2A552 Test 2 Aircraft

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 433
Questions: 408 | Attempts: 236

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2A552 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. (001) What are the Air Force core values?

    • A.

      Integrity, service before self, and quality

    • B.

      Integrity, service before self, and excellence

    • C.

      Honesty, service before self, and professionalism

    • D.

      Integrity, service to customer, and excellence

    Correct Answer
    B. Integrity, service before self, and excellence
    Explanation
    The Air Force core values are integrity, service before self, and excellence. These values represent the guiding principles and moral compass for members of the Air Force. Integrity refers to being honest, ethical, and doing the right thing even when no one is watching. Service before self emphasizes the importance of putting the needs of others and the mission before personal interests. Excellence means striving for the highest standards of performance and constantly seeking improvement in all aspects of one's duties. These core values help shape the culture and behavior of Air Force personnel.

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  • 2. 

    (001) Careerism and self-interest can do the most damage when displayed by the

    • A.

      Worker

    • B.

      Leader.

    • C.

      Student

    • D.

      Trainer.

    Correct Answer
    B. Leader.
    Explanation
    Careerism and self-interest can do the most damage when displayed by the leader. This is because leaders have a significant influence on the direction and culture of an organization or group. When leaders prioritize their own personal gain and advancement over the well-being and success of their team, it can lead to a toxic work environment, lack of trust, and poor decision-making. A leader's actions and behaviors set the tone for the entire organization, so it is crucial for them to prioritize the collective goals and interests of the team rather than their own individual success.

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  • 3. 

    (002) When people are taught the right way to do something, they’re also being taught the

    • A.

      Quickest way.

    • B.

      Only way.

    • C.

      Safe way.

    • D.

      Short cuts to take.

    Correct Answer
    C. Safe way.
    Explanation
    When people are taught the right way to do something, they are also being taught the safe way. This implies that the correct method of doing something is not only efficient and effective, but also ensures the safety of individuals involved. Teaching the safe way emphasizes the importance of following proper procedures and guidelines to minimize risks and potential harm. It promotes a culture of safety and encourages individuals to prioritize their well-being while performing tasks or activities.

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  • 4. 

    As part of the training.

    • A.

      As part of the training.

    • B.

      As the same as the training.

    • C.

      As a separate item from the training.

    • D.

      Do not treat it as part of the training.

    Correct Answer
    C. As a separate item from the training.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "As a separate item from the training." This means that the item should not be considered or included as part of the training. It should be treated separately and not be seen as an integral component of the training process.

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  • 5. 

    (002) If you see people who outrank you walking around with tools in their pockets or using equipment improperly, you should

    • A.

      Write them a letter of counseling.

    • B.

      Give them refresher training.

    • C.

      Do nothing, they out rank you.

    • D.

      Alert them to the potential hazards.

    Correct Answer
    D. Alert them to the potential hazards.
    Explanation
    If you see people who outrank you walking around with tools in their pockets or using equipment improperly, it is important to alert them to the potential hazards. This is because their actions could lead to accidents or injuries, and it is your responsibility to ensure a safe working environment. Writing them a letter of counseling may not be effective in immediately addressing the issue, and doing nothing just because they outrank you is not the correct approach. Providing refresher training could be helpful, but alerting them to the potential hazards in the moment is the most immediate and appropriate action to take.

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  • 6. 

    A major cause of accidents is

    • A.

      Haste.

    • B.

      Laziness

    • C.

      Horseplay

    • D.

      Inexperience.

    Correct Answer
    C. Horseplay
    Explanation
    Horseplay refers to rough or playful behavior that can lead to accidents. Engaging in horseplay can distract individuals from their surroundings and cause them to lose focus on their tasks, increasing the likelihood of accidents. This behavior often involves physical contact or reckless actions that can result in injury or damage to property. Therefore, horseplay can be considered a major cause of accidents.

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  • 7. 

    (003) Which item may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical systems?

    • A.

      Rings

    • B.

      Dog tags.

    • C.

      Wristwatches.

    • D.

      Plastic rim glasses.

    Correct Answer
    D. Plastic rim glasses.
    Explanation
    Plastic rim glasses may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical systems because they provide protection to the eyes from potential hazards such as sparks, debris, or chemicals. Unlike rings, dog tags, or wristwatches, plastic rim glasses do not conduct electricity and therefore do not pose a risk of electrical shock.

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  • 8. 

    (003) If the load is too heavy or bulky for two people to carry safely, what should you do?

    • A.

      Attempt to lift it anyway.

    • B.

      Use a hand truck or forklift.

    • C.

      Get as many people as you can to help.

    • D.

      Slide the load across the floor, instead of lifting it.

    Correct Answer
    B. Use a hand truck or forklift.
    Explanation
    If the load is too heavy or bulky for two people to carry safely, the best option is to use a hand truck or forklift. These equipment are designed to handle heavy loads and make it easier to transport them without risking injury. Attempting to lift it anyway can result in accidents and injuries. Getting as many people as you can to help may be an option, but it may still not be enough to ensure safe transport. Sliding the load across the floor can also be dangerous and may cause damage to the load or the floor. Therefore, using a hand truck or forklift is the most appropriate and safe solution.

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  • 9. 

    (004) Which symptom is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation?

    • A.

      Dizziness.

    • B.

      Headaches

    • C.

      Emotional irritability.

    • D.

      Muscular incoordination.

    Correct Answer
    C. Emotional irritability.
    Explanation
    Emotional irritability is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation. Fuel vapor inhalation can cause symptoms such as dizziness, headaches, and muscular incoordination. However, emotional irritability is not typically associated with fuel vapor inhalation.

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  • 10. 

    (004) When using compressed air for cleaning, use a diffuser nozzle and make sure the pressure does not exceed how many pounds per square inch (psi)?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    When using compressed air for cleaning, it is important to use a diffuser nozzle to distribute the air evenly and reduce the risk of injury. Additionally, it is crucial to ensure that the pressure does not exceed 30 pounds per square inch (psi). This is because higher pressures can cause harm to the surfaces being cleaned or potentially injure the person operating the equipment. Therefore, maintaining a pressure of 30 psi or below is recommended to ensure safe and effective cleaning.

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  • 11. 

    (004) You use compressed air to clean clothing when

    • A.

      The air pressure is regulated and a diffuser nozzle is used.

    • B.

      The air pressure is regulated to 45 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • C.

      Using air regulated to 30 psi.

    • D.

      It is not on the body.

    Correct Answer
    D. It is not on the body.
    Explanation
    When using compressed air to clean clothing, it is important to ensure that the air is not directed towards the body. This is because compressed air can cause serious injuries if it comes into contact with the skin, eyes, or other sensitive areas. Therefore, the correct answer is that it is not on the body, indicating that the compressed air should be used away from the person's body to prevent any harm.

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  • 12. 

    (004) What are the grounding procedures for hand-operated hydraulic servicing carts during servicing operations?

    • A.

      Do not need to ground.

    • B.

      Ramp to hydraulic servicing cart.

    • C.

      Hydraulic servicing cart to ramp.

    • D.

      Hydraulic servicing cart to ramp, then cart to aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not need to ground.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Do not need to ground." This means that there is no need to ground the hand-operated hydraulic servicing carts during servicing operations.

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  • 13. 

    (005) During engine runup, all unnecessary personnel and equipment will be kept clear at least what distance from the rotary wing aircraft?

    • A.

      75 feet.

    • B.

      150 feet.

    • C.

      A distance equal to its length.

    • D.

      A distance equal to its rotor disk.

    Correct Answer
    C. A distance equal to its length.
    Explanation
    During engine runup, it is important to keep all unnecessary personnel and equipment clear of the rotary wing aircraft. The correct answer states that the distance should be equal to the length of the aircraft. This is because during engine runup, there may be debris, exhaust gases, or other hazards that can pose a danger to personnel and equipment. Keeping a distance equal to the length of the aircraft ensures that everyone and everything is at a safe distance from potential hazards.

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  • 14. 

    (005) Exercise caution when approaching the plane of rotation of the main rotor blades, especially during engine runup and shut down, because the rotor blades tend to

    • A.

      Flap at increased speeds.

    • B.

      Flap at decreased speeds.

    • C.

      Droop at increased speeds.

    • D.

      Droop at decreased speeds.

    Correct Answer
    D. Droop at decreased speeds.
    Explanation
    When approaching the plane of rotation of the main rotor blades, it is important to exercise caution during engine runup and shut down because the rotor blades tend to droop at decreased speeds. This means that as the speed of the rotor blades decreases, they may sag or hang down lower than usual. This can pose a safety risk if not taken into account, as it could lead to contact with the ground or other objects. Therefore, it is important to be aware of this tendency and take appropriate precautions when approaching the rotor blades.

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  • 15. 

    (005) Radiation hazards vary based on the

    • A.

      Input power and amount of training.

    • B.

      Strength of emission and input power.

    • C.

      Time of exposure and amount of training.

    • D.

      Strength of emission and time of exposure.

    Correct Answer
    D. Strength of emission and time of exposure.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "strength of emission and time of exposure." This is because radiation hazards can be influenced by both the strength of the emission, which refers to the intensity or amount of radiation being emitted, and the time of exposure, which refers to the duration of time that an individual is exposed to the radiation. These two factors are crucial in determining the potential harm caused by radiation, as higher levels of emission and longer durations of exposure can increase the risk of adverse health effects.

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  • 16. 

    (005) What is normally a safe distance to the front and sides of the intake duct when a jet engine is operating?

    • A.

      5 feet.

    • B.

      15 feet.

    • C.

      25 feet.

    • D.

      50 feet.

    Correct Answer
    C. 25 feet.
    Explanation
    When a jet engine is operating, it generates a significant amount of force and turbulence. This can create a dangerous environment for individuals standing too close to the intake duct. To ensure safety, it is recommended to maintain a distance of 25 feet from the front and sides of the intake duct. This distance allows for sufficient clearance and minimizes the risk of injury from the engine's exhaust, debris, or sudden movements.

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  • 17. 

    (006) Which object would cause an aircraft to be considered “explosives-loaded”?

    • A.

      Flares.

    • B.

      Survival kit.

    • C.

      Pyrotechnics rescue kit.

    • D.

      Fire-extinguisher cartridges.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flares.
    Explanation
    Flares are considered "explosives-loaded" because they contain pyrotechnic materials that can be ignited to produce a bright light and smoke. These materials have the potential to cause an explosion if mishandled or ignited inappropriately. Therefore, the presence of flares on an aircraft would classify it as "explosives-loaded."

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  • 18. 

    (006) What precaution must be observed before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar?

    • A.

      Install shorting plugs and clips.

    • B.

      Install mechanical safetying devices.

    • C.

      Remove all ammunition and explosives.

    • D.

      Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF.

    Correct Answer
    C. Remove all ammunition and explosives.
    Explanation
    Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This precaution is essential to ensure the safety of personnel and the hangar itself. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidental ignition or explosion is significantly reduced. It is important to follow proper procedures and protocols to prevent any potential accidents or damage.

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  • 19. 

    (007) The proper positioning of fire extinguishers is determined by

    • A.

      Distance criteria.

    • B.

      Maintenance criteria.

    • C.

      The type of fire extinguisher.

    • D.

      The availability of fire extinguishers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Distance criteria.
    Explanation
    The proper positioning of fire extinguishers is determined by distance criteria. This means that fire extinguishers should be placed at a distance that allows for easy access and quick response in case of a fire emergency. The goal is to ensure that fire extinguishers are conveniently located and within a reasonable distance from potential fire hazards. By considering distance criteria, fire extinguishers can be strategically placed throughout a building to maximize their effectiveness in suppressing fires.

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  • 20. 

    (007) When possible, from where should you fight a fire?

    • A.

      Does not matter.

    • B.

      The upwind side.

    • C.

      With a side wind.

    • D.

      The downwind side.

    Correct Answer
    B. The upwind side.
    Explanation
    When fighting a fire, it is best to position yourself on the upwind side. This means that you should be standing in a location where the wind is blowing from the fire towards you. By doing so, you can avoid inhaling smoke and toxic fumes, which can be harmful to your health. Additionally, being on the upwind side allows you to have better control over the fire and prevents it from spreading in your direction.

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  • 21. 

    (007) A fire occurring in paints, cooking oil, grease, and petroleum products is a class

    • A.

      A.

    • B.

      B.

    • C.

      C.

    • D.

      D.

    Correct Answer
    B. B.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B because a fire occurring in paints, cooking oil, grease, and petroleum products falls under Class B fires. Class B fires involve flammable liquids and gases.

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  • 22. 

    (007) A fire occurring in electrical equipment is a class

    • A.

      A.

    • B.

      B.

    • C.

      C.

    • D.

      D.

    Correct Answer
    C. C.
    Explanation
    A fire occurring in electrical equipment is a class C fire. Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment, such as appliances, wiring, circuit breakers, and outlets. These fires are caused by electrical faults or malfunctions and can be extremely dangerous. It is important to use appropriate fire extinguishers or methods specifically designed for class C fires to safely extinguish them.

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  • 23. 

    (007) A fire occurring in combustible metals such as magnesium, potassium, zinc sodium, and etc., is a

    • A.

      A.

    • B.

      B.

    • C.

      C.

    • D.

      D.

    Correct Answer
    D. D.
    Explanation
    A fire occurring in combustible metals such as magnesium, potassium, zinc, sodium, and etc., is a Class D fire. Class D fires involve combustible metals and require specialized extinguishing agents such as dry powder or sand to smother the fire and prevent it from spreading. These fires can be extremely dangerous and should be handled with caution.

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  • 24. 

    (008) Which type of auxiliary publication augments directive-type publications issued by higher headquarters?

    • A.

      Supplement.

    • B.

      Change sheet.

    • C.

      Staff summary sheet.

    • D.

      Operating instruction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supplement.
    Explanation
    A supplement is an auxiliary publication that adds information or updates to a directive-type publication issued by higher headquarters. It provides additional guidance or clarifications to the original publication, ensuring that the information remains current and relevant. Supplements are commonly used to address specific topics or situations that may arise after the initial publication, allowing for flexibility and adaptability in the implementation of directives.

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  • 25. 

    (008) Which visual aid gives examples of international aircraft marshaling signals?

    • A.

      Air Force visual aid (AFVA) 35–2.

    • B.

      AFVA 60–11.

    • C.

      AFVA 70–1.

    • D.

      AFVA 127–101.

    Correct Answer
    B. AFVA 60–11.
    Explanation
    AFVA 60-11 is the correct answer because it specifically provides examples of international aircraft marshaling signals. The other options, AFVA 35-2, AFVA 70-1, and AFVA 127-101, do not mention international aircraft marshaling signals, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 26. 

    (008) Which publication contains official and professional information on matters related to defense policies and programs of interest?

    • A.

      Bulletins.

    • B.

      Pamphlets.

    • C.

      Staff digests.

    • D.

      Supplements.

    Correct Answer
    C. Staff digests.
    Explanation
    Staff digests contain official and professional information on matters related to defense policies and programs of interest. Bulletins, pamphlets, and supplements may also contain information, but staff digests are specifically designed to provide comprehensive and reliable information on defense policies and programs.

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  • 27. 

    (009) Which type of technical order (TO) files normally are established and maintained by Air Force bases and activities?

    • A.

      Distribution.

    • B.

      Expanded.

    • C.

      Limited.

    • D.

      Shop.

    Correct Answer
    C. Limited.
    Explanation
    Air Force bases and activities typically establish and maintain Limited technical order (TO) files. Limited TO files contain essential TOs that are required for the proper operation and maintenance of equipment, but they do not include every single TO available. Limited TO files are curated to ensure that only the most critical and frequently used TOs are readily accessible, making it easier for personnel to find the information they need quickly and efficiently.

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  • 28. 

    (009) Technical orders (TO) are filed and updated in accordance with

    • A.

      TO 00–5–1-WA–1, AF Technical Order System.

    • B.

      TO 00–5–18-WA–1, USAF Technical Order Numbering System.

    • C.

      TO 00–20–1-WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies and Procedures.

    • D.

      TO 00–20–2-WA–1, Maintenance Data Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. TO 00–5–1-WA–1, AF Technical Order System.
    Explanation
    Technical orders (TO) are filed and updated in accordance with the AF Technical Order System, which is specified in TO 00–5–1-WA–1. This document outlines the system and procedures for managing technical orders in the Air Force. The other options listed are not directly related to the filing and updating of technical orders.

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  • 29. 

    (009) In a general technical order (TO), which part of the number identifies an individual TO?

    • A.

      First.

    • B.

      Second.

    • C.

      Third.

    • D.

      Fourth.

    Correct Answer
    C. Third.
    Explanation
    In a general technical order (TO), the third part of the number identifies an individual TO. This means that the third part of the number is unique to each TO and helps to distinguish it from other TOs. The first and second parts of the number may indicate other information such as the type or category of the TO, but the third part specifically identifies the individual TO. The fourth part of the number may indicate a revision or amendment to the TO.

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  • 30. 

    (010) Which technical order (TO) establishes functional-check-flight requirements for the HH– 60G helicopter?

    • A.

      TO 1H–1(H)G–01.

    • B.

      TO 1H–1(H)G–17.

    • C.

      TO 1H–1(H)G–2–1.

    • D.

      TO 1H–1(H)G–6.

    Correct Answer
    D. TO 1H–1(H)G–6.
    Explanation
    TO 1H-1(H)G-6 is the correct answer because it is the technical order that establishes functional-check-flight requirements for the HH-60G helicopter. The other options, TO 1H-1(H)G-01, TO 1H-1(H)G-17, and TO 1H-1(H)G-2-1, do not pertain to the functional-check-flight requirements for this specific helicopter model.

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  • 31. 

    (011) Which technical order (TO) gives instructions for time compliance technical orders (TCTO)?

    • A.

      TO 00–1–2, Technical Order System.

    • B.

      TO 00–5–15-WA–1, Air Force Time Compliance Technical Order System.

    • C.

      TO 00–20–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures.

    • D.

      TO 00–20–5-WA–1, Technical System.

    Correct Answer
    B. TO 00–5–15-WA–1, Air Force Time Compliance Technical Order System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 00–5–15-WA–1, Air Force Time Compliance Technical Order System. This technical order specifically addresses the instructions for time compliance technical orders (TCTOs), which are orders that require specific actions to be taken within a certain timeframe to ensure the safety and operational readiness of equipment. TO 00–1–2 provides a general overview of the technical order system, while TO 00–20–1 and TO 00–20–5-WA–1 pertain to maintenance inspection, documentation, and procedures, but do not specifically focus on TCTOs.

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  • 32. 

    (011) An urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) must be completed within one to

    • A.

      5 days.

    • B.

      10 days.

    • C.

      15 days.

    • D.

      20 days.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 days.
    Explanation
    An urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) is a directive that requires immediate attention and completion. It is designed to address critical issues that could affect safety or operational capability. Given the urgency of the TCTO, it must be completed within a relatively short timeframe. Out of the given options, 10 days is the most reasonable timeframe for completing such urgent actions while allowing sufficient time for necessary inspections, repairs, or modifications.

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  • 33. 

    (011) What time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for a deficiency that constitutes a hazard through prolonged continued usage?

    • A.

      Emergency action.

    • B.

      Immediate action.

    • C.

      Routine action.

    • D.

      Urgent action.

    Correct Answer
    C. Routine action.
    Explanation
    A time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for a deficiency that constitutes a hazard through prolonged continued usage when it requires routine action. This means that the deficiency is not an immediate emergency that requires immediate or urgent action, but rather a situation that needs to be addressed in a timely manner as part of regular maintenance and procedures. Routine action allows for planned and scheduled actions to be taken to address the deficiency and ensure continued safety and compliance.

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  • 34. 

    (011) Which device or publication enables you to accomplish scheduled inspections on aircraft efficiently?

    • A.

      Checklists.

    • B.

      Inspection workcards.

    • C.

      Structural repair manual.

    • D.

      Inspection sequence charts.

    Correct Answer
    B. Inspection workcards.
    Explanation
    Inspection workcards enable efficient scheduled inspections on aircraft. These workcards provide a detailed checklist of tasks and procedures that need to be completed during an inspection. They ensure that all necessary inspections are carried out in a systematic and organized manner, helping to streamline the inspection process and improve efficiency. By following the workcards, inspectors can ensure that all required inspections are completed accurately and on time, minimizing the risk of errors or oversights.

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  • 35. 

    (011) How soon should you submit a technical order (TO) deficiency report if you discover an error in the TO that involves flight safety that would result in serious injury?

    • A.

      Immediately.

    • B.

      Within 30 days.

    • C.

      At the next TO revision.

    • D.

      Within one to five days or before the next flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately.
    Explanation
    If you discover an error in the technical order (TO) that involves flight safety and could result in serious injury, it is important to submit a TO deficiency report immediately. This is because flight safety is a critical concern and any potential risks should be addressed promptly to prevent accidents or injuries. Waiting for 30 days, the next TO revision, or one to five days before the next flight could lead to unnecessary delays and potential harm. Therefore, immediate action is necessary in such cases.

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  • 36. 

    (012) Which level of maintenance performs off-equipment maintenance for the direct support of using organizations?

    • A.

      Phased.

    • B.

      Sectional.

    • C.

      Intermediate.

    • D.

      Organizational.

    Correct Answer
    C. Intermediate.
    Explanation
    Intermediate level of maintenance performs off-equipment maintenance for the direct support of using organizations. This level of maintenance involves repairing and maintaining equipment that cannot be done at the organizational level, but does not require the specialized skills and resources of the higher levels of maintenance. Intermediate maintenance ensures that equipment is in working order and ready for use by the using organizations.

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  • 37. 

    (013) Who uses the Maintenance Information System (MIS) to identify and track Repeat/Recur discrepancy trends, and documents the discrepancies accordingly on Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form/IMT 781A, after an aircraft flight is completed?

    • A.

      Section noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • B.

      Dedicated crew chief.

    • C.

      Maintenance superintendent.

    • D.

      Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief Section.

    Correct Answer
    D. Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief Section.
    Explanation
    The Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief Section uses the Maintenance Information System (MIS) to identify and track Repeat/Recur discrepancy trends. They also document the discrepancies on Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form/IMT 781A after an aircraft flight is completed. This section is responsible for gathering information from both the aircrew and maintenance personnel to ensure that any recurring issues are properly addressed and documented.

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  • 38. 

    (014) What must units develop to insure crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) coverage after duty hours?

    • A.

      CDDAR duty roster.

    • B.

      Emergency recall or mobilization rosters.

    • C.

      On call beeper program.

    • D.

      A permanent CDDAR crew that works during non duty hours.

    Correct Answer
    B. Emergency recall or mobilization rosters.
    Explanation
    To ensure crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) coverage after duty hours, units must develop emergency recall or mobilization rosters. These rosters allow for immediate response and mobilization of personnel in case of an emergency, ensuring that there is a team available to handle CDDAR situations even outside of regular duty hours. This helps to minimize response time and maximize the chances of successful recovery operations.

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  • 39. 

    (014) Who appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief?

    • A.

      Wing Commander (WG/CC).

    • B.

      Production Superintendant (pro super).

    • C.

      Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).

    • D.

      Flight Chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief. This individual is responsible for overseeing the recovery operations of aircraft that have been involved in accidents or are in a disabled state. The MXG/CC, being in charge of the maintenance group, has the authority to select and assign the most suitable person for this crucial role.

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  • 40. 

    (015) During the fix phase of an aircraft inspection, besides performing maintenance found during the look phase, what other maintenance is performed?

    • A.

      Scheduled inspections.

    • B.

      Preplanned maintenance.

    • C.

      Unscheduled maintenance.

    • D.

      Lubrication of the helicopter.

    Correct Answer
    B. Preplanned maintenance.
    Explanation
    During the fix phase of an aircraft inspection, in addition to addressing any maintenance issues identified during the look phase, preplanned maintenance is also performed. This refers to maintenance tasks that are scheduled in advance and are part of the regular maintenance program for the aircraft. These tasks may include routine checks, servicing, and replacement of components or systems as per the manufacturer's recommendations. Preplanned maintenance helps ensure the overall airworthiness and reliability of the aircraft.

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  • 41. 

    (016) Who establishes the requirements for the development of a 3-level, career development course (CDC), and exportable training courses?

    • A.

      The career field.

    • B.

      Wing commanders.

    • C.

      Training development.

    • D.

      Numbered Air Force commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. The career field.
    Explanation
    The career field is responsible for establishing the requirements for the development of a 3-level, career development course (CDC), and exportable training courses. This means that professionals within the specific career field determine the necessary skills, knowledge, and competencies that individuals should possess at the 3-level. They also outline the content and structure of the CDC and other training courses that can be shared and utilized by other organizations or units.

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  • 42. 

    (017) Which individual or activity determines the inspection method used to inspect aircraft?

    • A.

      Branch chief.

    • B.

      Chief of maintenance.

    • C.

      Inspection team chief.

    • D.

      Local or major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Local or major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    The local or major command (MAJCOM) is responsible for determining the inspection method used to inspect aircraft. They have the authority to establish guidelines and procedures for inspections, taking into consideration factors such as the type of aircraft, its maintenance history, and regulatory requirements. The branch chief, chief of maintenance, and inspection team chief may play a role in implementing and carrying out the inspection, but the decision on the inspection method ultimately lies with the MAJCOM.

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  • 43. 

    (017) How many authorized inspection concepts are used by the Air Force?

    • A.

      Two.

    • B.

      Three.

    • C.

      Four.

    • D.

      Five.

    Correct Answer
    D. Five.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Five. This means that the Air Force uses five authorized inspection concepts.

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  • 44. 

    (018) When an H–60 is scheduled to fly after being idle for 48 hours, what type of inspection should you perform?

    • A.

      Pre-flight.

    • B.

      Thru-flight.

    • C.

      Basic post-flight.

    • D.

      Hourly post-flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-flight.
    Explanation
    When an H-60 helicopter is scheduled to fly after being idle for 48 hours, a pre-flight inspection should be performed. This type of inspection is conducted before each flight to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and airworthy condition. It involves a thorough examination of the helicopter's exterior, interior, and systems to identify any potential issues or abnormalities that could affect its performance. By conducting a pre-flight inspection, pilots and maintenance personnel can address any concerns and take necessary actions to ensure the safety of the flight.

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  • 45. 

    (018) When an aircraft lands following the last flight of a flying period, what type of inspection should you perform?

    • A.

      Pre-flight.

    • B.

      Thru-flight.

    • C.

      Basic post-flight.

    • D.

      Hourly post-flight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Basic post-flight.
    Explanation
    After the last flight of a flying period, a basic post-flight inspection should be performed. This type of inspection is conducted to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and airworthy condition after the flight. It involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's exterior, including the fuselage, wings, control surfaces, and landing gear. The inspection also includes checking for any signs of damage, leaks, or abnormalities that may have occurred during the flight. This inspection is crucial to identify any potential issues and address them before the next flight.

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  • 46. 

    (018) What type of inspection is performed when a newly assigned aircraft arrives on station?

    • A.

      Acceptance

    • B.

      Periodic.

    • C.

      Pre-flight.

    • D.

      Special.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acceptance
    Explanation
    When a newly assigned aircraft arrives on station, an acceptance inspection is performed. This type of inspection is conducted to ensure that the aircraft meets all the necessary requirements and standards before it is put into service. It involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's condition, equipment, and documentation to ensure that everything is in proper working order and meets the necessary safety regulations. The acceptance inspection is crucial in ensuring that the aircraft is ready for operation and can be safely used by the crew and passengers.

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  • 47. 

    (019) Which form is the source document for logging flight activity for individuals?

    • A.

      Air Force (AF) Form 95, Historical Data.

    • B.

      AF Form 126, Flight Data Document.

    • C.

      Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.

    • D.

      AFTO Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Report and Maintenance Document.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document. This form is the source document for logging flight activity for individuals.

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  • 48. 

    (019) Which form is used to record aircraft time, engine data, and includes operating times?

    • A.

      Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.

    • B.

      AFTO Form 781A, Maintenance Discrepancy and Work Document.

    • C.

      AFTO Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Report and Maintenance Document.

    • D.

      AFTO Form 781J, Aerospace Vehicle-Engine (operating time, cycle, and oil added) Flight Document.

    Correct Answer
    D. AFTO Form 781J, Aerospace Vehicle-Engine (operating time, cycle, and oil added) Flight Document.
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 781J is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to record aircraft time, engine data, and includes operating times. This form is used to document important information such as operating time, cycle, and oil added during a flight, making it an essential tool for maintenance and tracking purposes.

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  • 49. 

    (019) Who is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781- series forms?

    • A.

      Crew chief.

    • B.

      Flight chief.

    • C.

      Flight engineer.

    • D.

      Maintenance expediter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Crew chief.
    Explanation
    The crew chief is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781-series forms. These forms are used to document and track maintenance actions on aircraft. The crew chief is typically the person in charge of overseeing the maintenance and repair of an aircraft, so it makes sense that they would be responsible for keeping track of the necessary forms.

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  • 50. 

    (019) The technical orders (TO) that authorize the use of abbreviations for use in Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781-series forms are listed in

    • A.

      TO 00–05–1-WA–1, AF Technical Order System.

    • B.

      TO 00–10–1, Maintenance Inspection.

    • C.

      TO 00–15–1, Policies, and Procedures.

    • D.

      TO 00–20–1-WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures.

    Correct Answer
    D. TO 00–20–1-WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 00–20–1-WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures. This is because TO 00–20–1-WA–1 specifically mentions the authorization of abbreviations for use in Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781-series forms, whereas the other options do not mention this specific authorization.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 13, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Bradcarrierice24
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