Cardiac Pharmacology Hardest Quiz: Trivia!

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Cardiac Pharmacology Hardest Quiz: Trivia! - Quiz

How much do you know about cardiac pharmacology? Cardiac pharmacological resources are used to prevent and treat cardiac conditions which affect blood pressure, stypsis, and intromission of blood throughout the vascular system. It requires nonstop learning for healthcare providers, nurses, and staff participating in patient care with a cardiac diagnosis. Cardiac pharmacology also necessitates prescribing certain medications to treat the disorder, and this quiz can be a lifesaver if you need to know about cardiac pharmacology.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What happens when you stimulate beta 1 receptors?

    • A.

      Bronchodilation

    • B.

      Urinary retention

    • C.

      Increase HR, increase AV conduction velocity & increase force of contraction

    • D.

      Stimulation decreases further norepinephrine release

    Correct Answer
    C. Increase HR, increase AV conduction velocity & increase force of contraction
    Explanation
    Stimulating beta 1 receptors leads to an increase in heart rate (HR), an increase in atrioventricular (AV) conduction velocity, and an increase in the force of contraction. This means that when beta 1 receptors are stimulated, the heart beats faster, the electrical signals between the atria and ventricles are conducted more quickly, and the strength of the heart's contractions is enhanced. This response is important for increasing cardiac output and maintaining adequate blood flow throughout the body.

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  • 2. 

    What happens when you stimulate alpha 2 receptors?  

    • A.

      Decreases further norepinephrine release

    • B.

      Urinary retention, pupil dilation, vasoconstriction in vessels of skin, mucous membranes & most organs

    • C.

      Increase HR, AV velocity conduction, and force of contraction

    • D.

      Relaxation of uterine muscles

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreases further norepinephrine release
    Explanation
    Stimulating alpha 2 receptors leads to a decrease in the release of norepinephrine. This means that less norepinephrine is released into the body, which can have various effects. These effects include urinary retention, pupil dilation, vasoconstriction in vessels of the skin, mucous membranes, and most organs. On the other hand, stimulating alpha 2 receptors does not increase heart rate, AV velocity conduction, or force of contraction. Additionally, it does not cause relaxation of uterine muscles.

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  • 3. 

    What happens when you stimulate the beta 2 receptors?  

    • A.

      Decrease further norepinephrine release

    • B.

      Increase liver sugar production, vasodilation in vessels of skeletal muscles, lungs, & heart, relaxation of uterine muscles

    • C.

      Urinary retention

    • D.

      Increase HR, AV conduction velocity & force of contraction

    Correct Answer
    B. Increase liver sugar production, vasodilation in vessels of skeletal muscles, lungs, & heart, relaxation of uterine muscles
    Explanation
    Stimulating the beta 2 receptors leads to an increase in liver sugar production, vasodilation in vessels of skeletal muscles, lungs, and heart, as well as relaxation of uterine muscles. This means that when these receptors are stimulated, the body increases the production of sugar in the liver, which can provide a quick source of energy. Additionally, the blood vessels in skeletal muscles, lungs, and heart widen, allowing for increased blood flow and oxygen delivery to these areas. Finally, the muscles of the uterus relax, which can be beneficial during childbirth.

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  • 4. 

    What happens when you stimulate the alpha 1 receptors?

    • A.

      Increase in HR, AV conduction velocity & force of contraction

    • B.

      Bronchodilation

    • C.

      Pupil dilation, urinary retention

    • D.

      Decrease further release of norepinephrine

    Correct Answer
    C. Pupil dilation, urinary retention
    Explanation
    Stimulation of alpha 1 receptors causes pupil dilation and urinary retention. Alpha 1 receptors are located in the smooth muscle of the iris and the urinary bladder. Activation of these receptors leads to contraction of the radial muscle of the iris, causing pupil dilation. It also causes contraction of the smooth muscle in the urinary bladder, leading to urinary retention.

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  • 5. 

    What is the antidote for insecticide/pesticide/nerve gas poisoning?  

    • A.

      2-PAM & atropine

    • B.

      2-PAM & bethanecol

    • C.

      Donepezil & 2-PAM

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-PAM & atropine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2-PAM & atropine. 2-PAM (pralidoxime) is an antidote that reactivates the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which is inhibited by insecticides, pesticides, and nerve gases. Atropine is used to block the effects of excessive acetylcholine, which is released due to the poisoning. Together, these two drugs help to counteract the effects of insecticide/pesticide/nerve gas poisoning.

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  • 6. 

    Tachycardia is an anticholinergic side effect.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Tachycardia refers to an abnormally fast heart rate. Anticholinergic side effects are known to cause an increase in heart rate. Therefore, it can be concluded that tachycardia is indeed an anticholinergic side effect.

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  • 7. 

    Salivation & diarrhea are anticholinergic side effects.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Salivation and diarrhea are not anticholinergic side effects. Anticholinergic side effects typically include dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention. Salivation and diarrhea are more commonly associated with increased cholinergic activity. Therefore, the answer is false.

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  • 8. 

    What disease would you use a muscarinic antagonist to treat?    

    • A.

      Alzheimers

    • B.

      HTN

    • C.

      GERD

    • D.

      Diarrhea

    Correct Answer
    D. Diarrhea
    Explanation
    A muscarinic antagonist is a type of medication that blocks the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that stimulates smooth muscle contractions. Diarrhea is characterized by excessive and uncontrolled bowel movements, often caused by increased intestinal motility. By inhibiting the effects of acetylcholine, a muscarinic antagonist can help reduce intestinal motility and slow down the frequency of bowel movements, making it an appropriate treatment for diarrhea.

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  • 9. 

    Adrenergic Agonists may cause reflex bradycardia with increased blood pressure.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Adrenergic agonists are drugs that stimulate the adrenergic receptors in the sympathetic nervous system, leading to an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. However, this increase in blood pressure can trigger a reflex response in the body, causing the heart rate to slow down, resulting in bradycardia. Therefore, it is true that adrenergic agonists may cause reflex bradycardia with increased blood pressure.

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  • 10. 

    What is theof  goal BP in patients with a prior MI?  

    • A.

    • B.

    • C.

    • D.

    Correct Answer
    B.
  • 11. 

    What is the goal of BP in patients with no comorbid conditions?  

    • A.

    • B.

    • C.

    • D.

    Correct Answer
    A.
    Explanation
    The goal of BP (blood pressure) in patients with no comorbid conditions is to maintain their blood pressure within the normal range. This is important for overall cardiovascular health and to prevent the development of hypertension-related complications such as heart disease, stroke, and kidney problems. Keeping blood pressure within the normal range reduces the risk of these complications and promotes optimal health in patients without any other underlying medical conditions.

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  • 12. 

    Abrupt withdraw of clonidine can cause rebound HTN.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Abrupt withdrawal of clonidine, a medication used to treat high blood pressure, can lead to rebound hypertension. This means that suddenly stopping the medication can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, potentially to dangerous levels. It is important for individuals taking clonidine to gradually reduce their dosage under the guidance of a healthcare professional to avoid this rebound effect.

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  • 13. 

    Cardiac doses of ASA are associated with increased blood pressure, fluid retention, and renal impairment.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Cardiac doses of ASA are not associated with increased blood pressure, fluid retention, and renal impairment. ASA, also known as aspirin, is commonly used for its anti-inflammatory and analgesic properties. However, at higher doses, it can cause adverse effects such as gastrointestinal bleeding and ulcers. While ASA may have some cardiovascular benefits at lower doses, it is not typically associated with the mentioned side effects at cardiac doses. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 14. 

    Prazosin is 

    • A.

      Alpha 1 blocker

    • B.

      Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist

    • C.

      Cardioselective beta 1 blocker

    • D.

      Non-selective beta blocker

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha 1 blocker
    Explanation
    Prazosin is classified as an alpha 1 blocker. Alpha 1 blockers work by blocking the alpha 1 adrenergic receptors, which are found in smooth muscle tissues of blood vessels. By blocking these receptors, prazosin causes the blood vessels to relax and dilate, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. This class of drugs is commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

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  • 15. 

    Which are the key drugs for managing hypertension?  

    • A.

      ARB's

    • B.

      Beta Blockers

    • C.

      ACE-Inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    C. ACE-Inhibitors
    Explanation
    ACE-Inhibitors are key drugs for managing hypertension because they work by blocking the action of an enzyme called angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which is responsible for the production of a hormone called angiotensin II. Angiotensin II causes blood vessels to constrict and promotes the release of another hormone called aldosterone, which increases blood pressure. By inhibiting ACE, ACE-Inhibitors help to relax and widen blood vessels, reducing blood pressure and improving blood flow. They are commonly prescribed as a first-line treatment for hypertension and have been shown to be effective in reducing cardiovascular events and mortality rates in patients with hypertension.

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  • 16. 

    Which CCB does not have negative inotropic effects?  

    • A.

      Amlodipine

    • B.

      Diltiazem

    • C.

      Felodipine

    Correct Answer
    A. Amlodipine
    Explanation
    Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker (CCB) that does not have negative inotropic effects. Negative inotropic effects refer to the ability of a drug to decrease the strength of the heart's contractions. Amlodipine works by blocking calcium channels in the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels, leading to vasodilation and reduced peripheral resistance. It does not significantly affect cardiac contractility, making it a suitable choice for patients with heart conditions who need blood pressure control without compromising cardiac function. Diltiazem and felodipine, on the other hand, are CCBs that can have negative inotropic effects.

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  • 17. 

    When prescribing a test dose of an ACE-I, which drug do you use?  

    • A.

      Lisinopril

    • B.

      Enalapril

    • C.

      Ramipril

    • D.

      Captopril

    Correct Answer
    D. Captopril
    Explanation
    When prescribing a test dose of an ACE-I, captopril is used. This is because captopril is a short-acting ACE inhibitor that can be easily titrated and has a rapid onset of action. It is commonly used for diagnostic purposes to assess the potential adverse effects of ACE inhibitors, such as hypotension or angioedema, before initiating long-term therapy with other ACE inhibitors like lisinopril, enalapril, or ramipril.

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  • 18. 

    ACE-I should not be given to patients with renal failure.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    False. ACE-I (angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors) should not be given to patients with severe renal failure, but they can be used with caution in patients with mild to moderate renal impairment. ACE-I can help manage hypertension and reduce proteinuria in patients with renal disease. However, close monitoring of renal function and electrolytes is necessary when using ACE-I in these patients.

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  • 19. 

    All CCB, but especially verapamil cause constipation.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Verapamil is a type of calcium channel blocker (CCB) medication commonly used to treat high blood pressure and chest pain. Constipation is a known side effect of CCBs, including verapamil. Therefore, it is true that all CCBs, but especially verapamil, can cause constipation.

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  • 20. 

    Spironolactone can cause hypokalemia.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Spironolactone is a medication commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure and heart failure. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium instead of excreting it through urine. Therefore, it does not cause hypokalemia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. Hence, the statement that Spironolactone can cause hypokalemia is false.

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  • 21. 

    Furosemide is a loop diuretic.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Furosemide is indeed a loop diuretic. Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, work by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the loop of Henle in the kidneys. This leads to increased excretion of water and electrolytes, resulting in diuresis. Furosemide is commonly used to treat conditions such as edema and hypertension.

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  • 22. 

    Which drugs can cause dehydration, hypokalemia & electrolyte imbalance?  

    • A.

      Furosemide & spironolactone

    • B.

      Furosemide & hydrochlorothiazide

    • C.

      Spironolactone & amiloride

    • D.

      Verapamil & hydrochlorothiazide

    Correct Answer
    B. Furosemide & hydrochlorothiazide
    Explanation
    Furosemide and hydrochlorothiazide are both diuretic medications that increase urine production, leading to fluid loss from the body. This fluid loss can result in dehydration. Additionally, both drugs can cause imbalances in electrolytes such as potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, furosemide and hydrochlorothiazide are the drugs that can cause dehydration, hypokalemia, and electrolyte imbalance.

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  • 23. 

    An adverse effect of loop diuretics is hyperuricemia (gout).  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, can lead to an increase in uric acid levels in the blood, which can result in hyperuricemia or gout. This occurs because loop diuretics inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of uric acid. As a result, uric acid levels can rise, potentially causing gout attacks in individuals who are predisposed to the condition. Therefore, the statement "An adverse effect of loop diuretics is hyperuricemia (gout)" is true.

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  • 24. 

    Which drugs have been proven beneficial post MI? (May choose more than one)  

    • A.

      Propranolol

    • B.

      Timolol

    • C.

      Metoprolol

    • D.

      Atenolol

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Propranolol
    B. Timolol
    C. Metoprolol
    D. Atenolol
    Explanation
    Propranolol, timolol, metoprolol, and atenolol have all been proven to be beneficial post myocardial infarction (MI). These drugs belong to a class called beta blockers, which work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart. By doing so, they reduce the workload on the heart and help to prevent further damage after an MI. These medications have been shown to improve survival rates, reduce the risk of recurrent heart attacks, and improve overall cardiac function in patients who have had an MI.

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  • 25. 

    When should you use Aggrenox?  

    • A.

      Secondary stroke prophylaxis

    • B.

      Post-stent placement

    • C.

      Primary prevention for patients who can not tolerate aspirin

    Correct Answer
    A. Secondary stroke prophylaxis
    Explanation
    Aggrenox should be used for secondary stroke prophylaxis. This means that it is used to prevent another stroke in individuals who have already experienced a stroke. It is not used for primary prevention or post-stent placement. Additionally, Aggrenox may be prescribed for patients who cannot tolerate aspirin.

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  • 26. 

    Which drug has a black box warning that PPIs may decrease their efficacy?  

    • A.

      Aggrenox

    • B.

      Clopidropgrel

    • C.

      Prasugrel

    • D.

      Ticagrelor

    Correct Answer
    B. Clopidropgrel
    Explanation
    Clopidropgrel is the correct answer because it is a drug that is commonly used in combination with proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for the prevention of blood clots. PPIs are known to decrease the effectiveness of clopidropgrel, which is why it has a black box warning. This warning is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of in order to avoid potential drug interactions and ensure the best treatment outcomes for patients.

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  • 27. 

    When should you use prasugrel?  

    • A.

      ACS & post-stent placement

    • B.

      Secondary stroke prophylaxis

    • C.

      PAD

    Correct Answer
    A. ACS & post-stent placement
    Explanation
    Prasugrel should be used in cases of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) and post-stent placement. ACS refers to a range of conditions that involve reduced blood flow to the heart, such as unstable angina or myocardial infarction. Prasugrel is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots from forming in the arteries, reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events. Post-stent placement refers to the use of prasugrel after a coronary stent has been inserted to keep the artery open and prevent restenosis. Prasugrel is not indicated for secondary stroke prophylaxis or peripheral artery disease (PAD).

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  • 28. 

    A 50 year old woman with HTN and hyperlipidemia should be taking a daily aspirin.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the recommendation for daily aspirin use in individuals with hypertension (HTN) and hyperlipidemia has changed over time. While aspirin was previously recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular events in this population, recent guidelines no longer recommend routine aspirin use due to the potential risks of bleeding outweighing the benefits. Therefore, a 50-year-old woman with HTN and hyperlipidemia should not be taking a daily aspirin unless specifically indicated by her healthcare provider.

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  • 29. 

    Which drug inhibits the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase in the liver?  

    • A.

      Colesevelam

    • B.

      Niacin

    • C.

      Ezetimibe

    • D.

      Simvastatin

    Correct Answer
    D. Simvastatin
    Explanation
    Simvastatin inhibits the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase in the liver. This enzyme is responsible for the production of cholesterol in the body. By inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase, simvastatin reduces the production of cholesterol, leading to lower levels of LDL (bad) cholesterol in the blood. Simvastatin is commonly prescribed to treat high cholesterol and reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases.

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  • 30. 

    What is the LDL goal in a patient with diabetes?  

    • A.

    • B.

    • C.

    Correct Answer
    A.
    Explanation
    The LDL goal in a patient with diabetes is to maintain a level below 100 mg/dL. This is because individuals with diabetes are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, and having high LDL cholesterol levels further increases this risk. Lowering LDL cholesterol can help reduce the risk of heart disease and stroke in diabetic patients.

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  • 31. 

    It is ok to drink grapefruit juice while on simvastatin.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    It is not okay to drink grapefruit juice while on simvastatin. Grapefruit juice can interact with simvastatin and increase the levels of the medication in the body, leading to a higher risk of side effects. It is recommended to avoid grapefruit juice while taking simvastatin to ensure the medication works effectively and safely.

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  • 32. 

    Digoxin has negative inotropic effects.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Digoxin actually has positive inotropic effects, not negative inotropic effects. Inotropic refers to the force of contraction of the heart muscle. Digoxin works by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, which increases intracellular calcium levels and enhances the force of myocardial contraction. This positive inotropic effect is one of the main therapeutic actions of digoxin in the treatment of heart failure and certain arrhythmias. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 33. 

    Which medication may decrease the intestinal absorption of fat soluble vitamins?  

    • A.

      Niacin

    • B.

      Ezetimibe

    • C.

      Colesevelam

    • D.

      Gemifibrozil

    Correct Answer
    C. Colesevelam
    Explanation
    Colesevelam is a medication that is known to decrease the intestinal absorption of fat soluble vitamins. This is because colesevelam works by binding to bile acids in the intestines, which can prevent the absorption of fat soluble vitamins such as vitamins A, D, E, and K. By reducing the absorption of these vitamins, colesevelam can potentially lead to deficiencies if not supplemented appropriately.

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  • 34. 

    Which drug is used to treat digoxin toxicity?  

    • A.

      K+ supplements & digibind

    • B.

      Digibind & Calcium

    • C.

      Magnesium

    • D.

      CBB

    Correct Answer
    A. K+ supplements & digibind
    Explanation
    K+ supplements and digibind are used to treat digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity occurs when there is an excessive amount of digoxin in the body, which can lead to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and irregular heart rhythm. K+ supplements help to restore potassium levels in the body, as digoxin can cause low potassium levels. Digibind, on the other hand, is an antidote that binds to digoxin and helps to remove it from the body, reducing its toxic effects. Therefore, the combination of K+ supplements and digibind is effective in treating digoxin toxicity.

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  • 35. 

    CCB, especially diltiazem & verapamil are safe to use in CHF.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    CCBs (calcium channel blockers), including diltiazem and verapamil, are generally contraindicated in patients with congestive heart failure (CHF). These medications can worsen heart failure symptoms by causing negative inotropic effects (reducing the strength of heart contractions) and slowing down heart rate. Therefore, it is not safe to use CCBs, including diltiazem and verapamil, in patients with CHF.

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  • 36. 

    Digoxin should be started as soon as a patient is diagnosed with CHF.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Starting digoxin as soon as a patient is diagnosed with CHF is not necessary or recommended. Digoxin is a medication used to treat heart failure, but its use should be based on the individual patient's symptoms and clinical presentation. The decision to start digoxin should be made after considering other factors such as the severity of symptoms, response to other treatments, and the presence of other comorbidities. Therefore, it is not necessary to start digoxin immediately upon diagnosis of CHF.

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  • 37. 

    Which statements are true?  

    • A.

      Digoxin has not been shown to reduce mortality but can improve symptoms in some patients.

    • B.

      Diuretics should not be use in patients with CHF.

    • C.

      Carvedilol, bisoprolol and metoprolol have been proven beneficial in CHF management.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Digoxin has not been shown to reduce mortality but can improve symptoms in some patients.
    C. Carvedilol, bisoprolol and metoprolol have been proven beneficial in CHF management.
    Explanation
    Digoxin has not been shown to reduce mortality but can improve symptoms in some patients. This means that while digoxin may not prolong a patient's life, it can help alleviate their symptoms and improve their quality of life. Carvedilol, bisoprolol, and metoprolol have been proven beneficial in CHF management, indicating that these medications have shown positive effects in treating and managing congestive heart failure.

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  • 38. 

    Nitrates are vasodilators.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Nitrates are indeed vasodilators, meaning they widen or dilate blood vessels. This is because nitrates are converted into nitric oxide in the body, which then relaxes and widens the blood vessels, allowing for increased blood flow. This vasodilatory effect is why nitrates are commonly used in the treatment of conditions such as angina, heart failure, and high blood pressure.

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  • 39. 

    What are the adverse effects of nitrates?

    • A.

      Tachycardia, & HTN

    • B.

      Muscle myopathy

    • C.

      Orthostatic hypotension, flushing, headache & venous pooling

    Correct Answer
    C. Orthostatic hypotension, flushing, headache & venous pooling
    Explanation
    Nitrates can cause several adverse effects. Orthostatic hypotension refers to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up, leading to dizziness and fainting. Flushing refers to a sudden reddening of the skin, often accompanied by a warm sensation. Headache is a common side effect of nitrates. Venous pooling occurs when blood accumulates in the veins, leading to swelling and discomfort. These adverse effects can occur due to the vasodilatory effects of nitrates, which relax and widen blood vessels. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and muscle myopathy (muscle weakness or disease) are not typically associated with nitrates.

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  • 40. 

    Spironolactone decreases mortality rates in stage III & IV heart failure.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Spironolactone is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called aldosterone antagonists. It works by blocking the effects of aldosterone, a hormone that can cause fluid retention and other negative effects in individuals with heart failure. Several clinical trials have shown that spironolactone can reduce mortality rates in patients with stage III and IV heart failure. Therefore, the statement that spironolactone decreases mortality rates in stage III and IV heart failure is true.

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  • 41. 

    Beta blockers should be used in patients with variant angina attacks.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Beta blockers should not be used in patients with variant angina attacks. Variant angina, also known as Prinzmetal's angina, is caused by coronary artery spasm rather than atherosclerosis. Beta blockers can potentially worsen coronary artery spasm and therefore should be avoided in these patients. Other medications like calcium channel blockers are preferred for the treatment of variant angina attacks.

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  • 42. 

    Which drug can be given during pregnancy?  

    • A.

      ACE-I

    • B.

      ARBS

    • C.

      Statins

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    None of the drugs mentioned (ACE-I, ARBS, Statins) are considered safe to be given during pregnancy. ACE-I and ARBS are known to cause harm to the developing fetus and are contraindicated in pregnancy. Statins are also contraindicated as they can cause birth defects. Therefore, none of these drugs should be given during pregnancy.

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  • 43. 

    What are risk factors for CHF?  

    • A.

      Coronary artery disease

    • B.

      MI

    • C.

      Uncontrolled HTN

    • D.

      Renal failure

    • E.

      High HDL

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Coronary artery disease
    B. MI
    C. Uncontrolled HTN
    D. Renal failure
    Explanation
    The risk factors for congestive heart failure (CHF) include coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction (MI), uncontrolled hypertension (HTN), and renal failure. These conditions can contribute to the development and progression of CHF by causing damage to the heart muscle, reducing its ability to pump blood effectively. Coronary artery disease and MI can lead to the formation of blockages in the arteries that supply blood to the heart, while uncontrolled HTN can strain the heart and lead to its enlargement. Renal failure can also contribute to CHF by causing fluid retention and increasing the workload on the heart. High HDL, on the other hand, is not a risk factor for CHF.

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  • 44. 

    What are the adverse effects of digoxin?  

    • A.

      N/V & loss of appetite

    • B.

      Fatigue, weakness, neuralgia, delirium

    • C.

      Blurred vision, haloes, photophobia, red-green or yellow-green tinted vision

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions. It can have several adverse effects on the body. These include nausea and vomiting, loss of appetite, fatigue, weakness, neuralgia (nerve pain), delirium, blurred vision, seeing haloes around objects, sensitivity to light (photophobia), and experiencing a red-green or yellow-green tint in vision. Therefore, all of the options listed above are potential adverse effects of digoxin.

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  • 45. 

    NSAIDS can worsen CHF  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    NSAIDs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) can worsen CHF (congestive heart failure) because they can cause fluid retention and decrease the effectiveness of diuretics, which are commonly used to manage CHF symptoms. Additionally, NSAIDs can also increase blood pressure and put extra strain on the heart, leading to further deterioration of heart function in individuals with CHF. Therefore, it is important for individuals with CHF to avoid or use NSAIDs cautiously under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

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  • 46. 

    Thiazide and loop diuretics can be used together.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Thiazide and loop diuretics can be used together because they have different mechanisms of action and target different parts of the kidney. Thiazide diuretics work on the distal convoluted tubule to inhibit sodium reabsorption, while loop diuretics work on the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and water reabsorption. Combining these two types of diuretics can lead to a more potent diuretic effect and can be beneficial in certain clinical situations, such as in patients with resistant edema or congestive heart failure.

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  • 47. 

    Which drug can cause ototoxicity?  

    • A.

      HCTZ

    • B.

      Furosemide

    • C.

      Spironolactone

    • D.

      Amiloride

    Correct Answer
    B. Furosemide
    Explanation
    Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used to treat conditions such as edema and hypertension. One of the potential side effects of furosemide is ototoxicity, which refers to damage to the inner ear and resulting hearing loss or balance problems. Ototoxicity can occur due to the drug's impact on the delicate structures of the inner ear, specifically the hair cells responsible for transmitting sound signals to the brain. Therefore, furosemide is known to have the potential to cause ototoxicity.

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  • 48. 

    Which drugs should be used in chronic exertional angina?  

    • A.

      CCB

    • B.

      Beta blockers

    • C.

      Nitrates

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Chronic exertional angina is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort that occurs during physical activity or exertion. The goal of treatment is to relieve symptoms and reduce the frequency and severity of angina episodes. CCBs (calcium channel blockers) help relax and widen the blood vessels, reducing the workload on the heart. Beta blockers help decrease the heart rate and blood pressure, reducing the demand for oxygen by the heart. Nitrates help dilate the blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Therefore, all of the mentioned drugs (CCBs, beta blockers, and nitrates) can be used in the treatment of chronic exertional angina.

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  • 49. 

    Patients with chronic exertional angina should be told to stop smoking, exercise & avoid excessive alcohol use.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Patients with chronic exertional angina should be told to stop smoking, exercise, and avoid excessive alcohol use because these lifestyle modifications can help improve their condition. Smoking can constrict blood vessels and decrease oxygen supply to the heart, while exercise can help strengthen the heart and improve blood flow. Excessive alcohol use can also have negative effects on the heart and worsen symptoms. Therefore, it is important for patients with chronic exertional angina to make these changes to reduce the risk of complications and improve their overall health.

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  • 50. 

    Concurrent use of fibrates and statins increases the risk of muscle myopathy.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The concurrent use of fibrates and statins increases the risk of muscle myopathy. This is because both fibrates and statins can cause muscle-related side effects, such as muscle pain, weakness, and inflammation. When used together, these medications can potentiate each other's effects and further increase the risk of muscle myopathy. Therefore, it is important to monitor patients closely and consider alternative treatment options if necessary.

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