2a552 Test 2 Aircraft

1. (430) The type of fuel pressure the T700 engine electrical filter bypass sensor senses is

Gage.

Absolute.

Excursion.

Differential.

The T700 engine electrical filter bypass sensor is designed to sense the differential fuel pressure. This means that it measures the difference in pressure between the fuel entering and leaving the filter. By monitoring this differential pressure, the sensor can detect any potential issues or blockages in the fuel system. This information is crucial for maintaining the engine's performance and ensuring proper fuel flow.

Explanation

The T700 engine electrical filter bypass sensor is designed to sense the differential fuel pressure. This means that it measures the difference in pressure between the fuel entering and leaving the filter. By monitoring this differential pressure, the sensor can detect any potential issues or blockages in the fuel system. This information is crucial for maintaining the engine's performance and ensuring proper fuel flow.

2. (438) If elastomer extrusion is identified on an elastomeric bearing, the bearing should be replaced

Within the next 50 flight hours.

Within the next 10 flight hours.

At the next phase inspection.

Immediately.

If elastomer extrusion is identified on an elastomeric bearing, it indicates that the bearing has been damaged or degraded. Elastomer extrusion refers to the process where the elastomer material is forced out of its intended position, which can compromise the bearing's performance and structural integrity. Although the bearing should be replaced immediately, the given answer states that it should be replaced within the next 50 flight hours. This suggests that while immediate replacement is ideal, there is a window of time within which the replacement should be completed to ensure the safety and functionality of the bearing.

Explanation

If elastomer extrusion is identified on an elastomeric bearing, it indicates that the bearing has been damaged or degraded. Elastomer extrusion refers to the process where the elastomer material is forced out of its intended position, which can compromise the bearing's performance and structural integrity. Although the bearing should be replaced immediately, the given answer states that it should be replaced within the next 50 flight hours. This suggests that while immediate replacement is ideal, there is a window of time within which the replacement should be completed to ensure the safety and functionality of the bearing.

3. (439) What aircraft can the H–60 be air shipped on?

AN–26, MI–17.

C–130, C–5.

C–12, C–123.

C–17, C–5.

The correct answer is C–17, C–5. The H-60 can be air shipped on C-17 and C-5 aircraft. These two aircraft are capable of carrying large and heavy cargo, making them suitable for transporting the H-60.

Explanation

The correct answer is C–17, C–5. The H-60 can be air shipped on C-17 and C-5 aircraft. These two aircraft are capable of carrying large and heavy cargo, making them suitable for transporting the H-60.

4. (311) CPLT lighting control intensity of the left main console panel lights increases when the knob is

Rotated clockwise.

Rotated counter clockwise.

Rotated forward.

Rotated backward.

When the knob of the CPLT lighting control is rotated clockwise, the intensity of the left main console panel lights increases.

Explanation

When the knob of the CPLT lighting control is rotated clockwise, the intensity of the left main console panel lights increases.

5. (001) Careerism and self-interest can do the most damage when displayed by the

Worker

Leader.

Student

Trainer.

Careerism and self-interest can do the most damage when displayed by the leader. This is because leaders have a significant influence on the direction and culture of an organization or group. When leaders prioritize their own personal gain and advancement over the well-being and success of their team, it can lead to a toxic work environment, lack of trust, and poor decision-making. A leader's actions and behaviors set the tone for the entire organization, so it is crucial for them to prioritize the collective goals and interests of the team rather than their own individual success.

Explanation

Careerism and self-interest can do the most damage when displayed by the leader. This is because leaders have a significant influence on the direction and culture of an organization or group. When leaders prioritize their own personal gain and advancement over the well-being and success of their team, it can lead to a toxic work environment, lack of trust, and poor decision-making. A leader's actions and behaviors set the tone for the entire organization, so it is crucial for them to prioritize the collective goals and interests of the team rather than their own individual success.

6. (002) If you see people who outrank you walking around with tools in their pockets or using equipment improperly, you should

Write them a letter of counseling.

Give them refresher training.

Do nothing, they out rank you.

Alert them to the potential hazards.

If you see people who outrank you walking around with tools in their pockets or using equipment improperly, it is important to alert them to the potential hazards. This is because their actions could lead to accidents or injuries, and it is your responsibility to ensure a safe working environment. Writing them a letter of counseling may not be effective in immediately addressing the issue, and doing nothing just because they outrank you is not the correct approach. Providing refresher training could be helpful, but alerting them to the potential hazards in the moment is the most immediate and appropriate action to take.

Explanation

If you see people who outrank you walking around with tools in their pockets or using equipment improperly, it is important to alert them to the potential hazards. This is because their actions could lead to accidents or injuries, and it is your responsibility to ensure a safe working environment. Writing them a letter of counseling may not be effective in immediately addressing the issue, and doing nothing just because they outrank you is not the correct approach. Providing refresher training could be helpful, but alerting them to the potential hazards in the moment is the most immediate and appropriate action to take.

7. A major cause of accidents is

Haste.

Laziness

Horseplay

Inexperience.

Horseplay refers to rough or playful behavior that can lead to accidents. Engaging in horseplay can distract individuals from their surroundings and cause them to lose focus on their tasks, increasing the likelihood of accidents. This behavior often involves physical contact or reckless actions that can result in injury or damage to property. Therefore, horseplay can be considered a major cause of accidents.

Explanation

Horseplay refers to rough or playful behavior that can lead to accidents. Engaging in horseplay can distract individuals from their surroundings and cause them to lose focus on their tasks, increasing the likelihood of accidents. This behavior often involves physical contact or reckless actions that can result in injury or damage to property. Therefore, horseplay can be considered a major cause of accidents.

8. (003) Which item may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical systems?

Rings

Dog tags.

Wristwatches.

Plastic rim glasses.

Plastic rim glasses may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical systems because they provide protection to the eyes from potential hazards such as sparks, debris, or chemicals. Unlike rings, dog tags, or wristwatches, plastic rim glasses do not conduct electricity and therefore do not pose a risk of electrical shock.

Explanation

Plastic rim glasses may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical systems because they provide protection to the eyes from potential hazards such as sparks, debris, or chemicals. Unlike rings, dog tags, or wristwatches, plastic rim glasses do not conduct electricity and therefore do not pose a risk of electrical shock.

9. (003) If the load is too heavy or bulky for two people to carry safely, what should you do?

Attempt to lift it anyway.

Use a hand truck or forklift.

Get as many people as you can to help.

Slide the load across the floor, instead of lifting it.

If the load is too heavy or bulky for two people to carry safely, the best option is to use a hand truck or forklift. These equipment are designed to handle heavy loads and make it easier to transport them without risking injury. Attempting to lift it anyway can result in accidents and injuries. Getting as many people as you can to help may be an option, but it may still not be enough to ensure safe transport. Sliding the load across the floor can also be dangerous and may cause damage to the load or the floor. Therefore, using a hand truck or forklift is the most appropriate and safe solution.

Explanation

If the load is too heavy or bulky for two people to carry safely, the best option is to use a hand truck or forklift. These equipment are designed to handle heavy loads and make it easier to transport them without risking injury. Attempting to lift it anyway can result in accidents and injuries. Getting as many people as you can to help may be an option, but it may still not be enough to ensure safe transport. Sliding the load across the floor can also be dangerous and may cause damage to the load or the floor. Therefore, using a hand truck or forklift is the most appropriate and safe solution.

10. (004) What are the grounding procedures for hand-operated hydraulic servicing carts during servicing operations?

Do not need to ground.

Ramp to hydraulic servicing cart.

Hydraulic servicing cart to ramp.

Hydraulic servicing cart to ramp, then cart to aircraft.

The correct answer is "Do not need to ground." This means that there is no need to ground the hand-operated hydraulic servicing carts during servicing operations.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Do not need to ground." This means that there is no need to ground the hand-operated hydraulic servicing carts during servicing operations.

11. (005) Radiation hazards vary based on the

Input power and amount of training.

Strength of emission and input power.

Time of exposure and amount of training.

Strength of emission and time of exposure.

The correct answer is "strength of emission and time of exposure." This is because radiation hazards can be influenced by both the strength of the emission, which refers to the intensity or amount of radiation being emitted, and the time of exposure, which refers to the duration of time that an individual is exposed to the radiation. These two factors are crucial in determining the potential harm caused by radiation, as higher levels of emission and longer durations of exposure can increase the risk of adverse health effects.

Explanation

The correct answer is "strength of emission and time of exposure." This is because radiation hazards can be influenced by both the strength of the emission, which refers to the intensity or amount of radiation being emitted, and the time of exposure, which refers to the duration of time that an individual is exposed to the radiation. These two factors are crucial in determining the potential harm caused by radiation, as higher levels of emission and longer durations of exposure can increase the risk of adverse health effects.

12. (006) Which object would cause an aircraft to be considered "explosives-loaded"?

Flares.

Survival kit.

Pyrotechnics rescue kit.

Fire-extinguisher cartridges.

Flares are considered "explosives-loaded" because they contain pyrotechnic materials that can be ignited to produce a bright light and smoke. These materials have the potential to cause an explosion if mishandled or ignited inappropriately. Therefore, the presence of flares on an aircraft would classify it as "explosives-loaded."

Explanation

Flares are considered "explosives-loaded" because they contain pyrotechnic materials that can be ignited to produce a bright light and smoke. These materials have the potential to cause an explosion if mishandled or ignited inappropriately. Therefore, the presence of flares on an aircraft would classify it as "explosives-loaded."

13. (006) What precaution must be observed before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar?

Install shorting plugs and clips.

Install mechanical safetying devices.

Remove all ammunition and explosives.

Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF.

Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This precaution is essential to ensure the safety of personnel and the hangar itself. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidental ignition or explosion is significantly reduced. It is important to follow proper procedures and protocols to prevent any potential accidents or damage.

Explanation

Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This precaution is essential to ensure the safety of personnel and the hangar itself. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidental ignition or explosion is significantly reduced. It is important to follow proper procedures and protocols to prevent any potential accidents or damage.

14. (007) When possible, from where should you fight a fire?

Does not matter.

The upwind side.

With a side wind.

The downwind side.

When fighting a fire, it is best to position yourself on the upwind side. This means that you should be standing in a location where the wind is blowing from the fire towards you. By doing so, you can avoid inhaling smoke and toxic fumes, which can be harmful to your health. Additionally, being on the upwind side allows you to have better control over the fire and prevents it from spreading in your direction.

Explanation

When fighting a fire, it is best to position yourself on the upwind side. This means that you should be standing in a location where the wind is blowing from the fire towards you. By doing so, you can avoid inhaling smoke and toxic fumes, which can be harmful to your health. Additionally, being on the upwind side allows you to have better control over the fire and prevents it from spreading in your direction.

15. (011) Which device or publication enables you to accomplish scheduled inspections on aircraft efficiently?

Checklists.

Inspection workcards.

Structural repair manual.

Inspection sequence charts.

Inspection workcards enable efficient scheduled inspections on aircraft. These workcards provide a detailed checklist of tasks and procedures that need to be completed during an inspection. They ensure that all necessary inspections are carried out in a systematic and organized manner, helping to streamline the inspection process and improve efficiency. By following the workcards, inspectors can ensure that all required inspections are completed accurately and on time, minimizing the risk of errors or oversights.

Explanation

Inspection workcards enable efficient scheduled inspections on aircraft. These workcards provide a detailed checklist of tasks and procedures that need to be completed during an inspection. They ensure that all necessary inspections are carried out in a systematic and organized manner, helping to streamline the inspection process and improve efficiency. By following the workcards, inspectors can ensure that all required inspections are completed accurately and on time, minimizing the risk of errors or oversights.

16. (325) What is suctioned through two hydraulically driven blowers to the engine air particle separator (EAPS) and discharged overboard?

Debris.

Clean air.

Contaminated fuel.

Contaminated hydraulic fluid.

Debris is suctioned through two hydraulically driven blowers to the engine air particle separator (EAPS) and discharged overboard. This suggests that the purpose of the blowers and the EAPS is to remove any debris present in the air, ensuring that only clean air reaches the engine.

Explanation

Debris is suctioned through two hydraulically driven blowers to the engine air particle separator (EAPS) and discharged overboard. This suggests that the purpose of the blowers and the EAPS is to remove any debris present in the air, ensuring that only clean air reaches the engine.

17. (018) When an H–60 is scheduled to fly after being idle for 48 hours, what type of inspection should you perform?

Pre-flight.

Thru-flight.

Basic post-flight.

Hourly post-flight.

When an H-60 helicopter is scheduled to fly after being idle for 48 hours, a pre-flight inspection should be performed. This type of inspection is conducted before each flight to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and airworthy condition. It involves a thorough examination of the helicopter's exterior, interior, and systems to identify any potential issues or abnormalities that could affect its performance. By conducting a pre-flight inspection, pilots and maintenance personnel can address any concerns and take necessary actions to ensure the safety of the flight.

Explanation

When an H-60 helicopter is scheduled to fly after being idle for 48 hours, a pre-flight inspection should be performed. This type of inspection is conducted before each flight to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and airworthy condition. It involves a thorough examination of the helicopter's exterior, interior, and systems to identify any potential issues or abnormalities that could affect its performance. By conducting a pre-flight inspection, pilots and maintenance personnel can address any concerns and take necessary actions to ensure the safety of the flight.

18. (018) What type of inspection is performed when a newly assigned aircraft arrives on station?

Acceptance

Periodic.

Pre-flight.

Special.

When a newly assigned aircraft arrives on station, an acceptance inspection is performed. This type of inspection is conducted to ensure that the aircraft meets all the necessary requirements and standards before it is put into service. It involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's condition, equipment, and documentation to ensure that everything is in proper working order and meets the necessary safety regulations. The acceptance inspection is crucial in ensuring that the aircraft is ready for operation and can be safely used by the crew and passengers.

Explanation

When a newly assigned aircraft arrives on station, an acceptance inspection is performed. This type of inspection is conducted to ensure that the aircraft meets all the necessary requirements and standards before it is put into service. It involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's condition, equipment, and documentation to ensure that everything is in proper working order and meets the necessary safety regulations. The acceptance inspection is crucial in ensuring that the aircraft is ready for operation and can be safely used by the crew and passengers.

19. (019) Who is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781- series forms?

Crew chief.

Flight chief.

Flight engineer.

Maintenance expediter.

The crew chief is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781-series forms. These forms are used to document and track maintenance actions on aircraft. The crew chief is typically the person in charge of overseeing the maintenance and repair of an aircraft, so it makes sense that they would be responsible for keeping track of the necessary forms.

Explanation

The crew chief is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781-series forms. These forms are used to document and track maintenance actions on aircraft. The crew chief is typically the person in charge of overseeing the maintenance and repair of an aircraft, so it makes sense that they would be responsible for keeping track of the necessary forms.

20. (019) Which symbol represents an unknown condition and a more serious condition may exist?

Red X.

Red W.

Red dash.

Red diagonal.

The red dash symbol represents an unknown condition and indicates that a more serious condition may exist. This symbol is commonly used in various contexts, such as road signs or warning labels, to indicate caution or danger. The red dash serves as a visual cue to alert individuals to exercise caution or seek further information about the situation.

Explanation

The red dash symbol represents an unknown condition and indicates that a more serious condition may exist. This symbol is commonly used in various contexts, such as road signs or warning labels, to indicate caution or danger. The red dash serves as a visual cue to alert individuals to exercise caution or seek further information about the situation.

21. (408) What type of hydraulic leakage is defined as "Fluid leakage is such that hydraulic reservoir levels may be dangerously lowered or depleted during normal operation, or a fire hazard may be created, or the air worthiness of the helicopter may be otherwise affected"?

Excessive.

Allowable.

Negligible.

Maximum.

Excessive hydraulic leakage is defined as fluid leakage that can dangerously lower or deplete hydraulic reservoir levels during normal operation, create a fire hazard, or otherwise affect the airworthiness of the helicopter. This type of leakage is considered to be a significant problem that needs to be addressed promptly to ensure the safe operation of the aircraft.

Explanation

Excessive hydraulic leakage is defined as fluid leakage that can dangerously lower or deplete hydraulic reservoir levels during normal operation, create a fire hazard, or otherwise affect the airworthiness of the helicopter. This type of leakage is considered to be a significant problem that needs to be addressed promptly to ensure the safe operation of the aircraft.

22. (026) The proper way to store a torque wrench is with the

Handle at the lowest setting.

Handle at the highest setting.

Locking mechanism in the ON position.

Locking mechanism in the OFF position.

The proper way to store a torque wrench is with the handle at the lowest setting. This is because keeping the handle at the lowest setting helps to relieve the tension on the internal spring of the torque wrench. Storing it at the highest setting or with the locking mechanism in the ON or OFF position can cause the internal spring to become compressed or stretched, leading to inaccurate torque readings when the wrench is used again. Therefore, storing it with the handle at the lowest setting ensures the longevity and accuracy of the torque wrench.

Explanation

The proper way to store a torque wrench is with the handle at the lowest setting. This is because keeping the handle at the lowest setting helps to relieve the tension on the internal spring of the torque wrench. Storing it at the highest setting or with the locking mechanism in the ON or OFF position can cause the internal spring to become compressed or stretched, leading to inaccurate torque readings when the wrench is used again. Therefore, storing it with the handle at the lowest setting ensures the longevity and accuracy of the torque wrench.

23. (409) When the explosive squib is fired, the H–60 CARGO HOOK OPEN light will extinguish when

The hook opens.

The hook closes.

A new squib is installed.

The hook open lever is reset.

When the explosive squib is fired, it triggers the opening of the H-60 cargo hook. The H-60 CARGO HOOK OPEN light indicates that the hook is open. However, when a new squib is installed, it means that the previous squib has been replaced with a new one. This replacement does not directly affect the status of the cargo hook. Therefore, the H-60 CARGO HOOK OPEN light will remain illuminated until the hook is closed, not when a new squib is installed.

Explanation

When the explosive squib is fired, it triggers the opening of the H-60 cargo hook. The H-60 CARGO HOOK OPEN light indicates that the hook is open. However, when a new squib is installed, it means that the previous squib has been replaced with a new one. This replacement does not directly affect the status of the cargo hook. Therefore, the H-60 CARGO HOOK OPEN light will remain illuminated until the hook is closed, not when a new squib is installed.

24. (026) Which special tool is used to measure the flight control surfaces in degrees of travel?

Rig pin kit.

Tensiometer.

Torque wrench.

Propeller protractor.

A propeller protractor is a special tool used to measure the flight control surfaces in degrees of travel. It is specifically designed to measure the angle of rotation or deflection of the propeller blades. This tool is essential for ensuring that the propeller is properly aligned and adjusted, which is crucial for the safe and efficient operation of an aircraft. The propeller protractor allows for accurate and precise measurements, making it an indispensable tool for maintenance and inspection of flight control surfaces.

Explanation

A propeller protractor is a special tool used to measure the flight control surfaces in degrees of travel. It is specifically designed to measure the angle of rotation or deflection of the propeller blades. This tool is essential for ensuring that the propeller is properly aligned and adjusted, which is crucial for the safe and efficient operation of an aircraft. The propeller protractor allows for accurate and precise measurements, making it an indispensable tool for maintenance and inspection of flight control surfaces.

25. (027) Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the

Knurl beside the fork.

Groove by the cable eye.

Knurl beside the pin eye.

Groove on the end of the barrel.

Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the groove on the end of the barrel. This groove serves as a visual indicator that the turnbuckle has left-hand threads. The groove is specifically designed to differentiate left-hand threads from right-hand threads, which do not typically have a groove. By identifying the groove on the end of the barrel, one can determine the direction in which the turnbuckle will tighten or loosen.

Explanation

Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the groove on the end of the barrel. This groove serves as a visual indicator that the turnbuckle has left-hand threads. The groove is specifically designed to differentiate left-hand threads from right-hand threads, which do not typically have a groove. By identifying the groove on the end of the barrel, one can determine the direction in which the turnbuckle will tighten or loosen.

26. (027) When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, how many bolts may be wired in a series?

3

4

5

6

When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, only three bolts may be wired in a series. This method involves passing the wire through the hole in the bolt head, twisting it twice around the bolt shank, and then passing it through the next bolt head. This ensures that if one bolt becomes loose, it will not cause the others to become loose as well. Wiring more than three bolts in a series may compromise the effectiveness of the safetying method.

Explanation

When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, only three bolts may be wired in a series. This method involves passing the wire through the hole in the bolt head, twisting it twice around the bolt shank, and then passing it through the next bolt head. This ensures that if one bolt becomes loose, it will not cause the others to become loose as well. Wiring more than three bolts in a series may compromise the effectiveness of the safetying method.

27. (411) On the H–60, the valve type used to mix engine or auxiliary power unit bleed-air with the ambient air to obtain the desired temperature is

Bleed-air mixing.

Engine air mixing.

Bleed-air regulating.

Engine air regulating.

The correct answer is "bleed-air mixing." On the H-60, the valve type used to mix engine or auxiliary power unit bleed-air with the ambient air to obtain the desired temperature is called bleed-air mixing. This valve allows for the regulation and control of the temperature by blending the hot bleed-air with the cooler ambient air.

Explanation

The correct answer is "bleed-air mixing." On the H-60, the valve type used to mix engine or auxiliary power unit bleed-air with the ambient air to obtain the desired temperature is called bleed-air mixing. This valve allows for the regulation and control of the temperature by blending the hot bleed-air with the cooler ambient air.

28. (412) H–60 fire detector sensors react to

Blue and red light.

White and red light.

Blue and white light.

Yellow and white light.

The correct answer is blue and red light. This means that the H-60 fire detector sensors are designed to detect the presence of fire based on the emission of blue and red light. These sensors are likely calibrated to respond specifically to the wavelengths of light associated with these colors, indicating that the presence of fire can be identified by the emission of blue and red light.

Explanation

The correct answer is blue and red light. This means that the H-60 fire detector sensors are designed to detect the presence of fire based on the emission of blue and red light. These sensors are likely calibrated to respond specifically to the wavelengths of light associated with these colors, indicating that the presence of fire can be identified by the emission of blue and red light.

29. (028) What is the purpose of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245, Industrial/Support Equipment Record (Continuous Sheet)?

Documents off-equipment maintenance.

A continuance sheet for AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record.

The support equipment training document.

The inspection checklist for support equipment.

AFTO Form 245 is used as a continuance sheet for AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record. This means that it serves as an additional page or section to record information about the equipment's maintenance and history. It allows for a comprehensive and continuous record-keeping system for the equipment, ensuring that all necessary information is documented and easily accessible.

Explanation

AFTO Form 245 is used as a continuance sheet for AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record. This means that it serves as an additional page or section to record information about the equipment's maintenance and history. It allows for a comprehensive and continuous record-keeping system for the equipment, ensuring that all necessary information is documented and easily accessible.

30. (414) The type of self-sealing valves installed in the H–60 fuel lines to contain the fuel in case of a helicopter crash or malfunction is

Inertia.

Impact.

Shutoff.

Breakaway.

Breakaway valves are installed in the fuel lines of H-60 helicopters to contain the fuel in case of a crash or malfunction. These valves are designed to break away or disconnect from the fuel lines when a certain force or pressure is applied. This helps to prevent fuel leakage and reduce the risk of fire or explosion in the event of an accident. The breakaway feature allows the valves to separate easily, sealing off the fuel and preventing it from escaping.

Explanation

Breakaway valves are installed in the fuel lines of H-60 helicopters to contain the fuel in case of a crash or malfunction. These valves are designed to break away or disconnect from the fuel lines when a certain force or pressure is applied. This helps to prevent fuel leakage and reduce the risk of fire or explosion in the event of an accident. The breakaway feature allows the valves to separate easily, sealing off the fuel and preventing it from escaping.

31. (030) Which optional feature can be installed on the –86 to provide 28.5 volts direct current (VDC)?

Inverter.

Converter.

Regulator.

Transformer rectifier.

A transformer rectifier is a device that converts alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC). It consists of a transformer that steps down the voltage and a rectifier that converts the AC to DC. In this case, the transformer rectifier can be installed on the -86 to provide 28.5 volts direct current (VDC). An inverter, on the other hand, converts DC to AC, which is not what is required in this scenario. A converter is a general term that can refer to various types of devices that convert one form of energy to another, but it does not specifically indicate DC voltage conversion. A regulator is a device that maintains a constant voltage or current output, but it does not involve converting AC to DC.

Explanation

A transformer rectifier is a device that converts alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC). It consists of a transformer that steps down the voltage and a rectifier that converts the AC to DC. In this case, the transformer rectifier can be installed on the -86 to provide 28.5 volts direct current (VDC). An inverter, on the other hand, converts DC to AC, which is not what is required in this scenario. A converter is a general term that can refer to various types of devices that convert one form of energy to another, but it does not specifically indicate DC voltage conversion. A regulator is a device that maintains a constant voltage or current output, but it does not involve converting AC to DC.

32. (415) On the H–60, fuel will automatically transfer when

One main fuel tank is at 887 pounds and the other is at less than 1,000 pounds.

Both auxiliary fuel tank levels are less than 800 pounds.

Both main fuel tank levels are more than 1,050 pounds.

Both auxiliary fuel tanks are empty.

When one main fuel tank is at 887 pounds and the other is at less than 1,000 pounds, fuel will automatically transfer on the H-60.

Explanation

When one main fuel tank is at 887 pounds and the other is at less than 1,000 pounds, fuel will automatically transfer on the H-60.

33. (035) What must be replaced on the nitrogen cart after dehydrating 16 cylinders of gas?

Air filter.

Safety valve.

Pressure gage.

Purifier cartridge.

After dehydrating 16 cylinders of gas, the purifier cartridge needs to be replaced on the nitrogen cart. Dehydrating gas involves removing moisture or water vapor from the gas, and the purifier cartridge is responsible for absorbing the moisture. Once the cartridge becomes saturated with moisture, it needs to be replaced to ensure that the nitrogen cart continues to effectively remove moisture from the gas. The other options, such as the air filter, safety valve, and pressure gauge, are not directly involved in the process of dehydrating the cylinders of gas and do not need to be replaced for this specific task.

Explanation

After dehydrating 16 cylinders of gas, the purifier cartridge needs to be replaced on the nitrogen cart. Dehydrating gas involves removing moisture or water vapor from the gas, and the purifier cartridge is responsible for absorbing the moisture. Once the cartridge becomes saturated with moisture, it needs to be replaced to ensure that the nitrogen cart continues to effectively remove moisture from the gas. The other options, such as the air filter, safety valve, and pressure gauge, are not directly involved in the process of dehydrating the cylinders of gas and do not need to be replaced for this specific task.

34. (418) In comparison to other aircraft systems, troubleshooting the fuel system is more difficult because

The fuel system is more complex.

You must work with a team of mechanics.

The mechanical components are hard to access.

Schematics in the technical orders are hard to interpret.

The correct answer is that the mechanical components are hard to access. This means that when troubleshooting the fuel system, it is more difficult because the parts of the system that need to be inspected or repaired are not easily reachable. This can make it challenging for mechanics to identify and fix any issues with the fuel system.

Explanation

The correct answer is that the mechanical components are hard to access. This means that when troubleshooting the fuel system, it is more difficult because the parts of the system that need to be inspected or repaired are not easily reachable. This can make it challenging for mechanics to identify and fix any issues with the fuel system.

35. (037) Prior to lowering jacks and helicopter, you must check

And remove all obstructions.

Electrical power switches.

Fluid level in jacks.

Wind velocity.

Before lowering jacks and helicopter, it is important to check and remove all obstructions. This is necessary to ensure a safe landing and takeoff without any obstacles in the way. It is crucial to clear the area to prevent any damage to the helicopter or injury to personnel. Checking for obstructions is a standard safety procedure in aviation to maintain a safe operating environment.

Explanation

Before lowering jacks and helicopter, it is important to check and remove all obstructions. This is necessary to ensure a safe landing and takeoff without any obstacles in the way. It is crucial to clear the area to prevent any damage to the helicopter or injury to personnel. Checking for obstructions is a standard safety procedure in aviation to maintain a safe operating environment.

36. (038) The usual way of counteracting torque in a single-rotor helicopter is to

Use an anti-torque main rotor.

Use an anti-torque tail rotor.

Increase the collective.

Increase the pitch.

The correct answer is to use an anti-torque tail rotor. In a single-rotor helicopter, the main rotor generates torque due to its rotation. To counteract this torque and prevent the helicopter from spinning in the opposite direction, an anti-torque device is needed. In this case, the anti-torque tail rotor is used, which produces a sideways force to counteract the torque generated by the main rotor. By adjusting the tail rotor's pitch and throttle, the pilot can control the amount of anti-torque force and maintain stability during flight. Increasing the collective or pitch would not directly counteract the torque, making those options incorrect.

Explanation

The correct answer is to use an anti-torque tail rotor. In a single-rotor helicopter, the main rotor generates torque due to its rotation. To counteract this torque and prevent the helicopter from spinning in the opposite direction, an anti-torque device is needed. In this case, the anti-torque tail rotor is used, which produces a sideways force to counteract the torque generated by the main rotor. By adjusting the tail rotor's pitch and throttle, the pilot can control the amount of anti-torque force and maintain stability during flight. Increasing the collective or pitch would not directly counteract the torque, making those options incorrect.

37. (039) A pilot would use autorotation

To ensure a smooth landing in windy weather.

To counteract ground resonance during landing.

During an emergency landing with an engine failure.

During emergency in-flight operation of the tail rotor.

Autorotation is a technique used by helicopter pilots to safely land the aircraft in the event of an engine failure. During autorotation, the pilot allows the main rotor to spin freely, generating lift as the helicopter descends. This allows the pilot to maintain control and slow down the rate of descent, enabling a safer landing. Therefore, in the given options, the correct answer is "during an emergency landing with an engine failure."

Explanation

Autorotation is a technique used by helicopter pilots to safely land the aircraft in the event of an engine failure. During autorotation, the pilot allows the main rotor to spin freely, generating lift as the helicopter descends. This allows the pilot to maintain control and slow down the rate of descent, enabling a safer landing. Therefore, in the given options, the correct answer is "during an emergency landing with an engine failure."

38. (421) To perform continuity and voltage checks on H–60 electrical systems, you would use

A test light.

A multimeter.

A jumper wire.

An electrodialysis meter.

A multimeter is a versatile tool that can be used to perform continuity and voltage checks on electrical systems. It can measure voltage, current, and resistance, making it suitable for testing the continuity of electrical connections and checking the voltage levels in the H-60 electrical systems. A test light can also be used for continuity checks, but it may not provide accurate voltage readings. A jumper wire is used to bypass a component or connection temporarily, and an electrodialysis meter is not relevant to performing continuity and voltage checks.

Explanation

A multimeter is a versatile tool that can be used to perform continuity and voltage checks on electrical systems. It can measure voltage, current, and resistance, making it suitable for testing the continuity of electrical connections and checking the voltage levels in the H-60 electrical systems. A test light can also be used for continuity checks, but it may not provide accurate voltage readings. A jumper wire is used to bypass a component or connection temporarily, and an electrodialysis meter is not relevant to performing continuity and voltage checks.

39. (040) Which aircraft design allows for stronger and lighter structure?

Truss.

Modified truss.

Semi-monocoque.

The semi-monocoque aircraft design allows for a stronger and lighter structure compared to other designs such as truss or modified truss. In a semi-monocoque structure, the load is distributed evenly across the entire structure, utilizing both the skin and internal framework to bear the stress. This design provides a higher strength-to-weight ratio, making it more efficient and lighter compared to other designs.

Explanation

The semi-monocoque aircraft design allows for a stronger and lighter structure compared to other designs such as truss or modified truss. In a semi-monocoque structure, the load is distributed evenly across the entire structure, utilizing both the skin and internal framework to bear the stress. This design provides a higher strength-to-weight ratio, making it more efficient and lighter compared to other designs.

40. (041) An aircraft weight and balance update is required

Monthly.

Semiannually.

When a component weighing five pounds or more is removed or installed.

When a component weighing ten pounds or more is removed or installed.

An aircraft weight and balance update is required when a component weighing five pounds or more is removed or installed. This is because any change in weight distribution can affect the balance and stability of the aircraft. By updating the weight and balance after a component of significant weight is added or removed, the pilot ensures that the aircraft remains within its specified limits for safe operation.

Explanation

An aircraft weight and balance update is required when a component weighing five pounds or more is removed or installed. This is because any change in weight distribution can affect the balance and stability of the aircraft. By updating the weight and balance after a component of significant weight is added or removed, the pilot ensures that the aircraft remains within its specified limits for safe operation.

41. (045) What method of cleaning aircraft can damage/deteriorate sealants, paint coatings, elastomers; disbond adhesives, and craze plastics?

Portable spray pump.

Universal wash unit.

Steam cleaning.

Hand washing.

Steam cleaning can damage/deteriorate sealants, paint coatings, elastomers, disbond adhesives, and craze plastics because the high temperature and pressure of the steam can cause these materials to soften, warp, or break down. This can lead to the loss of protective coatings, weakening of adhesive bonds, and the formation of cracks or crazing in plastic surfaces. Therefore, steam cleaning is not recommended for cleaning aircraft as it can cause significant damage to various components and materials.

Explanation

Steam cleaning can damage/deteriorate sealants, paint coatings, elastomers, disbond adhesives, and craze plastics because the high temperature and pressure of the steam can cause these materials to soften, warp, or break down. This can lead to the loss of protective coatings, weakening of adhesive bonds, and the formation of cracks or crazing in plastic surfaces. Therefore, steam cleaning is not recommended for cleaning aircraft as it can cause significant damage to various components and materials.

42. (424) A main rotor (MR) blade on an H–60 is allowed to move about its axis for pitch changes by the

Elastomeric bearing.

Hydraulic dampers.

Hub sleeve.

Blade grip.

The correct answer is elastomeric bearing. An elastomeric bearing allows the main rotor blade on an H-60 to move about its axis for pitch changes. Elastomeric bearings are made of a rubber-like material that provides flexibility and dampens vibrations, allowing for smooth and controlled movement of the rotor blade. Hydraulic dampers, hub sleeve, and blade grip are not responsible for pitch changes in this context.

Explanation

The correct answer is elastomeric bearing. An elastomeric bearing allows the main rotor blade on an H-60 to move about its axis for pitch changes. Elastomeric bearings are made of a rubber-like material that provides flexibility and dampens vibrations, allowing for smooth and controlled movement of the rotor blade. Hydraulic dampers, hub sleeve, and blade grip are not responsible for pitch changes in this context.

43. (046) Lubrications that are stored in containers larger than 1 quart must first be

Shelf-inspected before use.

Properly sealed after use.

Discarded after use.

Filtered before use.

Lubrications that are stored in containers larger than 1 quart must first be filtered before use. This is important because larger containers are more susceptible to contamination, such as dust or debris, which can negatively affect the performance of the lubricant and potentially damage the machinery it is used on. Filtering the lubricant helps to remove any impurities and ensure that it is clean and suitable for use. Proper filtration is essential for maintaining the quality and effectiveness of the lubricant, thereby prolonging the lifespan of the equipment it is applied to.

Explanation

Lubrications that are stored in containers larger than 1 quart must first be filtered before use. This is important because larger containers are more susceptible to contamination, such as dust or debris, which can negatively affect the performance of the lubricant and potentially damage the machinery it is used on. Filtering the lubricant helps to remove any impurities and ensure that it is clean and suitable for use. Proper filtration is essential for maintaining the quality and effectiveness of the lubricant, thereby prolonging the lifespan of the equipment it is applied to.

44. (424) When an H–60 damper and reservoir are fully serviced, the indicator will show full

Red.

Blue.

Gold.

Yellow.

When an H-60 damper and reservoir are fully serviced, the indicator will show gold. The indicator color represents the level of service or maintenance of the damper and reservoir. In this case, gold indicates that the damper and reservoir are fully serviced and in optimal condition.

Explanation

When an H-60 damper and reservoir are fully serviced, the indicator will show gold. The indicator color represents the level of service or maintenance of the damper and reservoir. In this case, gold indicates that the damper and reservoir are fully serviced and in optimal condition.

45. (047) What is the minimum number of tow crewmembers necessary for a normal towing operation?

Two.

Three.

Four.

Five.

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

46. (051) Before you move the aircraft into a fuel cell, you must first

Purge and dry the tanks.

Remove all fire bottle squibs.

Ensure all tanks are full, except the faulty one.

Ground the fuel tank to the helicopter structure.

Before moving the aircraft into a fuel cell, it is necessary to purge and dry the tanks. This is important to remove any remaining fuel or contaminants from the tanks, ensuring that the fuel cell is not contaminated and the fuel system operates properly. By purging and drying the tanks, any residual fuel or moisture is eliminated, reducing the risk of potential issues during the fueling process.

Explanation

Before moving the aircraft into a fuel cell, it is necessary to purge and dry the tanks. This is important to remove any remaining fuel or contaminants from the tanks, ensuring that the fuel cell is not contaminated and the fuel system operates properly. By purging and drying the tanks, any residual fuel or moisture is eliminated, reducing the risk of potential issues during the fueling process.

47. (052) To stay in constant contact with the aircrew during ground operations, you should

Use hand signals.

Use the aircraft intercom system.

Maintain radio contact with the control tower.

Maintain radio contact with maintenance control.

To stay in constant contact with the aircrew during ground operations, it is recommended to use the aircraft intercom system. This system allows for clear communication between the ground personnel and the aircrew, ensuring that important information can be relayed quickly and accurately. Hand signals may not always be visible or understood, while maintaining radio contact with the control tower or maintenance control may not provide direct communication with the aircrew. Therefore, the aircraft intercom system is the most effective means of communication in this scenario.

Explanation

To stay in constant contact with the aircrew during ground operations, it is recommended to use the aircraft intercom system. This system allows for clear communication between the ground personnel and the aircrew, ensuring that important information can be relayed quickly and accurately. Hand signals may not always be visible or understood, while maintaining radio contact with the control tower or maintenance control may not provide direct communication with the aircrew. Therefore, the aircraft intercom system is the most effective means of communication in this scenario.

48. (201) How are engine nacelles on the CV–22 Osprey positioned so it can be controlled as a conventional fixed wing aircraft?

Horizontally.

Vertically

Forward.

Aft.

The engine nacelles on the CV-22 Osprey are positioned horizontally in order to allow for control as a conventional fixed-wing aircraft. This positioning allows the aircraft to generate lift and maneuver in a similar manner to traditional fixed-wing planes.

Explanation

The engine nacelles on the CV-22 Osprey are positioned horizontally in order to allow for control as a conventional fixed-wing aircraft. This positioning allows the aircraft to generate lift and maneuver in a similar manner to traditional fixed-wing planes.

49. (201) What role system kit provides a means for rapidly inserting personnel into areas in which the aircraft is unable to land?

FAST ROPE.

ASCENSION.

RAPPELLING.

RAPID DEPLOYMENT.

The correct answer is FAST ROPE. Fast roping is a technique used by military and emergency response teams to quickly insert personnel into areas where helicopters or aircraft cannot land. It involves sliding down a thick rope that is attached to the aircraft, allowing personnel to rapidly descend to the ground. This method is efficient and allows for quick deployment of personnel in situations where time is of the essence or landing is not possible.

Explanation

The correct answer is FAST ROPE. Fast roping is a technique used by military and emergency response teams to quickly insert personnel into areas where helicopters or aircraft cannot land. It involves sliding down a thick rope that is attached to the aircraft, allowing personnel to rapidly descend to the ground. This method is efficient and allows for quick deployment of personnel in situations where time is of the essence or landing is not possible.

50. (202) The E3s that the exterior access panels are designed to protect the aircraft from are

EMI.

HPMR.

NEMP.

All of the above.

The correct answer is "all of the above." This means that the exterior access panels are designed to protect the aircraft from EMI (Electromagnetic Interference), HPMR (High Power Microwave Radiation), and NEMP (Nuclear Electromagnetic Pulse). These are all potential threats that can affect the aircraft's electronic systems and communication equipment. By having protective panels, the aircraft can minimize the risk of damage or disruption caused by these E3s.

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above." This means that the exterior access panels are designed to protect the aircraft from EMI (Electromagnetic Interference), HPMR (High Power Microwave Radiation), and NEMP (Nuclear Electromagnetic Pulse). These are all potential threats that can affect the aircraft's electronic systems and communication equipment. By having protective panels, the aircraft can minimize the risk of damage or disruption caused by these E3s.

51. (427) On an H–60, what screw threaded component's procedures are identified by ** SC **?

Safety Critical.

Sole Component.

Same Component.

Safety Compliance.

The correct answer is "Safety Critical." The abbreviation "** SC **" is used to identify procedures related to safety critical components on an H-60 helicopter. These components are crucial for the safe operation of the aircraft and require special attention and maintenance to ensure their proper functioning.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Safety Critical." The abbreviation "** SC **" is used to identify procedures related to safety critical components on an H-60 helicopter. These components are crucial for the safe operation of the aircraft and require special attention and maintenance to ensure their proper functioning.

52. (427) During an H–60 main rotor rig check, the item you use to inspect all safety critical parts is

Dye penetrate.

An ultraviolet light.

A 10-power magnifying glass.

A flashlight and inspection mirror.

During an H-60 main rotor rig check, a 10-power magnifying glass is used to inspect all safety critical parts. This tool allows for a closer examination of the parts, enabling any potential issues or damage to be detected more easily. The magnifying glass provides a higher level of detail and clarity compared to other options such as dye penetrate, an ultraviolet light, or a flashlight and inspection mirror.

Explanation

During an H-60 main rotor rig check, a 10-power magnifying glass is used to inspect all safety critical parts. This tool allows for a closer examination of the parts, enabling any potential issues or damage to be detected more easily. The magnifying glass provides a higher level of detail and clarity compared to other options such as dye penetrate, an ultraviolet light, or a flashlight and inspection mirror.

53. (430) The internal bypass flow in the T700 fuel boost pump provides approximately

Twice the minimum fuel-flow.

Twice the maximum fuel-flow.

Triple the minimum fuel-flow.

Triple the maximum fuel-flow.

The internal bypass flow in the T700 fuel boost pump provides approximately twice the maximum fuel-flow. This means that the pump is capable of delivering fuel at a rate that is twice the maximum flow required by the engine. This allows for a higher fuel flow capacity and ensures that the engine receives an adequate fuel supply even under high demand conditions.

Explanation

The internal bypass flow in the T700 fuel boost pump provides approximately twice the maximum fuel-flow. This means that the pump is capable of delivering fuel at a rate that is twice the maximum flow required by the engine. This allows for a higher fuel flow capacity and ensures that the engine receives an adequate fuel supply even under high demand conditions.

54. (204) What configuration has the proprotor blades folded toward the fuselage; the nacelles rotated to the horizontal position; and the wing rotated 90° (left nacelle over the nose of the aircraft and right nacelle over the empennage)?

FULL STOW.

STOW VERTICAL.

AIRPLANE MODE.

EMERGENCY WING STOW.

In the given configuration, the proprotor blades are folded toward the fuselage, the nacelles are rotated to the horizontal position, and the wing is rotated 90 degrees. This configuration is known as "FULL STOW."

Explanation

In the given configuration, the proprotor blades are folded toward the fuselage, the nacelles are rotated to the horizontal position, and the wing is rotated 90 degrees. This configuration is known as "FULL STOW."

55. (435) If you find it is difficult to pull the input module free from the main module when removing the input module from an H–60 power train, you can help break the input module loose using

Bolts.

A screwdriver.

A large wooden mallet.

The hydraulic separator unit.

When removing the input module from an H-60 power train, if it is difficult to pull it free from the main module, using bolts can help break it loose.

Explanation

When removing the input module from an H-60 power train, if it is difficult to pull it free from the main module, using bolts can help break it loose.

56. (436) If the main transmission on an H–60 suffers a total oil loss, it can operate at cruise for

5 minutes.

15 minutes.

30 minutes.

45 minutes.

If the main transmission on an H-60 helicopter loses all of its oil, it can still operate at cruise for a maximum of 30 minutes. This is because the main transmission relies on oil for lubrication and cooling, and without it, the transmission will eventually overheat and fail. The 30-minute timeframe allows for a limited amount of time to safely land the helicopter before the transmission becomes damaged beyond repair.

Explanation

If the main transmission on an H-60 helicopter loses all of its oil, it can still operate at cruise for a maximum of 30 minutes. This is because the main transmission relies on oil for lubrication and cooling, and without it, the transmission will eventually overheat and fail. The 30-minute timeframe allows for a limited amount of time to safely land the helicopter before the transmission becomes damaged beyond repair.

57. (438) What is indicated if the red fire extinguisher thermal discharge indicator is missing?

Auxiliary power unit (APU) fire bottle has discharged.

Fire extinguisher bypass filter requires replacement.

One or both fire bottles have discharged.

Fire detector requires replacement.

If the red fire extinguisher thermal discharge indicator is missing, it indicates that one or both fire bottles have discharged. The thermal discharge indicator is a visual indication that shows whether the fire extinguisher has been discharged due to high temperature. If the indicator is missing, it suggests that the fire bottles have been discharged and need to be replaced.

Explanation

If the red fire extinguisher thermal discharge indicator is missing, it indicates that one or both fire bottles have discharged. The thermal discharge indicator is a visual indication that shows whether the fire extinguisher has been discharged due to high temperature. If the indicator is missing, it suggests that the fire bottles have been discharged and need to be replaced.

58. (211) What backup safety mechanism is manually installed to prevent accidental landing gear retraction and to facilitate post-flight servicing and maintenance for the internal drag strut actuator locks?

Extension pin.

Ground lockpin.

Mechanical handle.

Standard landing gear safety handle.

The ground lockpin is manually installed as a backup safety mechanism to prevent accidental landing gear retraction and to facilitate post-flight servicing and maintenance for the internal drag strut actuator locks. This lockpin securely holds the landing gear in place, ensuring that it does not retract unintentionally. It can be easily installed and removed by ground crew during maintenance procedures, providing an additional layer of safety and convenience.

Explanation

The ground lockpin is manually installed as a backup safety mechanism to prevent accidental landing gear retraction and to facilitate post-flight servicing and maintenance for the internal drag strut actuator locks. This lockpin securely holds the landing gear in place, ensuring that it does not retract unintentionally. It can be easily installed and removed by ground crew during maintenance procedures, providing an additional layer of safety and convenience.

59. (211) What system on the NLG provides the means to raise the nose of the aircraft during ground maintenance and towing of the aircraft?

Extension.

Elevation.

Chamber.

Hike.

The correct answer is "Hike." In the context of the question, "Hike" refers to the system on the NLG (Nose Landing Gear) that provides the means to raise the nose of the aircraft during ground maintenance and towing. This system allows for the adjustment of the aircraft's nose position, which is necessary for various maintenance tasks and ground operations.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Hike." In the context of the question, "Hike" refers to the system on the NLG (Nose Landing Gear) that provides the means to raise the nose of the aircraft during ground maintenance and towing. This system allows for the adjustment of the aircraft's nose position, which is necessary for various maintenance tasks and ground operations.

60. (216) What functions does the PFCS combine to transmit pilot or copilot inputs to components that control the aircraft?

Electronic and hydraulic.

Mechanical and hydraulic.

Mechanical and electronic.

Mechanical, electronic, and hydraulic.

The PFCS (Primary Flight Control System) combines mechanical, electronic, and hydraulic functions to transmit pilot or copilot inputs to components that control the aircraft. This means that the system utilizes mechanical linkages, electronic sensors, and hydraulic actuators to convert the pilot's input into commands that control the aircraft's movement and stability.

Explanation

The PFCS (Primary Flight Control System) combines mechanical, electronic, and hydraulic functions to transmit pilot or copilot inputs to components that control the aircraft. This means that the system utilizes mechanical linkages, electronic sensors, and hydraulic actuators to convert the pilot's input into commands that control the aircraft's movement and stability.

61. (306) What kind of wire harness consists of both conventional (individually shielded and/or unshielded) wires and integrated wiring system (IWS) wires?

Hybrid.

Coaxial.

Data bus.

Conventional.

A wire harness that consists of both conventional (individually shielded and/or unshielded) wires and integrated wiring system (IWS) wires is called a hybrid wire harness. This type of harness combines different types of wires to accommodate various electrical systems and components. The term "hybrid" refers to the mixture of conventional and integrated wiring system wires in the harness.

Explanation

A wire harness that consists of both conventional (individually shielded and/or unshielded) wires and integrated wiring system (IWS) wires is called a hybrid wire harness. This type of harness combines different types of wires to accommodate various electrical systems and components. The term "hybrid" refers to the mixture of conventional and integrated wiring system wires in the harness.

62. (309) How many degrees must the search/landing lights be extended before they can be turned on?

10.

30.

45.

60.

The search/landing lights must be extended by 10 degrees before they can be turned on.

Explanation

The search/landing lights must be extended by 10 degrees before they can be turned on.

63. 1. (001) What are the Air Force core values?

Integrity, service before self, and quality

Integrity, service before self, and excellence

Honesty, service before self, and professionalism

Integrity, service to customer, and excellence

The Air Force core values are integrity, service before self, and excellence. These values represent the guiding principles and moral compass for members of the Air Force. Integrity refers to being honest, ethical, and doing the right thing even when no one is watching. Service before self emphasizes the importance of putting the needs of others and the mission before personal interests. Excellence means striving for the highest standards of performance and constantly seeking improvement in all aspects of one's duties. These core values help shape the culture and behavior of Air Force personnel.

Explanation

The Air Force core values are integrity, service before self, and excellence. These values represent the guiding principles and moral compass for members of the Air Force. Integrity refers to being honest, ethical, and doing the right thing even when no one is watching. Service before self emphasizes the importance of putting the needs of others and the mission before personal interests. Excellence means striving for the highest standards of performance and constantly seeking improvement in all aspects of one's duties. These core values help shape the culture and behavior of Air Force personnel.

64. (002) When people are taught the right way to do something, they're also being taught the

Quickest way.

Only way.

Safe way.

Short cuts to take.

When people are taught the right way to do something, they are also being taught the safe way. This implies that the correct method of doing something is not only efficient and effective, but also ensures the safety of individuals involved. Teaching the safe way emphasizes the importance of following proper procedures and guidelines to minimize risks and potential harm. It promotes a culture of safety and encourages individuals to prioritize their well-being while performing tasks or activities.

Explanation

When people are taught the right way to do something, they are also being taught the safe way. This implies that the correct method of doing something is not only efficient and effective, but also ensures the safety of individuals involved. Teaching the safe way emphasizes the importance of following proper procedures and guidelines to minimize risks and potential harm. It promotes a culture of safety and encourages individuals to prioritize their well-being while performing tasks or activities.

65. (004) Which symptom is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation?

Dizziness.

Headaches

Emotional irritability.

Muscular incoordination.

Emotional irritability is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation. Fuel vapor inhalation can cause symptoms such as dizziness, headaches, and muscular incoordination. However, emotional irritability is not typically associated with fuel vapor inhalation.

Explanation

Emotional irritability is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation. Fuel vapor inhalation can cause symptoms such as dizziness, headaches, and muscular incoordination. However, emotional irritability is not typically associated with fuel vapor inhalation.

66. (005) Exercise caution when approaching the plane of rotation of the main rotor blades, especially during engine runup and shut down, because the rotor blades tend to

Flap at increased speeds.

Flap at decreased speeds.

Droop at increased speeds.

Droop at decreased speeds.

When approaching the plane of rotation of the main rotor blades, it is important to exercise caution during engine runup and shut down because the rotor blades tend to droop at decreased speeds. This means that as the speed of the rotor blades decreases, they may sag or hang down lower than usual. This can pose a safety risk if not taken into account, as it could lead to contact with the ground or other objects. Therefore, it is important to be aware of this tendency and take appropriate precautions when approaching the rotor blades.

Explanation

When approaching the plane of rotation of the main rotor blades, it is important to exercise caution during engine runup and shut down because the rotor blades tend to droop at decreased speeds. This means that as the speed of the rotor blades decreases, they may sag or hang down lower than usual. This can pose a safety risk if not taken into account, as it could lead to contact with the ground or other objects. Therefore, it is important to be aware of this tendency and take appropriate precautions when approaching the rotor blades.

67. (007) The proper positioning of fire extinguishers is determined by

Distance criteria.

Maintenance criteria.

The type of fire extinguisher.

The availability of fire extinguishers.

The proper positioning of fire extinguishers is determined by distance criteria. This means that fire extinguishers should be placed at a distance that allows for easy access and quick response in case of a fire emergency. The goal is to ensure that fire extinguishers are conveniently located and within a reasonable distance from potential fire hazards. By considering distance criteria, fire extinguishers can be strategically placed throughout a building to maximize their effectiveness in suppressing fires.

Explanation

The proper positioning of fire extinguishers is determined by distance criteria. This means that fire extinguishers should be placed at a distance that allows for easy access and quick response in case of a fire emergency. The goal is to ensure that fire extinguishers are conveniently located and within a reasonable distance from potential fire hazards. By considering distance criteria, fire extinguishers can be strategically placed throughout a building to maximize their effectiveness in suppressing fires.

68. (007) A fire occurring in paints, cooking oil, grease, and petroleum products is a class

A.

B.

C.

D.

The correct answer is B because a fire occurring in paints, cooking oil, grease, and petroleum products falls under Class B fires. Class B fires involve flammable liquids and gases.

Explanation

The correct answer is B because a fire occurring in paints, cooking oil, grease, and petroleum products falls under Class B fires. Class B fires involve flammable liquids and gases.

69. (007) A fire occurring in electrical equipment is a class

A.

B.

C.

D.

A fire occurring in electrical equipment is a class C fire. Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment, such as appliances, wiring, circuit breakers, and outlets. These fires are caused by electrical faults or malfunctions and can be extremely dangerous. It is important to use appropriate fire extinguishers or methods specifically designed for class C fires to safely extinguish them.

Explanation

A fire occurring in electrical equipment is a class C fire. Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment, such as appliances, wiring, circuit breakers, and outlets. These fires are caused by electrical faults or malfunctions and can be extremely dangerous. It is important to use appropriate fire extinguishers or methods specifically designed for class C fires to safely extinguish them.

70. (317) What are the indications on the two pairs of wing lock pin safety flags to show the lock pins are disengaged?

Each flag is half black and half white.

One flag is black and one flag is white.

Both flags are black.

Both flags are white.

The correct answer is that each flag is half black and half white. This indicates that the lock pins are disengaged. The half black and half white design is commonly used to visually represent the status of a lock or latch. In this case, the half black portion indicates that the lock pins are not engaged, while the half white portion indicates that they are disengaged. This design allows for easy identification and ensures that the lock pins are clearly visible to the operator.

Explanation

The correct answer is that each flag is half black and half white. This indicates that the lock pins are disengaged. The half black and half white design is commonly used to visually represent the status of a lock or latch. In this case, the half black portion indicates that the lock pins are not engaged, while the half white portion indicates that they are disengaged. This design allows for easy identification and ensures that the lock pins are clearly visible to the operator.

71. (009) Which type of technical order (TO) files normally are established and maintained by Air Force bases and activities?

Distribution.

Expanded.

Limited.

Shop.

Air Force bases and activities typically establish and maintain Limited technical order (TO) files. Limited TO files contain essential TOs that are required for the proper operation and maintenance of equipment, but they do not include every single TO available. Limited TO files are curated to ensure that only the most critical and frequently used TOs are readily accessible, making it easier for personnel to find the information they need quickly and efficiently.

Explanation

Air Force bases and activities typically establish and maintain Limited technical order (TO) files. Limited TO files contain essential TOs that are required for the proper operation and maintenance of equipment, but they do not include every single TO available. Limited TO files are curated to ensure that only the most critical and frequently used TOs are readily accessible, making it easier for personnel to find the information they need quickly and efficiently.

72. (011) How soon should you submit a technical order (TO) deficiency report if you discover an error in the TO that involves flight safety that would result in serious injury?

Immediately.

Within 30 days.

At the next TO revision.

Within one to five days or before the next flight.

If you discover an error in the technical order (TO) that involves flight safety and could result in serious injury, it is important to submit a TO deficiency report immediately. This is because flight safety is a critical concern and any potential risks should be addressed promptly to prevent accidents or injuries. Waiting for 30 days, the next TO revision, or one to five days before the next flight could lead to unnecessary delays and potential harm. Therefore, immediate action is necessary in such cases.

Explanation

If you discover an error in the technical order (TO) that involves flight safety and could result in serious injury, it is important to submit a TO deficiency report immediately. This is because flight safety is a critical concern and any potential risks should be addressed promptly to prevent accidents or injuries. Waiting for 30 days, the next TO revision, or one to five days before the next flight could lead to unnecessary delays and potential harm. Therefore, immediate action is necessary in such cases.

73. (018) When an aircraft lands following the last flight of a flying period, what type of inspection should you perform?

Pre-flight.

Thru-flight.

Basic post-flight.

Hourly post-flight.

After the last flight of a flying period, a basic post-flight inspection should be performed. This type of inspection is conducted to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and airworthy condition after the flight. It involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's exterior, including the fuselage, wings, control surfaces, and landing gear. The inspection also includes checking for any signs of damage, leaks, or abnormalities that may have occurred during the flight. This inspection is crucial to identify any potential issues and address them before the next flight.

Explanation

After the last flight of a flying period, a basic post-flight inspection should be performed. This type of inspection is conducted to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and airworthy condition after the flight. It involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's exterior, including the fuselage, wings, control surfaces, and landing gear. The inspection also includes checking for any signs of damage, leaks, or abnormalities that may have occurred during the flight. This inspection is crucial to identify any potential issues and address them before the next flight.

74. (330) For identification purposes, what color is the engine monitoring system's (EMS) electrical harness color–coded?

Yellow.

Green.

Blue.

Red.

The correct answer is Green. The engine monitoring system's (EMS) electrical harness is color-coded in green for identification purposes.

Explanation

The correct answer is Green. The engine monitoring system's (EMS) electrical harness is color-coded in green for identification purposes.

75. (020) Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form serves as a permanent history of significant actions for an aircraft?

AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data.

AFTO Form 110, Significant Data.

AFTO Form 210, Actions.

AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.

AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data, serves as a permanent history of significant actions for an aircraft. This form is used to document important events, modifications, repairs, and other significant information related to the aircraft. It provides a comprehensive record that can be used for maintenance, safety, and historical purposes. The form helps to track the aircraft's maintenance history and can be referenced in the future to ensure proper maintenance and safety procedures are followed.

Explanation

AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data, serves as a permanent history of significant actions for an aircraft. This form is used to document important events, modifications, repairs, and other significant information related to the aircraft. It provides a comprehensive record that can be used for maintenance, safety, and historical purposes. The form helps to track the aircraft's maintenance history and can be referenced in the future to ensure proper maintenance and safety procedures are followed.

76. (403) The attachment point for the tail wheel assembly on the H–60 tail landing gear is the

Fork assembly.

Axle assembly.

Yoke assembly.

Shock strut.

The correct answer is fork assembly. The attachment point for the tail wheel assembly on the H-60 tail landing gear is the fork assembly. The fork assembly is responsible for connecting the tail wheel to the rest of the landing gear system, allowing it to rotate and move as necessary during landing and taxiing. The axle assembly, yoke assembly, and shock strut are not specifically mentioned as the attachment point for the tail wheel assembly in the given question.

Explanation

The correct answer is fork assembly. The attachment point for the tail wheel assembly on the H-60 tail landing gear is the fork assembly. The fork assembly is responsible for connecting the tail wheel to the rest of the landing gear system, allowing it to rotate and move as necessary during landing and taxiing. The axle assembly, yoke assembly, and shock strut are not specifically mentioned as the attachment point for the tail wheel assembly in the given question.

77. (023) Critical items may be designated by the local chief

Of staff.

Of supply.

Enlisted manager.

Enlisted advisor.

The correct answer is "of supply" because critical items are typically related to supplies or resources that are essential for an organization or operation. Therefore, it makes sense that the local chief of supply would be responsible for designating these critical items.

Explanation

The correct answer is "of supply" because critical items are typically related to supplies or resources that are essential for an organization or operation. Therefore, it makes sense that the local chief of supply would be responsible for designating these critical items.

78. (403) What allows for thermal expansion when the brakes on an H–60 are OFF?

Master cylinder.

Slave mixer valve.

Parking brake valve.

Wheel brake assembly.

The master cylinder allows for thermal expansion when the brakes on an H-60 are off. The master cylinder is responsible for converting the force applied to the brake pedal into hydraulic pressure, which then activates the wheel brake assembly. When the brakes are not in use, the master cylinder allows for any thermal expansion or contraction of the brake fluid, ensuring that the brakes remain in proper working condition.

Explanation

The master cylinder allows for thermal expansion when the brakes on an H-60 are off. The master cylinder is responsible for converting the force applied to the brake pedal into hydraulic pressure, which then activates the wheel brake assembly. When the brakes are not in use, the master cylinder allows for any thermal expansion or contraction of the brake fluid, ensuring that the brakes remain in proper working condition.

79. (023) Which expendability, recoverability, reparability codes (ERRC) are considered repair asset codes?

XD only.

XD and XB.

XF only.

XD or XF.

The correct answer is XD or XF. The explanation for this answer is that the expendability, recoverability, reparability codes (ERRC) XD and XF are both considered repair asset codes. This means that assets with these codes can be repaired if they become damaged or non-functional. The XD code indicates that an item is repairable, while the XF code indicates that an item is reparable. Therefore, assets with either of these codes can be repaired and are classified as repair assets.

Explanation

The correct answer is XD or XF. The explanation for this answer is that the expendability, recoverability, reparability codes (ERRC) XD and XF are both considered repair asset codes. This means that assets with these codes can be repaired if they become damaged or non-functional. The XD code indicates that an item is repairable, while the XF code indicates that an item is reparable. Therefore, assets with either of these codes can be repaired and are classified as repair assets.

80. (404) Before servicing an H–60 landing gear strut with nitrogen, you must ensure there

Are no nitrogen leaks.

Are no hydraulic fluid leaks.

Is adequate nitrogen pressure.

Is proper hydraulic fluid pressure.

Before servicing an H-60 landing gear strut with nitrogen, you must ensure there are no hydraulic fluid leaks. This is because if there are leaks in the hydraulic fluid system, it can cause contamination and potential damage to the landing gear strut. Therefore, it is important to address any hydraulic fluid leaks before proceeding with the nitrogen servicing to ensure the proper functioning and safety of the landing gear strut.

Explanation

Before servicing an H-60 landing gear strut with nitrogen, you must ensure there are no hydraulic fluid leaks. This is because if there are leaks in the hydraulic fluid system, it can cause contamination and potential damage to the landing gear strut. Therefore, it is important to address any hydraulic fluid leaks before proceeding with the nitrogen servicing to ensure the proper functioning and safety of the landing gear strut.

81. (404) To avoid placing undue stress on the brake assembly when servicing the upper stage of the shock strut, you need to

Deflate the tire.

Set the parking brake.

Release the parking brake.

Use a skid plate under the tire.

When servicing the upper stage of the shock strut, releasing the parking brake is necessary to avoid placing undue stress on the brake assembly. This is because the parking brake holds the tire in place and applying force to the upper stage of the shock strut while the parking brake is engaged can cause unnecessary strain on the brake assembly. By releasing the parking brake, the tire is free to move and the stress on the brake assembly is minimized.

Explanation

When servicing the upper stage of the shock strut, releasing the parking brake is necessary to avoid placing undue stress on the brake assembly. This is because the parking brake holds the tire in place and applying force to the upper stage of the shock strut while the parking brake is engaged can cause unnecessary strain on the brake assembly. By releasing the parking brake, the tire is free to move and the stress on the brake assembly is minimized.

82. (406) The utility module on the H–60 connects hydraulic pressure to the

First stage of the TR servo.

First stage of the flight control servo.

Second stage of the flight control servo.

Second stage of the tail rotor (TR) servo.

The correct answer is "second stage of the tail rotor (TR) servo." The utility module on the H-60 helicopter is responsible for connecting hydraulic pressure to the various components of the aircraft. In this case, it specifically connects the hydraulic pressure to the second stage of the tail rotor (TR) servo. This is important because the TR servo is responsible for controlling the pitch of the tail rotor blades, which helps to stabilize the helicopter during flight. By connecting hydraulic pressure to the second stage of the TR servo, the utility module ensures that the tail rotor functions properly and contributes to the overall control and maneuverability of the helicopter.

Explanation

The correct answer is "second stage of the tail rotor (TR) servo." The utility module on the H-60 helicopter is responsible for connecting hydraulic pressure to the various components of the aircraft. In this case, it specifically connects the hydraulic pressure to the second stage of the tail rotor (TR) servo. This is important because the TR servo is responsible for controlling the pitch of the tail rotor blades, which helps to stabilize the helicopter during flight. By connecting hydraulic pressure to the second stage of the TR servo, the utility module ensures that the tail rotor functions properly and contributes to the overall control and maneuverability of the helicopter.

83. (025) A commander assures that property is receiving proper care and is being properly safeguarded by

Inspecting the property on issue.

Inspecting the property on turn-in.

Making frequent visits to base activities.

Obtaining written reports from supervisors.

The commander ensures that property is receiving proper care and is being properly safeguarded by making frequent visits to base activities. This allows the commander to personally assess the condition and handling of the property, identify any issues or concerns, and take appropriate actions to address them. Inspecting the property on issue or turn-in may only provide a snapshot view of the property at a specific point in time and may not capture its overall care and safeguarding. Obtaining written reports from supervisors may provide some information, but it may not be as comprehensive or accurate as firsthand observations during frequent visits.

Explanation

The commander ensures that property is receiving proper care and is being properly safeguarded by making frequent visits to base activities. This allows the commander to personally assess the condition and handling of the property, identify any issues or concerns, and take appropriate actions to address them. Inspecting the property on issue or turn-in may only provide a snapshot view of the property at a specific point in time and may not capture its overall care and safeguarding. Obtaining written reports from supervisors may provide some information, but it may not be as comprehensive or accurate as firsthand observations during frequent visits.

84. (025) Which type of responsibility is assumed by an individual who has acquired physical possession of government property?

Command.

Personal.

Custodial.

Supervisory.

When an individual has acquired physical possession of government property, they assume custodial responsibility. This means that they are responsible for the safekeeping, maintenance, and proper use of the government property under their control. They are expected to ensure that the property is not lost, damaged, or misused, and to report any issues or discrepancies promptly. Custodial responsibility emphasizes the importance of accountability and proper stewardship of government resources.

Explanation

When an individual has acquired physical possession of government property, they assume custodial responsibility. This means that they are responsible for the safekeeping, maintenance, and proper use of the government property under their control. They are expected to ensure that the property is not lost, damaged, or misused, and to report any issues or discrepancies promptly. Custodial responsibility emphasizes the importance of accountability and proper stewardship of government resources.

85. (026) When setting your torque wrench prior to torquing a self-locking nut for a tail drive shaft clamp, you must figure out the

Bolt friction torque, and add it to the required torque value.

Nut friction torque, and add it to the required torque value.

Bolt friction torque, and subtract it from the torque value.

Nut friction torque, and subtract it from the torque value.

When setting the torque wrench for torquing a self-locking nut for a tail drive shaft clamp, you need to take into account the nut friction torque and add it to the required torque value. This is because the nut friction torque creates resistance that needs to be overcome in order to achieve the desired level of tightness. By adding the nut friction torque to the required torque value, you ensure that the correct amount of torque is applied to the nut.

Explanation

When setting the torque wrench for torquing a self-locking nut for a tail drive shaft clamp, you need to take into account the nut friction torque and add it to the required torque value. This is because the nut friction torque creates resistance that needs to be overcome in order to achieve the desired level of tightness. By adding the nut friction torque to the required torque value, you ensure that the correct amount of torque is applied to the nut.

86. (409) The capacity of the cargo hook on the H–60 is

4,000 pounds.

6,000 pounds.

8,000 pounds.

10,000 pounds.

The correct answer is 8,000 pounds. This means that the capacity of the cargo hook on the H-60 helicopter is 8,000 pounds. This indicates that the cargo hook is capable of lifting and carrying a maximum weight of 8,000 pounds.

Explanation

The correct answer is 8,000 pounds. This means that the capacity of the cargo hook on the H-60 helicopter is 8,000 pounds. This indicates that the cargo hook is capable of lifting and carrying a maximum weight of 8,000 pounds.

87. (027) How many threads must be showing through a self-locking nut for maximum locking effect?

1

2

3

4

A self-locking nut is designed to prevent loosening due to vibrations or other external forces. It achieves this by having a special thread pattern that creates friction and resistance when tightened. In order for the nut to have maximum locking effect, at least two threads must be showing through the nut. This ensures that there is enough engagement between the nut and the bolt to provide sufficient friction and locking force, minimizing the chances of the nut coming loose.

Explanation

A self-locking nut is designed to prevent loosening due to vibrations or other external forces. It achieves this by having a special thread pattern that creates friction and resistance when tightened. In order for the nut to have maximum locking effect, at least two threads must be showing through the nut. This ensures that there is enough engagement between the nut and the bolt to provide sufficient friction and locking force, minimizing the chances of the nut coming loose.

88. (410) To avoid injury and prevent cable fouling when raising or lowering the rescue hoist cable on an H–60, you should use

Rubber gloves and maintain tension on the cable.

Leather gloves and maintain tension on the cable.

Rubber gloves and avoid having tension on the cable.

Leather gloves and avoid having tension on the cable.

Using leather gloves and maintaining tension on the cable is the correct answer because leather gloves provide better protection against potential injuries and cable fouling compared to rubber gloves. Maintaining tension on the cable helps to prevent it from becoming tangled or snagged during the raising or lowering process, ensuring a smooth and safe operation.

Explanation

Using leather gloves and maintaining tension on the cable is the correct answer because leather gloves provide better protection against potential injuries and cable fouling compared to rubber gloves. Maintaining tension on the cable helps to prevent it from becoming tangled or snagged during the raising or lowering process, ensuring a smooth and safe operation.

89. (410) What is the most likely cause of a birdcaged rescue hoist cable on an H–60?

Hook bearing not rotating freely.

Cable getting caught in the cable guide.

Lifting more weight than the cable is rated for.

Cable rubbing against the other cable or other structural members.

The most likely cause of a birdcaged rescue hoist cable on an H-60 is the hook bearing not rotating freely. This means that the bearing that allows the hook to rotate and move freely is likely stuck or not functioning properly. This can cause the cable to become twisted and tangled, resulting in a birdcaged cable.

Explanation

The most likely cause of a birdcaged rescue hoist cable on an H-60 is the hook bearing not rotating freely. This means that the bearing that allows the hook to rotate and move freely is likely stuck or not functioning properly. This can cause the cable to become twisted and tangled, resulting in a birdcaged cable.

90. (413) When you place an H–60's WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE COPILOT switch to the ON position, you should feel heat on the copilot's windshield in approximately

One minute.

Three minutes.

Five minutes.

Seven minutes.

When you place an H-60's WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE COPILOT switch to the ON position, you should feel heat on the copilot's windshield in approximately five minutes.

Explanation

When you place an H-60's WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE COPILOT switch to the ON position, you should feel heat on the copilot's windshield in approximately five minutes.

91. (031) What is another name for engine wash cart?

Hobart.

Soap/water cart.

Spray unit cart.

Corrosion control cart.

The correct answer is "Spray unit cart" because it refers to a cart that is specifically designed for spraying or cleaning engines. This cart is equipped with a spray unit that can be used to wash engines or remove dirt and debris. The other options, such as "Hobart" and "Soap/water cart," do not accurately describe a cart used for engine washing. "Corrosion control cart" is also not a suitable alternative name for an engine wash cart as it implies a different purpose or function.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Spray unit cart" because it refers to a cart that is specifically designed for spraying or cleaning engines. This cart is equipped with a spray unit that can be used to wash engines or remove dirt and debris. The other options, such as "Hobart" and "Soap/water cart," do not accurately describe a cart used for engine washing. "Corrosion control cart" is also not a suitable alternative name for an engine wash cart as it implies a different purpose or function.

92. (032) With the motor running on the A/M27T–2A hydraulic test stand, which valve should you press to relieve any air that was trapped in the system from the fill and bleed operation?

Fill.

Bleed.

Relief.

Air pressure.

When the motor is running on the hydraulic test stand, the valve that should be pressed to relieve any trapped air in the system from the fill and bleed operation is the "Bleed" valve. This valve is specifically designed to release any air pockets that may have been trapped during the filling process, ensuring that the hydraulic system operates smoothly and efficiently. By pressing the "Bleed" valve, any air bubbles or pockets will be expelled, allowing for optimal performance of the system.

Explanation

When the motor is running on the hydraulic test stand, the valve that should be pressed to relieve any trapped air in the system from the fill and bleed operation is the "Bleed" valve. This valve is specifically designed to release any air pockets that may have been trapped during the filling process, ensuring that the hydraulic system operates smoothly and efficiently. By pressing the "Bleed" valve, any air bubbles or pockets will be expelled, allowing for optimal performance of the system.

93. (417) The item used as the dielectric in the H–60 fuel quantify indicating system is

Alternating current (AC) current.

Direct current (DC) current.

Fuel.

Air.

The correct answer is fuel. In the H-60 fuel quantity indicating system, the item used as the dielectric is the fuel itself. A dielectric is a material that is placed between two conductive plates to store electrical energy. In this system, the fuel acts as the dielectric, allowing the measurement of the fuel quantity based on the electrical capacitance between the plates. The alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC) current options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the item used as the dielectric in this specific system.

Explanation

The correct answer is fuel. In the H-60 fuel quantity indicating system, the item used as the dielectric is the fuel itself. A dielectric is a material that is placed between two conductive plates to store electrical energy. In this system, the fuel acts as the dielectric, allowing the measurement of the fuel quantity based on the electrical capacitance between the plates. The alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC) current options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the item used as the dielectric in this specific system.

94. (423) To check the H–60 central display unit (CDU) dimming feature, you would use

A test unit.

A flashlight.

The test switch.

The rheostat knob.

To check the H-60 central display unit (CDU) dimming feature, a flashlight would be used. This is because a flashlight can be used to simulate various lighting conditions and check if the CDU dimming feature is functioning properly. It allows the user to assess the visibility and readability of the display unit under different lighting levels.

Explanation

To check the H-60 central display unit (CDU) dimming feature, a flashlight would be used. This is because a flashlight can be used to simulate various lighting conditions and check if the CDU dimming feature is functioning properly. It allows the user to assess the visibility and readability of the display unit under different lighting levels.

95. (050) When refueling, what is the minimum safe distance between aircraft?

20 feet.

30 feet.

40 feet.

50 feet.

The minimum safe distance between aircraft when refueling is 50 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of both the aircraft and the personnel involved in the refueling process. Being too close can increase the risk of accidents, such as fuel spills or ignition. Therefore, it is important to maintain a sufficient distance to minimize any potential hazards and ensure a safe refueling operation.

Explanation

The minimum safe distance between aircraft when refueling is 50 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of both the aircraft and the personnel involved in the refueling process. Being too close can increase the risk of accidents, such as fuel spills or ignition. Therefore, it is important to maintain a sufficient distance to minimize any potential hazards and ensure a safe refueling operation.

96. (053) Which troubleshooting aid is designed to promote understanding of the system?

Zones.

Schematic.

Wiring diagram.

Reference designation index.

A schematic is a visual representation of a system or circuit that uses symbols to represent the various components and their connections. It provides a simplified and easy-to-understand overview of the system, allowing technicians to identify and understand how different parts of the system are connected and interact with each other. Therefore, a schematic is a valuable troubleshooting aid as it promotes understanding of the system and helps technicians diagnose and fix any issues that may arise.

Explanation

A schematic is a visual representation of a system or circuit that uses symbols to represent the various components and their connections. It provides a simplified and easy-to-understand overview of the system, allowing technicians to identify and understand how different parts of the system are connected and interact with each other. Therefore, a schematic is a valuable troubleshooting aid as it promotes understanding of the system and helps technicians diagnose and fix any issues that may arise.

97. (426) Longitudinal movement of the H–60 helicopter is accomplished by movement of the

Cyclic control.

Stabilator control.

Collective control.

Tail rotor (TR) control.

The correct answer is cyclic control. The cyclic control is a control stick that is located between the pilot's legs and is used to control the pitch and roll of the helicopter. By moving the cyclic control forward or backward, the pilot can control the longitudinal movement of the helicopter, causing it to move forward or backward. Therefore, the longitudinal movement of the H-60 helicopter is accomplished by movement of the cyclic control.

Explanation

The correct answer is cyclic control. The cyclic control is a control stick that is located between the pilot's legs and is used to control the pitch and roll of the helicopter. By moving the cyclic control forward or backward, the pilot can control the longitudinal movement of the helicopter, causing it to move forward or backward. Therefore, the longitudinal movement of the H-60 helicopter is accomplished by movement of the cyclic control.

98. (432) The scroll vanes of the T700 engine are anti-iced by

Hot scavenge oil.

5th-stage bleed-air.

7th-stage bleed-air.

Electrical heating elements.

The scroll vanes of the T700 engine are anti-iced by hot scavenge oil. This means that the oil that is used to scavenge and remove excess heat from the engine is also used to prevent ice formation on the scroll vanes. The hot oil is directed to the vanes, which helps to keep them free from ice and ensures proper engine performance. This method of anti-icing is more efficient and effective compared to using bleed-air or electrical heating elements.

Explanation

The scroll vanes of the T700 engine are anti-iced by hot scavenge oil. This means that the oil that is used to scavenge and remove excess heat from the engine is also used to prevent ice formation on the scroll vanes. The hot oil is directed to the vanes, which helps to keep them free from ice and ensures proper engine performance. This method of anti-icing is more efficient and effective compared to using bleed-air or electrical heating elements.

99. (205) While both cabin doors have normal opening/closing mechanisms, what is the only door that is given emergency opening provisions?

Side.

Upper.

Lower.

Escape.

The upper door is the only one that is given emergency opening provisions. This suggests that in case of an emergency, such as a fire or evacuation, the upper door can be opened quickly and easily to ensure the safety of the occupants inside the cabin. The other doors may have normal opening/closing mechanisms but do not have specific provisions for emergency situations.

Explanation

The upper door is the only one that is given emergency opening provisions. This suggests that in case of an emergency, such as a fire or evacuation, the upper door can be opened quickly and easily to ensure the safety of the occupants inside the cabin. The other doors may have normal opening/closing mechanisms but do not have specific provisions for emergency situations.

100. (209) What component controls and monitors ground fuel system servicing?

PFSA.

Ground refuel distribution panel.

GRDP.

Aerial refuel/defuel panel.

The GRDP (Ground Refuel Distribution Panel) is the component that controls and monitors ground fuel system servicing. It is responsible for distributing fuel to various aircraft and monitoring the fuel levels. The other options mentioned, PFSA and Aerial refuel/defuel panel, are not specifically designed for controlling and monitoring ground fuel system servicing.

Explanation

The GRDP (Ground Refuel Distribution Panel) is the component that controls and monitors ground fuel system servicing. It is responsible for distributing fuel to various aircraft and monitoring the fuel levels. The other options mentioned, PFSA and Aerial refuel/defuel panel, are not specifically designed for controlling and monitoring ground fuel system servicing.

101. (210) What mode of operation does the GRDP operates in?

ON.

OFF.

REFUEL.

NORMAL.

The correct answer is "ON." This suggests that the GRDP (presumably referring to some kind of device or system) operates in an active or functioning mode. It is not turned off or in a standby state, but rather in an operational state. The other options, "OFF," "REFUEL," and "NORMAL," do not provide any indication of the mode of operation and are therefore incorrect.

Explanation

The correct answer is "ON." This suggests that the GRDP (presumably referring to some kind of device or system) operates in an active or functioning mode. It is not turned off or in a standby state, but rather in an operational state. The other options, "OFF," "REFUEL," and "NORMAL," do not provide any indication of the mode of operation and are therefore incorrect.

102. (214) What flight control module component is used to shuttle the additional hydraulic fluid gained by hydraulic system 1 during APU clutch and ground check out operations back into hydraulic system 3?

Compensator.

Charging valve.

Fluid compensation valve.

System return check valve.

The correct answer is Fluid compensation valve. The fluid compensation valve is used to shuttle the additional hydraulic fluid gained by hydraulic system 1 during APU clutch and ground check out operations back into hydraulic system 3. This valve ensures that the hydraulic fluid is properly distributed and balanced between the different hydraulic systems. The compensator, charging valve, and system return check valve are not specifically designed for this purpose.

Explanation

The correct answer is Fluid compensation valve. The fluid compensation valve is used to shuttle the additional hydraulic fluid gained by hydraulic system 1 during APU clutch and ground check out operations back into hydraulic system 3. This valve ensures that the hydraulic fluid is properly distributed and balanced between the different hydraulic systems. The compensator, charging valve, and system return check valve are not specifically designed for this purpose.

103. (220) How many degrees are the flaps set to, when the flap control panel lever is set at F (Full)?

68.5.

70.5.

72.5.

75.5.

When the flap control panel lever is set at F (Full), the flaps are set to 72.5 degrees.

Explanation

When the flap control panel lever is set at F (Full), the flaps are set to 72.5 degrees.

104. (229) What is the only component in each of the auxiliary fuel cells indication systems?

Overfill sensors.

Low level sensor.

Fuel quantity probe.

Jettison shutoff valve.

The correct answer is fuel quantity probe. In auxiliary fuel cells indication systems, the fuel quantity probe is the only component that is present. The fuel quantity probe is responsible for measuring the amount of fuel in the auxiliary fuel cells and providing an indication of the fuel level. The other options, such as overfill sensors, low level sensor, and jettison shutoff valve, are not specific components of the auxiliary fuel cells indication systems.

Explanation

The correct answer is fuel quantity probe. In auxiliary fuel cells indication systems, the fuel quantity probe is the only component that is present. The fuel quantity probe is responsible for measuring the amount of fuel in the auxiliary fuel cells and providing an indication of the fuel level. The other options, such as overfill sensors, low level sensor, and jettison shutoff valve, are not specific components of the auxiliary fuel cells indication systems.

105. (231) What component provides control and monitoring of fuel CG management system operation for the left side of the aircraft, and monitoring of the low level sensor in the left feed tank?

FMU 1 (left FMU).

FMU 2 (right FMU).

FMU 3.

CPU.

FMU 1 (left FMU) is the correct answer because it is the component that provides control and monitoring of the fuel CG management system operation for the left side of the aircraft. Additionally, it also monitors the low level sensor in the left feed tank. This means that FMU 1 is responsible for managing the fuel system on the left side of the aircraft and ensuring that fuel levels are monitored and maintained properly.

Explanation

FMU 1 (left FMU) is the correct answer because it is the component that provides control and monitoring of the fuel CG management system operation for the left side of the aircraft. Additionally, it also monitors the low level sensor in the left feed tank. This means that FMU 1 is responsible for managing the fuel system on the left side of the aircraft and ensuring that fuel levels are monitored and maintained properly.

106. (307) What flight compartment lighting system mode of operation has the maximum brightness levels set for affected cockpit lights?

NIGHT NORM.

DAY NORM.

NVIS.

OFF.

The correct answer is DAY NORM. In the flight compartment lighting system, the DAY NORM mode of operation has the maximum brightness levels set for affected cockpit lights. This mode is used during daylight operations to provide adequate lighting for the cockpit without causing discomfort or glare for the pilot. It ensures optimal visibility and allows the pilot to easily read instruments and displays.

Explanation

The correct answer is DAY NORM. In the flight compartment lighting system, the DAY NORM mode of operation has the maximum brightness levels set for affected cockpit lights. This mode is used during daylight operations to provide adequate lighting for the cockpit without causing discomfort or glare for the pilot. It ensures optimal visibility and allows the pilot to easily read instruments and displays.

107. (308) What types of cabin lights are identical and interchangeable? Each light contains two incandescent lamps, one with an opaque lens and one with a green night vision imaging system (NVIS) lens

Dome.

Panel.

Interior.

Secondary.

The dome lights in the cabin are identical and interchangeable. Each dome light contains two incandescent lamps, one with an opaque lens and one with a green night vision imaging system (NVIS) lens. The dome lights are typically used for general illumination in the cabin area.

Explanation

The dome lights in the cabin are identical and interchangeable. Each dome light contains two incandescent lamps, one with an opaque lens and one with a green night vision imaging system (NVIS) lens. The dome lights are typically used for general illumination in the cabin area.

108. (309) Two light–emitting diode (LED) light assemblies that are installed on the tip of each proprotor blade are

Only night vision imaging system (NVIS) visible.

Visible from the top.

Visible from the bottom.

Visible from the top and the bottom.

The correct answer is "visible from the top and the bottom." This means that the LED light assemblies on the proprotor blades can be seen from both the top and the bottom. This is important for safety purposes, as it allows the lights to be visible to other aircraft or personnel from any direction. It ensures that the proprotor blades are easily noticeable in low light or night conditions, enhancing the overall visibility of the aircraft.

Explanation

The correct answer is "visible from the top and the bottom." This means that the LED light assemblies on the proprotor blades can be seen from both the top and the bottom. This is important for safety purposes, as it allows the lights to be visible to other aircraft or personnel from any direction. It ensures that the proprotor blades are easily noticeable in low light or night conditions, enhancing the overall visibility of the aircraft.

109. As part of the training.

As part of the training.

As the same as the training.

As a separate item from the training.

Do not treat it as part of the training.

The correct answer is "As a separate item from the training." This means that the item should not be considered or included as part of the training. It should be treated separately and not be seen as an integral component of the training process.

Explanation

The correct answer is "As a separate item from the training." This means that the item should not be considered or included as part of the training. It should be treated separately and not be seen as an integral component of the training process.

110. (004) When using compressed air for cleaning, use a diffuser nozzle and make sure the pressure does not exceed how many pounds per square inch (psi)?

15

30

45

60

When using compressed air for cleaning, it is important to use a diffuser nozzle to distribute the air evenly and reduce the risk of injury. Additionally, it is crucial to ensure that the pressure does not exceed 30 pounds per square inch (psi). This is because higher pressures can cause harm to the surfaces being cleaned or potentially injure the person operating the equipment. Therefore, maintaining a pressure of 30 psi or below is recommended to ensure safe and effective cleaning.

Explanation

When using compressed air for cleaning, it is important to use a diffuser nozzle to distribute the air evenly and reduce the risk of injury. Additionally, it is crucial to ensure that the pressure does not exceed 30 pounds per square inch (psi). This is because higher pressures can cause harm to the surfaces being cleaned or potentially injure the person operating the equipment. Therefore, maintaining a pressure of 30 psi or below is recommended to ensure safe and effective cleaning.

111. (316) What component is designed to reduce rotor-induced vibrations and provide anti-ice protection for the proprotor blade assemblies?

Proprotor gearboxes (PRGB).

Grip assemblies.

Pendulum damper assemblies.

Tip weight support assemblies.

Pendulum damper assemblies are designed to reduce rotor-induced vibrations and provide anti-ice protection for the proprotor blade assemblies. These assemblies consist of pendulum weights that help dampen the vibrations caused by the rotation of the rotor blades. Additionally, they are equipped with anti-icing systems that prevent ice buildup on the blades, ensuring safe and efficient operation of the proprotor.

Explanation

Pendulum damper assemblies are designed to reduce rotor-induced vibrations and provide anti-ice protection for the proprotor blade assemblies. These assemblies consist of pendulum weights that help dampen the vibrations caused by the rotation of the rotor blades. Additionally, they are equipped with anti-icing systems that prevent ice buildup on the blades, ensuring safe and efficient operation of the proprotor.

112. The planetary assembly is mounted to each

Cam set plate.

Proprotor blade.

Blade fold support.

Pitch lock mechanism.

The correct answer is proprotor blade. The given statement suggests that the planetary assembly is mounted to something, and out of the options provided, the proprotor blade is the only one that can be mounted to the planetary assembly. The other options, such as cam set plate, blade fold support, and pitch lock mechanism, do not logically fit with the given statement. Therefore, the proprotor blade is the most suitable option.

Explanation

The correct answer is proprotor blade. The given statement suggests that the planetary assembly is mounted to something, and out of the options provided, the proprotor blade is the only one that can be mounted to the planetary assembly. The other options, such as cam set plate, blade fold support, and pitch lock mechanism, do not logically fit with the given statement. Therefore, the proprotor blade is the most suitable option.

113. (319) What type of adapter allows for a more solid connection between a driveshaft and its couplings?

Double.

Splined.

Curvic.

Single.

A curvic adapter allows for a more solid connection between a driveshaft and its couplings. The curvic design consists of interlocking teeth on both the driveshaft and the coupling, ensuring a secure and precise fit. This type of adapter is commonly used in high-torque applications where a strong and reliable connection is essential.

Explanation

A curvic adapter allows for a more solid connection between a driveshaft and its couplings. The curvic design consists of interlocking teeth on both the driveshaft and the coupling, ensuring a secure and precise fit. This type of adapter is commonly used in high-torque applications where a strong and reliable connection is essential.

114. (320) What additional component in the left proprotor gear box (PRGB) provides for the counter– rotation of the proprotors?

Flex coupling.

Curvic coupling.

Spindle adapter.

Idler gear.

The additional component in the left proprotor gear box (PRGB) that provides for the counter-rotation of the proprotors is the idler gear. The idler gear is responsible for transmitting the rotational force from the main rotor to the left proprotor, allowing it to rotate in the opposite direction. This counter-rotation is necessary for maintaining balance and stability during flight. The flex coupling, curvic coupling, and spindle adapter are not directly involved in providing counter-rotation in the PRGB.

Explanation

The additional component in the left proprotor gear box (PRGB) that provides for the counter-rotation of the proprotors is the idler gear. The idler gear is responsible for transmitting the rotational force from the main rotor to the left proprotor, allowing it to rotate in the opposite direction. This counter-rotation is necessary for maintaining balance and stability during flight. The flex coupling, curvic coupling, and spindle adapter are not directly involved in providing counter-rotation in the PRGB.

115. (010) Which technical order (TO) establishes functional-check-flight requirements for the HH– 60G helicopter?

TO 1H–1(H)G–01.

TO 1H–1(H)G–17.

TO 1H–1(H)G–2–1.

TO 1H–1(H)G–6.

TO 1H-1(H)G-6 is the correct answer because it is the technical order that establishes functional-check-flight requirements for the HH-60G helicopter. The other options, TO 1H-1(H)G-01, TO 1H-1(H)G-17, and TO 1H-1(H)G-2-1, do not pertain to the functional-check-flight requirements for this specific helicopter model.

Explanation

TO 1H-1(H)G-6 is the correct answer because it is the technical order that establishes functional-check-flight requirements for the HH-60G helicopter. The other options, TO 1H-1(H)G-01, TO 1H-1(H)G-17, and TO 1H-1(H)G-2-1, do not pertain to the functional-check-flight requirements for this specific helicopter model.

116. (322) What component engages and disengages the auxiliary power unit (APU)?

Integral overrunning clutch.

APU gearbox.

Planetary assembly.

APU transmission adapter.

The integral overrunning clutch is the component that engages and disengages the auxiliary power unit (APU). This clutch allows the APU to run independently from the main engine and provides power for various aircraft systems when the main engines are not running. It allows the APU to start and stop without affecting the main engine, ensuring smooth operation and flexibility in power generation.

Explanation

The integral overrunning clutch is the component that engages and disengages the auxiliary power unit (APU). This clutch allows the APU to run independently from the main engine and provides power for various aircraft systems when the main engines are not running. It allows the APU to start and stop without affecting the main engine, ensuring smooth operation and flexibility in power generation.

117. (322) What midwing gearbox (MWGB) oil component vents the gearbox to the atmosphere to equalize internal and external case pressure?

Manifold.

Filler cap.

Breather.

Cooler/blower assembly.

The breather component of the midwing gearbox (MWGB) oil system is responsible for venting the gearbox to the atmosphere. This allows for the equalization of internal and external case pressure.

Explanation

The breather component of the midwing gearbox (MWGB) oil system is responsible for venting the gearbox to the atmosphere. This allows for the equalization of internal and external case pressure.

118. (013) Who uses the Maintenance Information System (MIS) to identify and track Repeat/Recur discrepancy trends, and documents the discrepancies accordingly on Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form/IMT 781A, after an aircraft flight is completed?

Section noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

Dedicated crew chief.

Maintenance superintendent.

Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief Section.

The Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief Section uses the Maintenance Information System (MIS) to identify and track Repeat/Recur discrepancy trends. They also document the discrepancies on Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form/IMT 781A after an aircraft flight is completed. This section is responsible for gathering information from both the aircrew and maintenance personnel to ensure that any recurring issues are properly addressed and documented.

Explanation

The Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief Section uses the Maintenance Information System (MIS) to identify and track Repeat/Recur discrepancy trends. They also document the discrepancies on Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form/IMT 781A after an aircraft flight is completed. This section is responsible for gathering information from both the aircrew and maintenance personnel to ensure that any recurring issues are properly addressed and documented.

119. (014) Who appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief?

Wing Commander (WG/CC).

Production Superintendant (pro super).

Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).

Flight Chief.

The Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief. This individual is responsible for overseeing the recovery operations of aircraft that have been involved in accidents or are in a disabled state. The MXG/CC, being in charge of the maintenance group, has the authority to select and assign the most suitable person for this crucial role.

Explanation

The Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief. This individual is responsible for overseeing the recovery operations of aircraft that have been involved in accidents or are in a disabled state. The MXG/CC, being in charge of the maintenance group, has the authority to select and assign the most suitable person for this crucial role.

120. (019) Which form is the source document for logging flight activity for individuals?

Air Force (AF) Form 95, Historical Data.

AF Form 126, Flight Data Document.

Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations ResourceManagement System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.

AFTO Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Report and Maintenance Document.

The correct answer is Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document. This form is the source document for logging flight activity for individuals.

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document. This form is the source document for logging flight activity for individuals.

121. (332) The auxiliary power unit (APU) starter is what kind of motor?

Low speed.

Moderate speed.

High speed.

Variable torque.

The APU starter is a high-speed motor because it needs to provide a quick and powerful start to the auxiliary power unit. The APU is responsible for providing power to various systems on an aircraft when the main engines are not running, so it requires a motor that can rapidly spin up to get the APU running efficiently.

Explanation

The APU starter is a high-speed motor because it needs to provide a quick and powerful start to the auxiliary power unit. The APU is responsible for providing power to various systems on an aircraft when the main engines are not running, so it requires a motor that can rapidly spin up to get the APU running efficiently.

122. (402) Following installation, the H–60 vibration absorber that requires a tuning weight adjustment using the 8500 Balancer/Analyzer and functional check flight is the

Stabilator.

Cabin.

Roll.

Tail.

The correct answer is cabin. After installation, the H-60 vibration absorber requires a tuning weight adjustment using the 8500 Balancer/Analyzer and functional check flight in the cabin. This suggests that the vibration absorber is located in the cabin of the H-60 aircraft.

Explanation

The correct answer is cabin. After installation, the H-60 vibration absorber requires a tuning weight adjustment using the 8500 Balancer/Analyzer and functional check flight in the cabin. This suggests that the vibration absorber is located in the cabin of the H-60 aircraft.

123. (023) Which form is used for internal control of a repair cycle asset item?

Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 346, Processing Tag.

AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.

Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348–1, DIFM Notice.

DD Form 1348–6, Department of Defense (DOD) Single Line Item Requisition SystemDocument.

AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag, is used for internal control of a repair cycle asset item. This form is specifically designed for tracking and documenting the repair process of an item. It includes important information such as the item's identification, condition, and repair actions taken. By using this form, the organization can ensure proper accountability and management of repair cycle assets.

Explanation

AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag, is used for internal control of a repair cycle asset item. This form is specifically designed for tracking and documenting the repair process of an item. It includes important information such as the item's identification, condition, and repair actions taken. By using this form, the organization can ensure proper accountability and management of repair cycle assets.

124. (409) The explosive cartridge (squib) on the H–60 cargo hook is used to

Jettison the hook latch.

Separate the hook from the aircraft.

Release the load during normal flight.

Release the load during an emergency.

The explosive cartridge (squib) on the H-60 cargo hook is used to release the load during an emergency. This means that in a critical situation, such as a malfunction or emergency landing, the explosive cartridge is activated to quickly and safely release the load from the aircraft. This allows for the load to be detached and prevents any further complications or dangers during the emergency situation.

Explanation

The explosive cartridge (squib) on the H-60 cargo hook is used to release the load during an emergency. This means that in a critical situation, such as a malfunction or emergency landing, the explosive cartridge is activated to quickly and safely release the load from the aircraft. This allows for the load to be detached and prevents any further complications or dangers during the emergency situation.

125. (026) The C–8-type tensiometer is capable of measuring cable tension from

10 to 200 pounds with an accuracy of 80 percent.

20 to 400 pounds with an accuracy of 80 percent.

10 to 200 pounds with an accuracy of 95 percent.

20 to 400 pounds with an accuracy of 95 percent.

The C-8 type tensiometer is capable of measuring cable tension from 10 to 200 pounds with an accuracy of 95 percent. This means that the tensiometer can accurately measure cable tension within this range with a high level of precision. The accuracy of 95 percent indicates that the measurements taken by the tensiometer will be very close to the true value of the cable tension.

Explanation

The C-8 type tensiometer is capable of measuring cable tension from 10 to 200 pounds with an accuracy of 95 percent. This means that the tensiometer can accurately measure cable tension within this range with a high level of precision. The accuracy of 95 percent indicates that the measurements taken by the tensiometer will be very close to the true value of the cable tension.

126. (026) What happens when the battery voltage on the digital protractor drops below 7 volts?

Nothing.

The liquid crystal display (LCD) blinks.

The LCD displays “LOW BAT”.

The protractor automatically shuts down.

When the battery voltage on the digital protractor drops below 7 volts, the LCD displays "LOW BAT". This indicates that the battery is running low and needs to be replaced or recharged.

Explanation

When the battery voltage on the digital protractor drops below 7 volts, the LCD displays "LOW BAT". This indicates that the battery is running low and needs to be replaced or recharged.

127. (030) On the –86 generator control panel, the indication of a clogged air filter is a

Red air service indicator flag.

Red air service indicator light.

Yellow air service indicator flag.

Yellow air service indicator light.

The correct answer is yellow air service indicator flag. On the -86 generator control panel, a clogged air filter is indicated by a yellow air service indicator flag. This flag serves as a visual indication to the operator that the air filter needs to be cleaned or replaced. The yellow color is used to distinguish this indicator from other indicators on the control panel.

Explanation

The correct answer is yellow air service indicator flag. On the -86 generator control panel, a clogged air filter is indicated by a yellow air service indicator flag. This flag serves as a visual indication to the operator that the air filter needs to be cleaned or replaced. The yellow color is used to distinguish this indicator from other indicators on the control panel.

128. (415) The amount of useable fuel the H–60 internal auxiliary fuel tank will hold if it is single point refueled is

120 gallons.

130 gallons.

150 gallons.

170 gallons.

The correct answer is 170 gallons. This is because the question states that the H-60 internal auxiliary fuel tank is single point refueled, which means that it can hold a larger amount of fuel compared to other refueling methods. Therefore, the tank can hold 170 gallons of useable fuel.

Explanation

The correct answer is 170 gallons. This is because the question states that the H-60 internal auxiliary fuel tank is single point refueled, which means that it can hold a larger amount of fuel compared to other refueling methods. Therefore, the tank can hold 170 gallons of useable fuel.

129. (416) When the H–60 refuel probe is extended, the fuel from the retract side of the probe flows to the

No. 1 main fuel tank.

No. 2 main fuel tank.

Internal auxiliary fuel tank.

External auxiliary fuel tank.

When the H-60 refuel probe is extended, the fuel from the retract side of the probe flows to the No. 2 main fuel tank.

Explanation

When the H-60 refuel probe is extended, the fuel from the retract side of the probe flows to the No. 2 main fuel tank.

130. (035) What is the purpose of the cellophane wrap on the separation membranes on the Self Generating Nitrogen Servicing Cart (SGNSC)?

Packing material that must be removed.

Packing material that must not be removed.

Necessary for proper function and nitrogen production.

Necessary for proper function and not used for nitrogen production.

The cellophane wrap on the separation membranes of the Self Generating Nitrogen Servicing Cart (SGNSC) is necessary for both proper function and nitrogen production. It serves a purpose in the functioning of the cart and is also involved in the production of nitrogen.

Explanation

The cellophane wrap on the separation membranes of the Self Generating Nitrogen Servicing Cart (SGNSC) is necessary for both proper function and nitrogen production. It serves a purpose in the functioning of the cart and is also involved in the production of nitrogen.

131. (036) What is the maximum height, in feet, of the B–7 stand?

7.

10.

16.

20.

The maximum height of the B-7 stand is 16 feet.

Explanation

The maximum height of the B-7 stand is 16 feet.

132. (039) Which helicopter flight characteristic usually develops during takeoff or landing and when the helicopter/tiltrotor is 87 to 95 percent airborne?

Auto rotation.

Ground resonance.

Dissymmetry of lift.

Gyroscopic precession.

Ground resonance is a helicopter flight characteristic that usually develops during takeoff or landing when the helicopter is 87 to 95 percent airborne. It occurs when the rotor blades become unbalanced and cause the helicopter to vibrate violently. This can be caused by uneven weight distribution or a mechanical issue with the rotor system. Ground resonance can be dangerous and may lead to severe damage or even the loss of control of the helicopter.

Explanation

Ground resonance is a helicopter flight characteristic that usually develops during takeoff or landing when the helicopter is 87 to 95 percent airborne. It occurs when the rotor blades become unbalanced and cause the helicopter to vibrate violently. This can be caused by uneven weight distribution or a mechanical issue with the rotor system. Ground resonance can be dangerous and may lead to severe damage or even the loss of control of the helicopter.

133. (421) Before performing an H–60 electrical continuity check, you must remove all power from the circuit you are checking. Failure to do this could result in damage to the

#1 bus.

#2 bus.

Circuit.

Multimeter.

Before performing an H-60 electrical continuity check, it is important to remove all power from the circuit being checked. Failure to do so could result in damage to the multimeter.

Explanation

Before performing an H-60 electrical continuity check, it is important to remove all power from the circuit being checked. Failure to do so could result in damage to the multimeter.

134. (044) Which of these is not part of corrosion prevention?

Cleaning.

Painting.

Removing rust.

Inspecting and early detection.

Removing rust is not part of corrosion prevention because rust is already a form of corrosion. Once rust has formed, it means that the metal has already undergone a chemical reaction with oxygen and moisture, resulting in the formation of iron oxide. Therefore, removing rust is considered a form of corrosion repair or treatment, rather than prevention. To prevent corrosion, measures such as cleaning, painting, and inspecting for early detection are necessary to protect the metal from exposure to moisture and other corrosive elements.

Explanation

Removing rust is not part of corrosion prevention because rust is already a form of corrosion. Once rust has formed, it means that the metal has already undergone a chemical reaction with oxygen and moisture, resulting in the formation of iron oxide. Therefore, removing rust is considered a form of corrosion repair or treatment, rather than prevention. To prevent corrosion, measures such as cleaning, painting, and inspecting for early detection are necessary to protect the metal from exposure to moisture and other corrosive elements.

135. (045) You should not clean exterior plastic surfaces with

Cheesecloth.

Flannel cloth.

Soft cotton cloth.

Diaper type cloth.

Cheesecloth is not suitable for cleaning exterior plastic surfaces because it is a loosely woven fabric that is typically used for straining liquids or wrapping cheese. Its texture and structure make it less effective for cleaning as it may leave behind lint or fibers on the plastic surface. Flannel cloth, soft cotton cloth, and diaper type cloth are all better options for cleaning exterior plastic surfaces as they are generally more absorbent and less likely to leave residue.

Explanation

Cheesecloth is not suitable for cleaning exterior plastic surfaces because it is a loosely woven fabric that is typically used for straining liquids or wrapping cheese. Its texture and structure make it less effective for cleaning as it may leave behind lint or fibers on the plastic surface. Flannel cloth, soft cotton cloth, and diaper type cloth are all better options for cleaning exterior plastic surfaces as they are generally more absorbent and less likely to leave residue.

136. (045) When washing the engines and the outside air temperature is between 5 degrees Fahrenheit (°F) and 40°F, what should the percentage ratio mix of methanol or isopropyl alcohol in the water solution be?

60% water and 40% methanol or isopropyl alcohol.

50% water and 50% methanol or isopropyl alcohol.

25% water and 75% methanol or isopropyl alcohol.

20% water and 80% methanol or isopropyl alcohol.

The correct answer is 60% water and 40% methanol or isopropyl alcohol. This is because when washing the engines in cold temperatures, it is important to use a water solution with a higher percentage of alcohol to prevent freezing. Methanol or isopropyl alcohol has a lower freezing point than water, so a higher concentration of alcohol will ensure that the solution remains in a liquid state and effectively cleans the engines.

Explanation

The correct answer is 60% water and 40% methanol or isopropyl alcohol. This is because when washing the engines in cold temperatures, it is important to use a water solution with a higher percentage of alcohol to prevent freezing. Methanol or isopropyl alcohol has a lower freezing point than water, so a higher concentration of alcohol will ensure that the solution remains in a liquid state and effectively cleans the engines.

137. (202) How many pounds per square foot is the cabin floor limit load?

300.

400.

500.

600.

The cabin floor limit load is measured in pounds per square foot. The correct answer is 300, indicating that the maximum weight that the cabin floor can support is 300 pounds per square foot.

Explanation

The cabin floor limit load is measured in pounds per square foot. The correct answer is 300, indicating that the maximum weight that the cabin floor can support is 300 pounds per square foot.

138. (202) Which mount assembly provides a means for attaching the nacelle structure to the proprotor gearboxes, transmission adapters, and conversion spindles?

Integrated structural accessory.

Multiple accessories.

Structural.

Nacelle.

The nacelle is the mount assembly that provides a means for attaching the proprotor gearboxes, transmission adapters, and conversion spindles to the nacelle structure. The other options, integrated structural accessory and multiple accessories, do not specifically refer to the mount assembly for attaching these components.

Explanation

The nacelle is the mount assembly that provides a means for attaching the proprotor gearboxes, transmission adapters, and conversion spindles to the nacelle structure. The other options, integrated structural accessory and multiple accessories, do not specifically refer to the mount assembly for attaching these components.

139. (204) Which digit of the four-digit numbering system that identifies access panels and doors on the Osprey provides a more detailed location of the panel/door within the zone?

First.

Second.

Third.

Fourth.

The third digit of the four-digit numbering system on the Osprey provides a more detailed location of the panel/door within the zone. This means that the third digit is used to specify a specific area or subsection within a larger zone.

Explanation

The third digit of the four-digit numbering system on the Osprey provides a more detailed location of the panel/door within the zone. This means that the third digit is used to specify a specific area or subsection within a larger zone.

140. (436) The main transmission on the H–60 is equipped with

Two lubrication pumps operating in parallel.

Two lubrication pumps operating individually.

Four lubrication pumps operating individually.

Four lubrication pumps operating in sequence.

The correct answer is two lubrication pumps operating in parallel. This means that there are two pumps working simultaneously to provide lubrication to the main transmission of the H-60. Operating in parallel ensures redundancy and reliability, as if one pump fails, the other can still provide lubrication. This setup also allows for increased efficiency and smoother operation of the transmission system.

Explanation

The correct answer is two lubrication pumps operating in parallel. This means that there are two pumps working simultaneously to provide lubrication to the main transmission of the H-60. Operating in parallel ensures redundancy and reliability, as if one pump fails, the other can still provide lubrication. This setup also allows for increased efficiency and smoother operation of the transmission system.

141. (439) What TO should you consult for loading and offloading your helicopter on a transport aircraft?

1H–1–39.

1C–17A–9.

1H–60(H)G–2–9.

The –9 TO of the aircraft you are using for transport.

The correct answer is "The –9 TO of the aircraft you are using for transport." This answer suggests that you should consult the -9 Technical Order (TO) of the specific aircraft you are using for transport. This TO would provide guidance on how to properly load and offload a helicopter onto the transport aircraft.

Explanation

The correct answer is "The –9 TO of the aircraft you are using for transport." This answer suggests that you should consult the -9 Technical Order (TO) of the specific aircraft you are using for transport. This TO would provide guidance on how to properly load and offload a helicopter onto the transport aircraft.

142. (212) What type of maintenance pump provides hydraulic pressure to recharge the back-up brake accumulator and provide pressure to operate the cargo ramp system?

Electric motor driven pneumatic.

Manual hydraulic.

Automatic hydraulic.

Electric motor driven hydraulic.

The correct answer is electric motor driven hydraulic. This type of maintenance pump uses an electric motor to provide hydraulic pressure. It is used to recharge the back-up brake accumulator and operate the cargo ramp system.

Explanation

The correct answer is electric motor driven hydraulic. This type of maintenance pump uses an electric motor to provide hydraulic pressure. It is used to recharge the back-up brake accumulator and operate the cargo ramp system.

143. (213) What independent hydraulic system(s) provide hydraulic power to the Osprey?

Main hydraulic power system.

Auxiliary hydraulic power system.

Hydraulic system 1 and 2.

Hydraulic system 1, 2, and 3.

The Osprey is powered by three independent hydraulic systems, namely hydraulic system 1, 2, and 3. These systems provide hydraulic power to the aircraft, allowing it to operate various components and perform necessary functions.

Explanation

The Osprey is powered by three independent hydraulic systems, namely hydraulic system 1, 2, and 3. These systems provide hydraulic power to the aircraft, allowing it to operate various components and perform necessary functions.

144. (215) During ground operations prior to start-up, what hydraulic system provides 5000 psi hydraulic pressure to all three hydraulic systems?

Auxiliary hydraulic system 1.

Main hydraulic system.

Hydraulic system 3.

Hydraulic system 2.

During ground operations prior to start-up, Hydraulic System 3 provides 5000 psi hydraulic pressure to all three hydraulic systems.

Explanation

During ground operations prior to start-up, Hydraulic System 3 provides 5000 psi hydraulic pressure to all three hydraulic systems.

145. (232) What is the fuel capacity, in gallons, of a MATS assembly?

220.

280.

430.

450.

The fuel capacity of a MATS assembly is 430 gallons.

Explanation

The fuel capacity of a MATS assembly is 430 gallons.

146. (007) A fire occurring in combustible metals such as magnesium, potassium, zinc sodium, and etc., is a

A.

B.

C.

D.

A fire occurring in combustible metals such as magnesium, potassium, zinc, sodium, and etc., is a Class D fire. Class D fires involve combustible metals and require specialized extinguishing agents such as dry powder or sand to smother the fire and prevent it from spreading. These fires can be extremely dangerous and should be handled with caution.

Explanation

A fire occurring in combustible metals such as magnesium, potassium, zinc, sodium, and etc., is a Class D fire. Class D fires involve combustible metals and require specialized extinguishing agents such as dry powder or sand to smother the fire and prevent it from spreading. These fires can be extremely dangerous and should be handled with caution.

147. (008) Which type of auxiliary publication augments directive-type publications issued by higher headquarters?

Supplement.

Change sheet.

Staff summary sheet.

Operating instruction.

A supplement is an auxiliary publication that adds information or updates to a directive-type publication issued by higher headquarters. It provides additional guidance or clarifications to the original publication, ensuring that the information remains current and relevant. Supplements are commonly used to address specific topics or situations that may arise after the initial publication, allowing for flexibility and adaptability in the implementation of directives.

Explanation

A supplement is an auxiliary publication that adds information or updates to a directive-type publication issued by higher headquarters. It provides additional guidance or clarifications to the original publication, ensuring that the information remains current and relevant. Supplements are commonly used to address specific topics or situations that may arise after the initial publication, allowing for flexibility and adaptability in the implementation of directives.

148. (319) What system transfers power between gearboxes under one engine inoperative (OEI) conditions?

Gearbox transfer system.

Emergency lubrication system (ELS).

Interconnecting shafting system (ISS).

Inoperative power transfer system.

The interconnecting shafting system (ISS) transfers power between gearboxes under one engine inoperative (OEI) conditions. This system allows the remaining engine to transfer power to the necessary gearboxes, ensuring that the aircraft can continue to operate even with one engine not functioning. The ISS is designed to distribute power efficiently and effectively, maintaining the performance and functionality of the gearboxes during OEI situations.

Explanation

The interconnecting shafting system (ISS) transfers power between gearboxes under one engine inoperative (OEI) conditions. This system allows the remaining engine to transfer power to the necessary gearboxes, ensuring that the aircraft can continue to operate even with one engine not functioning. The ISS is designed to distribute power efficiently and effectively, maintaining the performance and functionality of the gearboxes during OEI situations.

149. (017) How many authorized inspection concepts are used by the Air Force?

Two.

Three.

Four.

Five.

The correct answer is Five. This means that the Air Force uses five authorized inspection concepts.

Explanation

The correct answer is Five. This means that the Air Force uses five authorized inspection concepts.

150. (019) Which form is used to record aircraft time, engine data, and includes operating times?

Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations ResourceManagement System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.

AFTO Form 781A, Maintenance Discrepancy and Work Document.

AFTO Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Report and Maintenance Document.

AFTO Form 781J, Aerospace Vehicle-Engine (operating time, cycle, and oil added) FlightDocument.

AFTO Form 781J is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to record aircraft time, engine data, and includes operating times. This form is used to document important information such as operating time, cycle, and oil added during a flight, making it an essential tool for maintenance and tracking purposes.

Explanation

AFTO Form 781J is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to record aircraft time, engine data, and includes operating times. This form is used to document important information such as operating time, cycle, and oil added during a flight, making it an essential tool for maintenance and tracking purposes.

151. (332) What is the maximum number of seconds the auxiliary power unit (APU) can operate in CRANK mode?

15.

30.

45.

60.

The APU can operate in CRANK mode for a maximum of 30 seconds. This mode is used to start the main engines of an aircraft. After the engines are started, the APU is typically shut down. Operating the APU in CRANK mode for longer periods can cause excessive wear and tear on the APU, which is why it is limited to 30 seconds.

Explanation

The APU can operate in CRANK mode for a maximum of 30 seconds. This mode is used to start the main engines of an aircraft. After the engines are started, the APU is typically shut down. Operating the APU in CRANK mode for longer periods can cause excessive wear and tear on the APU, which is why it is limited to 30 seconds.

152. (401) What section of the H–60 is designed to give a smooth airflow induction for cooling major aircraft systems and subsystem components?

Stabilator.

Tail rotor pylon.

Main rotor pylon.

Transition section.

The main rotor pylon section of the H-60 is designed to provide a smooth airflow induction for cooling major aircraft systems and subsystem components. This section plays a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary cooling is provided to keep these systems and components operating effectively.

Explanation

The main rotor pylon section of the H-60 is designed to provide a smooth airflow induction for cooling major aircraft systems and subsystem components. This section plays a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary cooling is provided to keep these systems and components operating effectively.

153. (402) The H–60 stabilator vibration absorber is attached to the

Left stabilator keeper pin.

Right stabilator keeper pin.

Left stabilator attachment fitting.

Right stabilator attachment fitting.

The H-60 stabilator vibration absorber is attached to the right stabilator attachment fitting. This means that it is connected to the right side of the stabilator, which is the horizontal stabilizer on the tail of the aircraft. The stabilator attachment fitting is the component that allows the stabilator to be securely attached to the aircraft structure. Therefore, the correct answer is the right stabilator attachment fitting.

Explanation

The H-60 stabilator vibration absorber is attached to the right stabilator attachment fitting. This means that it is connected to the right side of the stabilator, which is the horizontal stabilizer on the tail of the aircraft. The stabilator attachment fitting is the component that allows the stabilator to be securely attached to the aircraft structure. Therefore, the correct answer is the right stabilator attachment fitting.

154. (023) Critical items are generally small numbers of items that cause the largest number of

Mission delays.

On-time takeoffs.

Not mission capable supply (NMCS) conditions.

Partial mission capable supply (PMCS) conditions.

Critical items are generally small numbers of items that cause the largest number of not mission capable supply (NMCS) conditions. This means that these items are essential for the mission and if they are not available or functioning properly, it can result in the equipment or system being unable to perform its intended mission. Therefore, addressing and resolving issues related to critical items is crucial in order to prevent mission delays or failures.

Explanation

Critical items are generally small numbers of items that cause the largest number of not mission capable supply (NMCS) conditions. This means that these items are essential for the mission and if they are not available or functioning properly, it can result in the equipment or system being unable to perform its intended mission. Therefore, addressing and resolving issues related to critical items is crucial in order to prevent mission delays or failures.

155. (410) The hydraulic fluid for the H–60 rescue hoist is cooled by

The air-to-oil heat exchanger.

The honeycomb cooling core.

A continuously running heat exchanger fan.

A thermostatic-controlled heat exchanger fan.

The hydraulic fluid for the H-60 rescue hoist is cooled by a continuously running heat exchanger fan. This means that the fan is constantly running to cool the hydraulic fluid, ensuring that it does not overheat during operation. The other options, such as the air-to-oil heat exchanger and honeycomb cooling core, may also play a role in cooling the fluid but the continuously running heat exchanger fan is specifically mentioned as the method of cooling in this case.

Explanation

The hydraulic fluid for the H-60 rescue hoist is cooled by a continuously running heat exchanger fan. This means that the fan is constantly running to cool the hydraulic fluid, ensuring that it does not overheat during operation. The other options, such as the air-to-oil heat exchanger and honeycomb cooling core, may also play a role in cooling the fluid but the continuously running heat exchanger fan is specifically mentioned as the method of cooling in this case.

156. (029) On a piece of powered support equipment that is operationally ready, but not required for use, a service inspection should be accomplished every

Day.

7 days.

15 days.

30 days.

A service inspection should be accomplished every 7 days on a piece of powered support equipment that is operationally ready but not required for use. This regular inspection ensures that the equipment remains in good working condition and can be readily deployed if needed. By conducting these inspections every 7 days, any potential issues or maintenance needs can be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of equipment failure or downtime when the equipment is needed for use.

Explanation

A service inspection should be accomplished every 7 days on a piece of powered support equipment that is operationally ready but not required for use. This regular inspection ensures that the equipment remains in good working condition and can be readily deployed if needed. By conducting these inspections every 7 days, any potential issues or maintenance needs can be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of equipment failure or downtime when the equipment is needed for use.

157. (414) Flow of fuel in the H–60 fuel system is directed by the fuel

Flow transmitter.

Management package.

Directional transmitter.

Probe management package.

The correct answer is "management package." In the H-60 fuel system, the flow of fuel is controlled and directed by the management package. This package is responsible for managing and regulating the flow of fuel throughout the system, ensuring that it reaches the appropriate components and engines as needed. It helps to ensure the efficient and effective operation of the fuel system in the H-60 aircraft.

Explanation

The correct answer is "management package." In the H-60 fuel system, the flow of fuel is controlled and directed by the management package. This package is responsible for managing and regulating the flow of fuel throughout the system, ensuring that it reaches the appropriate components and engines as needed. It helps to ensure the efficient and effective operation of the fuel system in the H-60 aircraft.

158. (416) The amount of fuel that should remain in the main tanks of an H–60 after the fuel dump pumps shut off is

152 pounds.

172 pounds.

192 pounds.

202 pounds.

After the fuel dump pumps shut off, there should be 172 pounds of fuel remaining in the main tanks of an H-60.

Explanation

After the fuel dump pumps shut off, there should be 172 pounds of fuel remaining in the main tanks of an H-60.

159. (037) What is the maximum lifting capacity, in pounds, of the J–1 hoist?

2,000.

3,000

4,000.

5,000.

The maximum lifting capacity of the J-1 hoist is 5,000 pounds.

Explanation

The maximum lifting capacity of the J-1 hoist is 5,000 pounds.

160. (421) What electrical check would you use to determine the amount of resistance (ohms) in a particular wire or component on an H–60?

Probe.

Ground.

Voltage.

Continuity.

Continuity is the electrical check that would be used to determine the amount of resistance (ohms) in a particular wire or component on an H-60. Continuity testing is performed to check if there is a complete path for the flow of current. By using a continuity tester or a multimeter set to continuity mode, the tester can determine if there is a continuous path for the current to flow through the wire or component, indicating low resistance. If there is a break or high resistance, the continuity test will show no continuity.

Explanation

Continuity is the electrical check that would be used to determine the amount of resistance (ohms) in a particular wire or component on an H-60. Continuity testing is performed to check if there is a complete path for the flow of current. By using a continuity tester or a multimeter set to continuity mode, the tester can determine if there is a continuous path for the current to flow through the wire or component, indicating low resistance. If there is a break or high resistance, the continuity test will show no continuity.

161. (421) The pin filter adapters in the H–60 alternating current (AC) electrical system are designed to filter

Electromagnetic vibrations.

Electromagnetic pulses.

Electrical impulses.

Magnetic pulses.

The pin filter adapters in the H-60 AC electrical system are designed to filter electromagnetic pulses. Electromagnetic pulses are short bursts of electromagnetic energy that can disrupt or damage electronic equipment. The pin filter adapters help to reduce the effects of these pulses by filtering out unwanted electromagnetic noise and ensuring the smooth flow of electrical current. This helps to protect the electrical system and prevent any potential damage caused by electromagnetic pulses.

Explanation

The pin filter adapters in the H-60 AC electrical system are designed to filter electromagnetic pulses. Electromagnetic pulses are short bursts of electromagnetic energy that can disrupt or damage electronic equipment. The pin filter adapters help to reduce the effects of these pulses by filtering out unwanted electromagnetic noise and ensuring the smooth flow of electrical current. This helps to protect the electrical system and prevent any potential damage caused by electromagnetic pulses.

162. (424) The H–60 pilot is alerted to a de-ice system malfunction by a

De-ice caution light.

De-ice fail caution light.

De-ice caution light and horn.

FAIL flag on the ice-rate meter.

The correct answer is the FAIL flag on the ice-rate meter. This is because the ice-rate meter is specifically designed to indicate any malfunction or failure in the de-ice system. When the de-ice system fails, the FAIL flag on the ice-rate meter will be displayed, alerting the H-60 pilot to the malfunction. The de-ice caution light and horn may also be used to indicate a de-ice system malfunction, but the most direct and reliable indication is the FAIL flag on the ice-rate meter.

Explanation

The correct answer is the FAIL flag on the ice-rate meter. This is because the ice-rate meter is specifically designed to indicate any malfunction or failure in the de-ice system. When the de-ice system fails, the FAIL flag on the ice-rate meter will be displayed, alerting the H-60 pilot to the malfunction. The de-ice caution light and horn may also be used to indicate a de-ice system malfunction, but the most direct and reliable indication is the FAIL flag on the ice-rate meter.

163. (048) Who should remove the safety devices on live ammunition prior to launching an aircraft?

Qualified weapons personnel.

Production supervisor.

Air crewmembers.

Flight chiefs.

Qualified weapons personnel should remove the safety devices on live ammunition prior to launching an aircraft. This is because they have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm weapons safely. It is crucial to ensure that all safety protocols are followed to prevent accidents or mishaps during the launching process. The production supervisor, air crewmembers, and flight chiefs may have other important roles in the aircraft launch, but the responsibility of handling live ammunition lies with qualified weapons personnel.

Explanation

Qualified weapons personnel should remove the safety devices on live ammunition prior to launching an aircraft. This is because they have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm weapons safely. It is crucial to ensure that all safety protocols are followed to prevent accidents or mishaps during the launching process. The production supervisor, air crewmembers, and flight chiefs may have other important roles in the aircraft launch, but the responsibility of handling live ammunition lies with qualified weapons personnel.

164. (425) The most probable cause of a low-frequency vibration is

A defective drive shaft.

An oil cooler out-of-line.

A damaged or out-of-balance main rotor (MR).

An out-of-balance auxiliary power unit (APU) driveshaft.

A low-frequency vibration in an aircraft is most likely caused by a damaged or out-of-balance main rotor (MR). The main rotor is a critical component of a helicopter or certain types of aircraft, and any damage or imbalance in it can result in vibrations. Low-frequency vibrations typically indicate a problem with the main rotor, as other components like a defective drive shaft or an out-of-line oil cooler are less likely to cause such vibrations. Additionally, an out-of-balance auxiliary power unit (APU) driveshaft is also less probable as the cause of low-frequency vibrations compared to a damaged or out-of-balance main rotor.

Explanation

A low-frequency vibration in an aircraft is most likely caused by a damaged or out-of-balance main rotor (MR). The main rotor is a critical component of a helicopter or certain types of aircraft, and any damage or imbalance in it can result in vibrations. Low-frequency vibrations typically indicate a problem with the main rotor, as other components like a defective drive shaft or an out-of-line oil cooler are less likely to cause such vibrations. Additionally, an out-of-balance auxiliary power unit (APU) driveshaft is also less probable as the cause of low-frequency vibrations compared to a damaged or out-of-balance main rotor.

165. (428) The T700 engine module that extracts most of the energy from the exhaust gases for output power is the

Hot section.

Cold section.

Power turbine.

Accessory gearbox.

The T700 engine module that extracts most of the energy from the exhaust gases for output power is the power turbine. The power turbine is responsible for converting the high-energy exhaust gases into mechanical energy, which is then used to drive the engine's output shaft and generate power. Unlike the hot section and cold section, which are primarily involved in the combustion and cooling processes, respectively, the power turbine is specifically designed to extract energy from the exhaust gases and convert it into usable power. The accessory gearbox, on the other hand, is responsible for driving various auxiliary components of the engine and is not directly involved in extracting energy from the exhaust gases.

Explanation

The T700 engine module that extracts most of the energy from the exhaust gases for output power is the power turbine. The power turbine is responsible for converting the high-energy exhaust gases into mechanical energy, which is then used to drive the engine's output shaft and generate power. Unlike the hot section and cold section, which are primarily involved in the combustion and cooling processes, respectively, the power turbine is specifically designed to extract energy from the exhaust gases and convert it into usable power. The accessory gearbox, on the other hand, is responsible for driving various auxiliary components of the engine and is not directly involved in extracting energy from the exhaust gases.

166. (206) What is the maximum amount of time that a phase inspection may be performed early or extended to meet mission requirements?

20 percent (42 hours).

15 percent (31.5 hours).

10 percent (21 hours).

5 percent (10.5 hours).

A phase inspection is a scheduled maintenance check performed on an aircraft to ensure its airworthiness. The question asks for the maximum amount of time that a phase inspection can be performed early or extended to meet mission requirements. The correct answer is 10 percent (21 hours). This means that the phase inspection can be performed up to 10 percent earlier or extended up to 10 percent of its original duration, which is 21 hours.

Explanation

A phase inspection is a scheduled maintenance check performed on an aircraft to ensure its airworthiness. The question asks for the maximum amount of time that a phase inspection can be performed early or extended to meet mission requirements. The correct answer is 10 percent (21 hours). This means that the phase inspection can be performed up to 10 percent earlier or extended up to 10 percent of its original duration, which is 21 hours.

167. (207) What does it mean when units of equipment are replaced upon accrual of a specified number of flying hours, equipment hours of operation, a lapse of calendar time, or units of any other specific measurement base?

Inspect, reinstall, and start clock based on reinstallation of same unit.

Removal of the item and installation of a serviceable item in its place.

Extend the operational requirements of the item beyond operating limits as required.

Inspect, reinstall, and continue service of the item until serviceable item is available.

When units of equipment are replaced upon accrual of a specified number of flying hours, equipment hours of operation, a lapse of calendar time, or units of any other specific measurement base, it means that the item is removed and a serviceable item is installed in its place. This ensures that the equipment remains in optimal working condition and meets the necessary operational requirements.

Explanation

When units of equipment are replaced upon accrual of a specified number of flying hours, equipment hours of operation, a lapse of calendar time, or units of any other specific measurement base, it means that the item is removed and a serviceable item is installed in its place. This ensures that the equipment remains in optimal working condition and meets the necessary operational requirements.

168. (211) What MLG component provides damping and shock absorbing of forces created during landing or ground maneuvering, static load distribution, and dynamic load distribution?

Shock strut.

Shimmy damper.

Drag strut/actuator.

Landing gear wheels and tires.

The shock strut is a component of the MLG (Main Landing Gear) that provides damping and shock absorption of forces created during landing or ground maneuvering. It also helps in static load distribution and dynamic load distribution. The shimmy damper is responsible for reducing any shimmy or oscillation in the landing gear, but it does not provide damping or shock absorption. The drag strut/actuator is used for controlling the extension and retraction of the landing gear, but it does not provide damping or shock absorption. The landing gear wheels and tires are responsible for supporting the weight of the aircraft and providing traction during landing and ground maneuvering, but they do not provide damping or shock absorption. Therefore, the correct answer is the shock strut.

Explanation

The shock strut is a component of the MLG (Main Landing Gear) that provides damping and shock absorption of forces created during landing or ground maneuvering. It also helps in static load distribution and dynamic load distribution. The shimmy damper is responsible for reducing any shimmy or oscillation in the landing gear, but it does not provide damping or shock absorption. The drag strut/actuator is used for controlling the extension and retraction of the landing gear, but it does not provide damping or shock absorption. The landing gear wheels and tires are responsible for supporting the weight of the aircraft and providing traction during landing and ground maneuvering, but they do not provide damping or shock absorption. Therefore, the correct answer is the shock strut.

169. (215) What flight control utility module 3 component shuts off hydraulic fluid to the utility system in the fuselage, including the landing gear, brakes, winch/hoist, and cargo ramp while the aircraft is in flight?

Utility isolation valve.

Isolation valve assembly.

Remote switching valve module.

Switching isolation valve module.

The correct answer is Utility isolation valve. The utility isolation valve is a flight control utility module 3 component that shuts off hydraulic fluid to the utility system in the fuselage, including the landing gear, brakes, winch/hoist, and cargo ramp while the aircraft is in flight. This valve is responsible for isolating the utility system from the hydraulic system, preventing any potential leaks or malfunctions during flight.

Explanation

The correct answer is Utility isolation valve. The utility isolation valve is a flight control utility module 3 component that shuts off hydraulic fluid to the utility system in the fuselage, including the landing gear, brakes, winch/hoist, and cargo ramp while the aircraft is in flight. This valve is responsible for isolating the utility system from the hydraulic system, preventing any potential leaks or malfunctions during flight.

170. (301) A constant frequency generator (CFG) comes on line at an input shaft speed between 15,138 and 15,238 revolutions (rotations) per minute (rpm), or about what percent of the proprotor speed (Nr)?

60.

68.

71.

100.

A constant frequency generator (CFG) comes on line at an input shaft speed between 15,138 and 15,238 rpm. The question asks about the percentage of the propeller speed (Nr) that this range represents. To find the percentage, we need to calculate the ratio of the given range to the propeller speed and multiply it by 100. The range of 15,138 to 15,238 represents 100% of the propeller speed. Therefore, the correct answer is 100%.

Explanation

A constant frequency generator (CFG) comes on line at an input shaft speed between 15,138 and 15,238 rpm. The question asks about the percentage of the propeller speed (Nr) that this range represents. To find the percentage, we need to calculate the ratio of the given range to the propeller speed and multiply it by 100. The range of 15,138 to 15,238 represents 100% of the propeller speed. Therefore, the correct answer is 100%.

171. (319) The pylon driveshaft assembly transfers power from the proprotor gearbox to what major assembly?

Right engine.

Left engine.

Midwing gearbox (MWGB).

Tilt axis gearbox (TAGB).

The pylon driveshaft assembly transfers power from the proprotor gearbox to the tilt axis gearbox (TAGB). The TAGB is a major assembly that controls the tilt of the proprotor, allowing for vertical takeoff and landing capabilities.

Explanation

The pylon driveshaft assembly transfers power from the proprotor gearbox to the tilt axis gearbox (TAGB). The TAGB is a major assembly that controls the tilt of the proprotor, allowing for vertical takeoff and landing capabilities.

172. (324) The AE1107C basic engine consists of four major assemblies: the power turbine assembly, the torque meter assembly, the accessory drive gearbox, and what other major component?

Fuel pump and metering unit.

Gas generator assembly.

Exhaust assembly.

Fan assembly.

The AE1107C basic engine consists of four major assemblies: the power turbine assembly, the torque meter assembly, the accessory drive gearbox, and the gas generator assembly. The gas generator assembly is a crucial component of the engine that generates the high-pressure gas required to power the turbine and produce thrust. It plays a vital role in the overall functioning of the engine, making it the correct answer.

Explanation

The AE1107C basic engine consists of four major assemblies: the power turbine assembly, the torque meter assembly, the accessory drive gearbox, and the gas generator assembly. The gas generator assembly is a crucial component of the engine that generates the high-pressure gas required to power the turbine and produce thrust. It plays a vital role in the overall functioning of the engine, making it the correct answer.

173. (017) Which individual or activity determines the inspection method used to inspect aircraft?

Branch chief.

Chief of maintenance.

Inspection team chief.

Local or major command (MAJCOM).

The local or major command (MAJCOM) is responsible for determining the inspection method used to inspect aircraft. They have the authority to establish guidelines and procedures for inspections, taking into consideration factors such as the type of aircraft, its maintenance history, and regulatory requirements. The branch chief, chief of maintenance, and inspection team chief may play a role in implementing and carrying out the inspection, but the decision on the inspection method ultimately lies with the MAJCOM.

Explanation

The local or major command (MAJCOM) is responsible for determining the inspection method used to inspect aircraft. They have the authority to establish guidelines and procedures for inspections, taking into consideration factors such as the type of aircraft, its maintenance history, and regulatory requirements. The branch chief, chief of maintenance, and inspection team chief may play a role in implementing and carrying out the inspection, but the decision on the inspection method ultimately lies with the MAJCOM.

174. (021) The maintenance data documentation (MDD) system provides a mechanism for

Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

The maintenance data documentation (MDD) system serves as a mechanism for collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather the necessary information, store it in a secure location, and make it easily accessible for review or further use. This functionality ensures that the MDD system can effectively manage and track maintenance-related data, providing a comprehensive solution for maintaining and organizing base-level information.

Explanation

The maintenance data documentation (MDD) system serves as a mechanism for collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather the necessary information, store it in a secure location, and make it easily accessible for review or further use. This functionality ensures that the MDD system can effectively manage and track maintenance-related data, providing a comprehensive solution for maintaining and organizing base-level information.

175. (407) When pressed, the H–60 servo jam simulation button causes the

No. 1 and No. 2 PRI SERVO PRESS caution capsule to illuminate.

No. 1 or No. 2 PRI SERVO PRESS caution capsule to illuminate.

Primary servo to automatically switch to the second stage.

Primary servo to hydraulically depressurize the manifold.

When the H-60 servo jam simulation button is pressed, it causes either the No. 1 or No. 2 PRI SERVO PRESS caution capsule to illuminate. This indicates that there is a problem with the primary servo pressurization, potentially due to a servo jam. The illumination of the caution capsule serves as a warning to the operator that there may be a malfunction in the servo system, and further action or troubleshooting may be required.

Explanation

When the H-60 servo jam simulation button is pressed, it causes either the No. 1 or No. 2 PRI SERVO PRESS caution capsule to illuminate. This indicates that there is a problem with the primary servo pressurization, potentially due to a servo jam. The illumination of the caution capsule serves as a warning to the operator that there may be a malfunction in the servo system, and further action or troubleshooting may be required.

176. (034) Up to how many feet can the MA–3 ground air conditioner unit be self-propelled using battery power?

100

200

250

50

The MA-3 ground air conditioner unit can be self-propelled up to 200 feet using battery power.

Explanation

The MA-3 ground air conditioner unit can be self-propelled up to 200 feet using battery power.

177. (421) What electrical check would you use to check for a specified amount of alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC) voltage in a particular wire or component on an H–60?

Probe

Ground.

Voltage.

Continuity

To check for a specified amount of alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC) voltage in a particular wire or component on an H-60, the electrical check that would be used is voltage. This involves using a voltmeter or multimeter to measure the electrical potential difference between two points in the circuit. By connecting the probes of the voltmeter to the wire or component, the voltage can be measured accurately. This allows for the determination of whether the specified voltage is present or not.

Explanation

To check for a specified amount of alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC) voltage in a particular wire or component on an H-60, the electrical check that would be used is voltage. This involves using a voltmeter or multimeter to measure the electrical potential difference between two points in the circuit. By connecting the probes of the voltmeter to the wire or component, the voltage can be measured accurately. This allows for the determination of whether the specified voltage is present or not.

178. (042) The fuel servicing point is identified by a black

Circle.

Square.

Diamond.

Four-pointed star.

The fuel servicing point is identified by a four-pointed star. This symbol is commonly used to indicate the location where fuel can be serviced or refueled. It is easily recognizable and helps drivers and operators easily locate the fueling point.

Explanation

The fuel servicing point is identified by a four-pointed star. This symbol is commonly used to indicate the location where fuel can be serviced or refueled. It is easily recognizable and helps drivers and operators easily locate the fueling point.

179. (422) The indicator range of the barometric altimeters on the H–60 is between

1,000 to 50,000 ft.

2,000 to 50,000 ft.

5,000 to 50,000 ft.

50,000 to 100,000 ft.

The correct answer is 1,000 to 50,000 ft. This range indicates the altitude that can be measured by the barometric altimeters on the H-60. It means that the altimeters can accurately measure altitudes between 1,000 and 50,000 feet.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1,000 to 50,000 ft. This range indicates the altitude that can be measured by the barometric altimeters on the H-60. It means that the altimeters can accurately measure altitudes between 1,000 and 50,000 feet.

180. (425) Vibration frequency is the number of cycles completed in

An hour.

A minute.

A second.

A specified period of time.

The correct answer is "a specified period of time." This is because vibration frequency refers to the number of cycles completed within a specific duration, which could be any period of time, such as an hour, a minute, or a second. The answer "a specified period of time" encompasses all possible durations and accurately describes the concept of vibration frequency.

Explanation

The correct answer is "a specified period of time." This is because vibration frequency refers to the number of cycles completed within a specific duration, which could be any period of time, such as an hour, a minute, or a second. The answer "a specified period of time" encompasses all possible durations and accurately describes the concept of vibration frequency.

181. Pertaining to navy shipboard personnel, what color jersey does a safety officer wear?

Blue

White.

Brown.

Yellow

The safety officer on a navy shipboard wears a white jersey. This color is specifically designated for safety officers to easily identify them and their role on the ship. Wearing a white jersey allows for clear visibility and distinguishes them from other personnel on board.

Explanation

The safety officer on a navy shipboard wears a white jersey. This color is specifically designated for safety officers to easily identify them and their role on the ship. Wearing a white jersey allows for clear visibility and distinguishes them from other personnel on board.

182. (427) The statement that best describes flight control component proof torqueing is

Flight control component proof torqueing involves reducing the torque to half of the specified torque after torqueing and installing a cotter pin on a flight control. This is done to ensure that the bolt head will not turn, indicating that the torque is properly set and the cotter pin is effectively securing the flight control.

Explanation

Flight control component proof torqueing involves reducing the torque to half of the specified torque after torqueing and installing a cotter pin on a flight control. This is done to ensure that the bolt head will not turn, indicating that the torque is properly set and the cotter pin is effectively securing the flight control.

183. (206) What type of phase inspection will be performed at 630 aircraft hours?

A

B

C

D

At 630 aircraft hours, a type C phase inspection will be performed. Phase inspections are routine maintenance checks that are conducted at specific intervals to ensure the aircraft's airworthiness. Type C phase inspections are typically carried out every 600 to 800 flight hours and involve a more detailed inspection of the aircraft's systems and components compared to type A and B inspections. Therefore, at 630 aircraft hours, it is appropriate to perform a type C phase inspection.

Explanation

At 630 aircraft hours, a type C phase inspection will be performed. Phase inspections are routine maintenance checks that are conducted at specific intervals to ensure the aircraft's airworthiness. Type C phase inspections are typically carried out every 600 to 800 flight hours and involve a more detailed inspection of the aircraft's systems and components compared to type A and B inspections. Therefore, at 630 aircraft hours, it is appropriate to perform a type C phase inspection.

184. (219) What aluminum yaw interconnect assembly provides a connection for coordination of yaw control mechanical assemblies that are located between the left and right yaw pedal assemblies?

Bellcrank.

Pivot.

Pedal.

Link.

The aluminum yaw interconnect assembly, known as a bellcrank, serves as a connection point for coordinating the yaw control mechanical assemblies between the left and right yaw pedal assemblies. It allows for the transfer of motion and force from the pedals to the yaw control system, enabling the pilot to control the yaw movement of the aircraft. The bellcrank acts as a pivot point, transmitting the input from the pedals to the appropriate components, such as the rudder or yaw damper, to achieve the desired yaw control.

Explanation

The aluminum yaw interconnect assembly, known as a bellcrank, serves as a connection point for coordinating the yaw control mechanical assemblies between the left and right yaw pedal assemblies. It allows for the transfer of motion and force from the pedals to the yaw control system, enabling the pilot to control the yaw movement of the aircraft. The bellcrank acts as a pivot point, transmitting the input from the pedals to the appropriate components, such as the rudder or yaw damper, to achieve the desired yaw control.

185. (225) In feet, the three standard lengths of the fast rope are

50, 80, and 120.

60, 80, and 120.

60, 90, and 120.

70, 90, and 120.

The correct answer is 60, 90, and 120. The question is asking for the standard lengths of the fast rope in feet. Out of the given options, the only set of lengths that are in feet is 60, 90, and 120. Therefore, this is the correct answer.

Explanation

The correct answer is 60, 90, and 120. The question is asking for the standard lengths of the fast rope in feet. Out of the given options, the only set of lengths that are in feet is 60, 90, and 120. Therefore, this is the correct answer.

186. (417) If, on an H–60 fuel system, you want to remove 28 volts direct current (VDC) power, deenergize the fuel warning conditioner relays, and cause the No. 1 and No. 2 FUEL LOW capsules to illuminate, you would press the FUEL

TEST reset button on the central display unit (CDU).

IND TEST push-button on the miscellaneous switch panel.

SYS TEST push-button on the miscellaneous switch panel.

PROBE TEST push-button on the miscellaneous switch panel.

Pressing the IND TEST push-button on the miscellaneous switch panel would deenergize the fuel warning conditioner relays and cause the No. 1 and No. 2 FUEL LOW capsules to illuminate. This action would remove 28 volts direct current (VDC) power from the H-60 fuel system.

Explanation

Pressing the IND TEST push-button on the miscellaneous switch panel would deenergize the fuel warning conditioner relays and cause the No. 1 and No. 2 FUEL LOW capsules to illuminate. This action would remove 28 volts direct current (VDC) power from the H-60 fuel system.

187. (204) What configuration has the proprotor blades fully extended; the nacelles rotated to the vertical position; and the wing rotated perpendicular to the fuselage?

FULL STOW.

HELICOPTER MODE.

AIRPLANE MODE.

EMERGENCY WING STOW.

In helicopter mode, the proprotor blades are fully extended, the nacelles are rotated to the vertical position, and the wing is rotated perpendicular to the fuselage. This configuration allows the aircraft to function as a helicopter, with the proprotor blades providing lift and propulsion. The nacelles being in the vertical position allows for vertical takeoff and landing, while the wing perpendicular to the fuselage provides stability and control during helicopter operations. Therefore, the correct answer is HELICOPTER MODE.

Explanation

In helicopter mode, the proprotor blades are fully extended, the nacelles are rotated to the vertical position, and the wing is rotated perpendicular to the fuselage. This configuration allows the aircraft to function as a helicopter, with the proprotor blades providing lift and propulsion. The nacelles being in the vertical position allows for vertical takeoff and landing, while the wing perpendicular to the fuselage provides stability and control during helicopter operations. Therefore, the correct answer is HELICOPTER MODE.

188. (205) The primary composite material used on the Osprey is

Glass/epoxy fibers.

Graphite (carbon) fibers.

GR/EP.

Bismaleimide resin assemblies.

The primary composite material used on the Osprey is GR/EP.

Explanation

The primary composite material used on the Osprey is GR/EP.

189. (436) On the H–60, the oil between the main module and the passages to the input modules, accessory modules, and generators is divided by the

Main module manifold.

Input module manifold.

Accessory module manifold.

Lubrication jets in the main module.

The correct answer is the main module manifold. On the H-60, the oil between the main module and the passages to the input modules, accessory modules, and generators is divided by the main module manifold. This means that the main module manifold acts as a separator or divider for the oil flow between these different components. It helps to ensure that the oil is distributed properly and reaches the necessary areas for lubrication and cooling.

Explanation

The correct answer is the main module manifold. On the H-60, the oil between the main module and the passages to the input modules, accessory modules, and generators is divided by the main module manifold. This means that the main module manifold acts as a separator or divider for the oil flow between these different components. It helps to ensure that the oil is distributed properly and reaches the necessary areas for lubrication and cooling.

190. (437) The section of the tail drive shaft on an H–60 that contains interchangeable shafts is

I.

II.

III.

IV.

The correct answer is II. The section of the tail drive shaft on an H-60 that contains interchangeable shafts. This means that there is a specific section of the tail drive shaft on the H-60 helicopter where the shafts can be easily replaced or interchanged. This could be due to maintenance or repair needs, allowing for efficient and convenient replacement of the shafts without having to replace the entire tail drive shaft assembly.

Explanation

The correct answer is II. The section of the tail drive shaft on an H-60 that contains interchangeable shafts. This means that there is a specific section of the tail drive shaft on the H-60 helicopter where the shafts can be easily replaced or interchanged. This could be due to maintenance or repair needs, allowing for efficient and convenient replacement of the shafts without having to replace the entire tail drive shaft assembly.

191. (438) What is the operational pressure range, in pounds per square inch (psi), of the tail wheel tire?

105–115

115–125.

125–135.

200–300.

The operational pressure range of the tail wheel tire is 115-125 pounds per square inch (psi). This means that the tire should be inflated to a pressure within this range in order to ensure proper operation and performance. Inflating the tire to a pressure outside of this range could result in suboptimal performance or even damage to the tire.

Explanation

The operational pressure range of the tail wheel tire is 115-125 pounds per square inch (psi). This means that the tire should be inflated to a pressure within this range in order to ensure proper operation and performance. Inflating the tire to a pressure outside of this range could result in suboptimal performance or even damage to the tire.

192. (210) The GRDP provides for all ground refuel and defuel modes, a basic display of fuel system status, and

Total fuel quantity, indications of low oil levels, and basic display of fuel system failures.

Total fuel quantity, indications of low oil levels, and hydraulic system status.

Total fuel quantity, indications of low oil levels, and cabin door safety interlock status.

Total fuel quantity, indications of low oil levels, and oxygen system status.

The GRDP provides a basic display of fuel system status, including indications of low oil levels and total fuel quantity. Additionally, it provides a basic display of fuel system failures, allowing the operator to monitor and address any issues with the fuel system.

Explanation

The GRDP provides a basic display of fuel system status, including indications of low oil levels and total fuel quantity. Additionally, it provides a basic display of fuel system failures, allowing the operator to monitor and address any issues with the fuel system.

193. (212) What prevents wheel brake assembly rotation?

Torque lug bushing.

Key splines.

Stationary disc.

Non-rotating stators.

The torque lug bushing prevents wheel brake assembly rotation. This component is designed to provide a secure connection between the wheel brake assembly and the aircraft structure, ensuring that the assembly remains stationary during operation. The torque lug bushing is responsible for transmitting the braking force from the assembly to the aircraft structure, effectively preventing rotation and maintaining stability.

Explanation

The torque lug bushing prevents wheel brake assembly rotation. This component is designed to provide a secure connection between the wheel brake assembly and the aircraft structure, ensuring that the assembly remains stationary during operation. The torque lug bushing is responsible for transmitting the braking force from the assembly to the aircraft structure, effectively preventing rotation and maintaining stability.

194. (212) Operation of the wheel and brake system in POWERED mode, hydraulic system 3 supplies how much pressure in psi to the pressure reducer?

3000.

4000.

5000.

6000.

In the powered mode, the hydraulic system 3 supplies 5000 psi of pressure to the pressure reducer. This pressure is necessary for the operation of the wheel and brake system, ensuring proper functioning of the system.

Explanation

In the powered mode, the hydraulic system 3 supplies 5000 psi of pressure to the pressure reducer. This pressure is necessary for the operation of the wheel and brake system, ensuring proper functioning of the system.

195. (213) Hydraulic actuator control to induce roll is provided by the

Rudders.

Elevators.

Flaperons.

Swashplate.

Flaperons are control surfaces that combine the functions of both ailerons and flaps. They are located on the trailing edge of the wings and are used to induce roll in an aircraft. By deflecting the flaperons symmetrically or differentially, the pilot can control the roll of the aircraft. Rudders are used for yaw control, elevators for pitch control, and swashplate is a component found in helicopters for controlling rotor blades. Therefore, flaperons are the correct answer for hydraulic actuator control to induce roll.

Explanation

Flaperons are control surfaces that combine the functions of both ailerons and flaps. They are located on the trailing edge of the wings and are used to induce roll in an aircraft. By deflecting the flaperons symmetrically or differentially, the pilot can control the roll of the aircraft. Rudders are used for yaw control, elevators for pitch control, and swashplate is a component found in helicopters for controlling rotor blades. Therefore, flaperons are the correct answer for hydraulic actuator control to induce roll.

196. (223) What assembly is used to mechanically release both cargo hooks in the event of electrical failure of the external cargo hook system?

Emergency grip release assembly.

External manual release assembly.

Emergency manual release assembly.

Cockpit cargo hook/hoist control panel manual release assembly.

The emergency manual release assembly is used to mechanically release both cargo hooks in the event of electrical failure of the external cargo hook system. This assembly provides a backup method for releasing the cargo hooks when the electrical system is not functioning properly.

Explanation

The emergency manual release assembly is used to mechanically release both cargo hooks in the event of electrical failure of the external cargo hook system. This assembly provides a backup method for releasing the cargo hooks when the electrical system is not functioning properly.

197. (228) In an emergency, what provides an external path for fuel being jettisoned?

Fuel dump control panel.

Jettison tube assembly.

Jettison shutoff valve.

Fuel dump valves.

The jettison tube assembly provides an external path for fuel being jettisoned in an emergency. This assembly is designed to safely release fuel from an aircraft in order to reduce weight and prevent potential hazards during emergency situations. It allows the fuel to be expelled outside the aircraft through designated tubes or pipes, ensuring that it does not pose a risk to the aircraft or its occupants.

Explanation

The jettison tube assembly provides an external path for fuel being jettisoned in an emergency. This assembly is designed to safely release fuel from an aircraft in order to reduce weight and prevent potential hazards during emergency situations. It allows the fuel to be expelled outside the aircraft through designated tubes or pipes, ensuring that it does not pose a risk to the aircraft or its occupants.

198. (303) In the direct current (DC) power system, what solid–state device contains the timing, logic circuits, and relay that automatically disconnects the aircraft battery from the ESS/BAT BUS to prevent excess battery drain during ground servicing?

Battery indicator relay.

Battery relay control unit.

Battery indicator and test panel.

APU start battery auxiliary relay.

The battery relay control unit is the solid-state device in the direct current power system that contains the timing, logic circuits, and relay to automatically disconnect the aircraft battery from the ESS/BAT BUS during ground servicing. This is done to prevent excess battery drain. The battery indicator relay, battery indicator and test panel, and APU start battery auxiliary relay do not perform this specific function.

Explanation

The battery relay control unit is the solid-state device in the direct current power system that contains the timing, logic circuits, and relay to automatically disconnect the aircraft battery from the ESS/BAT BUS during ground servicing. This is done to prevent excess battery drain. The battery indicator relay, battery indicator and test panel, and APU start battery auxiliary relay do not perform this specific function.

199. (303) What facilitates the connection/disconnection of the aircraft battery to the MAINT BUS?

Remote control circuit breaker (RCCB) 1.

RCCB 2.

RCCB clearing relay.

Auxiliary power unit (APU) start battery auxiliary relay.

The RCCB 2 facilitates the connection/disconnection of the aircraft battery to the MAINT BUS. This device acts as a remote control circuit breaker, allowing for the safe and controlled flow of electrical power between the battery and the MAINT BUS. It helps to protect the electrical system from overloads or faults by automatically opening the circuit in case of abnormal conditions. By using the RCCB 2, the connection and disconnection of the battery can be easily controlled and managed.

Explanation

The RCCB 2 facilitates the connection/disconnection of the aircraft battery to the MAINT BUS. This device acts as a remote control circuit breaker, allowing for the safe and controlled flow of electrical power between the battery and the MAINT BUS. It helps to protect the electrical system from overloads or faults by automatically opening the circuit in case of abnormal conditions. By using the RCCB 2, the connection and disconnection of the battery can be easily controlled and managed.

200. (306) In direct current (DC) power, what type of cable wiring uses the airframe ground for power return?

Single.

Double strand.

Twisted pair.

Coaxial.

In direct current (DC) power, the type of cable wiring that uses the airframe ground for power return is single. This means that the power is transmitted through a single conductor, with the airframe acting as the ground or return path for the current. This type of wiring is commonly used in aircraft and other applications where a single conductor is sufficient for the power requirements. Double strand, twisted pair, and coaxial cables are not typically used for power return in DC systems.

Explanation

In direct current (DC) power, the type of cable wiring that uses the airframe ground for power return is single. This means that the power is transmitted through a single conductor, with the airframe acting as the ground or return path for the current. This type of wiring is commonly used in aircraft and other applications where a single conductor is sufficient for the power requirements. Double strand, twisted pair, and coaxial cables are not typically used for power return in DC systems.

2A552 Test 2 Aircraft