3m051a Quiz 1 5aug12

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  • 1/87 Questions

    Services Journeyman (5 level) training primarily consists of what kind of training?

    • OJT and CDCs
    • OJT and STP
    • STP and CDCs
    • CDCs and UTAs
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About This Quiz

This 3M051A quiz assesses knowledge on safety hazards, responsibilities in maintaining a safe work environment, and documentation in the Air Force. It covers falls, supervisor roles, and AF Form 55, focusing on practical on-the-job safety training.

Safety Training Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    Fallout funds be spent by the end of

    • Quarter

    • Fiscal year

    • Semi year

    • Each month

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiscal year
    Explanation
    Fallout funds need to be spent by the end of the fiscal year. The fiscal year is a 12-month period used by governments and businesses for financial reporting and budgeting purposes. It typically starts on January 1st and ends on December 31st. Therefore, it is important for the fallout funds to be utilized within this timeframe to ensure proper financial management and adherence to budgetary regulations.

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  • 3. 

    The primary consideration during a robbery is

    • Safeguarding of human life.

    • Activating the robbery alarm.

    • Giving the robber marked money.

    • Securing the scene of the robbery and seeing in which direction the robber went.

    Correct Answer
    A. Safeguarding of human life.
    Explanation
    During a robbery, the most important factor to consider is the protection of human life. In such a dangerous situation, the well-being and safety of individuals should always be the top priority. While activating the robbery alarm and securing the scene are also important, they should not take precedence over ensuring that no harm comes to people. Giving the robber marked money may be a strategy to aid in their identification and capture later on, but it is secondary to the immediate concern of safeguarding human life.

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  • 4. 

    What is one of the biggest problems facing managers in food service facilities?

    • Communication

    • Managing shifts

    • Lack of meetings

    • Training personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Communication
    Explanation
    One of the biggest problems facing managers in food service facilities is communication. Effective communication is crucial in ensuring smooth operations and customer satisfaction. Without clear and open communication channels, there can be misunderstandings, mistakes, and delays in service. This can lead to dissatisfied customers, decreased productivity, and ultimately, loss of business. Managers need to establish effective communication systems and ensure that all staff members are well-informed and able to communicate effectively with each other.

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  • 5. 

    The tip of the thermometer should be inserted when checking meats for doneness to the center of the meat

    • Nearest the bone

    • At its thickest point

    • At its thinnest point

    • Away from the bone

    Correct Answer
    A. At its thickest point
    Explanation
    When checking meats for doneness, it is important to insert the tip of the thermometer at its thickest point. This is because the thickest part of the meat takes the longest to cook and is therefore a good indicator of the overall doneness of the meat. Inserting the thermometer at the thickest point ensures that the temperature reading is accurate and reliable.

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  • 6. 

    The main purpose of garnish is to

    • Improve the appearance of the dining facility

    • Increase nutritional value

    • Stimulate the appetite

    • Decorate food

    Correct Answer
    A. Decorate food
    Explanation
    Garnish is used primarily to decorate food. It adds visual appeal and enhances the presentation of a dish, making it more visually appealing and enticing. While garnish can sometimes enhance the flavor or nutritional value of a dish, its main purpose is to make the food look more attractive.

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  • 7. 

    What utensil is used for serving baked fish?

    • Slotted spoon

    • Solid spoon

    • Food tongs

    • Spatula

    Correct Answer
    A. Spatula
    Explanation
    A spatula is a flat, thin utensil with a wide, flexible blade. It is commonly used for flipping and turning food while cooking. When it comes to serving baked fish, a spatula is a suitable utensil to use. Its wide, flat blade allows for easy lifting and transferring of the delicate fish without breaking it. The flexibility of the blade also helps in maneuvering around the fish to ensure it is served intact. Therefore, a spatula is the correct utensil for serving baked fish.

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  • 8. 

    How many inches above the floor should you store semiperishable subsistence?

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    Semiperishable subsistence should be stored 6 inches above the floor. This is likely because storing it at this height helps to prevent contamination from pests, dirt, and moisture on the floor. By keeping the subsistence elevated, it reduces the risk of spoilage and maintains its quality for a longer period of time.

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  • 9. 

    When should frozen, pre-breaded seafood be thawed

    • Never

    • Before frying in the fryer

    • Before baking in the oven

    • At least 24 hours prior to cooking

    Correct Answer
    A. Never
    Explanation
    Frozen, pre-breaded seafood should never be thawed before cooking. Thawing frozen seafood can increase the risk of bacterial growth and spoilage. It is recommended to cook the seafood directly from its frozen state to ensure food safety and maintain its quality. Thawing is not necessary as the breading will help protect the seafood during the cooking process.

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  • 10. 

    Whose job is it to promptly report safety, fire, and health hazards and deficiencies?

    • Supervisor

    • Unit Commander

    • All Air Force personnel

    • Installation Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. All Air Force personnel
    Explanation
    All Air Force personnel are responsible for promptly reporting safety, fire, and health hazards and deficiencies. This includes all members of the Air Force, regardless of rank or position. Each individual has a duty to ensure the safety and well-being of themselves and others, and reporting any hazards or deficiencies is an important part of that responsibility. This ensures that appropriate action can be taken to address and mitigate any potential risks or dangers.

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  • 11. 

    The specialty training standards (STS) serves as a contract between what major command (MAJCOM) and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses?

    • Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • Air Mobility Command (AMC)

    • Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)

    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Education and Training Command (AETC) because the specialty training standards (STS) outline the specific training requirements for each Air Force specialty code (AFSC). AETC is responsible for providing formal schools and correspondence courses that teach these requirements to the functional users.

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  • 12. 

    A person is automatically entered into Track 2 when he or she rotates into what core function?

    • Food

    • Fitness

    • Lodging

    • Readiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Food
    Explanation
    When a person rotates into the core function of Food, they are automatically entered into Track 2.

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  • 13. 

    What do positions termed military essential on our unit manpower document (UMD) indicate?

    • Must be filled by military members

    • Can be filled by in-service civilians

    • Required by the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)

    • A position that is vital to the success of the Department of Defense (DOD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Must be filled by military members
    Explanation
    Positions termed military essential on the unit manpower document (UMD) indicate that they must be filled by military members. This means that these positions require the specific skills, training, and expertise that only military personnel possess. It is important for these positions to be filled by military members in order to ensure the effectiveness and readiness of the military unit.

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  • 14. 

    Which organization is responsible for determining strategic mission support requirements for the Air Reserve Component (ARC) installations?

    • Unit

    • Squadron

    • Base

    • Major command (MAJCOM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM)
    Explanation
    The Major command (MAJCOM) is responsible for determining strategic mission support requirements for the Air Reserve Component (ARC) installations. This means that the MAJCOM is the organization that assesses and decides on the necessary support needed for ARC installations to carry out their strategic missions effectively. The MAJCOM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the ARC installations have the resources and support they need to fulfill their missions.

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  • 15. 

    What kind of contract is awarded to an individual for his or her unique skill, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for a nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)?

    • Group

    • Individual

    • Performance

    • Entertainment

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual
    Explanation
    An individual is awarded a contract for his or her unique skill, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for a nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI). This type of contract recognizes and acknowledges the specific expertise and abilities of the individual, allowing them to provide their services in a specialized and tailored manner. It is different from a group contract, which involves multiple individuals working together, and from contracts related to performance or entertainment, which may focus more on the overall experience rather than the individual's unique skills.

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  • 16. 

    What Air Force form is used to nominate a base for the General Curtis E. Lemay or General Eugene L. Eubanks Awards?

    • 1000

    • 1119

    • 1206

    • 1339

    Correct Answer
    A. 1206
    Explanation
    Air Force form 1206 is used to nominate a base for the General Curtis E. Lemay or General Eugene L. Eubanks Awards.

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  • 17. 

    What Force Support recognition program recognizes excellence in Air Force food service?

    • AF Innkeeper Award

    • John L. Hennessy Trophy

    • 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year Award

    • Lieutenant General Norm Lezy Services Award

    Correct Answer
    A. John L. Hennessy Trophy
    Explanation
    The John L. Hennessy Trophy is the correct answer because it is a recognition program that specifically acknowledges excellence in Air Force food service. The AF Innkeeper Award recognizes excellence in lodging operations, the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year Award recognizes exceptional airmen, and the Lieutenant General Norm Lezy Services Award recognizes outstanding contributions to Air Force services.

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  • 18. 

    What is the foundation for all Air Force club catering operations?

    • The Air Force Catering Program

    • HQ AFSVA

    • Food and Beverage Section

    • Force Support Squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. The Air Force Catering Program
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Air Force Catering Program. This program serves as the foundation for all Air Force club catering operations. It provides guidelines, standards, and resources for food and beverage services in the Air Force. It ensures that catering operations are conducted efficiently and effectively, meeting the needs and expectations of Air Force members and their families.

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  • 19. 

    How many category lists do you prepare when prioritizing work?

    • 3

    • 2

    • 6

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    When prioritizing work, it is important to categorize tasks to ensure efficient management. By preparing three category lists, one can divide tasks into high priority, medium priority, and low priority. This allows for better organization and helps in focusing on the most important tasks first.

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  • 20. 

    After how many days of contingency and wartime operations should MAJCOMs and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations to keep essential activities operational?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days of contingency and wartime operations, MAJCOMs and individual bases should be prepared to expand their operations to keep essential activities operational. This indicates that after a month of such operations, they should have plans and resources in place to increase their capacity and continue with critical activities.

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  • 21. 

    What type of contract is awarded to individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for a NAFI?

    • Nonpersonal services contract

    • Individual service contract

    • Concessionaire contract

    • Entertainment contract

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual service contract
    Explanation
    An individual service contract is awarded to individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for a NAFI. This type of contract is specifically tailored to the individual's abilities and is not based on a standard service or product. It allows the NAFI to benefit from the specialized expertise of the individual, making it the most suitable option for this scenario.

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  • 22. 

    Which agency, other than the field operating agency (FOA), determines the total wartime manpower resources needed to support wartime requirements?

    • Installation command section

    • Air reserve component (ARC)

    • Major command (MAJCOM)

    • Unit command section

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM)
    Explanation
    The Major command (MAJCOM) is the agency that determines the total wartime manpower resources needed to support wartime requirements, other than the field operating agency (FOA). MAJCOMs are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping forces for combatant commanders. They assess the manpower needs based on the specific requirements of each command and allocate resources accordingly. The MAJCOMs play a crucial role in ensuring that the military has the necessary personnel to effectively execute missions during times of war.

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  • 23. 

    What are three different types of funds that you work primarily with? Select all that apply

    • Appropriated funds (APF)

    • Donated funds

    • Nonappropriated funds (NAF)

    • Operations and maintenance (O&M) funds

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Appropriated funds (APF)
    A. Nonappropriated funds (NAF)
    A. Operations and maintenance (O&M) funds
    Explanation
    The three different types of funds that the person primarily works with are Appropriated funds (APF), Nonappropriated funds (NAF), and Operations and maintenance (O&M) funds.

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  • 24. 

    What are the two types of Department of Defense (DOD) meal rates?

    • Standard and special

    • Standard and normal

    • Discount and normal

    • Discount and standard

    Correct Answer
    A. Discount and standard
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense (DOD) has two types of meal rates: discount and standard. The discount meal rate is offered to eligible individuals who are entitled to a reduced price for their meals. On the other hand, the standard meal rate is the regular price that individuals without any discounts or special entitlements would pay for their meals.

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  • 25. 

    What is the most important duty a shift leader should accomplish each day?

    • Taste testing food

    • Uniform inspections

    • Mentoring and training

    • On-the-job training (OJT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Mentoring and training
    Explanation
    The most important duty a shift leader should accomplish each day is mentoring and training. This is crucial as it ensures that the team members are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their tasks effectively. By providing guidance and support, the shift leader can help the team members improve their performance and contribute to the overall success of the shift. This duty also helps in fostering a positive work environment and building strong relationships within the team.

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  • 26. 

    A good menu is

    • Practical and acceptable

    • Simple and eye appealing

    • Practical and cost effective

    • Acceptable and eye appealing

    Correct Answer
    A. Practical and acceptable
    Explanation
    A good menu should be practical and acceptable because it should offer dishes that are feasible to prepare and serve, considering the available resources and kitchen capabilities. Additionally, the menu should also cater to the preferences and dietary restrictions of the target customers, ensuring that it is acceptable to a wide range of people. By being both practical and acceptable, the menu can effectively meet the needs and expectations of the customers, resulting in a positive dining experience.

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  • 27. 

    How long can potentially hazardous foods be in the danger zone before they are considered unsafe for consumption and destroyed?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    Potentially hazardous foods can be in the danger zone for a maximum of 4 hours before they are considered unsafe for consumption and destroyed. The danger zone refers to the temperature range between 40°F (4°C) and 140°F (60°C), where bacteria can grow rapidly. If foods are left in this temperature range for more than 4 hours, it increases the risk of bacterial growth and foodborne illnesses. Therefore, it is important to ensure that potentially hazardous foods are stored properly and kept out of the danger zone to maintain food safety.

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  • 28. 

    We prepare potentially hazardous foods that have been cooked, refrigerated, and must be served hot again leftovers) by reheating it to an internal temperature of at least

    • 155ºF for at least 15 seconds

    • 155ºF for at least 30 seconds

    • 165ºF for at least 15 seconds

    • 165ºF for at least 30 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 165ºF for at least 15 seconds
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 165ºF for at least 15 seconds. This temperature and time combination ensures that any potentially harmful bacteria or pathogens in the food are effectively killed, making it safe for consumption. Reheating the food to a higher temperature or for a longer duration may result in overcooking or drying out the food.

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  • 29. 

    What is the proper internal temperature for rare roast beef and rare beefsteak?

    • 120ºF

    • 130ºF

    • 140ºF

    • 150ºF

    Correct Answer
    A. 130ºF
    Explanation
    The proper internal temperature for rare roast beef and rare beefsteak is 130ºF. This temperature ensures that the meat is cooked enough to be safe to eat, but still retains its juicy and tender texture. Cooking the meat to a higher temperature would result in a more well-done and less tender meat.

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  • 30. 

    The purpose of sautéing food is to

    • Seal the moisture inside the food and protect the oil

    • Achieve a higher cooking temperature without the agitation of boiling the food

    • Deliver heat at an even rate to all sides of a food so all parts are cooked at the same time

    • Minimize water loss and vitamin destruction, yet maximize browning and flavor development of the food

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimize water loss and vitamin destruction, yet maximize browning and flavor development of the food
    Explanation
    Sautéing food involves cooking it quickly in a small amount of oil or fat over high heat. This method helps to minimize water loss and preserve the vitamins in the food, while also allowing for maximum browning and flavor development. The high heat and quick cooking time help to seal in moisture and protect the oil, achieving a delicious and flavorful result.

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  • 31. 

    What is the most dynamic user interface of the point of sales (POS) system?

    • Thermal printer

    • Digital pole display

    • Touch screen terminal

    • Identification card (ID) reader

    Correct Answer
    A. Identification card (ID) reader
    Explanation
    The most dynamic user interface of the point of sales (POS) system is the identification card (ID) reader. This device allows users to easily swipe or scan their ID cards, providing quick and efficient identification of customers or employees. It eliminates the need for manual data entry and enhances security by accurately verifying the identity of individuals.

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  • 32. 

    What is the most common saftey hazzard in the kitchen?

    • Falls

    • Cuts

    • Fire

    • Burns

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    Falls are the most common safety hazard in the kitchen because it is a busy area with many potential tripping hazards such as slippery floors, loose rugs, or cluttered surfaces. Additionally, reaching for items on high shelves or using unstable stools can also lead to falls. It is important to maintain a clean and organized kitchen, use non-slip mats, and be cautious when handling objects at higher levels to prevent falls and ensure safety in the kitchen.

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  • 33. 

    What form is used to document safety training?

    • AF Form 452

    • AF Form 797

    • AF Form 79

    • AF Form 55

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 55. This form is used to document safety training.

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  • 34. 

    People in what ranks are eligible to fill various special experience identifier (SEI)-coded positions?

    • Airman first class (A1C) – technical sergeant (TSgt)

    • A1C – master sergeant (MSgt)

    • Senior Airman (SrA) – MSgt

    • SrA – senior master sergeant (SMSgt)

    Correct Answer
    A. Senior Airman (SrA) – MSgt
    Explanation
    Individuals in the ranks of Senior Airman (SrA) through Master Sergeant (MSgt) are eligible to fill various special experience identifier (SEI)-coded positions.

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  • 35. 

    What does “double billeted” refer to?

    • A unit manpower document (UMD) term that will cause a permanent change of station (PCS) move

    • A conditions that usually causes a shortage

    • Two people assigned to the same UMD position

    • Someone promoted to SMSgt or Chief, and their unit does not have an authorization for that grade

    Correct Answer
    A. Two people assigned to the same UMD position
    Explanation
    "Double billeted" refers to the situation where two people are assigned to the same unit manpower document (UMD) position. This means that there are two individuals fulfilling the responsibilities and duties of a single position.

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  • 36. 

    Who determines fair or reasonable pricing for an entertainment contract?

    • Nonappropriated funds (NAF) accounting officer (AO)

    • Contracting officer

    • Force support squadron commander

    • Installation commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting officer
    Explanation
    The contracting officer is responsible for determining fair or reasonable pricing for an entertainment contract. They have the authority and expertise to negotiate and establish the terms and conditions of the contract, including pricing. The contracting officer ensures that the pricing is fair and reasonable by conducting market research, analyzing cost data, and considering factors such as the scope of work, industry standards, and competition. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the contract is beneficial for both the entertainment provider and the organization.

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  • 37. 

    What is the primary purpose of a temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA)?

    • Sustainment

    • Dollar savings

    • Increase services

    • Increase hours of operation

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustainment
    Explanation
    A temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA) is primarily used for sustainment purposes. It is a formal document that outlines the terms and conditions agreed upon between two or more parties for a temporary period of time. The purpose of a T-MOA is to ensure the continuation and sustainability of a specific project, activity, or partnership. It helps to establish clear expectations, responsibilities, and obligations for all parties involved, ensuring that the project or activity can be sustained effectively and efficiently.

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  • 38. 

    The resource management flight chief (RMFC) uses what Air Force form to maintain change and imprest fund cash accountability at all times?

    • 1875

    • 1876

    • 2556

    • 2557

    Correct Answer
    A. 2557
    Explanation
    The resource management flight chief (RMFC) uses Air Force Form 2557 to maintain change and imprest fund cash accountability at all times.

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  • 39. 

    What is the most desirable method of thawing food?

    • Completely submerged under water

    • At room temperature for no more than six hours

    • Under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 40ºF or less

    • In a microwave and then stored under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 40ºF or less

    Correct Answer
    A. Under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 40ºF or less
    Explanation
    Thawing food under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 40ºF or less is the most desirable method because it ensures that the food remains at a safe temperature to prevent bacterial growth. Thawing food at room temperature for more than six hours can allow the food to enter the temperature danger zone, where bacteria can multiply rapidly. Thawing food in a microwave and then storing it under refrigeration is also a safe method, but it is important to ensure that the food stays at or below 40ºF to prevent bacterial growth. Thawing food completely submerged under water is not recommended as it can lead to uneven thawing and potential cross-contamination.

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  • 40. 

    How long do individuals in Journeyman (5 level) upgrade training have to complete their CDCs?

    • 24 months

    • 12 months

    • 15 months

    • 18 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 months
    Explanation
    Individuals in Journeyman (5 level) upgrade training have 12 months to complete their CDCs. This means that they have a year to finish their training and demonstrate their competency in their chosen field. This time frame allows them to gain the necessary knowledge and skills required for their job and ensures that they are ready to perform at the next level of their career.

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  • 41. 

    Which is not a factor that affects objective assessment?

    • Odd ball effect

    • I-did-it-better effect

    • Leveling effect

    • It wasn’t me effect

    Correct Answer
    A. It wasn’t me effect
    Explanation
    The "It wasn't me effect" refers to the tendency of individuals to deny responsibility or accountability for their actions or performance. This factor does not affect objective assessment because objective assessment is based on unbiased and impartial evaluation of facts and evidence, regardless of personal opinions or excuses.

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  • 42. 

    When developing a master task listing (MTL), who determines which tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) apply to their specific mission?

    • Individual

    • Supervisor

    • Flight chief

    • Activity manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor determines which tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) apply to their specific mission when developing a master task listing (MTL). The supervisor is responsible for overseeing and managing the work of their team, and they have the knowledge and understanding of the mission requirements to determine which tasks are relevant and necessary for their specific mission. They are in a position of authority and have the final say in determining the tasks that should be included in the MTL.

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  • 43. 

    Who determines fair or reasonable pricing for an entertainment contract?

    • Individual

    • Services Commander

    • Installation Commander

    • Contracting Officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting Officer
    Explanation
    The contracting officer is responsible for determining fair and reasonable pricing for an entertainment contract. They are the individual within the organization who is authorized to enter into and manage contracts on behalf of the organization. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the pricing of entertainment contracts and ensure that it is fair and reasonable based on market conditions and industry standards.

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  • 44. 

    After how many days will major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations to keep essential activities operational?

    • The first 30

    • The first 60

    • The first 90

    • The first 120

    Correct Answer
    A. The first 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases will be prepared to expand their operations to keep essential activities operational.

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  • 45. 

    Who allocates appropriated money?

    • Congress

    • MAJCOM

    • Unit Command Section

    • Air reserve component (ARC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Congress
    Explanation
    Congress is responsible for allocating appropriated money. As the legislative branch of the government, Congress has the authority to determine how funds will be allocated for various purposes such as government programs, infrastructure projects, and national defense. Through the appropriations process, Congress approves the budget and decides how much money will be allocated to different agencies and departments. This ensures that the allocation of funds is done in a democratic and transparent manner, with the input and oversight of elected representatives.

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  • 46. 

    There are how many levels of budgeting responsibilities?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    There are three levels of budgeting responsibilities.

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  • 47. 

    Managers require marketing information that is

    • Brief, clear, and timely

    • Accurate, brief, and clear

    • Accurate, clear, and timely

    • Accurate, reliable, and timely

    Correct Answer
    A. Accurate, reliable, and timely
    Explanation
    Managers require marketing information that is accurate, reliable, and timely in order to make informed decisions. Accuracy ensures that the information is correct and free from errors, while reliability ensures that the information is trustworthy and can be relied upon. Timeliness ensures that the information is up-to-date and relevant to the current situation. By having accurate, reliable, and timely marketing information, managers can effectively analyze market trends, consumer behavior, and competitors' activities, enabling them to develop effective marketing strategies and make informed decisions for their businesses.

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  • 48. 

    How many days of emergency rations (MRE) are authorized units allowed to purchase?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Units are allowed to purchase 2 days of emergency rations (MRE). This suggests that there is a specific limit set for the amount of rations that units can acquire. It is important for units to have emergency rations on hand in case of any unforeseen circumstances or emergencies. This limit helps ensure that units have an adequate supply of rations without excessive stockpiling.

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  • 49. 

    What do the core flight menu standards mandate?

    • Healthy menu items with a quality packaging system

    • Variety of healthy items delivered by flight kitchen personnel

    • Variety of prepackaged foods in an inexpensive packaging system

    • Choice of healthy/not healthy menu items in a quality packaging system

    Correct Answer
    A. Healthy menu items with a quality packaging system
    Explanation
    The core flight menu standards mandate that the menu items should be healthy and the packaging system should be of high quality. This means that the food options provided on flights should be nutritious and promote well-being. Additionally, the packaging system should be reliable and ensure that the food remains fresh and safe for consumption during the flight.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
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    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 05, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Numnum85
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