Cardiac Pharmacology Hardest Quiz: Trivia!

55 Questions | Total Attempts: 449

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Cardiac Pharmacology Hardest Quiz: Trivia!

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What happens when you stimulate beta 1 receptors?
    • A. 

      Bronchodilation

    • B. 

      Urinary retention

    • C. 

      Increase HR, increase AV conduction velocity & increase force of contraction

    • D. 

      Stimulation decreases further norepinephrine release

  • 2. 
    What happens when you stimulate alpha 2 receptors?  
    • A. 

      Decreases further norepinephrine release

    • B. 

      Urinary retention, pupil dilation, vasoconstriction in vessels of skin, mucous membranes & most organs

    • C. 

      Increase HR, AV velocity conduction, and force of contraction

    • D. 

      Relaxation of uterine muscles

  • 3. 
    What happens when you stimulate the beta 2 receptors?  
    • A. 

      Decrease further norepinephrine release

    • B. 

      Increase liver sugar production, vasodilation in vessels of skeletal muscles, lungs, & heart, relaxation of uterine muscles

    • C. 

      Urinary retention

    • D. 

      Increase HR, AV conduction velocity & force of contraction

  • 4. 
    What happens when you stimulate the alpha 1 receptors?
    • A. 

      Increase in HR, AV conduction velocity & force of contraction

    • B. 

      Bronchodilation

    • C. 

      Pupil dilation, urinary retention

    • D. 

      Decrease further release of norepinephrine

  • 5. 
    What is the antidote for insecticide/pesticide/nerve gas poisoning?  
    • A. 

      2-PAM & atropine

    • B. 

      2-PAM & bethanecol

    • C. 

      Donepezil & 2-PAM

  • 6. 
    Tachycardia is an anticholinergic side effect.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    Salivation & diarrhea are anticholinergic side effects.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 8. 
    What disease would you use a muscarinic antagonist to treat?    
    • A. 

      Alzheimers

    • B. 

      HTN

    • C. 

      GERD

    • D. 

      Diarrhea

  • 9. 
    Adrenergic Agonists may cause reflex bradycardia with increased blood pressure.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    What is theof  goal BP in patients with a prior MI?  
    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 11. 
    What is the goal of BP in patients with no comorbid conditions?  
    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 12. 
    Abrupt withdraw of clonidine can cause rebound HTN.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 13. 
    Cardiac doses of ASA are associated with increased blood pressure, fluid retention, and renal impairment.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    Prazosin is 
    • A. 

      Alpha 1 blocker

    • B. 

      Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist

    • C. 

      Cardioselective beta 1 blocker

    • D. 

      Non-selective beta blocker

  • 15. 
    Which are the key drugs for managing hypertension?  
    • A. 

      ARB's

    • B. 

      Beta Blockers

    • C. 

      ACE-Inhibitors

  • 16. 
    Which CCB does not have negative inotropic effects?  
    • A. 

      Amlodipine

    • B. 

      Diltiazem

    • C. 

      Felodipine

  • 17. 
    When prescribing a test dose of an ACE-I, which drug do you use?  
    • A. 

      Lisinopril

    • B. 

      Enalapril

    • C. 

      Ramipril

    • D. 

      Captopril

  • 18. 
    ACE-I should not be given to patients with renal failure.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 19. 
    All CCB, but especially verapamil cause constipation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    Spironolactone can cause hypokalemia.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 21. 
    Furosemide is a loop diuretic.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    Which drugs can cause dehydration, hypokalemia & electrolyte imbalance?  
    • A. 

      Furosemide & spironolactone

    • B. 

      Furosemide & hydrochlorothiazide

    • C. 

      Spironolactone & amiloride

    • D. 

      Verapamil & hydrochlorothiazide

  • 23. 
    An adverse effect of loop diuretics is hyperuricemia (gout).  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 24. 
    Which drugs have been proven beneficial post MI? (May choose more than one)  
    • A. 

      Propranolol

    • B. 

      Timolol

    • C. 

      Metoprolol

    • D. 

      Atenolol

  • 25. 
    When should you use Aggrenox?  
    • A. 

      Secondary stroke prophylaxis

    • B. 

      Post-stent placement

    • C. 

      Primary prevention for patients who can not tolerate aspirin