2so71 Volume 1 UREs

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2so71 Volume 1 UREs - Quiz

CDCs


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and when required by theExpeditionary Theater Distribution Center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?

    • A.

      JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.

    • B.

      JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.

    • C.

      JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.

    • D.

      JFBMM – Materiel Control.

    Correct Answer
    C. JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is JFBCW - Superintendent Mobility Support. This UTC provides mobility support to the Expeditionary Theater Distribution Center (ETDC) when it is required by the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL). This means that this unit type code is responsible for assisting with the movement and transportation of supplies and equipment to ensure they are readily available where they are needed in the theater of operations.

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  • 2. 

    When does the selection panel convene which is chaired by the 2S career field manager (CFM)?

    • A.

      May/June.

    • B.

      June/July.

    • C.

      July/August.

    • D.

      August/September.

    Correct Answer
    A. May/June.
    Explanation
    The selection panel, which is chaired by the 2S career field manager (CFM), convenes in May/June.

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  • 3. 

    What unit type code (UTC) provides supply expertise during initial beddown at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?What unit type code (UTC) provides supply expertise during initial beddown at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?

    • A.

      JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.

    • B.

      JFBFM – Initial Supply Beddown Package.

    • C.

      JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.

    • D.

      JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.

    Correct Answer
    B. JFBFM – Initial Supply Beddown Package.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is JFBFM - Initial Supply Beddown Package. This unit type code (UTC) is responsible for providing supply expertise during the initial beddown at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL). This UTC ensures that the necessary supplies and materials are available and properly distributed during the establishment of the base or site.

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  • 4. 

    Who notifies the individual by message not later than 30 days after selection?

    • A.

      Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R.

    • B.

      Major Command (MAJCOM)/A4R.

    • C.

      Head Quarters Air Force Personnel Center Materiel Management Functional Manager (HQ AFPC/DPAA).

    • D.

      Air Force Material Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Center (ALC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R.
  • 5. 

    Who coordinates maintenance and supply actions, manage supply transactions for their assigned maintenance activity, manage the production of assets in the repair cycle, resolve supply support problems and report aircraft parts status to maintenance supervision?

    • A.

      Maintenance officer

    • B.

      Maintenance personnel.

    • C.

      Decentralized supply support personnel.

    • D.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance personnel.
    Explanation
    Maintenance personnel are responsible for coordinating maintenance and supply actions, managing supply transactions for their assigned maintenance activity, managing the production of assets in the repair cycle, resolving supply support problems, and reporting aircraft parts status to maintenance supervision.

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  • 6. 

    What is the central, process driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the Expeditionary Logistics for the 21st Century (eLog21) campaign?

    • A.

      Supply Chain Operation (SCO).

    • B.

      Supply Chain Management (SCM).

    • C.

      Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

    • D.

      Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC).
    Explanation
    The central, process driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the Expeditionary Logistics for the 21st Century (eLog21) campaign is the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC). This center is responsible for coordinating and managing the logistics operations of the Air Force, including supply chain management and support for expeditionary missions. It plays a crucial role in ensuring the efficient and effective delivery of logistics support to the Air Force, contributing to the success of the eLog21 campaign.

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  • 7. 

    What are provided for each volume, part and chapter of Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23– 110, USAF Supply Manual?

    • A.

      Table of contents.

    • B.

      Search Tools.

    • C.

      Hyperlinks.

    • D.

      Find Tools.

    Correct Answer
    A. Table of contents.
    Explanation
    The table of contents is provided for each volume, part, and chapter of the Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23-110, USAF Supply Manual. It serves as a guide to help users navigate through the manual and locate specific information they are looking for. By referring to the table of contents, users can easily find the relevant chapters and sections that pertain to their needs, saving time and effort in searching through the entire manual.

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  • 8. 

    What is the Air Mobility Command’s (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supporting Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?

    • A.

      Global Transportation Network (GTN).

    • B.

      Global Decision Support System (GDSS).

    • C.

      Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).

    • D.

      Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).

    Correct Answer
    B. Global Decision Support System (GDSS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Global Decision Support System (GDSS). The GDSS is the Air Mobility Command's force level command and control system that supports the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) in executing authority for effective airlift mission management. It provides decision support tools and capabilities to assist in planning, scheduling, and executing airlift missions. The GDSS helps in coordinating and managing the flow of aircraft, cargo, and personnel to ensure efficient and effective airlift operations.

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  • 9. 

    What is an automated logistics decision support tool which predicts the combat Capabilities of tactical, strategic, and airlift weapon systems for a given set of operations plans, logistics assets, and logistics performance factors?

    • A.

      Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM).

    • B.

      Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS).

    • C.

      Requirement/Execution Availability Logistics Module (REALM).

    • D.

      Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS). This is an automated logistics decision support tool that predicts the combat capabilities of tactical, strategic, and airlift weapon systems based on operations plans, logistics assets, and logistics performance factors. It provides valuable information and analysis to aid in decision-making and resource allocation for effective weapon system management.

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  • 10. 

    1. How often are surveillance visits to all materiel management functions scheduled?

    • A.

      Monthly.

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually
    Explanation
    Surveillance visits to all materiel management functions are scheduled annually. This means that these visits occur once every year. During these visits, the surveillance team assesses the performance and compliance of the materiel management functions. This regular monitoring helps to ensure that the functions are operating effectively and in accordance with established standards and procedures.

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  • 11. 

    Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable officer function?

    • A.

      Check in and out with the flight chief.

    • B.

      Bypass areas that have not had deficiencies within the past three years.

    • C.

      Follow the standard Air Force directive for conducting such a visit.

    • D.

      Submit a written report within 15 workdays of the exit briefing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Check in and out with the flight chief.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Check in and out with the flight chief." This is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable officer function because it ensures proper communication and coordination with the flight chief, who is responsible for overseeing the visit. Checking in and out with the flight chief helps to establish accountability and maintain a record of the visit. This step is important for ensuring that the visit is conducted in a systematic and organized manner.

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  • 12. 

    A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    B. 15
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15. This means that a function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within 15 days of the date on the surveillance report.

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  • 13. 

    Who is the primary point of contact (POC) for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander?

    • A.

      Procedures element.

    • B.

      Customer service.

    • C.

      Computer operations.

    • D.

      Receiving section.

    Correct Answer
    A. Procedures element.
    Explanation
    The primary point of contact (POC) for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander is the Procedures element. This element is responsible for handling and coordinating the various procedures and processes related to materiel management and logistics readiness. They are the go-to team for any special topics or issues that need to be addressed within these areas.

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  • 14. 

    An effective analysis program must be based on

    • A.

      Mission requirements.

    • B.

      Management seminars.

    • C.

      Organizational objectives.

    • D.

      The analysis of operating instructions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Organizational objectives.
    Explanation
    An effective analysis program must be based on organizational objectives because these objectives provide a clear direction and purpose for the analysis. By aligning the analysis program with the organization's goals and objectives, it ensures that the analysis will focus on areas that are most relevant and important to the organization's success. This helps to prioritize resources and efforts, and ensures that the analysis program is contributing to the overall strategic direction of the organization. Additionally, basing the analysis program on organizational objectives helps to gain buy-in and support from key stakeholders, as they can see the direct link between the analysis and the organization's goals.

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  • 15. 

    Stockage effectiveness is the basic measure of

    • A.

      How often an item was requested.

    • B.

      Supply support to the contractor.

    • C.

      Supply support to the customer.

    • D.

      Issue effectiveness.

    Correct Answer
    C. Supply support to the customer.
    Explanation
    Stockage effectiveness is the basic measure of how well a supply system is able to provide support to the customer. It assesses the efficiency and effectiveness of the system in meeting the customer's needs and ensuring that the required items are readily available. This measure is important in evaluating the performance of the supply chain and ensuring that the customer's requirements are met in a timely and efficient manner.

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  • 16. 

    Who must approve the use of credit code “Y’ in the materiel management system program control before processing a stock fund turn-in?

    • A.

      Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager.

    • B.

      Maintenance or supply inspector.

    • C.

      Division SMAG officer.

    • D.

      Accounting and finance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager. This individual is responsible for approving the use of credit code "Y" in the materiel management system program control before processing a stock fund turn-in. The SMAG manager oversees the management and control of supplies and materials within the organization, ensuring that proper procedures and guidelines are followed. They have the authority to approve or deny the use of credit codes to ensure accurate and efficient inventory management.

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  • 17. 

    What product does the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager use to review non-reimbursable issues from the SMAG?

    • A.

      Q07

    • B.

      R01

    • C.

      D18

    • D.

      D20

    Correct Answer
    D. D20
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D20. This means that the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager uses product D20 to review non-reimbursable issues from the SMAG.

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  • 18. 

    Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?

    • A.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron/Commander (LRS/CC).

    • B.

      All Air Force members and employees.

    • C.

      Management and systems flight.

    • D.

      Maintenance officer.

    Correct Answer
    B. All Air Force members and employees.
    Explanation
    All Air Force members and employees will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use. This means that anyone within the Air Force, regardless of their specific role or position, can be held accountable for any harm caused to government property due to their actions or lack of proper care.

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  • 19. 

    What listing shows all rejects cleared by the monitor?

    • A.

      D04

    • B.

      D11

    • C.

      D18

    • D.

      D20

    Correct Answer
    D. D20
    Explanation
    The listing that shows all rejects cleared by the monitor is D20.

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  • 20. 

    Who may force delete rejects using the reject processor program?

    • A.

      Accountable officer.

    • B.

      Reject monitors.

    • C.

      Procedures and Analysis.

    • D.

      Management and system officer

    Correct Answer
    B. Reject monitors.
    Explanation
    Reject monitors may force delete rejects using the reject processor program. They are responsible for monitoring and managing rejected items, and have the authority to delete them from the system if necessary. This task requires their expertise and understanding of the reject processor program to ensure proper handling and resolution of rejected items.

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  • 21. 

    How often is long term performed?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Semiannually.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually.
    Explanation
    Long term is performed once a year, making the correct answer "Annually".

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  • 22. 

    What system prepares data reports for off-base distribution?

    • A.

      Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).

    • B.

      Supply Interface System (SIFS).

    • C.

      ADRSS II.

    • D.

      User.

    Correct Answer
    A. Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).
    Explanation
    ADRSS is the correct answer because it is a system specifically designed to prepare data reports for off-base distribution. The other options, SIFS, ADRSS II, and User, do not have the same functionality or purpose as ADRSS in terms of preparing data reports for off-base distribution. Therefore, ADRSS is the most suitable option for this question.

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  • 23. 

    Who is responsible for evaluating and controlling all incoming Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) from activities that receive discrepant shipments from your materiel management account?

    • A.

      Procedures.

    • B.

      Stock Control.

    • C.

      Receiving.

    • D.

      Inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Procedures.
    Explanation
    Procedures are responsible for evaluating and controlling all incoming Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) from activities that receive discrepant shipments from your materiel management account. This implies that there are specific procedures in place to handle and address any discrepancies in the supply chain. The other options, such as Stock Control, Receiving, and Inspection, may play a role in the process, but Procedures encompass the overall responsibility for evaluating and controlling the SDRs.

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  • 24. 

    A basic ingredient of any analysis program is

    • A.

      Charts.

    • B.

      Opinions.

    • C.

      A database.

    • D.

      Reliable and valid data.

    Correct Answer
    D. Reliable and valid data.
    Explanation
    A basic ingredient of any analysis program is reliable and valid data. This is because without accurate and trustworthy data, any analysis conducted would be flawed and unreliable. Charts can be used to present the data visually, but they are not the fundamental requirement for analysis. Opinions are subjective and can vary from person to person, making them unreliable for analysis. A database is a storage system for data, but it alone does not ensure the quality or accuracy of the data. Therefore, reliable and valid data is essential for any analysis program.

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  • 25. 

    Experience and standards data are factors used in which type of analysis?

    • A.

      Trend

    • B.

      Problem

    • C.

      Important

    • D.

      Performance

    Correct Answer
    A. Trend
    Explanation
    Experience and standards data are factors used in trend analysis. Trend analysis involves examining historical data to identify patterns or trends over a period of time. By analyzing experience and standards data, one can identify and understand the direction and magnitude of any changes that have occurred over time. This analysis helps in making predictions, identifying potential opportunities or issues, and making informed decisions based on past trends.

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  • 26. 

    What provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance community

    • A.

      TRACKER

    • B.

      Propulsion Requirements System (PRS).

    • C.

      Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS).

    • D.

      Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Propulsion Requirements System (PRS).
    Explanation
    The Propulsion Requirements System (PRS) provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance community. This system is specifically designed to handle the engine maintenance needs and requirements, ensuring that the maintenance community has the necessary resources and support to maintain and repair engines effectively. It helps in tracking and managing engine maintenance and provides a comprehensive solution for the maintenance community to meet their engine requirements efficiently.

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  • 27. 

    Which record retrieval code is used to obtain inquiry input on the repair cycle data?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    D. 5
  • 28. 

    What Air Force manual (AFMAN) governs Materiel Management?

    • A.

      36–123, Supply Manual.

    • B.

      23–110, USAF Supply Manual.

    • C.

      36–2108, Enlisted Classification.

    • D.

      23–2308, Material Classification.

    Correct Answer
    B. 23–110, USAF Supply Manual.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 23–110, USAF Supply Manual. This manual governs Materiel Management in the Air Force.

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  • 29. 

    Who is responsible for providing supply support to maintenance activities?

    • A.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).

    • B.

      Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • C.

      Maintenance Officer.

    • D.

      Operations Officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).
    Explanation
    The Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC) is responsible for providing supply support to maintenance activities. They oversee the logistics operations and ensure that the necessary supplies and resources are available for maintenance personnel to carry out their tasks efficiently. The LRS/CC plays a crucial role in coordinating and managing the supply chain to meet the maintenance needs of the organization.

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  • 30. 

    What flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?

    • A.

      Squadron superintendent.

    • B.

      Materiel Management flight.

    • C.

      Deployment and distribution flight.

    • D.

      Vehicle management flight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Deployment and distribution flight.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Deployment and distribution flight. This flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property.

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  • 31. 

    What unit type code (UTC) provides materiel management support to accountable officers, responsible officers, and responsible persons, in the control and accountability of class IX and class VII at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?

    • A.

      JFBME – Superintendent Materiel Mgt Equipment.

    • B.

      JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.

    • C.

      JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.

    • D.

      JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.

    Correct Answer
    A. JFBME – Superintendent Materiel Mgt Equipment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is JFBME - Superintendent Materiel Mgt Equipment. This UTC provides materiel management support to accountable officers, responsible officers, and responsible persons in the control and accountability of class IX and class VII at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL).

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  • 32. 

    Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight is the primary liaison between customers and the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?

    • A.

      Squadron superintendent.

    • B.

      Vehicle management flight.

    • C.

      Materiel Management Flight.

    • D.

      Deployment and Distribution Flight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Materiel Management Flight.
    Explanation
    The Materiel Management Flight is the primary liaison between customers and the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC). This flight is responsible for managing and controlling all aspects of the supply chain, including inventory management, storage, and distribution of equipment and supplies. They work closely with customers to ensure their needs are met and coordinate with the AFGLSC to provide timely and efficient logistics support.

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  • 33. 

    What unit type code (UTC) monitors the overall maintenance and supply interface and resolves supply support problems?

    • A.

      JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.

    • B.

      JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.

    • C.

      JFBSL – Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • D.

      JFBMM – Materiel Control.

    Correct Answer
    C. JFBSL – Maintenance Supply Liaison.
    Explanation
    The correct answer, JFBSL - Maintenance Supply Liaison, is the unit type code (UTC) that monitors the overall maintenance and supply interface and resolves supply support problems. This role involves coordinating and facilitating communication between maintenance and supply personnel to ensure that necessary equipment and materials are available for maintenance activities. The Maintenance Supply Liaison is responsible for identifying and addressing any supply-related issues that may impact maintenance operations.

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  • 34. 

    Who is responsible for the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) unit control center (UCC) and also maintains the squadron’s recall roster?

    • A.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Mobility Support.

    • B.

      Materiel Management Flight.

    • C.

      Squadron Readiness.

    • D.

      Logistics Manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. Squadron Readiness.
    Explanation
    Squadron Readiness is responsible for the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) unit control center (UCC) and also maintains the squadron's recall roster.

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  • 35. 

    Who serves as the materiel management liaison and equipment accountability authority for wing customers?

    • A.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Mobility Support.

    • B.

      Customer Support section.

    • C.

      Squadron Readiness.

    • D.

      Logistics Manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Customer Support section.
    Explanation
    The Customer Support section serves as the materiel management liaison and equipment accountability authority for wing customers. They are responsible for managing and coordinating the procurement, storage, and distribution of equipment and supplies to meet the needs of the customers. They also ensure the proper documentation and tracking of equipment to maintain accountability.

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  • 36. 

    How many functions does the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) perform?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    The Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) performs three functions.

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  • 37. 

    What is an Air Mobility Command air transportation system that supports fixed, deployed, and mobile sites?

    • A.

      Global Transportation Network (GTN).

    • B.

      Global Decision Support System (GDSS).

    • C.

      Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).

    • D.

      Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).

    Correct Answer
    D. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
    Explanation
    The Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) is an air mobility command air transportation system that supports fixed, deployed, and mobile sites. It is responsible for managing and executing air transportation operations worldwide. GATES helps coordinate and track the movement of cargo and personnel, ensuring efficient and timely delivery. It provides real-time visibility and control over air transportation assets, enabling effective planning and execution of missions.

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  • 38. 

    Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
    Explanation
    Category I is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating. This category is used to report critical issues that have a significant impact on the system's functionality and data integrity. These problems can cause system failures, data corruption, and loss of important information. Therefore, category I is the appropriate code for this type of difficulty report.

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  • 39. 

    How often is Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, published?

    • A.

      Annually.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Semi-annually.

    • D.

      Monthly.

    Correct Answer
    B. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    The Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, is published on a quarterly basis. This means that it is released four times a year.

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  • 40. 

    How many primary organizations comprise the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    The Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) is comprised of three primary organizations.

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  • 41. 

    Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    Category II is assigned when a problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records. This means that the problem is significant enough to disrupt the normal functioning of the computer, but it does not result in any data loss or corruption.

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  • 42. 

    If you find deficiencies during a surveillance visit to a function, you must furnish a detailed written report to the flight chief within

    • A.

      15 days after checking in.

    • B.

      Five days after checking in.

    • C.

      15 workdays after the exit briefing

    • D.

      five workdays after the exit briefing.

    Correct Answer
    C. 15 workdays after the exit briefing
    Explanation
    After conducting a surveillance visit to a function and identifying deficiencies, it is necessary to provide a detailed written report to the flight chief. The report should be submitted within 15 workdays after the exit briefing. This timeframe allows for sufficient time to thoroughly document the findings and recommendations from the visit. It also ensures that the report is submitted in a timely manner, enabling the flight chief to take appropriate actions to address the deficiencies identified during the surveillance visit.

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  • 43. 

    A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected

    • A.

      Over the telephone with the materiel management system control center.

    • B.

      On an Air Force suggestion form.

    • C.

      In the next scheduled release.

    • D.

      As workload permits.

    Correct Answer
    C. In the next scheduled release.
    Explanation
    A category III difficulty report (DIREP) is a report that identifies a problem or issue with a particular system or equipment. This type of report does not require immediate action and can be addressed in the next scheduled release. This means that the issue will be fixed and corrected in the next update or release of the system or equipment, rather than being addressed immediately over the telephone or through other means.

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  • 44. 

    Experience and standards data are factors used in which type of analysis?

    • A.

      Trend

    • B.

      Problem

    • C.

      Important

    • D.

      Performance

    Correct Answer
    A. Trend
    Explanation
    Experience and standards data are factors used in trend analysis. Trend analysis involves examining data over a period of time to identify patterns or trends. By analyzing experience and standards data, one can identify the direction and magnitude of a particular trend, such as an increase or decrease in performance or important factors. This analysis helps in understanding the past and predicting future trends, allowing for informed decision-making and planning.

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  • 45. 

    What forms can management indicators take?

    • A.

      Subjective and informational.

    • B.

      Informational and available.

    • C.

      Quantitative or qualitative.

    • D.

      Available or subjective.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quantitative or qualitative.
    Explanation
    Management indicators can take the form of quantitative or qualitative data. Quantitative indicators involve numerical measurements and can be used to track progress, measure performance, and make comparisons. Examples include financial metrics like revenue and profit, as well as key performance indicators (KPIs) such as customer satisfaction ratings or employee productivity. On the other hand, qualitative indicators involve subjective assessments and descriptive information. These indicators provide insights into the quality, effectiveness, or perception of a particular aspect of management. Examples include feedback from customer surveys, employee feedback, or expert opinions. Therefore, management indicators can take the form of either quantitative or qualitative data.

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  • 46. 

    How is a decision normally made on whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of property?

    • A.

      Automatically by the automated general support operating program (AGSOP).

    • B.

      Automatically under the Materiel Management System program control.

    • C.

      Externally by the accountable officer.

    • D.

      Externally by the flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    B. Automatically under the Materiel Management System program control.
    Explanation
    The decision on whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of property is normally made automatically under the Materiel Management System program control. This suggests that the system has predetermined criteria or rules in place to determine when a refund should be given. It is likely that the system takes into account factors such as the condition of the property, the reason for the return, and any applicable policies or regulations. This automated process ensures consistency and efficiency in handling refund requests.

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  • 47. 

    Where are all suspense files of the Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) kept?  

    • A.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

    • B.

      Stock Control.

    • C.

      Receiving.

    • D.

      Inspection.

    Correct Answer
    B. Stock Control.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Stock Control. The suspense files of the Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) are kept in the Stock Control department. This department is responsible for managing and controlling the inventory of supplies, including keeping track of any discrepancies or issues with the supplies. Therefore, it is the appropriate department to hold the suspense files for SDRs.

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  • 48. 

    What can be assessed if it appears that an individual’s actions, or failure to act, constituted negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?

    • A.

      Letter of counseling.

    • B.

      Financial liability.

    • C.

      Letter of reprimand.

    • D.

      Fine.

    Correct Answer
    B. Financial liability.
    Explanation
    If it appears that an individual's actions or failure to act constituted negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use, they may be held financially liable. This means that they may be required to pay for any damages or losses that resulted from their actions or inaction. This is a way to hold individuals accountable and ensure that they take responsibility for their actions. A letter of counseling, letter of reprimand, or fine may also be used in some cases, but the primary focus here is on the financial consequences of the individual's behavior.

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  • 49. 

    Who must review the residue portion of the supply interface system end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?

    • A.

      Accountable officer.Accountable officer.

    • B.

      Individual flight chiefs.

    • C.

      Procedures and accountability.

    • D.

      Management and system officer.

    Correct Answer
    C. Procedures and accountability.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Procedures and accountability." This means that the responsibility for reviewing the residue portion of the supply interface system end-of-day report and ensuring that users clear residue images in a timely manner lies with the procedures and accountability of the organization. It is important for the organization to have proper procedures in place to ensure that residue images are cleared promptly and that there is accountability for this task.

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  • 50. 

    Who maintains accountability by validating all transaction images have processed?

    • A.

      Post post control team (PPCT) Chief.

    • B.

      Procedures and Accountability.

    • C.

      Individual flight chiefs.

    • D.

      PPCT member.

    Correct Answer
    A. Post post control team (PPCT) Chief.
    Explanation
    The Post post control team (PPCT) Chief maintains accountability by validating all transaction images have processed. This means that the PPCT Chief is responsible for ensuring that all transaction images have been successfully processed and accounted for. They are in charge of overseeing the post post control team and ensuring that all procedures and accountability measures are followed. The PPCT Chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the accuracy and integrity of the transaction processing system.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 07, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Skyy1988
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