Cardiac Pharmacology Practice Test: Quiz!

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Cardiac Pharmacology Practice Test: Quiz! - Quiz

Are you familiar with cardiac pharmacology? Treatment of cardiovascular disease often involves the administration of certain medications for a prolonged period for those who are suffering from a wide range of conditions. Cardiovascular illnesses include heart disease, arrhythmias, and hypertension. It is the most common cause of death in the Western World. This quiz is top-notch and informative. Good luck with the quiz.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is a myocardial infarction?

    • A.

      Ischemic heart disease -episodic oxygen insufficiency

    • B.

      Prolonged restricted of oxygen to heart, leading to necrosis of that tissue

    • C.

      Blockage of major arteries

    Correct Answer
    B. Prolonged restricted of oxygen to heart, leading to necrosis of that tissue
    Explanation
    A myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when there is a prolonged restriction of oxygen to the heart, which ultimately leads to the death of heart tissue. This restriction can be caused by blockage of major arteries supplying blood to the heart.

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  • 2. 

    Helps to delay the transmission of impulses from fibers to allow for the atria to completely contract and empty all blood into the ventricles before ventricular contraction.

    • A.

      Sinoatrial node

    • B.

      Bundle of His

    • C.

      Atrioventricular node

    • D.

      Purkinje Fibers

    Correct Answer
    C. Atrioventricular node
    Explanation
    The atrioventricular (AV) node is responsible for delaying the transmission of impulses from fibers. This delay allows the atria to fully contract and empty all blood into the ventricles before ventricular contraction begins. By delaying the transmission, the AV node ensures that the atria and ventricles are in sync, allowing for efficient pumping of blood throughout the body.

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  • 3. 

    Also known as the Atrioventricular bundle, in the septum that divides left and right bundles beneath the endocardium, impulses travel down these fibers and allow two ventricles to contract at the same time.

    • A.

      Sinoatrial node

    • B.

      Bundle of His

    • C.

      Atrioventricular node

    • D.

      Purkinje Fibers

    Correct Answer
    B. Bundle of His
    Explanation
    The Bundle of His, also known as the atrioventricular bundle, is a group of specialized fibers located in the septum that divides the left and right ventricles of the heart. These fibers are found beneath the endocardium. The main function of the Bundle of His is to transmit electrical impulses from the atrioventricular node to the ventricles. These impulses allow for coordinated and synchronized contraction of the ventricles, ensuring efficient pumping of blood out of the heart.

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  • 4. 

    In the right atrium of the heart, initiates one impulse after another- the pacemaker of the heart.

    • A.

      Sinoatrial node

    • B.

      Bundle of His

    • C.

      Atrioventricular node

    • D.

      Purkinje Fibers

    Correct Answer
    A. Sinoatrial node
    Explanation
    The sinoatrial node, located in the right atrium of the heart, is responsible for initiating electrical impulses that regulate the heart's rhythm. These impulses cause the heart muscles to contract and pump blood. It acts as the pacemaker of the heart because it sets the pace for the rest of the heart's electrical system. The sinoatrial node generates regular impulses, which then travel through the atria and stimulate the atrioventricular node, Bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers, ultimately leading to coordinated contractions of the heart chambers.

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  • 5. 

    Past the septum, gives many small branches that become continuous with cardiac muscle fibers to innervate the rest of the heart.

    • A.

      Sinoatrial node

    • B.

      Bundle of His

    • C.

      Atrioventricular node

    • D.

      Purkinje Fibers

    Correct Answer
    D. Purkinje Fibers
    Explanation
    Purkinje fibers are specialized cardiac muscle fibers that are responsible for transmitting electrical impulses throughout the heart. These fibers extend past the septum and branch out to innervate the rest of the heart, allowing for coordinated contraction and efficient pumping of blood. Unlike the sinoatrial node, bundle of His, and atrioventricular node, which are involved in initiating and regulating the heartbeat, the Purkinje fibers play a crucial role in conducting the electrical signals to ensure synchronized contraction of the heart muscle.

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  • 6. 

    The most common form occurs during exertion, emotional stress, indigestion due to excessive eating, which can be relieved by nitroglycerin and rest.

    • A.

      Classical ( stable angina)

    • B.

      Variant or vasospastic Angina

    • C.

      Unstable angina

    Correct Answer
    A. Classical ( stable angina)
    Explanation
    Classical (stable angina) is the most common form of angina and it typically occurs during exertion, emotional stress, or indigestion due to excessive eating. It can be relieved by nitroglycerin and rest. This type of angina is characterized by predictable chest pain that occurs when the heart is working harder and needs more oxygen. It is usually caused by a blockage or narrowing of the coronary arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart.

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  • 7. 

    Caused by significant CAD- occurs at rest and decreased response to rest or nitroglycerine, precedes MI.

    • A.

      Classical ( stable angina)

    • B.

      Variant or vasospastic Angina

    • C.

      Unstable angina

    Correct Answer
    C. Unstable angina
    Explanation
    Unstable angina is the correct answer because it is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest and is not relieved by rest or nitroglycerine. This type of angina is caused by significant coronary artery disease (CAD) and is often a warning sign that a myocardial infarction (MI) may be imminent.

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  • 8. 

    Due to arterial spasms because of an obstruction in a coronary artery- occurs at rest rather than exertion.

    • A.

      Classical ( stable angina)

    • B.

      Variant or vasospastic Angina

    • C.

      Unstable angina

    Correct Answer
    B. Variant or vasospastic Angina
    Explanation
    Variant or vasospastic angina occurs due to arterial spasms caused by an obstruction in a coronary artery. This type of angina typically occurs at rest rather than during exertion. Unlike classical (stable) angina, which is triggered by physical activity or stress, variant angina is caused by the constriction of the coronary arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart. This can result in chest pain or discomfort. Unstable angina, on the other hand, is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion and is considered more severe and unpredictable than stable angina.

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  • 9. 

    What are the reasons for an acute MI?

    • A.

      High consumption of fatty foods

    • B.

      Sendentary lifestyle

    • C.

      Increased oxygen than heart cant provide

    • D.

      Decreased flow of oxygen rich blood

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. High consumption of fatty foods
    B. Sendentary lifestyle
    C. Increased oxygen than heart cant provide
    D. Decreased flow of oxygen rich blood
    Explanation
    The given answer lists four possible reasons for an acute MI (Myocardial Infarction). High consumption of fatty foods can lead to the build-up of plaque in the arteries, which can eventually block blood flow to the heart. A sedentary lifestyle can contribute to obesity and high blood pressure, both of which are risk factors for MI. Increased oxygen demand that the heart cannot provide can occur during physical exertion or stress, leading to an imbalance between oxygen supply and demand. Decreased flow of oxygen-rich blood can result from a blockage or narrowing of the coronary arteries, preventing adequate blood flow to the heart muscle.

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  • 10. 

    Rate of cardiac muscle contraction.

    • A.

      Lustitrophy

    • B.

      Dromotrophy

    • C.

      Chronotrophy

    • D.

      Inotrophy

    Correct Answer
    C. Chronotrophy
    Explanation
    Chronotrophy refers to the regulation of the heart rate. It involves the modulation of the rate of cardiac muscle contraction. Therefore, chronotrophy is the correct term to describe the rate of cardiac muscle contraction.

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  • 11. 

    Force of muscle contraction.

    • A.

      Lustitrophy

    • B.

      Dromotrophy

    • C.

      Chronotrophy

    • D.

      Inotrophy

    Correct Answer
    D. Inotrophy
    Explanation
    Inotrophy refers to the force of muscle contraction. It is a term used to describe the ability of the heart or other muscles to contract with greater force. It is often used in the context of cardiac function, where inotropic agents can increase the force of contraction of the heart muscle. Inotropy is important for maintaining proper cardiac output and overall muscle function.

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  • 12. 

    Conduction velocity of the AV node and rate of electrical impulses in heart.

    • A.

      Lustitrophy

    • B.

      Dromotrophy

    • C.

      Chronotrophy

    • D.

      Inotrophy

    Correct Answer
    B. Dromotrophy
    Explanation
    Dromotrophy refers to the conduction velocity of the AV node and the rate of electrical impulses in the heart. It is the correct answer because it specifically relates to the conduction velocity and electrical impulses in the AV node. Lustitrophy, chronotrophy, and inotrophy do not specifically pertain to the conduction velocity of the AV node and rate of electrical impulses in the heart.

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  • 13. 

    Myocardial relaxation.

    • A.

      Lustitrophy

    • B.

      Dromotrophy

    • C.

      Chronotrophy

    • D.

      Inotrophy

    Correct Answer
    A. Lustitrophy
  • 14. 

    For the treatment of MI, one of these drugs decreases heart rate by the sympathetic nervous system and prevents the development of angina pectoris. Reduces cardiac output by blocking beta and epinephrine.

    • A.

      Calcium Channel blockers

    • B.

      Beta Adrenergic blockers

    • C.

      Nitroglycerin

    • D.

      Morphine sulfate

    • E.

      IV drug

    Correct Answer
    B. Beta Adrenergic blockers
    Explanation
    Beta adrenergic blockers are the correct answer because they decrease heart rate by blocking the action of epinephrine and norepinephrine on the beta receptors in the sympathetic nervous system. This action helps to reduce the workload on the heart and prevent the development of angina pectoris. Additionally, beta blockers can also reduce cardiac output by blocking the beta receptors in the heart, which leads to a decrease in contractility. This makes beta blockers an effective treatment option for myocardial infarction (MI). Calcium channel blockers, nitroglycerin, and morphine sulfate may also be used in the treatment of MI, but they do not specifically decrease heart rate by blocking the sympathetic nervous system like beta blockers do.

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  • 15. 

    For the treatment of MI, one of these drugs decreases the heart workload by dilating blood vessels, increasing cardiac oxygen demand in stable angina. Alleviates chest pain by improving blood flow.

    • A.

      Calcium Channel blockers

    • B.

      Beta Adrenergic blockers

    • C.

      Nitroglycerin

    • D.

      Morphine sulfate

    • E.

      IV drug

    Correct Answer
    C. Nitroglycerin
    Explanation
    Nitroglycerin is the correct answer because it is a vasodilator that works by relaxing and widening blood vessels, which reduces the workload on the heart and improves blood flow. This medication is commonly used to treat stable angina and can alleviate chest pain by increasing the supply of oxygen to the heart muscle.

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  • 16. 

    What's the name of a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks both beta 1 and 2 receptors, reduces force of contraction and heart rate- used to treat tachycardia, hypertension and prevent MI?

    Correct Answer
    Propranolol
    Inderal
    Explanation
    Propranolol, also known as Inderal, is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks both beta 1 and 2 receptors. It reduces the force of contraction and heart rate, making it effective in treating conditions such as tachycardia and hypertension. It is also used to prevent myocardial infarction (MI).

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  • 17. 

    For the treatment of MI, which one of these drugs FALLS UNDER THE CATEGORY that relies on the principle that calcium needs to move from extracellular space into intracellular space to create cardiac contractions. This type of drug blocks the calcium channels that are especially concentrated in the SA node and AV node this effect and smooth the cardiac muscles, causing dilation of the blood vessels. Used to treat angina and lower BP.

    • A.

      Inderal

    • B.

      Propranolol

    • C.

      Verapamil ( calan, isoptin)

    • D.

      Phenytoin

    • E.

      Lidocaine

    Correct Answer
    C. Verapamil ( calan, isoptin)
    Explanation
    Verapamil (calan, isoptin) falls under the category of drugs that rely on the principle that calcium needs to move from the extracellular space into the intracellular space to create cardiac contractions. This drug blocks the calcium channels that are especially concentrated in the SA node and AV node, which results in the smoothing of cardiac muscles and dilation of blood vessels. Verapamil is commonly used to treat angina and lower blood pressure.

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  • 18. 

    For the treatment of MI, one of these drugs slows down the conduction of the AV node and causes depression of the myocardial contractility and causes dilation of coronary arteries. Also, the side effects include dizziness, sleepiness, headache, peripheral edema, hypotension, nausea, constipation.

    • A.

      Inderal

    • B.

      Propranolol

    • C.

      Verapamil ( calan, isoptin)

    • D.

      Phenytoin

    • E.

      Lidocaine

    Correct Answer
    C. Verapamil ( calan, isoptin)
    Explanation
    Verapamil (calan, isoptin) is the correct answer because it is a calcium channel blocker that slows down the conduction of the AV node, leading to a decrease in heart rate and contractility. It also causes dilation of coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart. The mentioned side effects such as dizziness, sleepiness, headache, peripheral edema, hypotension, nausea, and constipation are commonly associated with the use of verapamil.

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  • 19. 

    What are the side effects of Propranolol?

    • A.

      Constipation

    • B.

      Hypertension

    • C.

      Hypotension

    • D.

      Bradycardia

    • E.

      Diminished sex drive

    • F.

      Decreased renin secretion

    • G.

      Peripheral edema

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Hypotension
    D. Bradycardia
    E. Diminished sex drive
    F. Decreased renin secretion
    Explanation
    Propranolol is a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, migraines, and anxiety. One of the main side effects of Propranolol is hypotension, which refers to low blood pressure. This can cause dizziness, lightheadedness, and fainting. Another side effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. This can result in fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Propranolol can also lead to diminished sex drive, causing a decrease in sexual desire or performance. Additionally, it can decrease renin secretion, which can affect kidney function.

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  • 20. 

    What are the side effects of Verapamil?

    • A.

      Constipation

    • B.

      Hypertension

    • C.

      Hypotension

    • D.

      Bradycardia

    • E.

      Diminished sex drive

    • F.

      Decreased renin secretion

    • G.

      Peripheral edema

    • H.

      Nausea

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Constipation
    C. Hypotension
    G. Peripheral edema
    H. Nausea
    Explanation
    Verapamil is a medication used to treat high blood pressure, angina, and certain heart rhythm disorders. It belongs to a class of drugs called calcium channel blockers. The side effects listed in the answer are common side effects of Verapamil. Constipation is a possible side effect due to the medication's effect on smooth muscle in the intestines. Hypotension refers to low blood pressure, which can occur as Verapamil relaxes and widens the blood vessels. Peripheral edema is the swelling of the extremities, such as the legs and feet, caused by fluid retention. Nausea is another potential side effect of Verapamil.

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  • 21. 

    For the treatment of dysrhythmias, which drug is approved for atrial fibrillation ( irregular contractions of individual muscular fibers of atria or ventricles) - decreases myocardium and conduction system, decreases the contractile force of heart rate. works by blocking fast inward sodium current.

    • A.

      Inderal

    • B.

      Quinidine

    • C.

      Lidocaine

    • D.

      Phenytoin

    • E.

      Procainamide

    Correct Answer
    B. Quinidine
    Explanation
    Quinidine is the correct answer because it is a drug that is approved for the treatment of atrial fibrillation. It works by blocking the fast inward sodium current, which helps to decrease the irregular contractions of the atria or ventricles. Additionally, Quinidine also decreases the contractile force of the heart rate and affects the myocardium and conduction system. Therefore, Quinidine is the appropriate drug for treating dysrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation.

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  • 22. 

    For the treatment of dysrhythmias, which drug blocks potassium ion channels as WELL as sodium ion channels. Prolongs the resting phase of heart contractions and the refractory period. Used for patients in atrial dysrhythmias.

    • A.

      Amoidarone

    • B.

      Quinidine

    • C.

      Lidocaine

    • D.

      Phenytoin

    • E.

      Procainamide

    Correct Answer
    A. Amoidarone
    Explanation
    Amiodarone is the correct answer because it blocks both potassium ion channels and sodium ion channels. By blocking these channels, amiodarone prolongs the resting phase of heart contractions and the refractory period. This helps to regulate the heart's rhythm and is effective in treating dysrhythmias, particularly atrial dysrhythmias.

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  • 23. 

    Which drug causes the Smurf Syndrome where after long term administration of the drug causes blue-gray discoloration of skin?

    • A.

      Amoidarone

    • B.

      Quinidine

    • C.

      Lidocaine

    • D.

      Phenytoin

    • E.

      Procainamide

    Correct Answer
    A. Amoidarone
    Explanation
    Amiodarone is the correct answer because it is a medication used to treat certain types of irregular heartbeats. Prolonged use of amiodarone can lead to a condition called Smurf Syndrome, where the skin turns blue-gray in color. This discoloration occurs due to the deposition of amiodarone and its metabolites in the skin, causing a change in pigmentation. Other drugs listed in the options do not cause this specific side effect.

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  • 24. 

    Which drugs are used for Dysarthymias?

    • A.

      Quinidine

    • B.

      Lidocaine

    • C.

      Pheyntoin

    • D.

      Propanolol

    • E.

      Procainamide

    • F.

      Verapamil

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Quinidine
    B. Lidocaine
    C. Pheyntoin
    D. Propanolol
    E. Procainamide
    F. Verapamil
    Explanation
    The drugs Quinidine, Lidocaine, Phenytoin, Propranolol, Procainamide, and Verapamil are used for Dysarthymias. These medications are commonly prescribed to treat dysarthria, a condition characterized by difficulty in controlling the muscles used for speech. Quinidine, Lidocaine, Phenytoin, Propranolol, Procainamide, and Verapamil help in managing the symptoms of dysarthria and improving speech clarity.

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  • 25. 

    What's it called when you must perform a combination of manual defibrillation & cardiac drugs like epinephrine and atropine?

    Correct Answer(s)
    ACLS
    Cold blue
    Explanation
    ACLS stands for Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support, which is a protocol used in emergency situations where a combination of manual defibrillation and cardiac drugs like epinephrine and atropine are required. Cold blue, on the other hand, is not a term used in medical context and does not relate to the given question.

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  • 26. 

    Which drug treats cardiac arrests and dysthmiyas by increasing the peripheral resistance via the alpha 1 adrenoreceptor vasoconstriction, so the blood is shunted to the body's core.

    Correct Answer(s)
    Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Epinephrine is a drug that is used to treat cardiac arrests and dysthymias by increasing peripheral resistance through alpha 1 adrenoreceptor vasoconstriction. This vasoconstriction causes blood to be shunted to the body's core, improving blood flow to vital organs and increasing blood pressure. Epinephrine is a sympathomimetic drug that mimics the effects of the sympathetic nervous system, leading to increased heart rate and contractility, bronchodilation, and vasoconstriction.

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  • 27. 

    Which drug is a competitive antagonist for the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor used to treat bradycardia, asystole, and pulseless electrical activity in cardiac arrest? It blocks the action of the PNS( mean to slow it down) and thus speeds up the heart rate.

    Correct Answer(s)
    Atropine
    Explanation
    Atropine is a competitive antagonist for the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor. It is used to treat bradycardia, asystole, and pulseless electrical activity in cardiac arrest. Atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for slowing down the heart rate. By blocking the PNS, atropine speeds up the heart rate, helping to restore normal cardiac function in emergency situations.

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  • 28. 

    What is normal blood pressure?

    Correct Answer(s)
    120/80
    Explanation
    Normal blood pressure is typically defined as 120/80, which represents the systolic pressure over the diastolic pressure. The systolic pressure is the force exerted on the walls of the arteries when the heart beats, while the diastolic pressure is the force when the heart is at rest between beats. A blood pressure reading of 120/80 is considered normal because it falls within the range of healthy blood pressure values.

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  • 29. 

    What is prehypertensive range?

    Correct Answer(s)
    120/80 to 140/90
    Explanation
    The prehypertensive range refers to blood pressure readings that are slightly higher than normal but not yet considered to be in the hypertensive range. This range is typically defined as having a systolic blood pressure (top number) between 120 and 140 mmHg and a diastolic blood pressure (bottom number) between 80 and 90 mmHg. It serves as a warning sign that blood pressure levels are elevated and may indicate an increased risk for developing hypertension if not properly managed.

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  • 30. 

    What is the range of BP that is called hypertension?

    Correct Answer(s)
    over 140/90
    Explanation
    Hypertension, commonly known as high blood pressure, is diagnosed when the blood pressure readings consistently measure above 140/90 mmHg. This means that the systolic pressure (top number) is over 140 mmHg and the diastolic pressure (bottom number) is over 90 mmHg. These elevated readings indicate that the force of blood against the artery walls is higher than normal, which can lead to various health complications if left untreated. Therefore, any blood pressure measurement exceeding 140/90 mmHg is considered hypertension.

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  • 31. 

    What is the volume of blood pumped out of heart per min.

    • A.

      Cardiac output

    • B.

      Stroke volume

    • C.

      Blood volume

    • D.

      Blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac output
    Explanation
    The volume of blood pumped out of the heart per minute is referred to as cardiac output. It is a measure of the efficiency of the heart in pumping blood throughout the body. Cardiac output is determined by multiplying the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each beat) by the heart rate (the number of heartbeats per minute). Therefore, cardiac output is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 32. 

    What is the pressure created by the pumping action of the heart from one vessel to the next?

    • A.

      Cardiac output

    • B.

      Stroke volume

    • C.

      Blood volume

    • D.

      Blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    D. Blood pressure
    Explanation
    The pressure created by the pumping action of the heart from one vessel to the next is known as blood pressure. Blood pressure is the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels. It is measured in millimeters of mercury (mmHg) and consists of two values - systolic pressure (when the heart contracts) and diastolic pressure (when the heart relaxes). Blood pressure is an important indicator of cardiovascular health and can be influenced by factors such as heart rate, blood volume, and the elasticity of blood vessels.

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  • 33. 

    What is the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per each contraction?

    • A.

      Cardiac output

    • B.

      Stroke volume

    • C.

      Blood volume

    • D.

      Blood presure

    Correct Answer
    B. Stroke volume
    Explanation
    The amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per each contraction is known as stroke volume. It represents the volume of blood ejected from the ventricle with each heartbeat. Cardiac output refers to the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, while blood volume refers to the total amount of blood in the body. Blood pressure, on the other hand, is the force exerted by circulating blood on the walls of blood vessels.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 09, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Persianpride18
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