CDC Security Forces Vol 3

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1/74 Questions

Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initated by squeezing the trigger?
- A. Ejecting
- B. Extracting
- C. Cocking
- D. Firing

About This Quiz

The 'CDC Security Forces Vol 3' quiz focuses on operational skills and knowledge essential for security forces, particularly in handling and deploying weapons like M4, M240B, MK19, and. 50cal. It assesses understanding of range cards, firing data, and tactical positioning, crucial for defense and protective operations.

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2.

Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
- A.impossible
- B.incredible
- C.ineffective
- D.instinctive
Correct Answer

A. D.instinctive

Explanation

The correct answer is d. instinctive. When faced with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, it is important to react quickly and without hesitation. The word "instinctive" suggests that the response should come naturally and without conscious thought. This implies that individuals should be trained to react automatically and immediately to address any issues with the M9, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the weapon.

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3.

Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
- A.Aluminum
- B.Rubber
- C.Plastic
- D.Steel
Correct Answer

A. D.Steel

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Steel. Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi fluid (LSA) are used on the steel parts of the M9 to prevent rusting. Steel is prone to rusting when exposed to moisture, so applying CLP or LSA helps to protect the steel components of the M9 from rust and corrosion.

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4.

What is the maximum effect range of the M9 pistol?
- A.50 meters
- B.60 meters
- C.70 meters
- D.80 meters
Correct Answer

A. A.50 meters

Explanation

The maximum effect range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is most effective in hitting targets accurately within a range of 50 meters. Beyond this distance, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol may decrease.

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5.

What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
- A.600 meters
- B.800 meters
- C.1,100 meters
- D.1,800 meters
Correct Answer

A. D.1,800 meters
6.

The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
- A. The open quarters battle role
- B. The close quarters battle role
- C. High density, low visibility role
- D. Long range fighting, heavy combatant role
Correct Answer

A. B. The close quarters battle role

Explanation

The shotgun is an effective weapon in the close quarters battle role because of its wide spread and stopping power at close range. In tight spaces where maneuverability is limited, a shotgun can quickly neutralize threats and provide a tactical advantage. Its ability to deliver a devastating blow to multiple targets in close proximity makes it a valuable tool in close quarters combat scenarios such as room clearing or urban warfare.

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7.

Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
- A.M240B
- B.M249
- C.M780
- D.MK19
Correct Answer

A. D.MK19

Explanation

The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.

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8.

How many range cards are prepared for each postion?
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. Four
Correct Answer

A. B. Two

Explanation

Each position requires two range cards to be prepared.

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9.

What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
- A. Prominent natural and man made features that could be likely targets.
- B.Porminent artifical terrain features that could be a likely target
- C.Prominent man made features that will be a definite target
- D. Natural synthetic features only that could be a target
Correct Answer

A. A. Prominent natural and man made features that could be likely targets.

Explanation

The rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position should include prominent natural and man-made features that could potentially be targeted. This information is crucial for assessing the tactical situation and identifying potential threats or opportunities for engagement. By including such features on the sketch, you can better plan your actions and make informed decisions during combat operations.

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10.

The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
- A. Dead zone
- B. Dead area
- C. Dead space
- D. Dead spot
Correct Answer

A. C. Dead space

Explanation

The term "dead space" refers to an area that cannot be effectively engaged or targeted with grazing fire. This could be due to obstacles, terrain features, or other factors that obstruct the line of sight or prevent direct fire from reaching the area. "Dead zone" and "dead area" are similar terms but may not specifically refer to the inability to engage with grazing fire. "Dead spot" is not a commonly used term in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Dead space.

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11.

The acronym SPORTS stands for
- A.slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot
- B.smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot
- C.slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot
- D.slap, push, observe, release, tap and shoot
Correct Answer

A. C.slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot

Explanation

The correct answer is c. The acronym SPORTS stands for slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot. This acronym is commonly used in firearms training to remind individuals of the proper steps to follow when handling a firearm. Slap refers to slapping the magazine to ensure it is properly seated, pull refers to pulling the charging handle to chamber a round, observe refers to observing the target and surroundings, release refers to releasing the safety, tap refers to tapping the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and shoot refers to firing the weapon.

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12.

Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203
- A.Under no circumstances
- B.when directed
- C.energencies
- D.last resort
Correct Answer

A. A.Under no circumstances

Explanation

MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not for the M203 grenade launcher. Therefore, under no circumstances should MK19 ammunition be used in the M203.

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13.

What does the acronym (BFA) stand for?
- A.Big Flash Adapter
- B.Blank Flash Adapter
- C.Blank Firing Adapter
- D.Bandoteer Flap Adapter
Correct Answer

A. C.Blank Firing Adapter

Explanation

The acronym (BFA) stands for Blank Firing Adapter. This is a device used in firearms to allow the weapon to cycle and function properly when firing blanks, which are cartridges without a projectile. The adapter blocks the barrel so that the gas pressure generated by the blank cartridge can still operate the firearm's action, simulating the recoil and cycling of a live round.

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14.

Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?
- A. Ammunition
- B. Vehicles
- C. Terrain
- D. Time
Correct Answer

A. C. Terrain

Explanation

Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of terrain because they need to have a deep understanding of the landscape in order to effectively position themselves and take accurate shots. They will know how to utilize natural cover and concealment, identify advantageous shooting positions, and adapt their tactics based on the specific features of the terrain. This knowledge of terrain allows sharpshooters to maximize their effectiveness and maintain a strategic advantage in combat situations.

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15.

Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior
- A.quality
- B.accuracy
- C.killing ratio
- D.stopping power
Correct Answer

A. B.accuracy

Explanation

Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior accuracy. This means that the ammunition is manufactured with precision and consistency, resulting in bullets that fly true to their intended target. Accuracy is crucial for snipers, as they need to hit their targets with precision and minimize the chances of missing or hitting unintended targets. By producing ammunition to stringent tolerances, snipers can rely on the consistent performance of their bullets, enhancing their overall effectiveness in the field.

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16.

How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
- A.50 round bandoleer, split link belt
- B.100 round bandoleer split link belt
- C.100 round bandoleer solid link belt
- D.50 round bandoleer split link belt
Correct Answer

A. B.100 round bandoleer split link belt

Explanation

The correct answer is b. 100 round bandoleer split link belt. This means that the ammunition is fed into the M240B using a bandoleer that contains 100 rounds of ammunition. The bandoleer is split link, which refers to the type of belt used to hold the ammunition. This type of belt has links that can be easily separated, allowing the rounds to be fed into the weapon.

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17.

When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considered a
- A.precision engagement weapon
- B.active force multiplier
- C.lethal force weapon
- D.mine or booby trap
Correct Answer

A. D.mine or booby trap

Explanation

The claymore is considered a mine or booby trap when employed in an uncontrolled role. This means that it is set up to be triggered by the enemy without any specific targeting or control from the user. In this context, the claymore functions as a passive weapon that relies on the enemy's actions to activate it, making it a mine or booby trap rather than a precision engagement weapon or active force multiplier.

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18.

A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?
- A.Field handling trainer
- B.Tracer bullet trainer
- C.HD antiarmor round
- D.high explosive (HE) antiarmor round
Correct Answer

A. D.high explosive (HE) antiarmor round

Explanation

The black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates that it is a high explosive (HE) antiarmor round. This band serves as a visual indicator to differentiate it from other types of launchers. The HE antiarmor round is designed to penetrate armored vehicles and deliver a high explosive payload, making it an effective weapon against armored targets.

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19.

What does the acronym FPL stand for?
- A. Final Portective Line
- B. Fire Patrol Liaison
- C. First Protective Line
- D. Fire Proficiency Line
Correct Answer

A. A. Final Portective Line

Explanation

The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military and defense contexts to refer to a predetermined line of defense that is established as a last resort to protect a specific area or target. The Final Protective Line is typically manned by troops or forces who are prepared to engage and repel any enemy forces that breach previous defensive lines.

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20.

When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a
- A.one shot weapon
- B.two shot weapon
- C.three shot weapon
- D.four shot weapon
Correct Answer

A. A.one shot weapon

Explanation

In a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a one-shot weapon. This means that it is designed to be used only once before needing to be reloaded or replaced. This could be due to various factors such as the limited amount of explosive material or the specific purpose of the claymore in a controlled role. The one-shot designation ensures that the claymore is used effectively and efficiently in its intended role.

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21.

On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and
- A.loaded chabmer indicator
- B.reset the firing pin block
- C.chambering
- D.releasing slide
Correct Answer

A. A.loaded chabmer indicator

Explanation

The correct answer is a. loaded chamber indicator. The extractor on the M9 pistol serves the dual purpose of extracting the spent casing from the chamber and also indicating whether there is a round loaded in the chamber. This indicator allows the user to visually confirm if the pistol is loaded or not, providing an important safety feature.

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22.

The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from
- A.aircraft
- B.anywhere
- C.rooftop positions
- D.concealed positions
Correct Answer

A. D.concealed positions

Explanation

The correct answer is d. concealed positions. The sniper's primary mission is to provide support during combat operations by delivering accurate rifle fire. Concealed positions allow snipers to remain hidden and undetected, providing them with an advantage in terms of surprise and protection. By operating from concealed positions, snipers can take out high-value targets without being easily located or targeted themselves. This increases their effectiveness and allows them to fulfill their mission of supporting combat operations effectively.

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23.

Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
- A.wind
- B.temperature
- C.weapon trajectory
- D.backblast area
Correct Answer

A. D.backblast area

Explanation

Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), it is important to check the backblast area. This is because the LAW generates a powerful backblast when fired, which can cause injury or damage to anyone or anything located behind the weapon. By checking the backblast area, you ensure that there are no personnel or obstacles in the vicinity that could be harmed by the backblast. This precaution is essential for the safety of both the operator and others in the area.

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24.

In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, What other fixed weapons require a range card?
- A. M240B, MK19, .50cal
- B.M248, .50 cal and MK19
- C.M9, M203 and MK19
- D.MK19, .50 cal and M17
Correct Answer

A. A. M240B, MK19, .50cal

Explanation

The correct answer is a. M240B, MK19, .50cal. The question is asking for other fixed weapons that require a range card in addition to the M4. Out of the given options, option a includes the M240B, MK19, and .50cal, which are all fixed weapons that require a range card. Option b includes the M248, .50cal, and MK19, but it does not include the M240B. Option c includes the M9, M203, and MK19, but it does not include the .50cal or M240B. Option d includes the MK19, .50cal, and M17, but it does not include the M240B. Therefore, the correct answer is a. M240B, MK19, .50cal.

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25.

Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
- A.slide assembly
- B.receiver assembly
- C.trigger mechanism assembly
- D.return rod and transfer assembly
Correct Answer

A. B.receiver assembly

Explanation

The receiver assembly is the support for all major components of the M249. The receiver is the main body of the firearm where all other parts are attached or housed. It provides stability and structure to the weapon, ensuring that all other assemblies, such as the slide assembly, trigger mechanism assembly, and return rod and transfer assembly, are properly secured and function correctly. Without the receiver assembly, the M249 would not be able to function as a fully operational firearm.

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26.

What is the function of the forward assist?
- A.Lock the charging handle in place prior to immendiate action procedure
- B.Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure
- C.Unlock the bolt and secure the charging handle
- D.Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures.
Correct Answer

A. B.Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure

Explanation

The forward assist is a feature found on some firearms, typically rifles, that allows the user to manually push the bolt forward into battery. This can be useful in situations where the bolt does not fully close and the firearm fails to fire. By using the forward assist, the user can ensure that the bolt is fully locked forward and ready to fire. Therefore, the correct answer is "b. Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure."

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27.

The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
- A.in brand new condition
- B.clean, dry, and lubricated
- C.fully oiled and lubricated
- D.clean and porperly lubricated
Correct Answer

A. D.clean and porperly lubricated

Explanation

The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to ensure that weapons are kept clean and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent any potential malfunctions or damage that could occur due to dirt or lack of lubrication. By regularly cleaning and lubricating the weapons, their performance and longevity can be maximized, reducing the need for costly repairs or replacements.

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28.

Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
- A. Canopy
- B. Flangee
- C. Ogive
- D. Fin
Correct Answer

A. C. Ogive

Explanation

The ogive of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicates the color of the smoke produced. The ogive is the curved, pointed part of the projectile, typically located at the front. In this case, the color of the smoke can be determined by looking at the ogive of the round.

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29.

Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegation areas or for room clearing?
- A.White star cluster
- B.Ground marker
- C.Star parachute
- D.Buckshot
Correct Answer

A. D.Buckshot

Explanation

Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it disperses multiple small pellets upon firing, increasing the chances of hitting the target. This makes it particularly useful in situations where there are obstacles or dense foliage that may obstruct the trajectory of a single projectile. The spread of the buckshot pellets also increases the likelihood of hitting multiple targets in close quarters, making it an ideal choice for room clearing operations.

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30.

How many types of 9mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
- A.4
- B.3
- C.2
- D.1
Correct Answer

A. A.4

Explanation

The correct answer is a.4 because the M9 pistol is compatible with four types of 9mm ammunition. This suggests that the pistol can be used with a variety of ammunition options, providing flexibility and versatility to the user.

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31.

What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?
- A. Mid range employment, easy to carry, and delay element for throwing.
- B.Long employment range, medium casualty radius, and safe throwing.
- C.Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.
- D.Medium employment range, short casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.
Correct Answer

A. C.Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.
32.

The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for
- A.single or multiple priming
- B.multiple or dual priming
- C.single or dual priming
- D.single, dual, and multiple priming
Correct Answer

A. C.single or dual priming

Explanation

The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for single or dual priming. This means that the claymore can be primed with either one or two detonators, depending on the desired effect. The option of single or dual priming provides flexibility in the use of the claymore, allowing for different levels of explosive force depending on the situation.

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33.

What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry fire exercises and function cheeks?
- A.M119 dummy
- B.M200 blank
- C.M856 tracer
- D.M855 ball
Correct Answer

A. A.M119 dummy

Explanation

The M119 dummy ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry fire exercises, and function cheeks. This type of ammunition is specifically designed for training purposes and does not contain any live rounds or explosive components. It allows soldiers to practice their weapon handling skills and simulate firing without the risk of live ammunition.

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34.

Range cards are a record of
- A. range data
- B. firing data
- C. call signs
- D. training.
Correct Answer

A. B. firing data

Explanation

Range cards are a record of firing data. This means that range cards contain information such as the distance, direction, and elevation adjustments required to accurately hit a target. They are used by military personnel, especially snipers, to ensure precise and effective shooting during combat or training exercises. Firing data on range cards helps shooters compensate for factors like wind speed, target movement, and bullet drop, ultimately improving accuracy and increasing the chances of hitting the intended target.

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35.

Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
- A. stoppage
- B. malfunction
- C. failure to fire
- D. operational failure
Correct Answer

A. A. stoppage

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. stoppage" because a stoppage refers to any interruption or halt in the cycle of operations. This can occur due to various reasons such as a mechanical issue, a malfunction, or a failure to fire. It indicates a temporary or permanent cessation of the normal functioning of a system or process.

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36.

What catridge used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
- A.M249
- B.M199
- C.M855
- D.M856
Correct Answer

A. D.M856

Explanation

The correct answer is M856. The M856 cartridge used in the M4 carbine is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. Tracer ammunition is used to visually track the trajectory of bullets, and the M856 allows for a longer distance of visibility compared to the M196.

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37.

How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
- A.5
- B.7
- C.10
- D.15
Correct Answer

A. A.5

Explanation

The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed or seriously injured by the blast and shrapnel. Hand grenades are designed to be highly effective in close-quarter combat situations, where they can quickly neutralize enemy forces within a small area. The 5-meter kill radius ensures that anyone in close proximity to the explosion is within the lethal range of the grenade.

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38.

How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
- A.50
- B.100
- C.150
- D.200
Correct Answer

A. D.200

Explanation

An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition belt or strap used to carry and distribute ammunition. In the case of the M249, it is a belt-fed light machine gun that typically uses 200-round ammunition belts. Therefore, the correct answer is d.200.

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39.

From what position is the M240B loaded?
- A. Bolt Open
- B. Bolt Closed
- C. Bolt Opened or Closed
- D. Blide Opened or Closed
Correct Answer

A. C. Bolt Opened or Closed

Explanation

The M240B can be loaded from either the bolt opened or closed position. This means that the weapon can be loaded with a round in the chamber (bolt closed) or with the bolt locked to the rear (bolt opened). Both positions allow for the insertion of a new round into the chamber, ensuring that the weapon is ready to fire.

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40.

Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
- A. Where you can locate it quickly
- B. Marginal data area
- C.Upper right corner
- D.Part one
Correct Answer

A. B. Marginal data area

Explanation

The marginal data area is typically used on a range card to record additional information that may be useful but is not directly related to the main purpose of the card. This can include things like magnetic north data, which is important for orienting the card correctly. By placing the magnetic north data in the marginal data area, it is easily accessible and visible without cluttering the main part of the range card.

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41.

Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?
- A. Dead space protective line
- B. Final protective line
- C. Primary sector of fire
- D. Secondary sector of fire
Correct Answer

A. C. Primary sector of fire

Explanation

The primary sector of fire is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions. This means that the gun team is responsible for engaging and suppressing any enemy forces that may try to advance through the primary sector. The primary sector of fire is strategically chosen to provide the best vantage point and coverage for the gun team to effectively defend against any enemy threats.

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42.

If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
- A.approximate aiming point method
- B.adjusted aiming point method
- C.advanced aiming point method
- D.altitude aiming point method
Correct Answer

A. B.adjusted aiming point method

Explanation

Shooters are required to use the adjusted aiming point method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets. This method involves making slight adjustments to the point of aim based on factors such as distance, wind, and target size. By adjusting the aim, shooters can ensure that their shots hit the intended target accurately. This method allows for greater precision and effectiveness in engaging targets with the M9.

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43.

At a minimum you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
- A.900 to 1,200 rounds
- B.1,200 to 1,500 rounds
- C.1,500 to 2,000 rounds
- D.2,000 to 2,500 rounds
Correct Answer

A. A.900 to 1,200 rounds

Explanation

The correct answer is a.900 to 1,200 rounds. After firing a basic load of 900 to 1,200 rounds with the M240B, it is necessary to clean the weapon. This is important to ensure the proper functioning and longevity of the firearm. Cleaning the weapon helps remove any residue or debris that may have accumulated during firing, preventing malfunctions and maintaining accuracy. Regular cleaning also helps identify any potential issues or damage that may need to be addressed.

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44.

Searching fire is most often used on
- A.level ground only
- B.even ground only
- C.sloped or hilly ground
- D.level or evenly sloping ground
Correct Answer

A. D.level or evenly sloping ground

Explanation

Searching fire is most often used on level or evenly sloping ground because it provides a stable and balanced platform for firing. Level ground allows for better control and accuracy when aiming at targets. Evenly sloping ground also offers a clear line of sight and minimizes the risk of bullets ricocheting or missing the intended target. On the other hand, searching fire on sloped or hilly ground can be challenging and less effective due to the uneven terrain, which can affect the shooter's stability and accuracy.

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45.

The main idea behind clearing fiels of fire is
- A.observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon
- B.engage only those persons determined to be hostile
- C.engage predetermined targets in the area
- D.detect the enemy and notify the Chief Security Forces (CSF)
Correct Answer

A. A.observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon

Explanation

The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing a field of fire, you should be vigilant and ready to engage anyone who poses a threat within your line of sight. This ensures that you have a clear and safe area from which to engage potential targets and maintain control over the situation. By observing and engaging anyone within the field, you are effectively clearing the area of potential threats and creating a secure environment.

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46.

When claring fields of fire at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?
- A.25
- B.50
- C.75
- D.100
Correct Answer

A. D.100

Explanation

When clearing fields of fire, it is important to start at least 100 meters from your position and work forward. This distance ensures that any potential threats or obstacles are identified and dealt with before reaching your position, providing a safe and secure area for firing. Starting at a closer distance may leave you vulnerable to enemy fire or hinder your ability to effectively engage targets. Therefore, beginning the clearance process at 100 meters is crucial for maintaining a tactical advantage.

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47.

What are the two most common malfuncitons for the M240B?
- A. Bad ammunition and incorrect loading
- B. Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire
- C. Sluggish operation and bad ammunition
- D. Shotter error and uncontrolled fire
Correct Answer

A. B. Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire

Explanation

Sluggish operation refers to the gun not functioning smoothly or efficiently, which could be caused by various factors such as dirt, lack of lubrication, or mechanical issues. Uncontrolled fire means that the gun is firing without proper control or regulation, which can be dangerous and result in unintended or excessive rounds being fired. These two malfunctions are commonly associated with the M240B machine gun.

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48.

Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
- A.rapidly and effectively
- B.quickly and accurately
- C.accurately and timely
- D.swiftly and deadly
Correct Answer

A. B.quickly and accurately

Explanation

The correct answer is b) quickly and accurately. Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data allow the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target in a fast and precise manner. This ensures that the gunner can respond swiftly to changing conditions and hit the target with accuracy.

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49.

How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training environment?
- A. Underhand
- B. Overhand
- C. Overhead
- D. Sidearm
Correct Answer

A. B. Overhand

Explanation

Live fragmentation grenades must be thrown overhand in the training environment because this throwing technique allows for maximum distance and accuracy. It also ensures that the grenade's safety lever is properly released, allowing the fuse to activate and initiate the explosion. Throwing the grenade overhand also minimizes the risk of the grenade hitting an obstacle or falling short of the intended target.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 17, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

Current Version
Mar 17, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Sep 13, 2012

Quiz Created by
M.jeremy69

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3P071 - Security Forces Craftsman: Volume 2. Integrated Defense - Edit Code 06 3P071 - Security Forces Craftsman: Volume 2. Integrated Defense - Edit Code 06

Security Forces Journeyman VOLUME ONE Security Forces Journeyman VOLUME ONE

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CDC Security Forces Vol 3

Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initated by squeezing the trigger?

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Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be

Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

What is the maximum effect range of the M9 pistol?

What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?

Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

How many range cards are prepared for each postion?

What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

The acronym SPORTS stands for

Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203

What does the acronym (BFA) stand for?

Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?

Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior

How is ammunition fed into the M240B?

When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considered a

A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?

What does the acronym FPL stand for?

When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a

On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and

The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from

Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?

In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, What other fixed weapons require a range card?

Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?

What is the function of the forward assist?

The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?

Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegation areas or for room clearing?

How many types of 9mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?

What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?

The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for

What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry fire exercises and function cheeks?

Range cards are a record of

Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of

What catridge used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?

From what position is the M240B loaded?

Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?

If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

At a minimum you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of

Searching fire is most often used on

The main idea behind clearing fiels of fire is

When claring fields of fire at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

What are the two most common malfuncitons for the M240B?

Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target

How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training environment?