CDC 3DX5X Chapter 3 Self-test
This is to be used a study guide and by no means has any direct answers to any test.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Who is the Air Force working with to establish archiving capabilities?
- A.
NARA, major AOR areas such as CENTAF
- B.
NAFA, major AOR areas such as EUCOM
- C.
NADA, major AOR areas such as PACAF
Correct Answer
A. NARA, major AOR areas such as CENTAFExplanation
The Air Force is working with NARA (National Archives and Records Administration) and major AOR (Area of Responsibility) areas such as CENTAF (Central Command Air Forces) to establish archiving capabilities. This partnership with NARA ensures that important records and documents are properly preserved and accessible, while collaborating with major AOR areas like CENTAF allows for efficient management and organization of records specific to that region.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What records management advice did the DOD provide on 15 Aug 2003?
- A.
Training records for all airmen since the entered the air force.
- B.
CBT training for all US Air force personnel
- C.
Records of combat ops in Iraq
Correct Answer
C. Records of combat ops in IraqExplanation
The DOD provided records management advice on 15 Aug 2003 specifically regarding the records of combat operations in Iraq. This suggests that the DOD provided guidance or instructions on how to properly manage and organize the records related to combat operations that took place in Iraq. The advice may have included information on documentation, storage, retrieval, and preservation of these records to ensure their accuracy and accessibility for future reference or analysis.Rate this question:
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- 3.
How do records custodians accomplish the end-of-year closeout?
- A.
Transferring e-records to active file area / e-file mass storage
- B.
Transferring physical records to the inactive files area / staging area
Correct Answer
B. Transferring physical records to the inactive files area / staging areaExplanation
Records custodians accomplish the end-of-year closeout by transferring physical records to the inactive files area or staging area. This process involves moving the physical records that are no longer needed for immediate access to a designated area where they can be stored securely and in an organized manner. This allows for better management of active files and ensures that only relevant and up-to-date records are easily accessible.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Where do you place the disposition control label when a series is file in more than one record container?
- A.
Place on the last container in the series
- B.
Place on every other file in the series
- C.
Place on the first container or on each container
Correct Answer
C. Place on the first container or on each containerExplanation
When a series is filed in more than one record container, the disposition control label should be placed on the first container or on each container. This ensures that the label is easily visible and accessible for each container in the series, allowing for proper tracking and management of the records. Placing the label on the last container or every other file would not provide consistent and accurate information about the disposition of the records.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What are the requirements for placing disposition control labels on a guide card?
- A.
Usually affixed to the first (left) tab position of the guide card
- B.
Usually affixed to the first (right) tab position of the guide card
- C.
Usually affixed to the first (center) tab position of the guide card
Correct Answer
A. Usually affixed to the first (left) tab position of the guide cardExplanation
Disposition control labels are typically placed on the first (left) tab position of the guide card. This indicates that the labels are commonly affixed to the left side of the card.Rate this question:
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- 6.
How many tables and rules can be applied to each records series?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
1
Correct Answer
D. 1Explanation
Each record series can have only one table and one set of rules applied to it. This means that there is a single table structure and a single set of rules that govern the organization and management of each record series.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the first step in filing a document?
- A.
Assemble documents for filing in the same manner as required for their creation, dispatch and use with the latest action on top.
- B.
Assemble documents for filing in the same manner as required for their creation, dispatch and use with the latest action on bottom.
Correct Answer
A. Assemble documents for filing in the same manner as required for their creation, dispatch and use with the latest action on top.Explanation
The correct answer is to assemble documents for filing in the same manner as required for their creation, dispatch, and use with the latest action on top. This means that when filing documents, the most recent action or update should be placed on top of the stack of documents. This ensures that the most current information is easily accessible and can be easily reviewed or referenced when needed.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Who must monitor the e-file box and assist and or file the records in the box?
- A.
COR
- B.
RC
- C.
The FARM and RC
- D.
COFR
Correct Answer
C. The FARM and RCExplanation
The correct answer is The FARM and RC. The FARM (Federal Agency Records Manager) and RC (Records Coordinator) are responsible for monitoring the e-file box and assisting with filing the records in the box. They have the authority and knowledge to ensure that the records are properly managed and organized.Rate this question:
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- 9.
How will protection be applied to files and folders containing sensitive privacy act data?
- A.
By using unique passwords and group permissions
- B.
By being added to a security group
- C.
Allowing everyone access to the files
- D.
No one is allowed to view this except for the FARM
Correct Answer
A. By using unique passwords and group permissionsExplanation
Protection will be applied to files and folders containing sensitive privacy act data by using unique passwords and group permissions. This means that access to these files and folders will be restricted to specific individuals or groups who have been assigned unique passwords and appropriate permissions. This helps to ensure that only authorized personnel can view and access the sensitive data, enhancing security and privacy.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who is responsible for ensuring designated storage, proper use and integrity of e-files/e-records?
- A.
FARMs
- B.
RC and COR
- C.
BRM
- D.
Base/unit records professionals, BRMs, FARMs, RC, and COR
Correct Answer
D. Base/unit records professionals, BRMs, FARMs, RC, and CORExplanation
Base/unit records professionals, BRMs, FARMs, RC, and COR are responsible for ensuring designated storage, proper use, and integrity of e-files/e-records. This means that multiple individuals and roles within an organization are accountable for managing electronic files and records, including their storage, appropriate usage, and maintaining their integrity.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Who will use dedicated space on the SANs to store e-records?
- A.
I-NOSC
- B.
NCC staff
- C.
AFPC
- D.
ASPCA
Correct Answer
B. NCC staffExplanation
NCC staff will use dedicated space on the SANs to store e-records. This implies that the NCC staff has been given the authority or responsibility to manage and store electronic records using the dedicated space on the SANs (Storage Area Networks). The other options, I-NOSC, AFPC, and ASPCA, are not mentioned to have any involvement in storing e-records on the SANs.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Who ensures installation offices of record conduct periodical unit self-inspections and receive a SAV at least once every 24 months?
- A.
RM
- B.
FARM
- C.
NCC
- D.
COR
Correct Answer
A. RMExplanation
RM, or the Records Manager, ensures that installation offices of record conduct periodical unit self-inspections and receive a Staff Assistance Visit (SAV) at least once every 24 months. The Records Manager is responsible for overseeing the proper management and maintenance of records within an organization. This includes ensuring that offices of record are conducting regular self-inspections to assess their compliance with record-keeping policies and procedures. Additionally, the Records Manager arranges for a SAV to be conducted by higher-level authorities to further assess the effectiveness of record management practices.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Who trains all personnel, whose duties include filing, maintaining and disposing of records, within three months of assignment?
- A.
FARM
- B.
RM
- C.
BRM
- D.
COR
Correct Answer
B. RMExplanation
RM stands for Records Management. The correct answer suggests that all personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of records should receive training within three months of their assignment. This training is important to ensure that personnel are knowledgeable and competent in handling records effectively and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Who ensures all personnel who create, maintain, and dispose of records attend records management training?
- A.
FARM
- B.
RM
- C.
COR
- D.
NCC
Correct Answer
C. CORExplanation
COR stands for Chief of Records. The Chief of Records is responsible for ensuring that all personnel who create, maintain, and dispose of records attend records management training. This ensures that everyone involved in the records management process is properly trained and aware of the necessary protocols and procedures to effectively manage records.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Who maintains the office file plan and accountability for active and inactive records?
- A.
COR
- B.
RC
- C.
RM
- D.
BRM
Correct Answer
B. RCExplanation
RC stands for Records Coordinator. The Records Coordinator is responsible for maintaining the office file plan and ensuring accountability for both active and inactive records. They oversee the organization, storage, and retrieval of records, ensuring that they are properly managed and maintained. This includes creating and implementing file retention schedules, ensuring compliance with record management policies and procedures, and coordinating the transfer or disposal of records as necessary.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who ensures OFFICES of RECORD receive a SAV at least once every 24 months?
- A.
RC
- B.
RM
- C.
FARM
- D.
COR
Correct Answer
C. FARMExplanation
FARM ensures that OFFICES of RECORD receive a SAV (Security Assessment Visit) at least once every 24 months.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who manages the base staging area?
- A.
RM
- B.
RC
- C.
FARM
- D.
COR
Correct Answer
A. RMExplanation
RM stands for Resource Manager, which is responsible for managing the base staging area. The Resource Manager is in charge of allocating and tracking resources, such as equipment and supplies, at the staging area. They ensure that the necessary resources are available and properly utilized for the operations at the base staging area.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Do photo's received by an agency of the US government qualify as records?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
Correct Answer
A. YesExplanation
Yes, photos received by an agency of the US government qualify as records because records are defined as any documentary material, regardless of physical form or characteristics, created or received by an agency of the US government under federal law in connection with the transaction of public business. Since photos can document and provide evidence of government activities, they meet the criteria to be considered records.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Does library material acquired for reference purposes qualify as records?
- A.
No
- B.
Yes
Correct Answer
A. NoExplanation
Library material acquired for reference purposes does not qualify as records because records are defined as any recorded information, regardless of format or medium, created, received, maintained, and used by an organization or an individual in pursuance of legal obligations or in the transaction of business. Library materials are typically acquired for research, educational, or informational purposes and do not fall under the definition of records.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Do electronic versions of maps qualify as records?
- A.
No
- B.
Yes
Correct Answer
B. YesExplanation
Electronic versions of maps qualify as records because they contain information that can be accessed, stored, and retrieved. These electronic maps can be considered as digital representations of the original paper maps, containing the same data and providing the same functionality. They can be stored and preserved electronically, making them eligible to be classified as records. Additionally, electronic maps offer advantages such as easy sharing, updating, and searching capabilities, making them a valuable resource for various purposes.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What plays a vital role in managing and operating Air Force activities?
- A.
Records
- B.
Files
- C.
Databases
- D.
Servers
Correct Answer
A. RecordsExplanation
Records play a vital role in managing and operating Air Force activities because they provide a documented history of important information. Records help in tracking and organizing data related to personnel, equipment, operations, and finances. They ensure accountability, facilitate decision-making, and support efficient day-to-day operations. By maintaining accurate and up-to-date records, the Air Force can effectively plan, analyze, and evaluate its activities, enabling better resource management and overall effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Who appoints Air Force portal content managers and content publishers for public and private websites?
- A.
The base commander
- B.
The unit commander
- C.
The wing commander
- D.
The group commander
Correct Answer
C. The wing commanderExplanation
The wing commander is responsible for appointing Air Force portal content managers and content publishers for public and private websites. This individual holds a higher rank and has authority over multiple units and groups within the Air Force. They have the knowledge and experience to make informed decisions regarding the selection of individuals who will manage and publish content on these websites, ensuring that the information is accurate, up-to-date, and meets the standards set by the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Failure by military personnel to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFI 33-129, Web management and internet use, is a violation of which UCMJ article?
- A.
Article 15
- B.
Article 92
- C.
Article 95
- D.
Article 178
Correct Answer
B. Article 92Explanation
Failure by military personnel to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFI 33-129, Web management and internet use, is a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 pertains to the failure to obey an order or regulation. In this case, the military personnel are required to follow the provisions outlined in AFI 33-129, and failure to do so would be a violation of this article.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Who may authorize personal use of government-provided hardware and software?
- A.
Base commander
- B.
Wing commander
- C.
Appropriate officials
- D.
Flight chief
Correct Answer
C. Appropriate officialsExplanation
The question is asking who has the authority to allow personal use of government-provided hardware and software. The term "appropriate officials" refers to individuals who have been designated with the responsibility to make decisions regarding the use of government resources. These officials may have the knowledge and understanding of the policies and regulations surrounding the use of government-provided equipment, and therefore have the authority to authorize personal use. The base commander, wing commander, and flight chief may have their own areas of authority, but the decision to allow personal use would typically fall under the jurisdiction of the appropriate officials.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Who is considered the "owner" of some amount of content on the Air Force portal?
- A.
Content publisher
- B.
Content manger
- C.
You
- D.
Squadron commander
Correct Answer
A. Content publisherExplanation
The "owner" of some amount of content on the Air Force portal is the content publisher. This individual is responsible for creating and publishing the content on the portal, ensuring its accuracy and relevance. They have the authority to make changes or updates to the content as needed and are accountable for its quality and compliance with guidelines and regulations.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Who works in collaboration with the content publishers to ensure information on the Air Force portal is accurate and applicable with AFIs and Air Force portal guidance?
- A.
Content publisher
- B.
Content manager
- C.
Base commander
- D.
Squadron commander
Correct Answer
B. Content managerExplanation
A content manager is responsible for working in collaboration with content publishers to ensure that the information on the Air Force portal is accurate and aligns with AFIs (Air Force Instructions) and Air Force portal guidance. They oversee the content creation process, review and approve content before it is published, and ensure that it meets the necessary standards and guidelines. The content manager plays a crucial role in maintaining the accuracy and relevance of the information available on the Air Force portal.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Who manages access groups for organizational content publishers?
- A.
Content managers
- B.
Content publishers
- C.
Advanced content managers
- D.
Advanced content publishers
Correct Answer
C. Advanced content managersExplanation
Advanced content managers are responsible for managing access groups for organizational content publishers. They have the expertise and knowledge to handle the complex tasks associated with managing access groups and ensuring that content publishers have the necessary permissions and privileges to publish content. Regular content managers may not have the same level of expertise and may not be able to effectively manage access groups for content publishers. Similarly, advanced content publishers may have the skills to publish content but may not have the necessary knowledge to manage access groups.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is the most important part of the Air Force portal initiative?
- A.
The user
- B.
Integrity of data
- C.
Ease of access
- D.
Ease of use
Correct Answer
A. The userExplanation
The most important part of the Air Force portal initiative is the user. This implies that the focus is on creating a user-friendly experience and ensuring that the needs and requirements of the users are met. By prioritizing the user, the Air Force portal can ensure that it is accessible and easy to use, ultimately enhancing user satisfaction and effectiveness of the initiative.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Provide official guidance on producing, configuring, installing, maintaining, modifying, and operating equipment or systems is the definition of what?
- A.
TO's
- B.
ATO's
- C.
JTFO's
- D.
JFACC responsibilities
Correct Answer
A. TO'sExplanation
TO's stands for Technical Orders. Technical Orders provide official guidance on producing, configuring, installing, maintaining, modifying, and operating equipment or systems. They are essential documents that ensure consistency and safety in the operation and maintenance of equipment or systems. TO's are widely used in various industries, including aviation, military, and engineering, to provide detailed instructions and procedures for personnel to follow.Rate this question:
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- 30.
OI's are written at a much higher level than AFI's?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement "OI's are written at a much higher level than AFI's" is false. OI's (Operating Instructions) and AFI's (Air Force Instructions) are both types of documents used in the military, but they serve different purposes. OI's provide specific instructions and guidance for performing tasks or operations, while AFI's are broader directives that establish policies and procedures for the entire Air Force. Therefore, AFI's are written at a higher level than OI's as they encompass a wider scope and have more authority.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What level are AFI's drafted?
- A.
MAJCOM and FOA level
- B.
Squadron Level
- C.
Wing Level
- D.
Air Force Level
Correct Answer
A. MAJCOM and FOA levelExplanation
AFI's (Air Force Instructions) are drafted at the MAJCOM (Major Command) and FOA (Field Operating Agency) level. This means that they are developed and issued by the major commands and field operating agencies within the Air Force. AFI's provide guidance and instructions on various policies, procedures, and regulations within the Air Force. Squadron, wing, and Air Force levels may also have their own instructions and policies, but the primary level at which AFI's are drafted is the MAJCOM and FOA level.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What level are AFPD's drafted?
- A.
MAJCOM and FOA level
- B.
Squadron level
- C.
Wing level
- D.
Air force Level
Correct Answer
D. Air force LevelExplanation
AFPD's (Air Force Policy Directives) are drafted at the Air Force level. This means that they are developed and established by the Air Force as a whole, rather than at the squadron, wing, or MAJCOM (Major Command) and FOA (Field Operating Agency) levels. AFPD's provide guidance and direction for the entire Air Force organization, ensuring consistency and uniformity in policies and procedures across all units and commands.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Directive specialized publications providing operating procedures and checklists for network operations is the definition of what?
- A.
AFPD's
- B.
AFI's
- C.
AFNOI's
- D.
ASPCA's
Correct Answer
C. AFNOI'sExplanation
AFNOI's stands for Air Force Network Operations Instructions. These are specialized publications that provide operating procedures and checklists for network operations in the Air Force. They are designed to ensure efficient and secure network operations within the Air Force, providing guidance and instructions for network administrators and operators.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What are the two pillars of IO?
- A.
Information assurance and quality assurance
- B.
Information warfare and information-in-warfare
- C.
Information specialty and Information assurance
Correct Answer
B. Information warfare and information-in-warfareExplanation
The two pillars of IO are information warfare and information-in-warfare. Information warfare refers to the use of information and communication technologies to gain a competitive advantage in military operations, while information-in-warfare refers to the integration of information and technology into all aspects of warfare. These two pillars highlight the importance of leveraging information and technology in modern warfare and the need to effectively use and protect information assets for strategic advantage.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Air Force publications are managed by the AFDPO.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Air Force publications are indeed managed by the AFDPO. The AFDPO, which stands for Air Force Departmental Publishing Office, is responsible for the management and distribution of Air Force publications. They ensure that these publications are properly formatted, reviewed, and published in a timely manner. The AFDPO plays a crucial role in maintaining the accuracy and accessibility of Air Force publications, which are essential for the effective operation and communication within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Who is the principal defense policy advisor to the president?
- A.
Secretary of State
- B.
Secretary of Defense
- C.
Secretary of Air Force
- D.
Chairman to the joint chiefs of staff
Correct Answer
B. Secretary of DefenseExplanation
The Secretary of Defense is the principal defense policy advisor to the president. They are responsible for advising the president on all matters related to national security and defense. This includes providing recommendations on military strategy, budget allocation, and defense policy decisions. As the head of the Department of Defense, the Secretary of Defense plays a crucial role in shaping the country's defense posture and ensuring the readiness of the armed forces.Rate this question:
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- 37.
This can be used to classify operations as either military or diplomatic.
- A.
Dempsey analysis
- B.
Welsh analysis
- C.
Schmitt analysis
- D.
Armstrong analysis
Correct Answer
C. Schmitt analysisExplanation
Schmitt analysis can be used to classify operations as either military or diplomatic. This suggests that Schmitt has provided a framework or methodology for evaluating and categorizing different types of operations based on their nature and purpose. It is likely that Schmitt's analysis has identified specific criteria or indicators that can be used to differentiate between military and diplomatic operations, allowing for a systematic classification process.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which US title code expands on Constitutional Authority to enter US forces into conflict?
- A.
US title code 50
- B.
US title Code 10
- C.
US title code 18
- D.
US title code 32
Correct Answer
A. US title code 50Explanation
US title code 50, also known as the War and National Defense, is the correct answer. This code expands on the Constitutional Authority to enter US forces into conflict. It outlines the legal framework and provisions for the President to use military force in defense of the nation or in response to a threat. It covers various aspects such as the declaration of war, emergency powers, and the role of Congress in authorizing military action.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which US title code authorizes the creation of the DOD as the executive component of US government?
- A.
Title Code 50
- B.
Title Code 32
- C.
Title Code 18
- D.
Title Code 10
Correct Answer
D. Title Code 10Explanation
Title Code 10 is the correct answer because it authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of the US government. This code outlines the legal framework and responsibilities of the DOD, including its role in national security, military operations, and defense policy. It establishes the DOD as a unified organization under the Secretary of Defense, responsible for coordinating and supervising all military activities of the US.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which US title code defines all Federal crimes?
- A.
Title code 50
- B.
Title code 32
- C.
Title code 18
- D.
Title code 10
Correct Answer
C. Title code 18Explanation
Title code 18 is the correct answer because it is the title code that defines all Federal crimes in the United States. Title 18 of the United States Code is the main criminal code of the federal government, and it covers a wide range of offenses such as fraud, theft, drug trafficking, and conspiracy. This code outlines the specific elements of each crime and the corresponding penalties. It is an essential reference for law enforcement agencies, prosecutors, and the judiciary when dealing with federal criminal cases.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which US title code includes the War Power Resolution?
- A.
Title code 50
- B.
Title code 32
- C.
Title code 18
- D.
Title code 10
Correct Answer
A. Title code 50Explanation
Title code 50 is the correct answer because it includes the War Powers Resolution. The War Powers Resolution, also known as the War Powers Act, is a federal law that was passed in 1973. It requires the President of the United States to consult with Congress before deploying U.S. armed forces into a situation of hostilities or imminent hostilities. Title code 50 is the section of the United States Code that contains laws related to national defense and military affairs, making it the appropriate title code for the War Powers Resolution.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which US title code assigns homeland defense responsibility to the National Guard?
- A.
Title code 50
- B.
Title code 32
- C.
Title code 18
- D.
Title code 10
Correct Answer
B. Title code 32Explanation
Title code 32 assigns homeland defense responsibility to the National Guard. This means that the National Guard is responsible for protecting the United States from domestic threats and assisting in disaster response and recovery efforts. This code outlines the specific roles and responsibilities of the National Guard in homeland defense operations, ensuring that they are properly equipped and trained to fulfill this vital duty.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Who has inspection responsibility over the National Guard?
- A.
The department secretaries of the US Army and Air Force
- B.
The department secretaries of the US Navy and Marines
- C.
The department secretaries of the US Army and Navy
- D.
The department secretaries of the US Army and Coast Guard
Correct Answer
A. The department secretaries of the US Army and Air ForceExplanation
The correct answer is the department secretaries of the US Army and Air Force. This is because the National Guard is a reserve component of both the Army and the Air Force. As such, the department secretaries of these two branches have inspection responsibility over the National Guard.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Who mainly develops ROE, and who is responsible for individual unit compliance?
- A.
General officers with approval from the National Authority.
- B.
The Highest ranking NCO in your Unit
- C.
Subordinate commanders
- D.
First Shirt
Correct Answer(s)
A. General officers with approval from the National Authority.
C. Subordinate commandersExplanation
ROE stands for Rules of Engagement, which are guidelines and instructions for military personnel on when and how to use force during operations. The development of ROE is mainly done by General officers with approval from the National Authority. They have the expertise and authority to establish these rules based on the overall strategic objectives and legal considerations. However, the responsibility for individual unit compliance lies with subordinate commanders. They are responsible for ensuring that their units understand and adhere to the ROE while conducting operations.Rate this question:
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