CDC 2s071; Volume 2. Customer Support And Readiness (Unit Review Exercises)

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2s071 Quizzes & Trivia

Materiel Management Craftsman


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates past recurring demand or reparable generation experience but Air Force stockage policy precluded establishment of a demand-based stock level?

    • A.

      A.

    • B.

      B.

    • C.

      C.

    • D.

      D.

    Correct Answer
    B. B.
    Explanation
    Cause code B indicates that there has been past recurring demand or reparable generation experience, but the Air Force stockage policy prevented the establishment of a demand-based stock level. This means that there have been instances where there was a need for a certain item or repair, but the stockage policy did not allow for the necessary stock level to be maintained. This could be due to various reasons such as budget constraints or prioritization of other items.

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  • 2. 

    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates base decision not to stock the item?

    • A.

      A.

    • B.

      B.

    • C.

      C.

    • D.

      D.

    Correct Answer
    D. D.
    Explanation
    The correct answer for this question is D. The mission capable (MICAP) cause code that indicates base decision not to stock the item. This means that the base has made a decision not to stock the item because of certain reasons. It could be due to the item being outdated, not in demand, or not meeting the requirements of the base.

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  • 3. 

    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates the depth of stock was insufficient to meet MICAP/due-out requirements?

    • A.

      F.

    • B.

      G.

    • C.

      H.

    • D.

      J.

    Correct Answer
    A. F.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is F. This cause code indicates that the depth of stock was insufficient to meet MICAP/due-out requirements. This means that there was not enough stock available to fulfill the necessary requirements for the mission capable (MICAP) status.

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  • 4. 

    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates stock replenishment requisition exceeds priority group Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) standards?

    • A.

      F.

    • B.

      G.

    • C.

      H.

    • D.

      J.

    Correct Answer
    C. H.
    Explanation
    The mission capable (MICAP) cause code H indicates that the stock replenishment requisition exceeds the priority group Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) standards. This means that the requisition is of high priority and needs to be fulfilled urgently in order to maintain mission readiness.

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  • 5. 

    (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates less-than-full base stock, stock replenishment does not exceed Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) time standards by priority groups, and awaiting part (AWP) assets are on order at time of MICAP?

    • A.

      X.

    • B.

      T.

    • C.

      S.

    • D.

      R.

    Correct Answer
    B. T.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T. The T cause code indicates that the mission capable (MICAP) item has less-than-full base stock, stock replenishment does not meet the time standards set by the Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) for priority groups, and there are awaiting part (AWP) assets on order at the time of the MICAP.

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  • 6. 

    (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates item satisfied through lateral support?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    C. 3.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3. The mission capable (MICAP) delete code that indicates an item satisfied through lateral support is "L". This code is used when an item is provided to a unit by another unit or organization, rather than through the normal supply channels. It signifies that the item is still mission capable, but was obtained through lateral support rather than the usual supply process.

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  • 7. 

    (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates cannibalization has been used to preclude MICAP occurrence?

    • A.

      4.

    • B.

      5.

    • C.

      6.

    • D.

      7.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4.
  • 8. 

    (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates request reported in error?

    • A.

      0.

    • B.

      7.

    • C.

      8.

    • D.

      9.

    Correct Answer
    D. 9.
    Explanation
    The mission capable (MICAP) delete code "9" indicates that the request was reported in error.

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  • 9. 

    (203) What activity code is used to identify issues processed through the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • A.

      X.

    • B.

      U.

    • C.

      R.

    • D.

      J.

    Correct Answer
    D. J.
    Explanation
    The activity code J is used to identify issues processed through the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

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  • 10. 

    (203) What due-out status code on the transaction identification code (TRIC) 1SH describes a release (due-out release)?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2.
  • 11. 

    (204) What listing is used to monitor awaiting part (AWP) end items?

    • A.

      Q04.

    • B.

      D19.

    • C.

      D20.

    • D.

      D23.

    Correct Answer
    B. D19.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D19. This listing is used to monitor awaiting part (AWP) end items.

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  • 12. 

    (204) To perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation, what listing is used?

    • A.

      Q04.

    • B.

      D19.

    • C.

      D20.

    • D.

      D23.

    Correct Answer
    D. D23.
  • 13. 

    (204) What Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) detail records can be updated by the transaction identification code (TRIC) “DFM” input?

    • A.

      Memo and credit.

    • B.

      Firm and credit.

    • C.

      Firm and memo.

    • D.

      Credit only.

    Correct Answer
    C. Firm and memo.
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code "DFM" allows for the updating of Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) detail records with both firm and memo information. This means that both the firm due-in quantity and the memo due-in quantity can be updated using this transaction code. The other options, such as credit only or firm and credit, do not allow for the updating of memo information.

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  • 14. 

    14. (205) When monitoring awaiting part (AWP) end items, personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or back-order basis using the urgency justification code (UJC)

    • A.

      “AB” only.

    • B.

      “AR” only.

    • C.

      “AA” or “AB.”

    • D.

      “AR” or “BR.”

    Correct Answer
    D. “AR” or “BR.”
    Explanation
    Personnel at bases can submit requests for repair parts on a fill or back-order basis using the urgency justification code (UJC) "AR" or "BR". This means that they can request the parts either as soon as possible (AR) or when the parts become available (BR). This allows for flexibility in the ordering process and ensures that the parts are obtained in a timely manner, either immediately or when they are restocked.

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  • 15. 

    (205) When the last awaiting part (AWP) due-out is released or canceled, what Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) status code is assigned as a result of AWP processing?

    • A.

      “02P.”

    • B.

      “03P.”

    • C.

      “AWP.”

    • D.

      “FWP.”

    Correct Answer
    D. “FWP.”
    Explanation
    When the last awaiting part (AWP) due-out is released or canceled, the Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) status code assigned as a result of AWP processing is "FWP."

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  • 16. 

    (206) What required delivery date (RDD) is assigned to output requisition transactions for twolevel maintenance (2LM) items?

    • A.

      999.

    • B.

      777.

    • C.

      256.

    • D.

      123.

    Correct Answer
    B. 777.
    Explanation
    The required delivery date (RDD) assigned to output requisition transactions for two-level maintenance (2LM) items is 777.

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  • 17. 

    (206) What are additional warehouses called if they are located within the activities they are supporting?

    • A.

      Supply Points.

    • B.

      Warehouse.

    • C.

      Storage.

    • D.

      Vault.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply Points.
    Explanation
    Additional warehouses that are located within the activities they are supporting are called supply points. These supply points serve as storage locations for goods and materials that are needed for the specific activities taking place in that area. They help to ensure a smooth flow of supplies and support the efficient operation of the activities being carried out.

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  • 18. 

    (206) Who maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply point?

    • A.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)/Mobility Support.

    • B.

      Materiel Management Flight.

    • C.

      LRS/Supply Activity.

    • D.

      Maintenance officer.

    Correct Answer
    C. LRS/Supply Activity.
    Explanation
    The LRS/Supply Activity maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply point. This means that they are responsible for keeping track of the assets, ensuring they are accounted for and properly controlled. They are likely to have systems and processes in place to manage inventory, track usage, and monitor the condition of the assets. This responsibility falls under the purview of the LRS/Supply Activity, as they specialize in supply chain management and logistics operations.

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  • 19. 

    (207) What type of war reserve materiel (WRM) equipment is authorized to support a peacetime function that ceases to exist in wartime, thereby allowing the equipment to satisfy a wartime requirement?

    • A.

      WRM.

    • B.

      Mobility.

    • C.

      Joint use.

    • D.

      Major command (MAJCOM) use.

    Correct Answer
    C. Joint use.
    Explanation
    Joint use is the correct answer because it refers to war reserve materiel (WRM) equipment that is authorized for use by multiple entities or organizations, such as different branches of the military or allied forces. This type of equipment can be used during peacetime operations but may not be needed or available during wartime, as the function it supports may no longer exist or be replaced by other equipment or strategies. Joint use allows for flexibility and collaboration in the use of WRM equipment, ensuring that it can be effectively utilized in various scenarios.

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  • 20. 

    (208) What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem set supports 150 personnel in the open-the-base force module?

    • A.

      B-150.

    • B.

      B-550i.

    • C.

      B-550f.

    • D.

      B-IO.

    Correct Answer
    A. B-150.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-150. The Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem set B-150 supports 150 personnel in the open-the-base force module. This means that the B-150 provides the necessary resources and equipment to support the needs of 150 personnel in a deployed airfield setting.

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  • 21. 

    (208) What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem is an additive set to the B-550i, which increases support to 1,100 people?

    • A.

      B-150.

    • B.

      B-550i.

    • C.

      B-550f.

    • D.

      B-IO.

    Correct Answer
    C. B-550f.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-550f. The B-550f is the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem that is an additive set to the B-550i. This subsystem increases support to 1,100 people.

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  • 22. 

    (208) How many personnel and fighter squadrons will a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) Industrial Operations Set support?

    • A.

      3,300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons.

    • B.

      3,300 personnel/5 fighter squadrons.

    • C.

      550 personnel/3 fighter squadrons.

    • D.

      550 personnel/5 fighter squadrons.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3,300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3,300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons. This means that a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) Industrial Operations Set is capable of supporting a total of 3,300 personnel and 3 fighter squadrons.

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  • 23. 

    (209) How often is Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorization published?

    • A.

      Semi-annually.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually.
    Explanation
    The Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorization is published once a year. This means that the authorization is updated and released on an annual basis.

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  • 24. 

    (209) Which Air Force major command headquarters (HQ) office published Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorizations?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command (HQ ACC)/A4.

    • B.

      Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC/LGX).

    • C.

      United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX).

    • D.

      Air Force Materiel Command (HQ AFMC)/A4.

    Correct Answer
    C. United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX). This is the correct answer because the question is asking which Air Force major command headquarters office published Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorizations, and the HQ USAF/LGX is the headquarters office responsible for the United States Air Force.

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  • 25. 

    (209) How long is the funded support period for Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) replenishment spares?

    • A.

      30 days.

    • B.

      60 days.

    • C.

      90 days.

    • D.

      120 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days.
    Explanation
    The funded support period for Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) replenishment spares is 30 days. This means that the funding provided for these spares covers a period of 30 days. It is important to note that after this period, additional funding or arrangements may be required to continue the support for the spares.

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  • 26. 

    Who may elect to store items requiring functional check in the normal Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) locations or in a designated functional check holding area?

    • A.

      War Readiness.

    • B.

      Accountable officer.

    • C.

      Materiel Management superintendent.

    • D.

      Mobility Non Commissioned Officer In Charge (NCOIC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Accountable officer.
    Explanation
    The accountable officer may elect to store items requiring functional check in the normal Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) locations or in a designated functional check holding area.

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  • 27. 

    (210) What system do inventory managers use to formulate Readiness Spares Package (RSP) levels?

    • A.

      Personal computer aircraft sustainability module (PC-ASM).

    • B.

      Consumable Readiness Spares Packages (CRSP).

    • C.

      Mobility Readiness Spares Packages (MRSP).

    • D.

      In-place Readiness Spares Packages (IRSP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal computer aircraft sustainability module (PC-ASM).
    Explanation
    Inventory managers use the Personal computer aircraft sustainability module (PC-ASM) system to formulate Readiness Spares Package (RSP) levels.

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  • 28. 

    (211) Who has the responsibility for operation of a weapons storage facility?

    • A.

      Deployment and Distribution Flight.

    • B.

      Materiel Management Flight.

    • C.

      Squadron Readiness.

    • D.

      War Readiness.

    Correct Answer
    B. Materiel Management Flight.
    Explanation
    The Materiel Management Flight is responsible for the operation of a weapons storage facility. This flight is responsible for managing and controlling all aspects of the facility, including the storage, maintenance, and distribution of weapons. They ensure that the weapons are properly stored and accounted for, and that they are readily available when needed. The Materiel Management Flight plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and readiness of the weapons storage facility.

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  • 29. 

    (212) Who is responsible for preparing and packaging, inventorying, and maintaining bags?

    • A.

      Mobility.

    • B.

      Readiness.

    • C.

      War Readiness.

    • D.

      Security Forces.

    Correct Answer
    C. War Readiness.
    Explanation
    War Readiness is responsible for preparing and packaging, inventorying, and maintaining bags. This suggests that the War Readiness department is in charge of ensuring that bags are properly prepared and packaged, keeping track of inventory, and maintaining the bags in good condition. It implies that this department plays a crucial role in ensuring that bags are ready for use in wartime situations.

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  • 30. 

    (212) What personal computer-based program is designed to account for mobility and chemical warfare defense equipment (CWDE)?

    • A.

      COMPES.

    • B.

      DCAPES.

    • C.

      WSMIS.

    • D.

      MICAS (Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System).

    Correct Answer
    D. MICAS (Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System).
    Explanation
    MICAS (Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System) is a personal computer-based program that is designed to account for mobility and chemical warfare defense equipment (CWDE). It is a system that helps in tracking and managing the inventory of CWDE, ensuring accountability and control.

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  • 31. 

    (213) During which phase of the deliberate planning process does the supported major command (MAJCOM) theater commander in the area of operation determine the best approach to satisfy the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) tasking?

    • A.

      I.

    • B.

      II.

    • C.

      IV.

    • D.

      V.

    Correct Answer
    B. II.
    Explanation
    During Phase II of the deliberate planning process, the supported major command (MAJCOM) theater commander in the area of operation determines the best approach to satisfy the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) tasking. This phase involves conducting a mission analysis, developing courses of action, and selecting the best course of action to achieve the mission objectives. The commander considers factors such as available resources, capabilities, and the strategic goals outlined in the JSCP.

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  • 32. 

    (213) During which phase of the deliberate planning process are support agreements drawn and finalized?

    • A.

      I.

    • B.

      II.

    • C.

      IV.

    • D.

      V.

    Correct Answer
    D. V.
    Explanation
    During the final phase of the deliberate planning process, support agreements are drawn and finalized. This phase involves the coordination and integration of all plans and agreements, ensuring that all necessary support and resources are in place for the execution of the plan. This includes finalizing agreements with external entities or organizations that will provide support or assistance during the implementation of the plan.

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  • 33. 

    (213) As it applies to wartime capability documents, what computer database tells you who, what, where, when, and how things need to deploy if the operations plan is implemented?

    • A.

      DOC statement.

    • B.

      LOGMOD.

    • C.

      TPFDDL.

    • D.

      OPORD.

    Correct Answer
    C. TPFDDL.
  • 34. 

    (213) For wartime capability, a unit that is not combat ready is identified by a

    • A.

      C-1 Rating

    • B.

      C-2 Rating

    • C.

      C-3 Rating

    • D.

      C-4 Rating

    Correct Answer
    D. C-4 Rating
    Explanation
    A C-4 rating is used to identify a unit that is not combat ready for wartime capability.

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  • 35. 

    (214) What Department of Defense (DOD) automated reporting system provides National Command Authority (NCA) and Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) with basic unit identity and readiness status?

    • A.

      ART.

    • B.

      SORTS.

    • C.

      PC-ASM.

    • D.

      WMP-3 Part 2.

    Correct Answer
    B. SORTS.
    Explanation
    SORTS is the Department of Defense (DOD) automated reporting system that provides the National Command Authority (NCA) and Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) with basic unit identity and readiness status. It is used to assess the readiness of military units and provide essential information to decision-makers at the highest levels of command. SORTS stands for Status of Resources and Training System.

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  • 36. 

    (214) What allows Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allocated units the ability to report unit-type code (UTC) level readiness data?

    • A.

      ART.

    • B.

      SORTS.

    • C.

      PC-ASM.

    • D.

      WMP-3 Part 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. ART.
    Explanation
    ART (Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool) allows Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allocated units to report unit-type code (UTC) level readiness data. This tool enables units to provide accurate and up-to-date information on their readiness status, which is crucial for effective planning and decision-making. By using ART, units can ensure that their readiness data is easily accessible and can be used to support mission requirements and resource allocation.

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  • 37. 

    (215) What type of Adjusted Stock Level is identified by type level flag “E”?

    • A.

      Fixed.

    • B.

      Minimum.

    • C.

      Maximum.

    • D.

      Restricted.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Fixed." The type level flag "E" indicates that the Adjusted Stock Level is fixed, meaning it remains constant and does not change. This suggests that there is a predetermined stock level that needs to be maintained without any adjustments or variations.

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  • 38. 

    (216) How often does the readiness base level (RBL) system run at Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) to push RBLs to both base and depot?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Monthly.

    • C.

      Quarterly.

    • D.

      Semi-annually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    The readiness base level (RBL) system at Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) runs quarterly to push RBLs to both base and depot. This means that the system is updated and synchronized every three months to ensure that the readiness levels are accurately reflected at both the base and depot levels.

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  • 39. 

    (216) Readiness base levels (RBL) are forwarded to the base for retail supply system implementation via

    • A.

      An electronic Headquarters Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) Computed Level Transaction (XCC).

    • B.

      An electronic Headquarters AFMC Computed Level Transaction (XCA).

    • C.

      Stock Number User Directory (SNUD).

    • D.

      Message, mail, or phone call.

    Correct Answer
    B. An electronic Headquarters AFMC Computed Level Transaction (XCA).
  • 40. 

    (217) What shipment results from redistribution orders (RDO) and referral orders?

    • A.

      Special.

    • B.

      Directed.

    • C.

      Automatic.

    • D.

      Nondirected.

    Correct Answer
    B. Directed.
    Explanation
    Redistribution orders (RDO) and referral orders are both types of orders that involve directing or redirecting shipments. In the case of redistribution orders, it refers to the process of redistributing goods or products from one location to another within a supply chain network. Referral orders, on the other hand, involve directing shipments to a specific destination or recipient based on a referral or recommendation. Therefore, the correct answer is "Directed" as both RDO and referral orders involve directing shipments.

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  • 41. 

    (217) What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service?

    • A.

      A2x.

    • B.

      A5J.

    • C.

      TRM.

    • D.

      FTR.

    Correct Answer
    C. TRM.
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code used to transfer assets to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service is TRM.

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  • 42. 

    (217) At least how often is the Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (NGV597) run to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria?

    • A.

      Quarterly.

    • B.

      Semi-annually.

    • C.

      Once a month.

    • D.

      Twice a month.

    Correct Answer
    D. Twice a month.
    Explanation
    The Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (NGV597) is run twice a month to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria.

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  • 43. 

    (217) What Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) Tracer Reconciliation Listing identifies delayed or lost requisitions that were previously identified as received by Traffic Management Office (TMO); however, not received in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?

    • A.

      Parcel post tracer listing.

    • B.

      Transportation tracer listing.

    • C.

      Receipt acknowledged error listing.

    • D.

      Consolidated shipment error listing.

    Correct Answer
    C. Receipt acknowledged error listing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Receipt acknowledged error listing." This listing identifies delayed or lost requisitions that were previously acknowledged as received by the Traffic Management Office (TMO), but have not been received in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). This suggests that there may have been an error in the acknowledgment process, leading to the delay or loss of the requisitions.

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  • 44. 

    (218) What code identifies equipment items that are accounted for on authorized or in-use details (EAID)?

    • A.

      Excess exception.

    • B.

      Allowance source.

    • C.

      Shipment exception.

    • D.

      Equipment management codes (EMC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Equipment management codes (EMC).
    Explanation
    The code that identifies equipment items that are accounted for on authorized or in-use details is Equipment management codes (EMC). This code is used to track and manage equipment, ensuring that it is properly accounted for and maintained. It helps in identifying the status and location of equipment items, allowing for efficient management and utilization.

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  • 45. 

    (219) Nonequipment authorization inventory data (EAID) item requests are identified by what expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD)?

    • A.

      XD2.

    • B.

      XB3.

    • C.

      NF1.

    • D.

      ND1.

    Correct Answer
    C. NF1.
    Explanation
    EAID item requests are identified by the NF1 code.

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  • 46. 

    (219) What menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (C001) is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically?

    • A.

      TORC.

    • B.

      TRAC.

    • C.

      TACR.

    • D.

      OLVIMS.

    Correct Answer
    C. TACR.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TACR. TACR stands for "Theater Allowance Change Request" and it is a menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) that is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically. This option allows users to request changes to the equipment allowances for a specific theater of operations.

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  • 47. 

    (220) Personnel at what Air Force Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity maintains a central file of all weapon items by serial number?

    • A.

      OO-ALC.

    • B.

      SA-ALC.

    • C.

      OC-ALC.

    • D.

      WR-ALC.

    Correct Answer
    D. WR-ALC.
    Explanation
    WR-ALC stands for Warner Robins Air Logistics Center. Personnel at this ALC activity maintain a central file of all weapon items by serial number.

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  • 48. 

    (220) Serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) are maintained on what type detail?

    • A.

      249.

    • B.

      250.

    • C.

      Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM).

    • D.

      Nonequipment authorization inventory data (EAID).

    Correct Answer
    A. 249.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 249. Serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) are maintained on the Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) detail.

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  • 49. 

    (220) On what day of the year is the weapons reconciliation scheduled to be performed?

    • A.

      30 March.

    • B.

      1 April.

    • C.

      30 April.

    • D.

      15 September.

    Correct Answer
    C. 30 April.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30 April.

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  • 50. 

    (220) What output document reflects the serial numbers for each communication security (COMSEC) transaction?

    • A.

      D20 report.

    • B.

      D24 report.

    • C.

      F114 management notice.

    • D.

      F117 management notice.

    Correct Answer
    D. F117 management notice.
    Explanation
    The F117 management notice is the correct answer because it is the document that reflects the serial numbers for each communication security (COMSEC) transaction. The D20 and D24 reports do not pertain to COMSEC transactions, and the F114 management notice is not specifically related to serial numbers for COMSEC transactions. Therefore, the F117 management notice is the most appropriate choice.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 21, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Joshuajones02
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