air force personnel
Correct Answer
D. All air force personnelExplanation
All Air Force personnel should promptly report safety, fire, and health hazards and deficiencies. This includes everyone within the Air Force, regardless of their rank or position. By involving all personnel in reporting hazards and deficiencies, the Air Force ensures that a comprehensive and proactive approach to safety is maintained throughout the organization. This helps to prevent accidents, maintain a healthy and safe working environment, and ultimately protect the well-being of all individuals within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(002) What enables air force personnel to meet their Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program responsibilities?
- A.
Commanders
- B.
Supervisors
- C.
Training
- D.
Instructions
Correct Answer
C. TrainingExplanation
Air force personnel are able to meet their Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program responsibilities through training. Training equips them with the necessary knowledge and skills to understand and implement safety protocols and procedures. It ensures that they are aware of potential hazards and know how to mitigate risks in their work environment. Through training, air force personnel are able to fulfill their responsibilities in promoting a safe and healthy workplace for themselves and their colleagues.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(002) detecting unsafe or unhealthful working conditions at the earliest possible time and abating hazards at the lowest possible working level are essential elements of what program?
- A.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Air Force Occupational Safety and Health
- B.
Osha and Afosh only when on military base
- C.
AFOSH
- D.
OSHA
Correct Answer
C. AFOSHExplanation
The correct answer is AFOSH (Air Force Occupational Safety and Health). This program focuses on detecting unsafe or unhealthful working conditions as early as possible and taking action to eliminate hazards at the lowest possible working level. OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) is a separate organization that sets and enforces workplace safety standards for all industries in the United States. While OSHA may also be involved in ensuring safe working conditions, AFOSH specifically applies to the Air Force and its unique occupational safety and health requirements.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(003) How is the decision to train specific task and knowledge items in an initial skills course made?
- A.
Subject matter experts inputs only
- B.
A review of the occupational survey report (OSR) data only
- C.
By the career field manager based on his or her expieriences
- D.
A review of the OSR data and subject matter experts inputs
Correct Answer
B. A review of the occupational survey report (OSR) data onlyExplanation
The decision to train specific task and knowledge items in an initial skills course is made by reviewing the occupational survey report (OSR) data only. This means that the decision is based solely on the information gathered from the OSR, which provides insights into the tasks and knowledge required for a particular job. The OSR data is considered to be a reliable and comprehensive source of information, making it the primary factor in determining the content of the training course.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(003) Training for the services journeyman (5) level primarily consists of
- A.
Fitness specialist course
- B.
On-the-job training (OJT)
- C.
Shift leader mobile training
- D.
Journeyman Leadership course
Correct Answer
B. On-the-job training (OJT)Explanation
The correct answer is on-the-job training (OJT). Training for the services journeyman (5) level primarily consists of on-the-job training. This means that individuals in this position will learn and develop their skills while actually performing their job duties. OJT allows them to gain practical experience and knowledge in a real-world work environment. This type of training is often considered effective as it provides hands-on learning opportunities and allows individuals to apply what they have learned in a practical setting.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(003) how many months do individuals in journeyman (5-skill) upgrade training (UGT) have to complete their entire career development course (CDC)?
- A.
12
- B.
16
- C.
18
- D.
24
Correct Answer
A. 12Explanation
Individuals in journeyman (5-skill) upgrade training (UGT) have to complete their entire career development course (CDC) in 12 months. This means that they need to finish all the required training and coursework within this timeframe to advance in their career.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(004) the career field education and training plan (CFETP) provides all of the following except
- A.
Comprehensive education and training document that identifies life cycle education/training requirments
- B.
Clear career path to success and instills rigor in all aspects of career field training
- C.
Clear path to instill a sense of industry in career field training
- D.
Clear and comprehensive document that identifies all job objectives and skills needed to complete the job
Correct Answer
D. Clear and comprehensive document that identifies all job objectives and skills needed to complete the jobExplanation
The career field education and training plan (CFETP) provides a comprehensive education and training document that identifies life cycle education/training requirements. It also provides a clear career path to success and instills rigor in all aspects of career field training. Additionally, it offers a clear path to instill a sense of industry in career field training. However, it does not provide a clear and comprehensive document that identifies all job objectives and skills needed to complete the job.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(004) the career field education and training plan (CFETP) is made up of how many parts?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
The career field education and training plan (CFETP) is made up of two parts. This suggests that the CFETP consists of two distinct components or sections.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(004) the specialty training standards (STS) serves as a contract between what major command (MAJCOM) and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an air force specialty code (AFSC) are taight in formal schools and correspondence courses?
- A.
Air Combat Command (ACC)
- B.
Air Mobility Command (AMC)
- C.
Air Force Material Command (AFMC
- D.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
Correct Answer
D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)Explanation
The correct answer is Air Education and Training Command (AETC) because the Specialty Training Standards (STS) serve as a contract between AETC and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses. AETC is responsible for providing education and training to all Air Force personnel, making it the appropriate command to establish and maintain the STS.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(004) what is not designed to let trainees train themselves?
- A.
Career field education and training plan (CFET)
- B.
Services training aids (STA)
- C.
Career field standard (CFS)
- D.
Specialty training standard (STS)
Correct Answer
B. Services training aids (STA)Explanation
The Services training aids (STA) are not designed to let trainees train themselves. While career field education and training plans (CFET), career field standards (CFS), and specialty training standards (STS) are all designed to provide guidance and resources for trainees to learn and develop their skills, the STA is specifically created to support instructors in delivering training to the trainees. It provides visual aids, instructional materials, and other resources that instructors can use during training sessions. Therefore, trainees cannot use the STA to train themselves independently.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(004) how many category lists do you prepare when prioritizing work?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
B. 3Explanation
When prioritizing work, it is important to have a clear categorization system in place. This helps in efficiently organizing tasks and ensures that important tasks are not overlooked. By preparing three category lists, it allows for a balanced approach to prioritization. It provides enough flexibility to categorize tasks into high priority, medium priority, and low priority, allowing for better time management and focus on important tasks.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(004) Which is not a factor that affects objective assessment?
- A.
Odd ball effect
- B.
I-did-it-better effect
- C.
Leveling effect
- D.
It wasn't me effect
Correct Answer
D. It wasn't me effectExplanation
The "It wasn't me effect" is not a factor that affects objective assessment. This effect refers to the tendency of individuals to deny responsibility or accountability for their actions or performance, which can influence subjective judgments but does not directly impact objective assessment. Objective assessment is based on unbiased and measurable criteria, focusing on facts and evidence rather than personal biases or excuses.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(005) people in what ranks are eligible to fill various special experience identifier (SEI)-coded positions?
- A.
Airman First Class (A1C)- technical sergeant (TSgt)
- B.
A1C- master sergeant (MSgt)
- C.
Senior Airman (SrA)-MSgt
- D.
SrA- senior master sergeant (SMSgt)
Correct Answer
C. Senior Airman (SrA)-MSgt -
- 16.
(005) the 2 track rotation program is mandatory for people with ranks of airman basic (AB) to
- A.
Senior airman (SrA)
- B.
Staff sergeant (SSgt)
- C.
Technical sergeant (TSgt)
- D.
Master sergeant (MSgt)
Correct Answer
B. Staff sergeant (SSgt)Explanation
The 2 track rotation program is mandatory for individuals with ranks ranging from airman basic (AB) to staff sergeant (SSgt). This program is not applicable for higher ranks such as technical sergeant (TSgt) and master sergeant (MSgt).Rate this question:
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- 17.
(005) a person is automatically entered into Track 2 when he or she rotates into what core function?
- A.
Food
- B.
Fitness
- C.
Lodging
- D.
Readiness
Correct Answer
A. FoodExplanation
When a person rotates into the core function of Food, they are automatically entered into Track 2. This suggests that Track 2 is specifically related to the management and operations of food-related activities. It could involve tasks such as planning and organizing meals, ensuring food safety and quality, managing inventory and supplies, and coordinating with kitchen staff.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(006) when developing a master task listing (MTL), who determines which tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) apply to their specific mission?
- A.
Individual
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Flight chief
- D.
Activity Manager
Correct Answer
B. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor determines which tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) apply to their specific mission when developing a master task listing (MTL). The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work of their team and ensuring that they are properly trained and equipped to perform their tasks. They have a good understanding of the mission requirements and can identify which tasks from the STS are relevant to their specific mission. Therefore, they play a key role in determining the tasks that should be included in the MTL.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(006) which is NOT an advantage of developing a master training plan (MTP)?
- A.
Listing all task requirements in one place
- B.
The task requirements have to be memerized
- C.
Promotes program continuity by allowing everyone to know what the requirements are
- D.
The master task listing (MTL) can be broken down to show what tasks and skill level are required fr specific duty positions
Correct Answer
B. The task requirements have to be memerizedExplanation
Developing a master training plan (MTP) has several advantages, including listing all task requirements in one place, promoting program continuity by allowing everyone to know what the requirements are, and breaking down the master task listing (MTL) to show tasks and skill levels required for specific duty positions. However, the statement that the task requirements have to be memorized is not an advantage of developing an MTP. This implies that individuals would need to rely on their memory rather than having a centralized document to refer to, which can lead to inconsistencies and errors in training.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(007) what are the two types of manpower requiements?
- A.
Military and civilian
- B.
Funded and unfunded
- C.
Department of Defense (DOD) and contractor
- D.
Appropriated fund (APF) and non appropriated fund (NAF)
Correct Answer
B. Funded and unfundedExplanation
The correct answer is "Funded and unfunded." This refers to the two types of manpower requirements based on the availability of financial resources. Funded manpower requirements are those that have allocated funds or budget to support them, while unfunded manpower requirements do not have dedicated funds and may require alternative solutions or reallocation of resources.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(007) what shows the number of people and the rank structure required for each work center to complete their mission?
- A.
Alpha roster
- B.
Manpower authorization
- C.
Unit manpower document (UMD)
- D.
Unit personnel management roster (UPRM)
Correct Answer
C. Unit manpower document (UMD)Explanation
The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) shows the number of people and the rank structure required for each work center to complete their mission. It provides a comprehensive overview of the manpower needs of the unit, including the specific roles and responsibilities of each position. The UMD helps in determining the appropriate staffing levels and ensures that the unit has the necessary personnel to carry out its tasks effectively. It is a crucial tool for manpower planning and management within the unit.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(007) what do positions termed military essential on our unit manpower document (UMD) indicate?
- A.
Must be filled by military members
- B.
Can be filled by in service civilians
- C.
Required by the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
- D.
A position that is vital to the success of the department of defense (DOD)
Correct Answer
A. Must be filled by military membersExplanation
Positions termed military essential on the unit manpower document (UMD) indicate that they must be filled by military members. This means that these positions cannot be filled by in-service civilians or individuals who are not part of the military. These positions are crucial for the functioning and success of the military unit and require the specific skills, training, and expertise that military members possess.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(007) what does "double billeted" refer to?
- A.
A unit manpower document (UMD) that will cause a permanent change of station (PCS) move
- B.
A condition that usually causes a shortage
- C.
Two people assigned to the same UMD position
- D.
Someone promoted to SMSgt or Chief, and their unit does not have an authorization for that grade
Correct Answer
C. Two people assigned to the same UMD positionExplanation
"Double billeted" refers to the situation where two people are assigned to the same unit manpower document (UMD) position. This means that there are two individuals assigned to perform the duties and responsibilities of a single position within the organization. This can occur due to various reasons such as a temporary shortage of manpower or the need for additional support in a particular role. It is important to manage double billeting effectively to ensure proper coordination and distribution of workload within the unit.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(008) after how many day will major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations to keep essential activities operational?
- A.
The first 30
- B.
The first 60
- C.
The first 90
- D.
The first 120
Correct Answer
A. The first 30Explanation
After 30 days, major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases will be prepared to expand their operations to keep essential activities operational. This suggests that the necessary preparations and planning will be completed within this time frame, allowing for the expansion of operations to ensure the continuity of essential activities.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(008) which organization is responsible for determining strategic mission support requirements for the Air reserve Component (ARC) installations?
- A.
Unit
- B.
Squadron
- C.
Base
- D.
Major Command (MAJCOM)
Correct Answer
D. Major Command (MAJCOM)Explanation
The Major Command (MAJCOM) is responsible for determining strategic mission support requirements for the Air Reserve Component (ARC) installations. MAJCOMs are the highest level of command in the Air Force and are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping their assigned forces. They provide guidance and direction to the ARC installations to ensure they have the necessary resources and support to fulfill their mission requirements. The MAJCOMs have the authority to allocate resources and make decisions that directly impact the ARC installations.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(008) which agency, other than the field operating agency (FOA) determines the total wartime manpower resources needed to support wartime requirements?
- A.
Installation command section
- B.
Air reserve component (ARC)
- C.
Major command (MAJCOM)
- D.
Unit command section
Correct Answer
C. Major command (MAJCOM)Explanation
The Major Command (MAJCOM) is responsible for determining the total wartime manpower resources needed to support wartime requirements. MAJCOMs are the highest level of command within the United States Air Force and are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping forces for combat. They have the authority to allocate resources and personnel to support operational needs during wartime. The Installation command section, Air reserve component (ARC), and unit command section do not have the authority or responsibility to determine total wartime manpower resources.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(009) who determines fair or reasonable pricing for an entertainment contract?
- A.
Non appropriated funds (NAF) accounting officer (AO)
- B.
Contracting officer
- C.
Force support squadron commander
- D.
Installation commander
Correct Answer
B. Contracting officerExplanation
The contracting officer determines fair or reasonable pricing for an entertainment contract. They are responsible for negotiating and finalizing contracts on behalf of the government or organization. They ensure that the terms and conditions of the contract are fair and reasonable, including the pricing. They may conduct market research, analyze cost data, and negotiate with the vendor to determine the appropriate pricing for the entertainment contract.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(009) what kind of contract is awarded to an individual for his or her unique skill, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for a non appropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)?
- A.
Group
- B.
Individual
- C.
Performance
- D.
Entertainment
Correct Answer
B. IndividualExplanation
An individual contract is awarded to a person who possesses unique skills, experience, or knowledge to perform a service for a non appropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI). This type of contract is specifically tailored to the individual's abilities and is awarded based on their expertise in a particular field.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(009) Who is authorized to terminate orders or contacts?
- A.
Non appropriated fund (NAF) accounting offer (AO)
- B.
Installation commander
- C.
Force support squadron commander
- D.
Contacting officer
Correct Answer
D. Contacting officerExplanation
The contacting officer is authorized to terminate orders or contracts. This individual is responsible for managing and overseeing the execution of contracts and agreements. They have the authority to make decisions regarding the termination of these contracts if necessary. This includes terminating orders or contracts that are no longer needed or are in violation of the terms and conditions agreed upon. The contacting officer plays a crucial role in ensuring that contracts are properly managed and executed, and they have the authority to terminate them when appropriate.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(010) Who approve a non appropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA)?
- A.
NAF accounting officer (AO)
- B.
Installation commander
- C.
Force support squadron commander
- D.
Contacting officer
Correct Answer
B. Installation commanderExplanation
The installation commander approves a non appropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA). This is because the installation commander is responsible for overseeing and managing all aspects of the installation, including any agreements or contracts made with NAFIs. They have the authority to review and approve MOAs to ensure they align with the installation's goals and objectives. The NAF accounting officer, force support squadron commander, and contacting officer may be involved in the process, but the final approval lies with the installation commander.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(010) Strategic sourcing (SS) memorandums of agreement (MAO) allow continued in-house operation of activities despite the
- A.
Loss in appropriated funds (APF) manpower
- B.
Loss in non-appropriated funds (NAF) manpower
- C.
Increase in APF manpower costs
- D.
Increase in NAF manpower costs
Correct Answer
A. Loss in appropriated funds (APF) manpower -
- 32.
(010) What is the primary purpose of a temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA)?
- A.
Sustainment
- B.
Dollar savings
- C.
Increase services
- D.
Increase hours of operation
Correct Answer
A. SustainmentExplanation
A temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA) is primarily used to ensure the sustainment of a project or initiative. It serves as a written agreement between parties involved, outlining the terms and conditions for a temporary collaboration or partnership. By establishing a T-MOA, the parties involved can ensure the continuation and support of the project, ensuring its long-term success. This agreement helps in coordinating efforts, allocating resources, and maintaining the necessary support to sustain the project's objectives.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(011) Which organization allocates appropriated money?
- A.
Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES)
- B.
Non-appropriated funds instrumentalities (NAFI) office
- C.
Commissary
- D.
Congress
Correct Answer
D. CongressExplanation
Congress is responsible for allocating appropriated money. As part of the United States government, Congress has the power to make decisions regarding the distribution of funds for various purposes. This includes determining how much money should be allocated to different government agencies, programs, and initiatives. Congress plays a crucial role in the budgetary process and has the authority to approve or reject appropriations bills. Therefore, Congress is the organization that has the authority to allocate appropriated money.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(011) Operations and maintenance (O&M) funds are used to
- A.
Renovate facilities
- B.
Conduct day-to-day operations
- C.
Purchase equipment costing $50,000 or more
- D.
Perform only essential operations as determined by Services personnel
Correct Answer
B. Conduct day-to-day operationsExplanation
Operations and maintenance (O&M) funds are used to conduct day-to-day operations. This means that these funds are allocated for the regular functioning and upkeep of facilities, equipment, and services. O&M funds cover expenses such as utilities, repairs, maintenance, and other operational costs that are necessary for the smooth running of an organization or facility. These funds are not specifically meant for renovating facilities, purchasing expensive equipment, or performing only essential operations as determined by Services personnel.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(011) At what organizational level are procurement funds controlled?
- A.
Flight
- B.
Squadron
- C.
Base
- D.
Major Command (MAJCOM)
Correct Answer
D. Major Command (MAJCOM)Explanation
Procurement funds are controlled at the Major Command (MAJCOM) level. This means that the authority and responsibility for managing and allocating procurement funds lies with the MAJCOM, which is a higher-level organizational unit within the military. The MAJCOM oversees multiple squadrons, bases, and flights, and has the power to allocate funds for procurement activities across these units. This ensures centralized control and coordination of procurement funds to optimize resource allocation and meet the organization's procurement needs.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(011) By when must fallout funds be spent?
- A.
End of the fiscal year
- B.
End of the calender year
- C.
January 31 or current fiscal year
- D.
January 31 of current calender year
Correct Answer
A. End of the fiscal yearExplanation
Fallout funds must be spent by the end of the fiscal year. This means that any unused funds from a particular fiscal year cannot be carried over to the next fiscal year and must be utilized before the fiscal year ends.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(012) What is the first step in the budgeting process?
- A.
Verifying funds available on hand
- B.
Identify and understand the unit's mission
- C.
Establish and write down the activity's goal
- D.
Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established
Correct Answer
B. Identify and understand the unit's missionExplanation
The first step in the budgeting process is to identify and understand the unit's mission. This is important because the unit's mission will guide the goals and objectives that need to be achieved through the budget. By understanding the mission, it becomes easier to prioritize and allocate resources effectively. Verifying funds available on hand, establishing and writing down the activity's goal, and establishing the requirements come after the identification and understanding of the unit's mission in the budgeting process.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(012) What is the second step in the budgeting process?
- A.
Verify funds available on hand
- B.
Identify and understand the unit's mission
- C.
Establish and write down the activity's goal
- D.
Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established
Correct Answer
C. Establish and write down the activity's goalExplanation
The second step in the budgeting process is to establish and write down the activity's goal. This step is important because it helps to clarify the purpose and objectives of the budget. By clearly defining the goals, it becomes easier to allocate resources and make decisions on how to prioritize spending. Additionally, writing down the goals provides a reference point for evaluating the success of the budget and making adjustments as necessary.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(012) What is the third step in the budgeting process
- A.
Verify funds available on hand
- B.
Identify and understand the unit's mission
- C.
Establish and write down the activity's goal
- D.
Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established
Correct Answer
D. Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have establishedExplanation
The third step in the budgeting process is to establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established. This step involves determining the resources, such as personnel, equipment, and materials, that will be necessary to achieve the desired outcomes. By identifying these requirements, you can effectively allocate funds and ensure that the necessary resources are available to support the goals of the budget.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(012) there are how many levels of budgeting responsibilities?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
There are three levels of budgeting responsibilities. This means that there are three different levels at which individuals or departments are responsible for creating and managing budgets. Each level may have different responsibilities and decision-making authority when it comes to budgeting.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(012) Which budget do we use to obtain authorized appropriated fund (APF) to support the Force Support squadron requirements ?
- A.
Appropriated funds (APF)
- B.
Cash flow
- C.
Non-appropriated funds (NAF) income and expense
- D.
APF and NAF funds
Correct Answer
A. Appropriated funds (APF)Explanation
We use appropriated funds (APF) to obtain authorized funding for the Force Support squadron requirements. APF refers to funds that are specifically allocated by the government for a particular purpose, such as supporting military operations and activities. These funds are obtained through the formal budgeting process and are subject to strict regulations and oversight. Using APF ensures that the Force Support squadron has the necessary financial resources to fulfill its responsibilities and meet its operational needs.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(012) The non-appropriated fund (NAF) income and expense budget is also known as
- A.
Appropriated funds (APF)
- B.
APF and NAF
- C.
Cash flow
- D.
Operating
Correct Answer
D. OperatingExplanation
The non-appropriated fund (NAF) income and expense budget is also known as the operating budget. This budget specifically focuses on the income and expenses related to NAF activities, such as recreational programs, clubs, and other services provided to military personnel and their families. It helps to track and plan for the revenue and expenses associated with these activities, ensuring that they are effectively managed and financially sustainable.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(013) At base level, who is the single custodian for all non appropriated fund (NAF) assets, unless another individual is appointed as directed by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34-201?
- A.
Supervisor
- B.
Flight chief
- C.
Resource management flight chief (RMFC)
- D.
Force support squadron commander
Correct Answer
C. Resource management flight chief (RMFC)Explanation
The correct answer is Resource management flight chief (RMFC). At base level, the RMFC is the single custodian for all non appropriated fund (NAF) assets, unless another individual is appointed as directed by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34-201. This means that the RMFC is responsible for the management and oversight of NAF assets, ensuring their proper use and accounting. The supervisor, flight chief, and force support squadron commander may have other responsibilities, but they are not specifically designated as custodians for NAF assets at the base level.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(013) who identifies the assessable units within their command (normally squadrons) and appoints an installation focal point to administer the internal management controls (IMC) programs?
- A.
MAJCOM commanders
- B.
Group commander
- C.
Squadron commander
- D.
Combat support flight chief
Correct Answer
A. MAJCOM commandersExplanation
MAJCOM commanders are responsible for identifying the assessable units within their command, usually squadrons, and appointing an installation focal point to administer the internal management controls (IMC) programs. This means that the MAJCOM commanders have the authority to determine which units will be assessed and ensure that there is a designated person responsible for managing the IMC programs at the installation level.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(013) for losses up to and including $50, who conducts and informal review and files the documentation in the activity?
- A.
Resource management flight chief (RMFC)
- B.
Combat support flight chief
- C.
Activity manager
- D.
Supervisor
Correct Answer
C. Activity managerExplanation
The activity manager conducts an informal review and files the documentation for losses up to and including $50. This implies that the activity manager is responsible for reviewing and documenting any losses within this specific monetary range.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(013) for losses over $50 up to and including $250, the activity manager conducts a review and provides a brief written explanation to the
- A.
Resource management flight chief (RMFC)
- B.
Combat support flight chief
- C.
Force support squadron commander
- D.
Installation commander
Correct Answer
A. Resource management flight chief (RMFC)Explanation
When losses occur within the range of $50 to $250, the activity manager conducts a review and provides a brief written explanation to the Resource Management Flight Chief (RMFC). This suggests that the RMFC is responsible for overseeing and managing the resources within the organization, including addressing any losses or discrepancies that fall within this specific monetary range. The RMFC is likely the appropriate authority to receive this explanation as they are directly involved in resource management and can take appropriate action based on the review conducted by the activity manager.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(013) for losses over $250 up to and including 1000, and for losses of $250 or less which appear to involve negligence or willful misconduct, who appoints and individual to conduct an inquiry?
- A.
Resource management flight chief (RMFC)
- B.
Combat support flight chief
- C.
Force support squadron commander
- D.
Installation commander
Correct Answer
C. Force support squadron commanderExplanation
The force support squadron commander is responsible for appointing an individual to conduct an inquiry for losses over $250 up to and including 1000, as well as for losses of $250 or less which appear to involve negligence or willful misconduct. This individual will be tasked with investigating the circumstances surrounding the losses and determining any necessary actions or disciplinary measures.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(014) how often do activity managers make deposits to the central cashier or financial institution to keep cash on hand to a minimum?
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Quarterly
Correct Answer
A. DailyExplanation
Activity managers make daily deposits to the central cashier or financial institution to keep cash on hand to a minimum. This frequent deposit practice ensures that the cash is not left idle and reduces the risk of theft or loss. It also allows the organization to have accurate and up-to-date financial records and helps in efficient cash flow management.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(014) who may use imprest funds for designated purpose with special controls and limitations
- A.
Activity managers
- B.
Supervisors
- C.
Flight chiefs
- D.
Commanders
Correct Answer
A. Activity managersExplanation
Imprest funds are small amounts of cash that are provided to individuals within an organization for specific purposes. These funds are subject to special controls and limitations to ensure their proper use. Activity managers, as the individuals responsible for overseeing specific activities within an organization, are the most likely to use imprest funds for designated purposes. They have the knowledge and authority to allocate and manage these funds effectively, ensuring that they are used in accordance with the organization's guidelines and objectives. Supervisors, flight chiefs, and commanders may also have some involvement in the use of imprest funds, but activity managers are specifically mentioned as the primary users.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(014) the resource management flight chief (RMFC) uses what Air Force form to maintain change and imprest fund cash accountability at all times?
- A.
1875
- B.
1876
- C.
2556
- D.
2557
Correct Answer
D. 2557Explanation
The resource management flight chief (RMFC) uses Air Force form 2557 to maintain change and imprest fund cash accountability at all times.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 04, 2013Quiz Created by
Misspriss82193
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