CDC Security Forces Vol 3

74 Questions

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

Security Forces Weapons


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Range cards are a record of
    • A. 

      A. range data

    • B. 

      B. firing data

    • C. 

      C. call signs

    • D. 

      D. training.

  • 2. 
    How many range cards are prepared for each postion?
    • A. 

      A. One

    • B. 

      B. Two

    • C. 

      C. Three

    • D. 

      D. Four

  • 3. 
    In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, What other fixed weapons require a range card?
    • A. 

      A. M240B, MK19, .50cal

    • B. 

      B.M248, .50 cal and MK19

    • C. 

      C.M9, M203 and MK19

    • D. 

      D.MK19, .50 cal and M17

  • 4. 
    What does the acronym FPL stand for?
    • A. 

      A. Final Portective Line

    • B. 

      B. Fire Patrol Liaison

    • C. 

      C. First Protective Line

    • D. 

      D. Fire Proficiency Line

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is used primarily to control direct fire weapons but may also be used for indirect fire weapons?
    • A. 

      A.Principle determination of fire (PDF)

    • B. 

      B.Principle direction of enemy (PDE)

    • C. 

      C.Target reference point (TRP)

    • D. 

      D.Final protective line (FPL)

  • 6. 
    Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
    • A. 

      A. Where you can locate it quickly

    • B. 

      B. Marginal data area

    • C. 

      C.Upper right corner

    • D. 

      D.Part one

  • 7. 
    What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
    • A. 

      A. Prominent natural and man made features that could be likely targets.

    • B. 

      B.Porminent artifical terrain features that could be a likely target

    • C. 

      C.Prominent man made features that will be a definite target

    • D. 

      D. Natural synthetic features only that could be a target

  • 8. 
    The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
    • A. 

      A. Dead zone

    • B. 

      B. Dead area

    • C. 

      C. Dead space

    • D. 

      D. Dead spot

  • 9. 
    When claring fields of fire at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?
    • A. 

      A.25

    • B. 

      B.50

    • C. 

      C.75

    • D. 

      D.100

  • 10. 
    The main idea behind clearing fiels of fire is
    • A. 

      A.observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon

    • B. 

      B.engage only those persons determined to be hostile

    • C. 

      C.engage predetermined targets in the area

    • D. 

      D.detect the enemy and notify the Chief Security Forces (CSF)

  • 11. 
    What is the function of the forward assist?
    • A. 

      A.Lock the charging handle in place prior to immendiate action procedure

    • B. 

      B.Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure

    • C. 

      C.Unlock the bolt and secure the charging handle

    • D. 

      D.Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures.

  • 12. 
    Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
    • A. 

      A. stoppage

    • B. 

      B. malfunction

    • C. 

      C. failure to fire

    • D. 

      D. operational failure

  • 13. 
    The acronym SPORTS stands for
    • A. 

      A.slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot

    • B. 

      B.smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot

    • C. 

      C.slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot

    • D. 

      D.slap, push, observe, release, tap and shoot

  • 14. 
    The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
    • A. 

      A.in brand new condition

    • B. 

      B.clean, dry, and lubricated

    • C. 

      C.fully oiled and lubricated

    • D. 

      D.clean and porperly lubricated

  • 15. 
    How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine?
    • A. 

      A.6

    • B. 

      B.8

    • C. 

      C.10

    • D. 

      D.12

  • 16. 
    What catridge used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
    • A. 

      A.M249

    • B. 

      B.M199

    • C. 

      C.M855

    • D. 

      D.M856

  • 17. 
    What is the maximum effect range of the M9 pistol?
    • A. 

      A.50 meters

    • B. 

      B.60 meters

    • C. 

      C.70 meters

    • D. 

      D.80 meters

  • 18. 
    What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
    • A. 

      A.600 meters

    • B. 

      B.800 meters

    • C. 

      C.1,100 meters

    • D. 

      D.1,800 meters

  • 19. 
    If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
    • A. 

      A.approximate aiming point method

    • B. 

      B.adjusted aiming point method

    • C. 

      C.advanced aiming point method

    • D. 

      D.altitude aiming point method

  • 20. 
    On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and
    • A. 

      A.loaded chabmer indicator

    • B. 

      B.reset the firing pin block

    • C. 

      C.chambering

    • D. 

      D.releasing slide

  • 21. 
    Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
    • A. 

      A.impossible

    • B. 

      B.incredible

    • C. 

      C.ineffective

    • D. 

      D.instinctive

  • 22. 
    Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
    • A. 

      A.Aluminum

    • B. 

      B.Rubber

    • C. 

      C.Plastic

    • D. 

      D.Steel

  • 23. 
    How many types of 9mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
    • A. 

      A.4

    • B. 

      B.3

    • C. 

      C.2

    • D. 

      D.1

  • 24. 
    What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
    • A. 

      A.M855

    • B. 

      B.M856

    • C. 

      C.M882

    • D. 

      D.M917

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      A.400

    • B. 

      B.350

    • C. 

      C.205

    • D. 

      D.150

  • 26. 
    In meters what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire team sized area targets?
    • A. 

      A.150

    • B. 

      B.205

    • C. 

      C.350

    • D. 

      D.400

  • 27. 
    What is the waiting period in seconds from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?
    • A. 

      A.10

    • B. 

      B.15

    • C. 

      C.30

    • D. 

      D.20

  • 28. 
    Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
    • A. 

      A. Canopy

    • B. 

      B. Flangee

    • C. 

      C. Ogive

    • D. 

      D. Fin

  • 29. 
    What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
    • A. 

      A.40

    • B. 

      B.30

    • C. 

      C.20

    • D. 

      D.10

  • 30. 
    Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegation areas or for room clearing?
    • A. 

      A.White star cluster

    • B. 

      B.Ground marker

    • C. 

      C.Star parachute

    • D. 

      D.Buckshot

  • 31. 
    Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203
    • A. 

      A.Under no circumstances

    • B. 

      B.when directed

    • C. 

      C.energencies

    • D. 

      D.last resort

  • 32. 
    What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?
    • A. 

      A.800

    • B. 

      B.600

    • C. 

      C.400

    • D. 

      D.200

  • 33. 
    Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
    • A. 

      A.slide assembly

    • B. 

      B.receiver assembly

    • C. 

      C.trigger mechanism assembly

    • D. 

      D.return rod and transfer assembly

  • 34. 
    An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by fauly action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
    • A. 

      A. stoppage

    • B. 

      B.malfunction

    • C. 

      C.remedial action

    • D. 

      D.operator error

  • 35. 
    How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
    • A. 

      A.50

    • B. 

      B.100

    • C. 

      C.150

    • D. 

      D.200

  • 36. 
    What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry fire exercises and function cheeks?
    • A. 

      A.M119 dummy

    • B. 

      B.M200 blank

    • C. 

      C.M856 tracer

    • D. 

      D.M855 ball

  • 37. 
    How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
    • A. 

      A.50 round bandoleer, split link belt

    • B. 

      B.100 round bandoleer split link belt

    • C. 

      C.100 round bandoleer solid link belt

    • D. 

      D.50 round bandoleer split link belt

  • 38. 
    In meters, what is the maximum effect range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
    • A. 

      A.200

    • B. 

      B.400

    • C. 

      C.600

    • D. 

      D.800

  • 39. 
    From what position is the M240B loaded?
    • A. 

      A. Bolt Open

    • B. 

      B. Bolt Closed

    • C. 

      C. Bolt Opened or Closed

    • D. 

      D. Blide Opened or Closed

  • 40. 
    Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initated by squeezing the trigger?
    • A. 

      A. Ejecting

    • B. 

      B. Extracting

    • C. 

      C. Cocking

    • D. 

      D. Firing

  • 41. 
    What are the two most common malfuncitons for the M240B?
    • A. 

      A. Bad ammunition and incorrect loading

    • B. 

      B. Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire

    • C. 

      C. Sluggish operation and bad ammunition

    • D. 

      D. Shotter error and uncontrolled fire

  • 42. 
    At a minimum you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
    • A. 

      A.900 to 1,200 rounds

    • B. 

      B.1,200 to 1,500 rounds

    • C. 

      C.1,500 to 2,000 rounds

    • D. 

      D.2,000 to 2,500 rounds

  • 43. 
    What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly aromored targets?
    • A. 

      A.M80

    • B. 

      B.M63

    • C. 

      C.M62

    • D. 

      D.M61

  • 44. 
    What does the acronym (BFA) stand for?
    • A. 

      A.Big Flash Adapter

    • B. 

      B.Blank Flash Adapter

    • C. 

      C.Blank Firing Adapter

    • D. 

      D.Bandoteer Flap Adapter

  • 45. 
    Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
    • A. 

      A.M240B

    • B. 

      B.M249

    • C. 

      C.M780

    • D. 

      D.MK19

  • 46. 
    What is the standard round for the MK19
    • A. 

      A.M383

    • B. 

      B.M430

    • C. 

      C.M918

    • D. 

      D.M922

  • 47. 
    Which of the following tripods is the most often uses gun mount for the MK19
    • A. 

      A. M1

    • B. 

      B. M2

    • C. 

      C. M3

    • D. 

      D. M4

  • 48. 
    Searching fire is most often used on
    • A. 

      A.level ground only

    • B. 

      B.even ground only

    • C. 

      C.sloped or hilly ground

    • D. 

      D.level or evenly sloping ground

  • 49. 
    What is the maximum effective range of the MS, .50 caliber machine gun?
    • A. 

      A.2,000 yards

    • B. 

      B.2,200 yards

    • C. 

      C.2,500 yards

    • D. 

      D.2,750 yards

  • 50. 
    The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
    • A. 

      A.800

    • B. 

      B.700

    • C. 

      C.600

    • D. 

      D.500

  • 51. 
    When selecting crew served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?
    • A. 

      A.direct

    • B. 

      B.grazing

    • C. 

      C.predetermined

    • D. 

      D.distributed and effective

  • 52. 
    Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
    • A. 

      A.rapidly and effectively

    • B. 

      B.quickly and accurately

    • C. 

      C.accurately and timely

    • D. 

      D.swiftly and deadly

  • 53. 
    Which of the follwoing is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?
    • A. 

      A. Sector of fire

    • B. 

      B. Final protective line

    • C. 

      C. principle of direct fire

    • D. 

      D. final protective fire

  • 54. 
    Which of the follwoing is fixed in direction and elevation?
    • A. 

      A. final protective line (FPL)

    • B. 

      B. principal of direct fire (PDF)

    • C. 

      C. final protective fire (FPF)

    • D. 

      D. directed prolonged fire (DPF)

  • 55. 
    Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?
    • A. 

      A. Dead space protective line

    • B. 

      B. Final protective line

    • C. 

      C. Primary sector of fire

    • D. 

      D. Secondary sector of fire

  • 56. 
    Concerning machine funs in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy and
    • A. 

      A.control the enemy

    • B. 

      B.hold the enemy position

    • C. 

      C.overwhelm the enemy

    • D. 

      D.overpower the enemy

  • 57. 
    In meters, what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round?
    • A. 

      A.250

    • B. 

      B.345

    • C. 

      C.557

    • D. 

      D.640

  • 58. 
    The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
    • A. 

      A. The open quarters battle role

    • B. 

      B. The close quarters battle role

    • C. 

      C. High density, low visibility role

    • D. 

      D. Long range fighting, heavy combatant role

  • 59. 
    Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?
    • A. 

      A. Ammunition

    • B. 

      B. Vehicles

    • C. 

      C. Terrain

    • D. 

      D. Time

  • 60. 
    Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include.
    • A. 

      A. squad leaders

    • B. 

      B. support element sniper

    • C. 

      C. reconnaissance and close precision support

    • D. 

      D. response overwatch screening and reconnaissance

  • 61. 
    Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior
    • A. 

      A.quality

    • B. 

      B.accuracy

    • C. 

      C.killing ratio

    • D. 

      D.stopping power

  • 62. 
    The M107 sniper rilfe operates by means of
    • A. 

      A.short recoil principle

    • B. 

      B.bolt action

    • C. 

      C.belt fed

    • D. 

      D.gas

  • 63. 
    The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from
    • A. 

      A.aircraft

    • B. 

      B.anywhere

    • C. 

      C.rooftop positions

    • D. 

      D.concealed positions

  • 64. 
    What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?
    • A. 

      A. Mid range employment, easy to carry, and delay element for throwing.

    • B. 

      B.Long employment range, medium casualty radius, and safe throwing.

    • C. 

      C.Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.

    • D. 

      D.Medium employment range, short casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.

  • 65. 
    How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
    • A. 

      A.5

    • B. 

      B.7

    • C. 

      C.10

    • D. 

      D.15

  • 66. 
    How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training environment?
    • A. 

      A. Underhand

    • B. 

      B. Overhand

    • C. 

      C. Overhead

    • D. 

      D. Sidearm

  • 67. 
    The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an
    • A. 

      A. offensive weapon

    • B. 

      B. defensive weapon

    • C. 

      C. passive defense weapon

    • D. 

      D. active defensive weapon

  • 68. 
    When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considered a
    • A. 

      A.precision engagement weapon

    • B. 

      B.active force multiplier

    • C. 

      C.lethal force weapon

    • D. 

      D.mine or booby trap

  • 69. 
    In what year was the M18A, claymore mine standardized?
    • A. 

      A.1955

    • B. 

      B.1960

    • C. 

      C.1965

    • D. 

      D.1970

  • 70. 
    When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a
    • A. 

      A.one shot weapon

    • B. 

      B.two shot weapon

    • C. 

      C.three shot weapon

    • D. 

      D.four shot weapon

  • 71. 
    The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for
    • A. 

      A.single or multiple priming

    • B. 

      B.multiple or dual priming

    • C. 

      C.single or dual priming

    • D. 

      D.single, dual, and multiple priming

  • 72. 
    Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
    • A. 

      A.wind

    • B. 

      B.temperature

    • C. 

      C.weapon trajectory

    • D. 

      D.backblast area

  • 73. 
    A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?
    • A. 

      A.Field handling trainer

    • B. 

      B.Tracer bullet trainer

    • C. 

      C.HD antiarmor round

    • D. 

      D.high explosive (HE) antiarmor round

  • 74. 
    The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal
    • A. 

      A.after armor effects

    • B. 

      B.pre armor effects

    • C. 

      C.kill radius

    • D. 

      D.aim