2s071 Ure Volume 3

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How are material deficiency report (MDR)/ product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) exhibit items readily identified in stock?

    • A.

      I023 Management Notice.

    • B.

      I003 Management Notice.

    • C.

      I012 Management Notice.

    • D.

      I008 Management Notice.

    Correct Answer
    C. I012 Management Notice.
  • 2. 

    What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load warehouse location and the material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) report control number of the exhibit?

    • A.

      ISU.

    • B.

      DFM.

    • C.

      TIN.

    • D.

      TRM.

    Correct Answer
    B. DFM.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DFM. DFM stands for Defense Finance and Accounting Service Material Deficiency Report (MDR)/Product Quality Deficiency Reports (PQDR) Report Control Number. It is the transaction identification code used to load the warehouse location and the MDR/PQDR report control number of the exhibit.

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  • 3. 

    Who performs normal inspection functions which include certifying work by the receiving inchecker, changing the stock number, unit of issue, and quantity if required?

    • A.

      Qualified inspectors.

    • B.

      Inspection section.

    • C.

      Receiving clerk.

    • D.

      Storage and issue personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualified inspectors.
    Explanation
    Qualified inspectors perform normal inspection functions which include certifying work by the receiving inchecker, changing the stock number, unit of issue, and quantity if required. They are trained and knowledgeable individuals who are responsible for ensuring that the items received meet the required standards and specifications. Their role is crucial in maintaining quality control and ensuring that the correct information is recorded for inventory management purposes.

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  • 4. 

    What do you do if the original documents are missing or badly mutilated?

    • A.

      Reproduce the copies.

    • B.

      Notify the source of supply.

    • C.

      Fill out a new document based on the information you find from the mutilated documents.

    • D.

      Initiate a supply discrepancy report.

    Correct Answer
    C. Fill out a new document based on the information you find from the mutilated documents.
    Explanation
    If the original documents are missing or badly mutilated, the best course of action would be to fill out a new document based on the information found from the mutilated documents. This ensures that the necessary information is still recorded and can be used for future reference or processing. Reproducing the copies may not be possible if the original documents are completely missing or too damaged. Notifying the source of supply and initiating a supply discrepancy report may be necessary in some cases, but filling out a new document is the immediate action to take.

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  • 5. 

    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf life asset to maintenance?

    • A.

      FCC.

    • B.

      ISU.

    • C.

      MSI.

    • D.

      TIN.

    Correct Answer
    C. MSI.
    Explanation
    An inspector should use the transaction identification code (TRIC) MSI to transfer an unserviceable shelf life asset to maintenance. This code is specifically used for transferring assets that are no longer serviceable and need maintenance or repair. The other options, FCC, ISU, and TIN, do not pertain to this specific type of transfer and are not applicable in this scenario.

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  • 6. 

    What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032, Inspection Extension?

    • A.

      Update inspection data.

    • B.

      Identify condemned items.

    • C.

      Identify property turned over to maintenance.

    • D.

      Identify property in stock that has been suspended.

    Correct Answer
    A. Update inspection data.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the AF Form 2032, Inspection Extension, is to update inspection data. This form is used to extend the inspection period for a specific item or property, indicating that the inspection has been conducted and the data has been updated. It is not used to identify condemned items, property turned over to maintenance, or property in stock that has been suspended.

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  • 7. 

    What list is published by Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?

    • A.

      Quality Status List (QSL).

    • B.

      Priority Requirements Activity List (R01).

    • C.

      Problem Item List (R29).

    • D.

      Due Out Validation Listing (M30).

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Status List (QSL).
    Explanation
    The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) publishes the Quality Status List (QSL) which provides data on products that have been tested or condemned. This list helps in ensuring the quality and reliability of products used by the defense industry. It allows for easy identification of products that may have issues or are not up to standard, helping to maintain the highest level of quality and safety in defense operations. The QSL is an important tool for procurement and supply chain management within the defense sector.

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  • 8. 

    What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to load or delete the functional check flag indicator (F) on functional check assets?

    • A.

      FCD.

    • B.

      FCH.

    • C.

      FCK.

    • D.

      FTR.

    Correct Answer
    A. FCD.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FCD because the question is asking for the transaction identification code (TRIC) that is used to load or delete the functional check flag indicator (F) on functional check assets. Among the given options, FCD is the only TRIC that fits this description.

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  • 9. 

    How often are functional check listings run?

    • A.

      Semiannually.

    • B.

      Annually.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Quarterly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Semiannually.
    Explanation
    Functional check listings are run semiannually, which means they are conducted twice a year. This frequency allows for regular assessment and evaluation of the functionality of a system or equipment. It strikes a balance between the more frequent monthly or quarterly checks and the less frequent annual checks, ensuring that any issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 10. 

    Which materiel management personnel identify and control all items in stock requiring compliance with technical orders (TO)?

    • A.

      Receiving.

    • B.

      Inspector.

    • C.

      War readiness.

    • D.

      Procedures and analysis.

    Correct Answer
    B. Inspector.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Inspector. Materiel management personnel who are inspectors are responsible for identifying and controlling all items in stock that require compliance with technical orders (TO). They ensure that the items meet the required standards and specifications outlined in the TOs. They play a crucial role in maintaining the quality and compliance of the stock inventory.

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  • 11. 

    Who forwards two copies of each time-compliance technical order (TCTO) publication with  a cover letter to the inspection function?

    • A.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) In-checker.

    • B.

      TCTO kit monitor.

    • C.

      LRS Warehouse supervisor.

    • D.

      Base Maintenance quality control.

    Correct Answer
    D. Base Maintenance quality control.
    Explanation
    Base Maintenance quality control forwards two copies of each time-compliance technical order (TCTO) publication with a cover letter to the inspection function.

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  • 12. 

    A time-compliance technical order (TCTO) item is identified in the computer

    • A.

      Other assets indicator “5.”

    • B.

      Other assets indicator “4.”

    • C.

      Numeric parts preference code (NPPC) “5.”

    • D.

      NPPC “4.”

    Correct Answer
    D. NPPC “4.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NPPC "4." A time-compliance technical order (TCTO) item is identified in the numeric parts preference code (NPPC) "4." This means that the item is associated with a specific numeric code that indicates its preference or priority level. In this case, NPPC "4" suggests that the TCTO item has a lower preference or priority compared to NPPC "5."

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  • 13. 

    Which computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item?

    • A.

      FCC with an “F” in position 48.

    • B.

      FCD with an “F” in position 48.

    • C.

      FCC with an “S” in position 48.

    • D.

      FCD with an “S” in position 48.

    Correct Answer
    D. FCD with an “S” in position 48.
  • 14. 

    Who maintains inquiry images for items that are unsuitable for Air Force use?

    • A.

      Repair cycle report (RCS).

    • B.

      Materiel Management inspector.

    • C.

      Stock Control.

    • D.

      Production control.

    Correct Answer
    B. Materiel Management inspector.
    Explanation
    The Materiel Management inspector is responsible for maintaining inquiry images for items that are unsuitable for Air Force use. This means that they are in charge of keeping records and documentation of items that are deemed unfit or inappropriate for use in the Air Force. They ensure that these items are properly documented and tracked, allowing for effective management and control of the Air Force's inventory.

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  • 15. 

    The Inspection Offline Checklist (R32) should be processed at least

    • A.

      Weekly.

    • B.

      Monthly.

    • C.

      Quarterly.

    • D.

      Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is monthly because regular inspections are necessary to ensure that all the required tasks are being carried out and that any potential issues are addressed in a timely manner. Processing the Inspection Offline Checklist on a monthly basis allows for a consistent and frequent assessment of the checklist items, reducing the risk of overlooking any important tasks or maintenance requirements. This regularity ensures that any necessary actions can be taken promptly, contributing to the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the inspection process.

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  • 16. 

    What Department of Defense (DOD) system provides an automated database of specific manufacturer’s material safety data sheet (MSDS) information readily available to Air Force personnel?

    • A.

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Hazard Communication Standard (HCS).

    • B.

      Materiel Management System.

    • C.

      Hazardous Materials Information Resource System (HMIRS).

    • D.

      Bioenvironmental Engineering Services (BES).

    Correct Answer
    C. Hazardous Materials Information Resource System (HMIRS).
    Explanation
    The Hazardous Materials Information Resource System (HMIRS) is a Department of Defense (DOD) system that provides an automated database of specific manufacturer's material safety data sheet (MSDS) information. It is readily available to Air Force personnel, allowing them to access important information about hazardous materials. This system helps ensure the safety and health of personnel by providing them with the necessary information to handle and store hazardous materials properly.

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  • 17. 

    The document that specifies material safety data sheets (MSDS) requirements for government purchases is

    • A.

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–110.

    • B.

      AFMAN 23–210.

    • C.

      Federal Standard (FED-STD)–313.

    • D.

      Federal Publication (FED–PUB) 313.

    Correct Answer
    C. Federal Standard (FED-STD)–313.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Federal Standard (FED-STD)–313. The Federal Standard (FED-STD)–313 specifies the requirements for material safety data sheets (MSDS) for government purchases. This standard provides guidelines and regulations for the content and format of MSDS, ensuring that the information provided is accurate and consistent. It is important for government purchases to adhere to this standard to ensure the safety and proper handling of materials.

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  • 18. 

    Which issue exception (IEX) codes identify health hazard items?

    • A.

      “3,” “6,” and “M.”

    • B.

      “8,” “9,” and “M.”

    • C.

      “E,” “F,” and “9.”

    • D.

      “H,” “G,” and “8.”

    Correct Answer
    B. “8,” “9,” and “M.”
    Explanation
    The IEX codes "8," "9," and "M" identify health hazard items. These codes are used to classify items that pose a potential risk to human health. Code "8" represents items that are corrosive or toxic, code "9" represents items that are reactive or unstable, and code "M" represents items that are infectious or biohazardous. Therefore, the correct answer is "8," "9," and "M."

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  • 19. 

    Which activity must approve all additions or deletions to the Health Hazard Approval Listing (HHAL)?

    • A.

      Maintenance contact point.

    • B.

      Customer service.

    • C.

      Item manager.

    • D.

      Bioenvironmental Engineering Services (BES).

    Correct Answer
    D. Bioenvironmental Engineering Services (BES).
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering Services (BES) is responsible for approving all additions or deletions to the Health Hazard Approval Listing (HHAL). They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the potential health hazards associated with various activities and determine whether they should be included or removed from the listing. The maintenance contact point, customer service, and item manager may have roles in the process, but the final approval authority lies with BES.

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  • 20. 

    How are electrostatic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record?

    • A.

      Issue exception (IEX) code “3.”

    • B.

      IEX code “4.”

    • C.

      Type cargo code “3.”

    • D.

      Type cargo code “4.”

    Correct Answer
    C. Type cargo code “3.”
    Explanation
    Electrostatic sensitive devices (ESD) are identified on the item record by using the type cargo code "3." This code specifically indicates that the item is an electrostatic sensitive device, allowing for proper handling and precautions to be taken to prevent any damage or malfunction caused by electrostatic discharge.

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  • 21. 

    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code is used to process an electrostatic sensitive device (ESD) on a detail record to maintenance for testing?

    • A.

      Issue (ISU), “E.”

    • B.

      MSI, “E.”

    • C.

      ISU, “C.”

    • D.

      MSI, “C.”

    Correct Answer
    D. MSI, “C.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MSI, "C." This transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code is used to process an electrostatic sensitive device (ESD) on a detail record to maintenance for testing.

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  • 22. 

    What is the framework in which the overall materiel storage space is developed?

    • A.

      Facility design plan.

    • B.

      Facility layout guide.

    • C.

      Warehouse design plan.

    • D.

      Warehouse layout plan.

    Correct Answer
    D. Warehouse layout plan.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Warehouse layout plan." This is because a warehouse layout plan refers to the framework or blueprint that is developed to organize and arrange the overall material storage space within a warehouse. It involves determining the placement of aisles, racks, shelves, and other storage systems to optimize efficiency and maximize storage capacity. The warehouse layout plan helps in streamlining operations, improving inventory management, and ensuring smooth material flow within the facility.

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  • 23. 

    When the physical layout of a storage facility is planned, the total or gross storage space is known as the

    • A.

      Reference point.

    • B.

      Authorization point.

    • C.

      Identification point.

    • D.

      Implementation point.

    Correct Answer
    D. Implementation point.
    Explanation
    The physical layout of a storage facility involves planning the overall storage space. This includes determining the total or gross storage space available for storing items. This is referred to as the implementation point, as it signifies the actual execution of the storage plan and the allocation of space for storage purposes. The other options, such as reference point, authorization point, and identification point, do not accurately describe the concept of the total or gross storage space in a storage facility.

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  • 24. 

    What item storage factor is used when fast-moving items of great demand in locations are easily accessible with as little handling as possible and slow-moving items in less-convenient locations?

    • A.

      Quantity.

    • B.

      Similarity.

    • C.

      Popularity.

    • D.

      Size and weight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Popularity.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is popularity. Popularity is the item storage factor that is used when fast-moving items of great demand in locations are easily accessible with as little handling as possible, while slow-moving items are stored in less-convenient locations. This means that popular items are strategically placed in easily accessible areas to meet the high demand efficiently, while less popular items are stored in less accessible areas to minimize handling and optimize storage space.

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  • 25. 

    When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what item storage factor?

    • A.

      Quantity.

    • B.

      Similarity.

    • C.

      Popularity.

    • D.

      Size and weight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantity.
    Explanation
    When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item's location, you are implementing the quantity item storage factor. This means that you are allocating more space specifically for the quantity of items to ensure that they do not overflow into other locations. By increasing the space, you are accommodating a larger quantity of items in that particular location.

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  • 26. 

    Which warehouse aisle runs the entire length of the warehouse?

    • A.

      Fire.

    • B.

      Main.

    • C.

      Service.

    • D.

      Working.

    Correct Answer
    B. Main.
    Explanation
    The main warehouse aisle is the one that runs the entire length of the warehouse. This aisle is typically the central pathway that allows for easy access to all areas of the warehouse. It is designed to accommodate the movement of equipment, vehicles, and personnel throughout the facility. By running the entire length of the warehouse, the main aisle ensures efficient and convenient navigation, making it the correct answer to the question.

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  • 27. 

    Which warehouse aisle can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse?

    • A.

      Main.

    • B.

      Service.

    • C.

      Working.

    • D.

      Personnel.

    Correct Answer
    D. Personnel.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Personnel. This is because personnel refers to the employees or staff working in the warehouse. If the personnel are not properly trained, monitored, or have access to sensitive areas, they may be more likely to engage in pilferage or theft. Therefore, having inadequate security measures or untrustworthy personnel increases the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse.

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  • 28. 

    The basic resource of any supply and distribution operation is the

    • A.

      Gross space available.

    • B.

      Storage space layout.

    • C.

      Storage space.

    • D.

      Storage plan.

    Correct Answer
    C. Storage space.
    Explanation
    The basic resource of any supply and distribution operation is the storage space. This refers to the physical area where goods are stored and managed. It is essential for organizing and maintaining inventory, ensuring efficient movement of goods, and meeting customer demand. Without sufficient storage space, it would be challenging to store and distribute products effectively, leading to operational inefficiencies and potential disruptions in the supply chain. Therefore, storage space is a critical component in any supply and distribution operation.

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  • 29. 

    The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called

    • A.

      Honeycombing.

    • B.

      Cross stacking.

    • C.

      Mezzanine storage.

    • D.

      Potential vacant space.

    Correct Answer
    A. Honeycombing.
    Explanation
    Honeycombing is the practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space. This term refers to the inefficient use of storage space, where gaps or voids are left between items, resulting in wasted or unused space. It is often used to describe situations where items are not stacked or stored properly, leading to inefficient use of storage capacity.

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  • 30. 

    Which method of storage helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?

    • A.

      First in, last out.

    • B.

      First in, first out.

    • C.

      Stock by serial number.

    • D.

      Stock using national stock number (NSN)

    Correct Answer
    B. First in, first out.
    Explanation
    The method of storage that helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated is "First in, first out." This means that the items that are received or stocked first are the ones that are issued or used first. This method is commonly used in industries where the items have a limited shelf life or where freshness is important, such as in food or pharmaceutical industries. By following the first in, first out method, the risk of items becoming outdated or expired is minimized.

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  • 31. 

    In what class of storage vault is Top Secret materiel stored?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Top Secret material is stored in Class A storage vaults.

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  • 32. 

    What type items have a ready resale value, civilian utility, or application as personal possessions; and, therefore, are subject to theft?

    • A.

      Sensitive items.

    • B.

      Pilferable items.

    • C.

      Protective items

    • D.

      Highly desired items.

    Correct Answer
    B. Pilferable items.
    Explanation
    Pilferable items are the type of items that have a ready resale value, civilian utility, or application as personal possessions, making them desirable targets for theft. These items are easily stolen due to their value and usefulness to individuals, making them more susceptible to being taken without permission or notice.

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  • 33. 

    As a minimum, how often must the combination on combination padlocks be changed for classified storage?

    • A.

      Monthly.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Semiannually.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually.
    Explanation
    The combination on combination padlocks must be changed annually for classified storage. This ensures that the security of the storage is maintained by regularly updating the combination and preventing unauthorized access. Changing the combination on a yearly basis reduces the risk of the combination being compromised or discovered over a longer period of time.

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  • 34. 

    What form must be used to secure all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified materiel?

    • A.

      Standard form (SF) 700.

    • B.

      SF 702.

    • C.

      SF 703.

    • D.

      Air Force Form 701.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard form (SF) 700.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Standard form (SF) 700. This form is used to secure all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified materiel. It provides a record of who has access to the materials and ensures that proper security measures are in place to protect classified information. SF 702 is used for the record of combination locks, SF 703 is used for the record of key locks, and Air Force Form 701 is not the correct form for securing vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for classified materiel storage.

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  • 35. 

    What individual or activity schedules and conducts a warehouse location validation for satellite accounts?

    • A.

      Material Storage and Distribution (MS&D) officer.

    • B.

      Account storage personnel.

    • C.

      Inventory activity.

    • D.

      Accountable officer.

    Correct Answer
    B. Account storage personnel.
    Explanation
    Account storage personnel are responsible for conducting a warehouse location validation for satellite accounts. This involves verifying the accuracy and completeness of the location information for the accounts stored in the warehouse. They ensure that the accounts are properly organized and stored in the correct locations within the warehouse. This validation process helps in maintaining an efficient and organized warehouse system.

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  • 36. 

    All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at least

    • A.

      Monthly.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Semiannually.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually.
    Explanation
    The assigned warehouse locations need to be validated on a yearly basis. This ensures that the locations are still suitable for storing goods and that there are no changes or issues that may impact the efficiency or safety of the warehouse operations. Regular validation helps in identifying any potential problems or improvements that need to be addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 37. 

    What freeze code is loaded to the item record of a warehouse refusal?

    • A.

      C

    • B.

      D

    • C.

      I

    • D.

      Q

    Correct Answer
    C. I
    Explanation
    The freeze code "I" is loaded to the item record of a warehouse refusal.

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  • 38. 

    All copies of a warehouse refused document are forwarded to what materiel management element?

    • A.

      Analysis.

    • B.

      Receiving.

    • C.

      Inventory.

    • D.

      Equipment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Inventory.
    Explanation
    When all copies of a warehouse refused document are forwarded, they are sent to the inventory management element. This element is responsible for managing and tracking the inventory of the warehouse, including handling any refused documents. They will likely review the refused document and take appropriate actions, such as updating inventory records, initiating returns, or resolving any issues related to the refused items.

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  • 39. 

    When controlled items, which are not already specified by an issue exception (IEX) code, are approved by the unit commander in writing to be placed on bench stock, they are assigned IEX code

    • A.

      J

    • B.

      K

    • C.

      M

    • D.

      N

    Correct Answer
    D. N
    Explanation
    When controlled items are approved by the unit commander to be placed on bench stock, they are assigned an IEX code. The IEX code is used to specify the status of the item and determine how it should be managed. In this case, the correct answer is N, indicating that the controlled items approved by the unit commander are assigned IEX code N.

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  • 40. 

    What listing controls the assignment of bench stock item numbers and helps shop personnel locate bench stock items?

    • A.

      M04.

    • B.

      R26.

    • C.

      R31.

    • D.

      S04.

    Correct Answer
    D. S04.
    Explanation
    The listing that controls the assignment of bench stock item numbers and helps shop personnel locate bench stock items is S04.

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  • 41. 

    As a minimum, how often must standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated?

    • A.

      Monthly.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Semiannually.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually.
    Explanation
    Standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels must be validated annually. This means that these data and levels need to be reviewed and verified for accuracy and compliance once every year. This ensures that the SRD data and MRA levels are up to date and reflect the current state of the organization's reporting and reserve requirements. Quarterly, semiannual, and monthly validations would not provide the same level of thoroughness and may result in outdated or incorrect information.

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  • 42. 

    When is the S04 run in item number sequence?

    • A.

      At least annually.

    • B.

      After the M04 is processed.

    • C.

      After each semiannual review.

    • D.

      After items with deviations are added.

    Correct Answer
    C. After each semiannual review.
    Explanation
    The S04 is run in item number sequence after each semiannual review. This suggests that the semiannual review triggers the need for the S04 to be run, and it is done in a sequential order based on item numbers. The other options do not provide a clear trigger or sequence for the S04 run.

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  • 43. 

    What type of inventory is conducted using the closed warehouse method?

    • A.

      Complete.

    • B.

      Special.

    • C.

      Sample.

    • D.

      Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID).

    Correct Answer
    A. Complete.
    Explanation
    The closed warehouse method is a type of inventory that involves physically counting and recording all items in the warehouse. This method ensures that every item in the inventory is accounted for, including those that are stored in closed areas or inaccessible locations. Therefore, the correct answer is "Complete" as it accurately describes the type of inventory conducted using the closed warehouse method.

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  • 44. 

    Which program assigns freeze code “C” to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory?

    • A.

      Supply Point Listing (Q13).

    • B.

      Sample Inventory Program (R17).

    • C.

      Inventory Count File Program (R12).

    • D.

      Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).

    Correct Answer
    C. Inventory Count File Program (R12).
    Explanation
    The Inventory Count File Program (R12) is the program that assigns freeze code "C" to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory. This program is specifically designed to handle inventory counts and updates, allowing for the freezing of item records to prevent any changes or adjustments during the inventory process. Therefore, it is the correct program for assigning the freeze code "C" to all item records specified within the report parameter.

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  • 45. 

    Which option is not an objective of inventory research?

    • A.

      Account for rejected transactions.

    • B.

      Correct warehouse location errors.

    • C.

      Process requisitions when required.

    • D.

      Reverse-post erroneous transactions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Process requisitions when required.
    Explanation
    The option "Process requisitions when required" is not an objective of inventory research because inventory research focuses on tasks such as accounting for rejected transactions, correcting warehouse location errors, and reversing-post erroneous transactions. Processing requisitions is a separate task related to fulfilling specific orders or requests, rather than conducting research on inventory.

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  • 46. 

    To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount (IRC) image contains a recount/research indicator of

    • A.

      “AC.”

    • B.

      “AR.”

    • C.

      “AT.”

    • D.

      “AZ.”

    Correct Answer
    B. “AR.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "AR." The inventory recount (IRC) image contains a recount/research indicator of "AR." This suggests that additional research is needed in relation to the inventory recount.

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  • 47. 

    When researching a physical overage, how far back from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?

    • A.

      18 months.

    • B.

      12 months.

    • C.

      6 months.

    • D.

      3 months.

    Correct Answer
    B. 12 months.
    Explanation
    When researching a physical overage, you need to go back to the last inventory adjustment to determine the cause of the discrepancy. The correct answer is 12 months, which means that you should look at inventory adjustments made within the past year to identify any possible errors or issues that may have caused the overage. Going back 18 months or more may not be necessary as it would include a longer time period with potentially unrelated adjustments. Going back only 6 or 3 months may not provide enough data to accurately analyze the situation.

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  • 48. 

    The type account code for an item to be considered for an automatic adjustment is

    • A.

      B

    • B.

      D

    • C.

      E

    • D.

      X

    Correct Answer
    A. B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B because the question is asking for the type account code for an item to be considered for an automatic adjustment. Since B is the only option given, it must be the correct answer.

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  • 49. 

    The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over a period of how many days?

    • A.

      15.

    • B.

      30.

    • C.

      45.

    • D.

      60.

    Correct Answer
    B. 30.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30. This can be inferred from the information given in the question, which states that the last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over a period of how many days. Since the options provided are 15, 30, 45, and 60, the correct answer must be one of these options. Based on the information given, the number of sample inventories in progress is shown over a period of 30 days. Therefore, the correct answer is 30.

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  • 50. 

    What function is responsible for ensuring that certification and approved signatures are on the original copy of the Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)?

    • A.

      Inventory.

    • B.

      Procedures.

    • C.

      Document Control.

    • D.

      Records Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inventory.
    Explanation
    The function responsible for ensuring that certification and approved signatures are on the original copy of the Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10) is Inventory. This implies that the Inventory department or team is responsible for verifying and validating the accuracy and completeness of the document, including the necessary certifications and signatures.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 21, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Skyy1988
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