CDC Security Forces Vol 3

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1/74 Questions

Range cards are a record of
- A. range data
- B. firing data
- C. call signs
- D. training.

About This Quiz

The 'CDC Security Forces Vol 3' quiz focuses on operational skills and knowledge essential for security forces, particularly in handling and deploying weapons like M4, M240B, MK19, and. 50cal. It assesses understanding of range cards, firing data, and tactical positioning, crucial for defense and protective operations.

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2.

How many range cards are prepared for each postion?
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. Four
Correct Answer

A. B. Two

Explanation

Each position requires two range cards to be prepared.

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3.

In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, What other fixed weapons require a range card?
- A. M240B, MK19, .50cal
- B.M248, .50 cal and MK19
- C.M9, M203 and MK19
- D.MK19, .50 cal and M17
Correct Answer

A. A. M240B, MK19, .50cal

Explanation

The correct answer is a. M240B, MK19, .50cal. The question is asking for other fixed weapons that require a range card in addition to the M4. Out of the given options, option a includes the M240B, MK19, and .50cal, which are all fixed weapons that require a range card. Option b includes the M248, .50cal, and MK19, but it does not include the M240B. Option c includes the M9, M203, and MK19, but it does not include the .50cal or M240B. Option d includes the MK19, .50cal, and M17, but it does not include the M240B. Therefore, the correct answer is a. M240B, MK19, .50cal.

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4.

What does the acronym FPL stand for?
- A. Final Portective Line
- B. Fire Patrol Liaison
- C. First Protective Line
- D. Fire Proficiency Line
Correct Answer

A. A. Final Portective Line

Explanation

The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military and defense contexts to refer to a predetermined line of defense that is established as a last resort to protect a specific area or target. The Final Protective Line is typically manned by troops or forces who are prepared to engage and repel any enemy forces that breach previous defensive lines.

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5.

Which of the following is used primarily to control direct fire weapons but may also be used for indirect fire weapons?
- A.Principle determination of fire (PDF)
- B.Principle direction of enemy (PDE)
- C.Target reference point (TRP)
- D.Final protective line (FPL)
Correct Answer

A. C.Target reference point (TRP)

Explanation

The target reference point (TRP) is primarily used to control direct fire weapons by providing a specific location for the weapon system to aim at. However, it can also be used for indirect fire weapons by serving as a reference point for adjusting the trajectory and direction of the projectiles. TRPs are typically identified on the battlefield and communicated to the firing units, allowing them to engage targets accurately and effectively.

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6.

Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
- A. Where you can locate it quickly
- B. Marginal data area
- C.Upper right corner
- D.Part one
Correct Answer

A. B. Marginal data area

Explanation

The marginal data area is typically used on a range card to record additional information that may be useful but is not directly related to the main purpose of the card. This can include things like magnetic north data, which is important for orienting the card correctly. By placing the magnetic north data in the marginal data area, it is easily accessible and visible without cluttering the main part of the range card.

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7.

What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
- A. Prominent natural and man made features that could be likely targets.
- B.Porminent artifical terrain features that could be a likely target
- C.Prominent man made features that will be a definite target
- D. Natural synthetic features only that could be a target
Correct Answer

A. A. Prominent natural and man made features that could be likely targets.

Explanation

The rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position should include prominent natural and man-made features that could potentially be targeted. This information is crucial for assessing the tactical situation and identifying potential threats or opportunities for engagement. By including such features on the sketch, you can better plan your actions and make informed decisions during combat operations.

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8.

The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
- A. Dead zone
- B. Dead area
- C. Dead space
- D. Dead spot
Correct Answer

A. C. Dead space

Explanation

The term "dead space" refers to an area that cannot be effectively engaged or targeted with grazing fire. This could be due to obstacles, terrain features, or other factors that obstruct the line of sight or prevent direct fire from reaching the area. "Dead zone" and "dead area" are similar terms but may not specifically refer to the inability to engage with grazing fire. "Dead spot" is not a commonly used term in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Dead space.

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9.

When claring fields of fire at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?
- A.25
- B.50
- C.75
- D.100
Correct Answer

A. D.100

Explanation

When clearing fields of fire, it is important to start at least 100 meters from your position and work forward. This distance ensures that any potential threats or obstacles are identified and dealt with before reaching your position, providing a safe and secure area for firing. Starting at a closer distance may leave you vulnerable to enemy fire or hinder your ability to effectively engage targets. Therefore, beginning the clearance process at 100 meters is crucial for maintaining a tactical advantage.

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10.

The main idea behind clearing fiels of fire is
- A.observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon
- B.engage only those persons determined to be hostile
- C.engage predetermined targets in the area
- D.detect the enemy and notify the Chief Security Forces (CSF)
Correct Answer

A. A.observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon

Explanation

The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing a field of fire, you should be vigilant and ready to engage anyone who poses a threat within your line of sight. This ensures that you have a clear and safe area from which to engage potential targets and maintain control over the situation. By observing and engaging anyone within the field, you are effectively clearing the area of potential threats and creating a secure environment.

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11.

What is the function of the forward assist?
- A.Lock the charging handle in place prior to immendiate action procedure
- B.Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure
- C.Unlock the bolt and secure the charging handle
- D.Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures.
Correct Answer

A. B.Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure

Explanation

The forward assist is a feature found on some firearms, typically rifles, that allows the user to manually push the bolt forward into battery. This can be useful in situations where the bolt does not fully close and the firearm fails to fire. By using the forward assist, the user can ensure that the bolt is fully locked forward and ready to fire. Therefore, the correct answer is "b. Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure."

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12.

Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
- A. stoppage
- B. malfunction
- C. failure to fire
- D. operational failure
Correct Answer

A. A. stoppage

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. stoppage" because a stoppage refers to any interruption or halt in the cycle of operations. This can occur due to various reasons such as a mechanical issue, a malfunction, or a failure to fire. It indicates a temporary or permanent cessation of the normal functioning of a system or process.

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13.

The acronym SPORTS stands for
- A.slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot
- B.smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot
- C.slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot
- D.slap, push, observe, release, tap and shoot
Correct Answer

A. C.slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot

Explanation

The correct answer is c. The acronym SPORTS stands for slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot. This acronym is commonly used in firearms training to remind individuals of the proper steps to follow when handling a firearm. Slap refers to slapping the magazine to ensure it is properly seated, pull refers to pulling the charging handle to chamber a round, observe refers to observing the target and surroundings, release refers to releasing the safety, tap refers to tapping the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and shoot refers to firing the weapon.

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14.

The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
- A.in brand new condition
- B.clean, dry, and lubricated
- C.fully oiled and lubricated
- D.clean and porperly lubricated
Correct Answer

A. D.clean and porperly lubricated

Explanation

The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to ensure that weapons are kept clean and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent any potential malfunctions or damage that could occur due to dirt or lack of lubrication. By regularly cleaning and lubricating the weapons, their performance and longevity can be maximized, reducing the need for costly repairs or replacements.

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15.

How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine?
- A.6
- B.8
- C.10
- D.12
Correct Answer

A. C.10

Explanation

There are 10 different types of ammunition available for the M4 carbine.

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16.

What catridge used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
- A.M249
- B.M199
- C.M855
- D.M856
Correct Answer

A. D.M856

Explanation

The correct answer is M856. The M856 cartridge used in the M4 carbine is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. Tracer ammunition is used to visually track the trajectory of bullets, and the M856 allows for a longer distance of visibility compared to the M196.

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17.

What is the maximum effect range of the M9 pistol?
- A.50 meters
- B.60 meters
- C.70 meters
- D.80 meters
Correct Answer

A. A.50 meters

Explanation

The maximum effect range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is most effective in hitting targets accurately within a range of 50 meters. Beyond this distance, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol may decrease.

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18.

What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
- A.600 meters
- B.800 meters
- C.1,100 meters
- D.1,800 meters
Correct Answer

A. D.1,800 meters
19.

If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
- A.approximate aiming point method
- B.adjusted aiming point method
- C.advanced aiming point method
- D.altitude aiming point method
Correct Answer

A. B.adjusted aiming point method

Explanation

Shooters are required to use the adjusted aiming point method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets. This method involves making slight adjustments to the point of aim based on factors such as distance, wind, and target size. By adjusting the aim, shooters can ensure that their shots hit the intended target accurately. This method allows for greater precision and effectiveness in engaging targets with the M9.

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20.

On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and
- A.loaded chabmer indicator
- B.reset the firing pin block
- C.chambering
- D.releasing slide
Correct Answer

A. A.loaded chabmer indicator

Explanation

The correct answer is a. loaded chamber indicator. The extractor on the M9 pistol serves the dual purpose of extracting the spent casing from the chamber and also indicating whether there is a round loaded in the chamber. This indicator allows the user to visually confirm if the pistol is loaded or not, providing an important safety feature.

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21.

Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
- A.impossible
- B.incredible
- C.ineffective
- D.instinctive
Correct Answer

A. D.instinctive

Explanation

The correct answer is d. instinctive. When faced with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, it is important to react quickly and without hesitation. The word "instinctive" suggests that the response should come naturally and without conscious thought. This implies that individuals should be trained to react automatically and immediately to address any issues with the M9, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the weapon.

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22.

Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
- A.Aluminum
- B.Rubber
- C.Plastic
- D.Steel
Correct Answer

A. D.Steel

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Steel. Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi fluid (LSA) are used on the steel parts of the M9 to prevent rusting. Steel is prone to rusting when exposed to moisture, so applying CLP or LSA helps to protect the steel components of the M9 from rust and corrosion.

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23.

How many types of 9mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
- A.4
- B.3
- C.2
- D.1
Correct Answer

A. A.4

Explanation

The correct answer is a.4 because the M9 pistol is compatible with four types of 9mm ammunition. This suggests that the pistol can be used with a variety of ammunition options, providing flexibility and versatility to the user.

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24.

What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
- A.M855
- B.M856
- C.M882
- D.M917
Correct Answer

A. C.M882

Explanation

The correct answer is c.M882. The M882 is the standard cartridge used with the M9.

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25.

In meters what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire team sized area
- A.400
- B.350
- C.205
- D.150
Correct Answer

A. D.150

Explanation

The maximum range of the M203 when engaging a fire team-sized area is 150 meters. This means that the M203 can effectively engage targets within a radius of 150 meters, making it a suitable weapon for engaging enemies in a confined area or during close-quarters combat.

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26.

In meters what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire team sized area targets?
- A.150
- B.205
- C.350
- D.400
Correct Answer

A. C.350

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire team sized area targets is 350 meters.

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27.

What is the waiting period in seconds from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?
- A.10
- B.15
- C.30
- D.20
Correct Answer

A. C.30

Explanation

The correct answer is c.30. The waiting period of 30 seconds is necessary before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203. This waiting period allows for the safe disposal of any remaining rounds or potential hazards within the barrel assembly. It ensures that the weapon is fully cleared and reduces the risk of accidental discharge or injury to the operator.

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28.

Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
- A. Canopy
- B. Flangee
- C. Ogive
- D. Fin
Correct Answer

A. C. Ogive

Explanation

The ogive of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicates the color of the smoke produced. The ogive is the curved, pointed part of the projectile, typically located at the front. In this case, the color of the smoke can be determined by looking at the ogive of the round.

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29.

What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
- A.40
- B.30
- C.20
- D.10
Correct Answer

A. C.20

Explanation

The danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203 is 20 meters. This means that within a 20-meter radius of the round's impact, there is a potential danger to personnel or objects.

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30.

Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegation areas or for room clearing?
- A.White star cluster
- B.Ground marker
- C.Star parachute
- D.Buckshot
Correct Answer

A. D.Buckshot

Explanation

Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it disperses multiple small pellets upon firing, increasing the chances of hitting the target. This makes it particularly useful in situations where there are obstacles or dense foliage that may obstruct the trajectory of a single projectile. The spread of the buckshot pellets also increases the likelihood of hitting multiple targets in close quarters, making it an ideal choice for room clearing operations.

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31.

Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203
- A.Under no circumstances
- B.when directed
- C.energencies
- D.last resort
Correct Answer

A. A.Under no circumstances

Explanation

MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not for the M203 grenade launcher. Therefore, under no circumstances should MK19 ammunition be used in the M203.

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32.

What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?
- A.800
- B.600
- C.400
- D.200
Correct Answer

A. B.600

Explanation

The M249 has a maximum effective range of 600 meters for a point target when using a bipod. This means that the weapon is designed to accurately engage and hit a specific target at distances of up to 600 meters when the bipod is deployed. This range allows the user to effectively engage and neutralize threats at medium to long distances, providing them with a reliable and accurate weapon system for various combat scenarios.

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33.

Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
- A.slide assembly
- B.receiver assembly
- C.trigger mechanism assembly
- D.return rod and transfer assembly
Correct Answer

A. B.receiver assembly

Explanation

The receiver assembly is the support for all major components of the M249. The receiver is the main body of the firearm where all other parts are attached or housed. It provides stability and structure to the weapon, ensuring that all other assemblies, such as the slide assembly, trigger mechanism assembly, and return rod and transfer assembly, are properly secured and function correctly. Without the receiver assembly, the M249 would not be able to function as a fully operational firearm.

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34.

An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by fauly action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
- A. stoppage
- B.malfunction
- C.remedial action
- D.operator error
Correct Answer

A. A. stoppage

Explanation

A stoppage refers to an interruption in the cycle of operations of a weapon or firearm caused by a faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition. It can occur when the weapon fails to cycle properly, such as a failure to extract or eject a spent cartridge, or a failure to feed a new round into the chamber. Stoppages can occur due to various reasons, including mechanical issues or problems with the ammunition being used. Remedial action may be required to clear the stoppage and resume normal operation.

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35.

How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
- A.50
- B.100
- C.150
- D.200
Correct Answer

A. D.200

Explanation

An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition belt or strap used to carry and distribute ammunition. In the case of the M249, it is a belt-fed light machine gun that typically uses 200-round ammunition belts. Therefore, the correct answer is d.200.

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36.

What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry fire exercises and function cheeks?
- A.M119 dummy
- B.M200 blank
- C.M856 tracer
- D.M855 ball
Correct Answer

A. A.M119 dummy

Explanation

The M119 dummy ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry fire exercises, and function cheeks. This type of ammunition is specifically designed for training purposes and does not contain any live rounds or explosive components. It allows soldiers to practice their weapon handling skills and simulate firing without the risk of live ammunition.

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37.

How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
- A.50 round bandoleer, split link belt
- B.100 round bandoleer split link belt
- C.100 round bandoleer solid link belt
- D.50 round bandoleer split link belt
Correct Answer

A. B.100 round bandoleer split link belt

Explanation

The correct answer is b. 100 round bandoleer split link belt. This means that the ammunition is fed into the M240B using a bandoleer that contains 100 rounds of ammunition. The bandoleer is split link, which refers to the type of belt used to hold the ammunition. This type of belt has links that can be easily separated, allowing the rounds to be fed into the weapon.

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38.

In meters, what is the maximum effect range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
- A.200
- B.400
- C.600
- D.800
Correct Answer

A. D.800

Explanation

The maximum effect range of the M240B for a point target with tripod is 800 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of effectively engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod.

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39.

From what position is the M240B loaded?
- A. Bolt Open
- B. Bolt Closed
- C. Bolt Opened or Closed
- D. Blide Opened or Closed
Correct Answer

A. C. Bolt Opened or Closed

Explanation

The M240B can be loaded from either the bolt opened or closed position. This means that the weapon can be loaded with a round in the chamber (bolt closed) or with the bolt locked to the rear (bolt opened). Both positions allow for the insertion of a new round into the chamber, ensuring that the weapon is ready to fire.

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40.

Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initated by squeezing the trigger?
- A. Ejecting
- B. Extracting
- C. Cocking
- D. Firing
Correct Answer

A. D. Firing

Explanation

When the trigger of the M240B is squeezed, it initiates the action of firing. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, causing the propellant to ignite and propel the bullet out of the barrel. The firing action is an essential step in the cycle of operations for the M240B, as it is the moment when the weapon discharges and the bullet is fired towards the target.

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41.

What are the two most common malfuncitons for the M240B?
- A. Bad ammunition and incorrect loading
- B. Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire
- C. Sluggish operation and bad ammunition
- D. Shotter error and uncontrolled fire
Correct Answer

A. B. Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire

Explanation

Sluggish operation refers to the gun not functioning smoothly or efficiently, which could be caused by various factors such as dirt, lack of lubrication, or mechanical issues. Uncontrolled fire means that the gun is firing without proper control or regulation, which can be dangerous and result in unintended or excessive rounds being fired. These two malfunctions are commonly associated with the M240B machine gun.

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42.

At a minimum you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
- A.900 to 1,200 rounds
- B.1,200 to 1,500 rounds
- C.1,500 to 2,000 rounds
- D.2,000 to 2,500 rounds
Correct Answer

A. A.900 to 1,200 rounds

Explanation

The correct answer is a.900 to 1,200 rounds. After firing a basic load of 900 to 1,200 rounds with the M240B, it is necessary to clean the weapon. This is important to ensure the proper functioning and longevity of the firearm. Cleaning the weapon helps remove any residue or debris that may have accumulated during firing, preventing malfunctions and maintaining accuracy. Regular cleaning also helps identify any potential issues or damage that may need to be addressed.

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43.

What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly aromored targets?
- A.M80
- B.M63
- C.M62
- D.M61
Correct Answer

A. D.M61

Explanation

The correct answer is d.M61. M61 ammunition is used to engage lightly armored targets. This type of ammunition is designed to penetrate and defeat armor, making it effective against lightly armored targets.

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44.

What does the acronym (BFA) stand for?
- A.Big Flash Adapter
- B.Blank Flash Adapter
- C.Blank Firing Adapter
- D.Bandoteer Flap Adapter
Correct Answer

A. C.Blank Firing Adapter

Explanation

The acronym (BFA) stands for Blank Firing Adapter. This is a device used in firearms to allow the weapon to cycle and function properly when firing blanks, which are cartridges without a projectile. The adapter blocks the barrel so that the gas pressure generated by the blank cartridge can still operate the firearm's action, simulating the recoil and cycling of a live round.

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45.

Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
- A.M240B
- B.M249
- C.M780
- D.MK19
Correct Answer

A. D.MK19

Explanation

The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.

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46.

What is the standard round for the MK19
- A.M383
- B.M430
- C.M918
- D.M922
Correct Answer

A. B.M430

Explanation

The correct answer is b.M430. The MK19 is a belt-fed, air-cooled, fully automatic grenade launcher that is primarily used by the United States Armed Forces. The M430 is the standard round for the MK19. It is a high-explosive dual-purpose (HEDP) round that is designed to be effective against both personnel and light armored vehicles. The M430 round has a lethal radius of around 15 meters and can penetrate up to 2 inches of steel. It is widely used for various combat operations and provides a versatile and powerful ammunition option for the MK19 grenade launcher.

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47.

Which of the following tripods is the most often uses gun mount for the MK19
- A. M1
- B. M2
- C. M3
- D. M4
Correct Answer

A. C. M3

Explanation

The M3 tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19.

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48.

Searching fire is most often used on
- A.level ground only
- B.even ground only
- C.sloped or hilly ground
- D.level or evenly sloping ground
Correct Answer

A. D.level or evenly sloping ground

Explanation

Searching fire is most often used on level or evenly sloping ground because it provides a stable and balanced platform for firing. Level ground allows for better control and accuracy when aiming at targets. Evenly sloping ground also offers a clear line of sight and minimizes the risk of bullets ricocheting or missing the intended target. On the other hand, searching fire on sloped or hilly ground can be challenging and less effective due to the uneven terrain, which can affect the shooter's stability and accuracy.

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49.

What is the maximum effective range of the MS, .50 caliber machine gun?
- A.2,000 yards
- B.2,200 yards
- C.2,500 yards
- D.2,750 yards
Correct Answer

A. A.2,000 yards

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the MS, .50 caliber machine gun is 2,000 yards. This means that the gun is capable of accurately hitting targets up to a distance of 2,000 yards. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the gun may decrease.

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Current Version
Mar 17, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Sep 13, 2012

Quiz Created by
M.jeremy69

CDC Security Forces Vol 3

Range cards are a record of

Quiz Preview

How many range cards are prepared for each postion?

In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, What other fixed weapons require a range card?

What does the acronym FPL stand for?

Which of the following is used primarily to control direct fire weapons but may also be used for indirect fire weapons?

Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

When claring fields of fire at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

The main idea behind clearing fiels of fire is

What is the function of the forward assist?

Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of

The acronym SPORTS stands for

The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine?

What catridge used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

What is the maximum effect range of the M9 pistol?

What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and

Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be

Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

How many types of 9mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?

What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?

In meters what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire team sized area

In meters what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire team sized area targets?

What is the waiting period in seconds from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?

Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?

What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?

Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegation areas or for room clearing?

Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203

What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?

Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?

An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by fauly action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called?

How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?

What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry fire exercises and function cheeks?

How is ammunition fed into the M240B?

In meters, what is the maximum effect range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

From what position is the M240B loaded?

Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initated by squeezing the trigger?

What are the two most common malfuncitons for the M240B?

At a minimum you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of

What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly aromored targets?

What does the acronym (BFA) stand for?

Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

What is the standard round for the MK19

Which of the following tripods is the most often uses gun mount for the MK19

Searching fire is most often used on

What is the maximum effective range of the MS, .50 caliber machine gun?